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  • Question 1 - You are asked to visit a 45-year-old construction worker at his worksite. He...

    Correct

    • You are asked to visit a 45-year-old construction worker at his worksite. He is known to drink five cans of beer per day and a number of shots of whiskey whilst socializing with his colleagues after work. His supervisor is concerned as he has become lethargic, confused and has taken to sitting down frequently.
      On examination he has nystagmus, is restless and disorientated. He has edema, but his abdomen doesn't appear tense and he is afebrile. You get him to walk and he has truncal ataxia.
      You think he should be admitted to hospital. How should he be treated?

      Your Answer: Thiamine replacement

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy in Alcoholism

      Sudden deterioration in alcoholism can be caused by alcohol withdrawal or acute infection, such as spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. However, if confusion, nystagmus, and truncal ataxia are present, Wernicke’s encephalopathy should be considered. Thiamine replacement is crucial to prevent the development of Korsakoff’s psychosis, which can result in permanent short-term memory impairment. It is important to recognize and treat Wernicke’s encephalopathy promptly to prevent long-term neurological damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 2 - A 60-year-old woman is looking to discontinue her lorazepam 0.5 mg twice daily...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman is looking to discontinue her lorazepam 0.5 mg twice daily dosage. She has been taking it for severe anxiety symptoms since a traumatic event five years ago. She attempted to stop taking it on her own but experienced intense anxiety symptoms. What is the recommended approach for tapering off lorazepam?

      Your Answer: Gradually reduce the dose of lorazepam by increasing the interval between doses then stop after four weeks

      Correct Answer: Change from lorazepam to diazepam in stages, then slowly reduce the dose of diazepam in very small stages over about three months.

      Explanation:

      Switching from Short-Acting to Long-Acting Benzodiazepines

      Short-acting benzodiazepines should be replaced with longer-acting preparations to minimize the risk of withdrawal symptoms. The process of withdrawal should be gradual and guided by the patient. To begin, patients should be gradually switched to diazepam, with the reduction process taking between three months and a year. The details of withdrawal will vary depending on the drugs and doses used, but the general principle remains the same. By taking these steps, patients can safely transition to longer-acting benzodiazepines and avoid the negative effects of withdrawal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 3 - A 31-year-old man persistently misuses alcohol. The Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA)...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old man persistently misuses alcohol. The Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA) require driving licence (Group 1) revocation or refusal until a minimum 6-month period of controlled drinking or abstinence has been attained.
      Which of the following is the correct statement regarding the DVLA regulations in these circumstances?

      Your Answer: Revocation can be delayed if he is having treatment

      Correct Answer: Seeking medical or other advice is a prerequisite of regaining his licence

      Explanation:

      Alcohol Misuse and Driving: DVLA Guidelines

      The Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA) defines alcohol misuse as a state that results in disturbed behavior, related diseases, or other consequences due to alcohol consumption. This state is likely to cause harm to the patient, their family, or society, and may or may not be associated with dependence. A diagnosis by a General Practitioner is enough to confirm persistent alcohol misuse, which is also indicated by abnormal blood markers.

      It is the patient’s duty to inform the DVLA and seek advice from medical or other sources during the period off the road. A minimum of one year of controlled drinking or abstinence is required, and any abnormal blood parameters must return to normal. For drivers of Group 2 vehicles, the required period of abstinence is three years. These guidelines aim to ensure the safety of all road users and prevent accidents caused by alcohol misuse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 4 - You are conducting an interview with a 35-year-old man who has increased his...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting an interview with a 35-year-old man who has increased his alcohol consumption after a recent breakup. According to NICE recommendations, what is the most suitable method to screen for alcohol dependence and harmful drinking?

      Your Answer: Combination of MCV and gamma GT blood test

      Correct Answer: AUDIT questionnaire

      Explanation:

      According to the Clinical Knowledge Summaries from NICE, it is recommended to utilize formal assessment tools to evaluate the extent and seriousness of alcohol misuse. This includes utilizing the AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test) as a routine measure for identification purposes. This can assist in determining whether a brief intervention is necessary and, if so, what type of intervention is appropriate. In situations where time is limited, it is recommended to use a shortened version of the AUDIT, such as the AUDIT-C (AUDIT-Consumption), and then follow up with the complete questionnaire if problem drinking is indicated.

      Alcohol Problem Drinking: Detection and Assessment

      Alcohol problem drinking can have serious consequences on an individual’s health and well-being. Therefore, it is important to detect and assess alcohol consumption to identify those who may need intervention. Screening tools such as AUDIT, FAST, and CAGE can be used to identify hazardous or harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol dependence.

      AUDIT is a 10-item questionnaire that takes about 2-3 minutes to complete. It has been shown to be superior to CAGE and biochemical markers for predicting alcohol problems. A score of 8 or more in men, and 7 or more in women, indicates a strong likelihood of hazardous or harmful alcohol consumption. A score of 15 or more in men, and 13 or more in women, is likely to indicate alcohol dependence. AUDIT-C is an abbreviated form consisting of 3 questions.

      FAST is a 4-item questionnaire that can quickly identify hazardous drinking. The score for hazardous drinking is 3 or more. Over 50% of people will be classified using just the first question, which asks how often the individual has had eight or more drinks on one occasion (six or more for women).

      CAGE is a well-known screening tool, but recent research has questioned its value. Two or more positive answers are generally considered a ‘positive’ result. The questions ask about feeling the need to cut down on drinking, being annoyed by criticism of drinking, feeling guilty about drinking, and having a drink in the morning to get rid of a hangover.

      To diagnose alcohol dependence, the ICD-10 definition requires three or more of the following: compulsion to drink, difficulties controlling alcohol consumption, physiological withdrawal, tolerance to alcohol, neglect of alternative activities to drinking, and persistent use of alcohol despite evidence of harm.

      Overall, screening and assessment tools can help identify individuals who may need intervention for alcohol problem drinking. It is important to use these tools to promote early detection and intervention to prevent further harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 5 - What is a common symptom of delirium tremens? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a common symptom of delirium tremens?

      Your Answer: Visual hallucinations

      Correct Answer: Dyspnoea

      Explanation:

      Understanding Visual Hallucinations

      Visual hallucinations are a common symptom that individuals may experience. These hallucinations involve seeing things that are not actually present in the environment. While visual hallucinations are typical, experiencing other symptoms alongside them would be unusual. It is important to seek medical attention if you are experiencing visual hallucinations or any other unusual symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 6 - A 40-year-old alcoholic man is brought to the Emergency Department because of tremor,...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old alcoholic man is brought to the Emergency Department because of tremor, agitation, confusion, visual and auditory hallucinations, fever, sweating, and tachycardia and hypertension. His partner reports that he has not had any alcohol for about four days.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Major alcohol withdrawal symptoms (hallucinosis)

      Correct Answer: Delirium tremens

      Explanation:

      Alcohol Withdrawal and Related Complications

      Alcohol withdrawal can lead to various complications, including delirium tremens, major alcohol withdrawal symptoms (hallucinosis), Korsakoff psychosis, and Wernicke’s encephalopathy. Delirium tremens is the most severe manifestation of alcohol withdrawal, characterized by agitation, confusion, disorientation, hallucinations, fever, hypertension, perspiration, and autonomic hyperactivity. Major alcohol withdrawal symptoms, also known as alcoholic hallucinosis, include visual and auditory hallucinations, whole body tremor, vomiting, perspiration, and hypertension. Korsakoff psychosis is a permanent brain damage caused by untreated Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which is a neuropsychiatric complication resulting from thiamine deficiency that occurs frequently in people with chronic alcohol dependence. It is crucial to have a high index of suspicion for Wernicke’s encephalopathy as the classic triad of confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia is only present in about 10% of cases. While some of these features may be present in a patient with pneumonia, a cough and chest signs are typically present in such cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 7 - You are concerned that alcohol seems to form a big part of a...

    Incorrect

    • You are concerned that alcohol seems to form a big part of a student's life. Although you have never observed any drinking while they are studying, there are often frequent references to it. They say it is just a reward to start winding down after classes. There have been no obvious problems with their academic performance. You are aware there is a fine-wine cellar at home. The only time you have witnessed drunkenness is late at night at parties when your student is with hard-drinking friends. There have been episodes of abstinence in the past – often very public, and once involving sponsorship.

      Which of the following principles is APPLICABLE in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Alcohol abuse is incompatible with proper functioning as a doctor

      Correct Answer: Suggesting that drinking at the end of a hard day is a just reward may be a form of denial

      Explanation:

      Myths and Misconceptions about Alcohol Abuse in the Medical Field

      1. Drinking at the end of a hard day is a just reward. This common explanation for excessive alcohol consumption may be a form of denial and can lead to dependence on alcohol to relieve stress or difficult emotions.

      2. Alcohol abuse is incompatible with proper functioning as a doctor. While alcohol abuse can certainly have negative effects on a doctor’s performance, some individuals with alcohol dependence may not show signs of the problem in their workplace.

      3. Becoming drunk in the presence of other heavy-drinking medical colleagues doesn’t suggest an alcohol problem. Any form of alcohol abuse is still abuse, regardless of the setting or company in which it takes place.

      4. Having been able to give up alcohol on several occasions demonstrates an ability to control alcohol consumption. Briefly giving up alcohol doesn’t necessarily demonstrate control, as evidenced by the fact that the individual in question resumed drinking.

      5. People who drink expensive wines and spirits are not abusers of alcohol. Alcohol abuse can occur with any type of alcohol, and it is the quantity and pattern of consumption that are important factors to consider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 8 - A 42-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) for a consultation. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) for a consultation. He has a history of substance abuse and is starting opioid substitution therapy. He is worried about relapsing and asks several specific questions.
      What is the most probable factor that could raise the risk of overdose during methadone titration at the beginning of this patient's treatment?

      Your Answer: High opioid tolerance

      Correct Answer: Concurrent use of other drugs

      Explanation:

      When prescribing methadone for opioid abuse, caution must be taken to avoid overdose, especially in the first 2-3 days and within the first two weeks of treatment. Concurrent use of other drugs, such as alcohol, benzodiazepines, and antidepressants, can increase the risk of overdose. Patients with low opioid tolerance, shorter history of drug use, or lower levels of drug use are also at higher risk. To mitigate this risk, starting doses of 10-20 mg of methadone should be used, with increases of 5-10 mg a day and a maximum of 30 mg a week for the first 2 weeks. Methadone is excreted slowly during the first few days of treatment, which increases the risk of overdose. Frequent review and monitoring is important during this period. Methadone patients should also be informed of the increasing effect of a dose as steady state is achieved. Co-existing mental health problems may also respond to appropriate methadone dosing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 9 - The husband of one of your elderly patients attends surgery because she is...

    Incorrect

    • The husband of one of your elderly patients attends surgery because she is concerned about her husband's heavy alcohol consumption.

      She explains that he drinks himself to a stupor every day and probably consumes at least a bottle of wine a day, although she suspects that he supplements that secretly when she is not around because his breath often smells of alcohol in the morning. This has been happening for many years and he refuses to see you about it.

      Following an argument the previous night, when she threatened to leave him unless he recognised the problem, he has agreed to stop drinking completely. His wife is worried about him having the DTs and asks you about this.

      On average, how long does it take for delirium tremens (DTs) to develop following complete cessation of drinking?

      Your Answer: 12-24 hours

      Correct Answer: 48-96 hours

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alcohol Withdrawal Symptoms

      Alcohol withdrawal symptoms can manifest in different ways depending on the severity of the addiction. DTs or delirium tremens usually occur 2-4 days after stopping drinking and are characterized by severe agitation, confusion, and hallucinations. On the other hand, tremulousness or withdrawal convulsions can occur during a drinking spree or within a few hours of cessation. Alcoholic hallucinosis, which is characterized by auditory hallucinations, can occur over days or weeks. However, it is less severe than DTs.

      Admission to a medical facility for appropriate sedation, nursing support, and thiamine replacement is necessary to manage the symptoms and prevent complications. Understanding the different alcohol withdrawal symptoms can help you identify when someone needs medical attention and provide the necessary support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old man visits his General Practitioner requesting help with smoking cessation. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man visits his General Practitioner requesting help with smoking cessation. He is fit and well and takes no regular medications. He has smoked 20 cigarettes per day for the last six years and has never previously tried to stop smoking.
      What is the most appropriate advice you can give this patient?

      Your Answer: Begin using Bupropion

      Correct Answer: Undergo nicotine replacement therapy (NRT)

      Explanation:

      Options for Smoking Cessation: A Brief Overview

      Smoking cessation is a challenging but important goal for many individuals. There are several options available to aid in this process, including nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), bupropion, cutting down gradually, e-cigarettes, and varenicline.

      NRT has been shown to be effective in increasing success rates by 50-60%, especially when combined with behavioral support. There is no evidence that any one type of NRT is superior to others, but caution should be exercised in certain populations. Bupropion is effective but not recommended for those under 18 or with certain medical conditions. Cutting down gradually is not an effective strategy for smoking cessation. E-cigarettes may be a safer alternative, but long-term evidence is lacking. Varenicline is effective but not recommended for those under 18 or with end-stage renal disease, and caution should be exercised in certain populations.

      Ultimately, the best approach to smoking cessation will depend on individual circumstances and preferences. Consulting with a healthcare provider can help determine the most appropriate option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 11 - What is the third symptom of cognitive impairment that is part of the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the third symptom of cognitive impairment that is part of the triad characterising Korsakoff's psychosis, along with loss of recent memory and disordered time appreciation?

      Your Answer: Confabulation

      Correct Answer: Cocktail party speech

      Explanation:

      Korsakoff’s Psychosis and Cocktail Party Speech

      Korsakoff’s psychosis is a condition that can cause difficulty in memorizing new events. It is often associated with alcoholism, but it can also result from head injury, cerebral hypoxia, tumor, or encephalitis. One of the characteristic symptoms of Korsakoff’s psychosis is retrograde amnesia, which is the loss of memory for events before the onset of the illness.

      On the other hand, cocktail party speech is a phenomenon that can be observed in some children with congenital syndromes that have learning difficulties. These children can engage in small talk on various topics, but they struggle when faced with more complex communication tasks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 12 - A 68-year-old woman is treated with oral trimethoprim for a urinary tract infection....

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman is treated with oral trimethoprim for a urinary tract infection. Her creatinine was checked on the first day of therapy and found to be 122 μmol/l; after five days her renal function is re-assessed and the creatinine has risen to 142 μmol/l.
      Which of the following is the reason for this?

      Your Answer: Antagonism of the distal tubular epithelial sodium channel

      Correct Answer: Competitive inhibition of creatinine secretion

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Mechanism of Trimethoprim-Induced Rise in Serum Creatinine

      Trimethoprim, a commonly used antibiotic, can cause a self-limiting and reversible rise in serum creatinine without affecting the true glomerular filtration rate (GFR). This is due to its competitive inhibition of creatinine secretion by the organic cation secretory pump. Other drugs that interfere with creatinine secretion, such as cimetidine, can also cause a similar effect. It is important to note that trimethoprim doesn’t directly affect renal blood flow, sodium and water excretion, or the distal tubular epithelial sodium channel. Understanding the mechanism of this rise in serum creatinine can help clinicians avoid unnecessary concern and prevent misinterpretation of renal function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 13 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the General Practice Surgery complaining of a one-week...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the General Practice Surgery complaining of a one-week history of fever, malaise, a generalised rash and a sore throat. During the examination, there is an erythematous rash affecting the entire body and generalised lymphadenopathy. She confesses to a history of intravenous drug use. What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Syphilis

      Correct Answer: Human Immunodeficieny Virus (HIV)

      Explanation:

      HIV, glandular fever, measles, rubella, and syphilis are all infectious diseases with distinct symptoms and modes of transmission. HIV is more common among at-risk groups such as intravenous drug users, men who have sex with men, and sex workers. Glandular fever is caused by Epstein-Barr Virus and is common in young adult populations. Measles and rubella are RNA viruses transmitted by respiratory droplet spread, with measles being uncommon in the UK due to vaccination rates. Syphilis is a treponemal infection with distinct stages, but is not associated with drug use and doesn’t present with prominent systemic features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 14 - A 23-year-old bus driver is brought to see you by his girlfriend to...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old bus driver is brought to see you by his girlfriend to discuss his mood swings.

      In the course of the consultation it becomes clear that he has been using ketamine regularly for over a year, although he tells you that he only uses at weekends when he is not working.

      You have no evidence from him or his girlfriend that his driving is impaired. You tell him that he has a duty to inform DVLA. He wants to know if this will have any implications for him.

      What advice should you give him?

      Your Answer: He will not be allowed to drive until he has attained a two year period free of ketamine usage

      Correct Answer: He will not be allowed to drive a bus until he has attained a twelve month period free of ketamine usage

      Explanation:

      DVLA Restrictions on Driving with Substance Misuse

      In this scenario, it is important to consider several pieces of information. Firstly, the patient is a regular user of a substance, and the DVLA restrictions apply to those who have a persistent use or dependency on such substances, confirmed by medical enquiry. Secondly, the substance in question is ketamine, which has been added to the DVLA list of drugs considered under Drug misuse and dependency. It is in the same category as cannabis, ecstasy, amphetamines, LSD, and hallucinogens. Thirdly, the DVLA guidance for Group one entitlement is different from Group two entitlement.

      In this case, the patient is driving a bus and must hold a Group two entitlement license. If a Group two holder is using ketamine regularly, the revised guidance from DVLA is that persistent use or dependency on these substances will lead to refusal or revocation of a vocational license for a minimum one-year period free of such has been attained. Independent medical assessment by DVLA will normally be required. If the patient only held a Group one entitlement, the minimum time their license would have been revoked would have been six months. If they had been regularly using opiates or misusing benzodiazepines, their Group two license would have been revoked for a minimum of three years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 15 - A 42-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner seeking opioid substitution therapy to...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner seeking opioid substitution therapy to alleviate withdrawal symptoms and ultimately quit illicit drug use, including opioids. The GP conducts an initial evaluation.
      What is the initial step to take in managing this patient?
      Select ONE choice only.

      Your Answer: Advise that the programme will be stopped if illicit drugs are also used

      Correct Answer: Check liver function tests

      Explanation:

      Managing Opioid Substitution Treatment: Key Considerations

      Opioid substitution treatment (OST) is a crucial component of managing opioid addiction. However, there are several important considerations that healthcare providers must keep in mind when prescribing and managing OST. Here are some key points to keep in mind:

      1. Check liver function tests: Before prescribing methadone or buprenorphine, it is important to check liver function tests to ensure that the patient doesn’t have decompensated liver failure, which is a relative contraindication to OST.

      2. Advise against alcohol use: Patients should be advised that they cannot have opioid substitution until they have stopped drinking alcohol. However, maintenance or detoxification from illicit substances and alcohol can occur concurrently.

      3. Don’t stop medication abruptly: If a dosage is missed, prescribing should not be stopped immediately. Instead, the patient should be informed that missed doses will be reported to the pharmacist, and that abrupt cessation of medication can lead to withdrawal and a return to illicit substance use.

      4. Address illicit drug use: Patients should be informed that the OST programme will be stopped if they continue to use illicit drugs. However, healthcare providers should continue to work with patients on other drug use, alcohol use, psychological interventions, and any health and social needs, even if a relapse into illicit drugs occurs while on a reduction regimen.

      5. Initiate medication as soon as possible: Starting medication (methadone or buprenorphine) is important and occasionally urgent, and it needs to be initiated as rapidly as it can safely be done to avoid patients dropping out of treatment. However, starting substitute medication on the first presentation is often not possible, as results of investigations such as a toxicology screen often take several days to return.

      By keeping these considerations in mind, healthcare providers can effectively manage OST and help patients on the path to recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 16 - A 52-year-old homeless woman with an illicit drug use problem requests detoxification in...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old homeless woman with an illicit drug use problem requests detoxification in the community.
      Which of the following factors would make community detoxification difficult in this case?

      Your Answer: If the patient wants to reduce her use of illicit drugs, but not stop completely

      Correct Answer: A previous community detoxification attempt failed

      Explanation:

      Community Detoxification: Considerations and Options

      Community detoxification is often the preferred option for patients seeking to reduce or eliminate their use of illicit drugs. However, there are certain factors that may make inpatient detoxification more appropriate, such as previous failed attempts at community detoxification, significant social problems, complex drug use, or physical comorbidities. Concurrent abuse of alcohol is a common issue, but it doesn’t necessarily prevent a patient from entering an opioid-reduction program. While complete detoxification should be the ultimate goal, any reduction in drug or alcohol use is a positive step. Homelessness can present challenges, but it is not a barrier to community detoxification, as pharmacies can work with detoxification teams to provide prescriptions. When it comes to medication-assisted detoxification, both methadone and buprenorphine are effective options. Ultimately, the choice between community and inpatient detoxification, as well as the specific treatment approach, should be based on the individual patient’s needs and circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with needle marks on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with needle marks on his arms, looking underweight and unwell. He admits to drug abuse and is febrile with shivering, but no localising symptoms are evident. What is the most probable cause of this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Urinary tract infection

      Correct Answer: Infective endocarditis

      Explanation:

      Endocarditis in Intravenous Drug Abusers: A Common Cause of Pyrexia of Unknown Origin

      Pyrexia of unknown origin (PUO) can be caused by various factors, but in intravenous drug abusers without localizing symptoms, infective endocarditis should be considered a strong possibility. This may be the only sign of endocarditis in such patients, making diagnosis difficult and requiring a high index of suspicion. Tricuspid valve involvement is common, and a murmur may be absent due to the small pressure gradient across this valve. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common infecting organism, and many patients also have Human Immunodeficiency Virus infection, which can also cause PUO. Pulmonary manifestations are often seen in patients with tricuspid valve infection, including pleuritic pain, lung abscess, and radiographic changes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 18 - A 55-year-old man is brought to his General Practitioner by his daughter, who...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is brought to his General Practitioner by his daughter, who is concerned about his memory. He has no recollection of recent or distant events, but responds to every question with a very detailed, yet incorrect, answer.

      Upon examination, he displays ataxia and nystagmus. He has not visited a doctor in over 25 years, doesn't take any regular medication, and has consumed eight pints of beer per night for the past 35 years.

      What is the most probable deficiency causing this presentation? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Vitamin B12

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B1

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from Korsakoff syndrome, a condition caused by a deficiency of vitamin B1 (thiamine). This syndrome is a late manifestation of untreated Wernicke’s encephalopathy and is characterized by mental confusion, ataxia, ophthalmoplegia, anterograde and retrograde amnesia, and confabulation. It is most common in people in their fifties and sixties and is caused by alcoholism or other factors such as chronic subdural hematoma, nutritional stress, AIDS, hyperemesis gravidarum, thyrotoxicosis, long-term dialysis, or congestive heart failure. Urgent medical assessment and admission for parenteral thiamine is necessary, as it can be fatal if left untreated. Zinc deficiency, on the other hand, is characterized by symptoms such as anorexia, lethargy, diarrhea, growth restriction, impaired immune function, delayed sexual maturation, learning disability, weight loss, and macular degeneration. It is not related to memory or cognitive problems, ataxia, or nystagmus. Vitamin B2 deficiency is more common in vegetarians, vegans, pregnant women, or young children and is thought to have a role in migraines. Vitamin B12 deficiency causes symptoms such as cognitive and memory disturbance, headaches, dyspepsia, loss of appetite, palpitations, visual disturbance, weakness and lethargy, angina, optic neuropathy, symmetrical neuropathy affecting the legs more than the arms, and a megaloblastic anemia. Vitamin E deficiency is rare in healthy people and is strongly associated with conditions affecting absorption, such as Crohn’s disease or cystic fibrosis. However, this patient’s history of alcohol excess makes thiamine deficiency much more likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with complaints of nausea, headache...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with complaints of nausea, headache and difficulty sleeping over the past few days. She has been experiencing moderate symptoms of depression without any suicidal ideation. She is employed as a nurse and resides with her husband and 12-year-old daughter who are supportive. She doesn't consume alcohol. She commenced taking sertraline 50 mg daily five days ago but has not observed any improvement in her mood.

      What is the best course of action for managing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Stop sertraline and review in one week

      Correct Answer: Continue sertraline at 50 mg daily

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Depression: Sertraline and Alternatives

      When treating depression with sertraline, it is important to understand the common side-effects, which include headache, insomnia, nausea, and diarrhea. These side-effects are usually mild and resolve within three weeks. Improvement in mood is expected 4-6 weeks after starting medication, so not noticing improvement after one week is normal. It is recommended to continue sertraline at the current dose and review in 3-5 weeks, increasing the dose if there has been a partial improvement or considering changing to an alternative antidepressant if there has been no improvement.

      If there has been no improvement after 4-6 weeks, switching to an alternative SSRI, such as citalopram, may be indicated. If two SSRIs have failed to achieve a good response, or if there are contraindications for SSRIs, a selective noradrenaline-reuptake inhibitor (SNRI), such as venlafaxine, may be an option. However, it should not be prescribed concomitantly with a monoamine oxidase inhibitor due to the risk of serotonin syndrome.

      It is important to counsel the patient about the possibility of increased anxiety, worsening mood, and suicidality in the first two weeks and to instigate an early review after 1-2 weeks if aged under 30 years or at high risk of suicide. Discontinuation of sertraline is not recommended as side-effects are normal and should improve in time. Increasing the dose should not be done more frequently than weekly and would more commonly be increased after 4-6 weeks if there has been a partial response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 20 - Which drug may NOT necessarily result in driving licence refusal or revocation, according...

    Incorrect

    • Which drug may NOT necessarily result in driving licence refusal or revocation, according to the DVLA's statement on persistent substance use or dependence?

      Your Answer: Cocaine

      Correct Answer: Methadone

      Explanation:

      Substance Use and Driving Licence Eligibility

      Explanation: The use of certain psychoactive substances can lead to refusal or revocation of a driving licence. These substances include cannabis, amphetamines, ecstasy, ketamine, Lysergic acid diethylamide, hallucinogens, heroin, morphine, methadone, cocaine, and methylamphetamine. Medical enquiry will confirm persistent use or dependence on these substances. A minimum period of 6 months free of use is required for cannabis, amphetamines, ecstasy, ketamine, Lysergic acid diethylamide, and hallucinogens. For heroin, morphine, methadone, cocaine, and methylamphetamine, the period is 12 months. However, applicants or drivers who comply with a consultant-supervised oral methadone maintenance programme may be licensed, subject to a favourable assessment and annual medical review. Those on an oral buprenorphine programme may also be considered. There should be no evidence of continuing use of other substances, including cannabis. Group 2 drivers (lorries, buses, etc.) must have a minimum period of three years of stability on a maintenance programme.

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  • Question 21 - A 32-year-old man seeks guidance from his General Practitioner. He has struggled with...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man seeks guidance from his General Practitioner. He has struggled with alcoholism for 8 years, but has recently completed a successful in-patient drug rehabilitation program. What advice can the GP offer to help him maintain sobriety?

      Your Answer: Take disulfiram before going to parties where alcohol is served

      Correct Answer: Join a local Alcoholics Anonymous group

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Alcoholics

      For individuals struggling with alcoholism, active involvement in Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) is often the most effective way to prevent relapses. AA requires complete abstinence from alcohol, which is crucial for those with a high tolerance to alcohol who are at risk of relapsing even with moderate drinking. However, medications such as disulfiram should only be administered under medical supervision due to potentially fatal side effects. Naltrexone can be prescribed in conjunction with a support program to aid in recovery.

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  • Question 22 - One option that is typically not acknowledged as a disorder related to cannabis...

    Incorrect

    • One option that is typically not acknowledged as a disorder related to cannabis use is:

      Your Answer: Sleep disorder

      Correct Answer: Obsessive-compulsive disorder

      Explanation:

      Cannabis-Related Disorders Recognized by DSM-5

      The DSM-5 acknowledges various cannabis-related disorders, including anxiety, delirium, psychosis, and sleep disorder. To qualify as a cannabis-induced disorder, there must be a clear temporal connection to cannabis use, and the disturbance cannot be attributed to a non-substance-induced disorder. Interestingly, some research suggests that non-psychoactive cannabis may have therapeutic benefits for individuals with obsessive-compulsive disorder.

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      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 23 - You are a new partner in an inner city practice, having recently completed...

    Correct

    • You are a new partner in an inner city practice, having recently completed GP training. A teenage patient presents in a very poor state of health. She is very thin and has multiple injection site marks. She tells you she has previously been prescribed methadone and is seeking to restart this.

      What is your most appropriate response?

      Your Answer: Do not prescribe and refer to specialist service

      Explanation:

      Safe Prescribing of Methadone

      It is crucial that doctors do not feel pressured to prescribe methadone without proper evaluation and consideration of the patient’s history. Methadone is a potent drug that can be dangerous if not prescribed correctly. Therefore, the prescriber must be experienced and competent in handling such cases.

      Before prescribing methadone, the patient should undergo a drug screening, and their previous GP or drug team should be contacted. It is also advisable to involve a local drug worker in the patient’s care. Only after these steps should methadone be prescribed, and at a low dose, gradually increasing under the supervision of a pharmacist. The principle of start low, go slow should be followed to ensure the patient’s safety.

      By following these guidelines, doctors can ensure that methadone is prescribed safely and effectively, minimizing the risks associated with this potent drug.

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  • Question 24 - A 55-year-old business man who has been drinking heavily for at least two...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old business man who has been drinking heavily for at least two years, states that he drinks alcohol on his way into work as he suffers from anxiety attacks.

      Which one of the following statements is true regarding his anxiety?

      Your Answer: Alcohol will not improve or worsen the symptoms of anxiety

      Correct Answer: It indicates alcohol dependence, and after initial worsening with withdrawal usually will improve after three weeks of abstinence from alcohol

      Explanation:

      Understanding Mild Alcohol Withdrawal Symptoms

      This individual is struggling with alcohol dependence and is currently experiencing anxiety during the morning withdrawal period. Anxiety is a common symptom of mild alcohol withdrawal, which can also lead to agitation, fever, sweats, and tremors. While alcohol initially provides relief for these symptoms, continued abstinence can cause them to peak after approximately 72 hours and last for up to a week or more. However, most patients find that these symptoms have resolved within three weeks.

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  • Question 25 - A 70-year-old gentleman, with mild dementia and known alcohol excess, has been seeing...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old gentleman, with mild dementia and known alcohol excess, has been seeing his GP regularly for low mood after his wife passed away recently.

      On a routine review, he is noted to be more confused than usual.

      On examination, he is noted to be underweight, ataxic, and has a nystagmus. Cranial nerve examination is otherwise unremarkable.

      What is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?

      Your Answer: Refer to on-call psychiatric team

      Correct Answer: Refer to on-call medical team

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: A Medical Emergency

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious medical condition that requires urgent attention. Patients with new onset confusion, ataxia, ophthalmoplegia, nystagmus, memory disturbance, hypothermia, hypotension, and coma should be considered for this diagnosis. It is important to note that increased confusion may be mistaken for worsening dementia, highlighting the significance of a thorough examination.

      If left untreated, Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to irreversible Korsakoff’s syndrome, making prompt treatment essential. Oral thiamine can be administered following initial intravenous treatment.

      It is important to note that acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, such as donepezil, have no role in the acute deterioration of cognition. Additionally, a posterior circulation stroke must also be considered, which is why the medical team would be the most appropriate referral initially.

      In summary, Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a medical emergency that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent irreversible damage.

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  • Question 26 - A 50-year-old male with diabetes comes in for his annual check-up. During the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male with diabetes comes in for his annual check-up. During the appointment, he mentions feeling down and confesses to increased alcohol consumption and recreational drug use. His current medications include metformin, gliclazide, sitagliptin, ramipril, simvastatin, and vardenafil. As his healthcare provider, you know that there are certain recreational substances that should be avoided when taking vardenafil. Which of the following substances is contraindicated with the use of vardenafil?

      Your Answer: Tobacco

      Correct Answer: Amyl nitrite

      Explanation:

      Cautionary Measures When Prescribing Phosphodiesterase Type 5 Inhibitors

      In clinical practice, it is important to exercise caution when prescribing phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors (PDE5i) in combination with nitrates. This is because the combination can lead to life-threatening hypotension due to excessive vasodilation. As such, co-prescription of PDE5i and nitrates is contraindicated.

      When considering the use of PDE5i, it is important to determine whether the patient is taking nitrates regularly or as needed (PRN). Patients who are on regular daily nitrates should avoid PDE5i altogether. On the other hand, patients who use PRN nitrate medications, such as sublingual GTN spray, should avoid taking sildenafil or vardenafil within 24 hours and tadalafil within 48 hours of using the nitrate.

      While recreational substances are not without their health risks, amyl nitrite, also known as poppers, is of particular concern when used with PDE5i. Amyl nitrite is a nitrite-containing compound that can have the same fatal hypotensive effect as prescribed nitrates when used in combination with PDE5i.

      In summary, caution should be exercised when prescribing PDE5i in combination with nitrates, and consideration should be given to the patient’s nitrate use pattern. Patients should also be advised to avoid recreational substances, particularly amyl nitrite, when using PDE5i.

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  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old woman who is ten weeks pregnant comes in seeking assistance with...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman who is ten weeks pregnant comes in seeking assistance with quitting smoking. She attempted to quit when she discovered she was pregnant at six weeks, but was unsuccessful. She inquires about the possibility of medication to aid her in quitting.
      What is the most suitable pharmacological approach for this patient, if any?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT)

      Explanation:

      Safe and Effective Smoking Cessation Aids for Pregnant Women

      Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) is a recommended aid for smoking cessation in pregnancy, along with behavioral support. Compared to smoking, NRT poses lower risks as nicotine levels are much lower and the delivery method is less addictive. Varenicline is not routinely recommended due to limited efficacy and safety data. Bupropion is contraindicated for pregnant women. NRT can be offered at any stage of pregnancy to minimize adverse effects on the fetus. It is important to consider safe and effective options for smoking cessation during pregnancy.

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  • Question 28 - A 32-year-old patient with known alcohol dependency collapses outside his General Practice surgery....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old patient with known alcohol dependency collapses outside his General Practice surgery. He is displaying signs of seizure activity, with both his upper and lower limbs jerking. He is not known to be epileptic. His General Practitioner is in attendance within three minutes as the seizure stops and notes that the patient has bitten his tongue.
      Which of the following features would be most suggestive that this is an alcohol withdrawal seizure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Generalised tonic–clonic seizure

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alcohol Withdrawal Seizures

      Alcohol withdrawal seizures are a common occurrence in individuals who abruptly stop drinking. These seizures typically occur within 6-48 hours of the last drink and are often the first sign of alcohol withdrawal. They are major motor seizures that can last for a few minutes and are characterized by tonic-clonic movements. However, if the seizure lasts for more than 20 minutes, it may indicate an alternative cause and should be investigated further.

      It is important to note that alcohol withdrawal seizures usually occur in patients who have no previous history of seizures or epileptiform disorders. Electroencephalograms are usually normal, and only about 30-40% of patients progress to delirium tremens. If a patient has a past history of epilepsy or experiences a partial/focal seizure, it may indicate another cause and should be investigated further.

      Additionally, a prolonged post-ictal phase is very unusual in alcohol withdrawal seizures and should prompt consideration of another cause. Overall, understanding the characteristics and potential causes of alcohol withdrawal seizures can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 29 - What specific information should you provide to a patient regarding the use of...

    Incorrect

    • What specific information should you provide to a patient regarding the use of varenicline for smoking cessation during counselling?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treatment should be discontinued and prompt medical advice sought if they develop suicidal thoughts

      Explanation:

      Caution and Monitoring for Varenicline Use in Patients with Mental Illness

      Patients with a history of mental illness should exercise caution when taking varenicline and be closely monitored during treatment. This medication may worsen underlying psychiatric conditions. Patients should be advised to discontinue use and seek medical attention immediately if they experience suicidal thoughts, depressed mood, or agitation.

      Varenicline treatment typically begins one to two weeks before the target stop date. The initial dose is 500 micrograms once daily for three days, followed by 500 micrograms twice daily for four days, and then 1 mg twice daily for 11 weeks. If the 1 mg dose is not well-tolerated, the patient may continue with 500 micrograms twice daily.

      It is important to note that there is no disulfiram-type reaction between alcohol and varenicline. However, patients should be aware that bupropion is associated with an increased risk of seizures and requires blood pressure monitoring before and during treatment.

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  • Question 30 - Samantha is a 28-year-old homeless woman who frequently uses opioids. She wants to...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 28-year-old homeless woman who frequently uses opioids. She wants to quit and asks her doctor to prescribe methadone to manage her withdrawal symptoms. How can Samantha's physician effectively screen for opioid misuse?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urine

      Explanation:

      Methadone is a synthetic opioid analgesic that acts as a full opioid agonist and has a long-acting effect. It is commonly used as a support agent in detoxification for opioid dependence. Methadone reaches its peak clinical effect two to six hours after oral administration and has a half-life of approximately 15 hours. It takes around five days for methadone plasma levels to stabilize, and after that, variations in blood levels are minimal. Methadone is metabolized through the liver via the P450 enzymes.

      To avoid adverse effects, methadone should be prescribed at a low dose and gradually increased. The standard concentration is 1 mg/ml oral solution, and it is typically taken once daily. The starting dose should be between 10 mg and 30 mg daily, depending on the amount and method of opioid use.

      Before prescribing methadone, the GP must confirm opioid misuse, which can be detected through urine testing. Heroin, codeine, dihydrocodeine, and morphine can be detected in urine up to 48 hours after use, while methadone can be detected up to a week after use. Urine testing is also used during methadone treatment to confirm compliance and detect continuing heroin misuse. Mouth swabs have a shorter detection window than urine, while hair testing provides an average of opioid use over each month and is less specific than urine tests. Blood tests are invasive and not used to detect opioid use, and clinical examination is often unreliable.

      Understanding Opioid Misuse and its Management

      Opioid misuse is a serious problem that can lead to various complications and health risks. Opioids are substances that bind to opioid receptors, including natural opiates like morphine and synthetic opioids like buprenorphine and methadone. Signs of opioid misuse include rhinorrhoea, needle track marks, pinpoint pupils, drowsiness, watering eyes, and yawning.

      Complications of opioid misuse can range from viral and bacterial infections to venous thromboembolism and overdose, which can lead to respiratory depression and death. Psychological and social problems such as craving, crime, prostitution, and homelessness can also arise.

      In case of an opioid overdose, emergency management involves administering IV or IM naloxone, which has a rapid onset and relatively short duration of action. Harm reduction interventions such as needle exchange and testing for HIV, hepatitis B & C may also be offered.

      Patients with opioid dependence are usually managed by specialist drug dependence clinics or GPs with a specialist interest. Treatment options may include maintenance therapy or detoxification, with methadone or buprenorphine recommended as the first-line treatment by NICE. Compliance is monitored using urinalysis, and detoxification can last up to 4 weeks in an inpatient/residential setting and up to 12 weeks in the community. Understanding opioid misuse and its management is crucial in addressing this growing public health concern.

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  • Question 31 - A 45-year-old teacher visits her General Practitioner (GP) for the first time seeking...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old teacher visits her General Practitioner (GP) for the first time seeking help for her alcohol dependence. She explains that she has been using alcohol to cope with work stress and has gradually increased her daily drinking to 15-20 units. She has no significant medical history other than her alcohol use. She has a normal body mass index and reports a balanced diet. After assessing her, the GP refers her to specialist services. What would be the most appropriate management plan for thiamine use in a community-based assisted alcohol withdrawal programme?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer an oral preparation of thiamine to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy

      Explanation:

      Thiamine Replacement for Wernicke’s Encephalopathy in Alcoholics

      Thiamine deficiency is common in alcoholics due to poor diet and reduced absorption. Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a neuropsychiatric complication caused by thiamine deficiency and occurs frequently in chronic alcohol dependence. Oral thiamine can be given at a maximum dose of 300 mg/day for healthy, well-nourished individuals. However, parenteral high-potency B complex vitamins should be considered for all other patients undergoing withdrawal despite the risk of anaphylaxis. Thiamine doesn’t prevent delirium tremens, and admission is required for inpatient detoxification if the patient presents acutely with evidence of this. Thiamine replacement is futile for Korsakoff syndrome, which is characterized by severe short-term memory loss and associated functional impairment. An ongoing prescription of lower doses of thiamine is suggested if there is concern about chronic deficiency after initial replacement.

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  • Question 32 - A 42-year-old man who is injecting heroin and abusing alcohol requests detoxification.
    Which treatment...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man who is injecting heroin and abusing alcohol requests detoxification.
      Which treatment option should the patient be offered?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stabilisation on methadone or buprenorphine before detoxification is attempted

      Explanation:

      Detoxification from Opioid Addiction: Best Practices and Considerations

      Detoxification from opioid addiction is a complex process that requires careful planning and monitoring. Stabilisation on methadone or buprenorphine is recommended before attempting detoxification. Both drugs are approved by The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) for substitute prescribing, for both detoxification and maintenance to prevent opioid withdrawal symptoms.

      Patients may prefer a faster reduction at the start of a detoxification regimen, but a slower reduction over months or even years is also possible. It is important for patients to stay on their optimal dose of methadone until they have stopped using heroin completely and then reduce the dose at their own pace.

      Alcohol detoxification can occur simultaneously with heroin detoxification, but careful monitoring and support are crucial. Patients should be aware of the loss of opioid tolerance during and following detoxification, which increases the risk of overdose and death from any illicit drug use, especially when combined with alcohol or benzodiazepines.

      Detoxification with buprenorphine is also an option, and if the patient has been on methadone or buprenorphine for maintenance, detoxification should usually be undertaken using the same drug.

      There are no set time limits for a detoxification regimen, but a common regime is to come off methadone over 12 weeks with a reduction of around 5 mg every 1-2 weeks. Detoxification can be done as an inpatient or outpatient, depending on the patient’s needs and preferences. Community-based organisations often administer these types of substance abuse programmes.

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  • Question 33 - A 50-year-old woman has episodes of depression secondary to a heavy consumption of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has episodes of depression secondary to a heavy consumption of alcohol. She had never felt her drinking to be a problem.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic term to describe this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Harmful use

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alcohol Use: Categories and Definitions

      Alcohol use can have varying degrees of impact on a person’s health and well-being. To better understand these impacts, different categories and definitions have been established.

      Harmful use refers to a pattern of alcohol consumption that is already causing harm to a person’s health, but doesn’t necessarily involve dependence. This can include acute or chronic damage, such as depression or cirrhosis. Brief interventions may be effective in addressing harmful use.

      Dependence syndrome, on the other hand, involves a compulsion to drink, inability to control drinking, tolerance, withdrawal symptoms, neglect of normal activities, and persistent drinking despite evidence of harm.

      Acute intoxication is a transient condition resulting from the administration of alcohol, causing disturbances in consciousness, cognition, perception, affect, or behavior. It is only diagnosed when intoxication occurs without more persistent alcohol-related problems.

      Binge drinking is defined as drinking more than double the lower risk guidelines for alcohol in one session, and is considered a more risky type of hazardous drinking.

      Hazardous drinking is the regular consumption of a certain amount of ethanol per day, as determined by population studies and the associated risk of harm. It is not a diagnostic term in ICD-10, but is often used to describe drinking that may lead to harm.

      Understanding these categories and definitions can help individuals and healthcare professionals identify and address problematic alcohol use.

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  • Question 34 - What is the most significant reason to avoid initiating an SSRI? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most significant reason to avoid initiating an SSRI?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute mania

      Explanation:

      Caution with SSRIs in Bipolar Patients

      Acute mania is a contraindication for SSRIs, and caution should be exercised when using them in other conditions. However, this can be a problem for bipolar patients who have not yet been diagnosed. Often, these patients present with depression in primary care and are given SSRIs as a first-line treatment. Unfortunately, this can worsen their condition if they are actually experiencing a manic episode.

      If a person taking an antidepressant as monotherapy develops mania or hypomania, it is important to consider stopping the medication. This is especially true for bipolar patients who may be more susceptible to these adverse effects. By being cautious and aware of the risks, healthcare providers can help ensure that their patients receive the appropriate treatment for their condition.

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  • Question 35 - A 55-year-old man visits his GP for a check-up and reveals that he...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man visits his GP for a check-up and reveals that he consumes over 60 units of alcohol per week. The GP conducts an assessment to ascertain if the patient has alcohol dependence syndrome.
      If the diagnosis is accurate, what is the most probable indication?
      Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Withdrawal symptoms

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alcohol Dependence Syndrome: Symptoms and Behaviors

      Alcohol dependence syndrome is a serious condition that can have a significant impact on an individual’s life. Withdrawal symptoms are a common occurrence when someone tries to stop drinking, including feeling sick, trembling, sweating, and craving for alcohol. In some cases, convulsions and delirium tremens may occur. It is not uncommon for an individual to find it difficult to stop drinking due to these symptoms.

      Alcohol dependence syndrome can also have a negative impact on an individual’s family and career. The individual may find it difficult to function in both roles due to exhaustion and decreased sleep quality. Additionally, tolerance to alcohol tends to increase rather than decrease, requiring larger quantities to achieve the same effect.

      Reinstatement after a period of abstinence, commonly referred to as falling off the wagon, is a significant and common problem in addictive behavior. However, preferential drinking of spirits over beer is not necessarily an indication of alcohol dependence syndrome. It is important to understand the symptoms and behaviors associated with alcohol dependence syndrome to seek appropriate treatment and support.

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  • Question 36 - A 40-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of increasing fatigue that...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of increasing fatigue that has been developing over the past few months. She is a non-smoker, takes no medication, and has been consuming two bottles of wine daily for the last 12 years. During the examination, the patient is found to have jaundice, finger clubbing, and telangiectasia. What investigation is most likely to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominal ultrasound (US) scan

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Diagnosis of Alcoholic Liver Disease-Related Cirrhosis

      Alcoholic liver disease (ALD)-related cirrhosis is a condition that develops over several years, progressing from hepatitis to fibrosis and then on to cirrhosis. It is often asymptomatic until complications develop, such as variceal bleeding, ascites, or spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. A diagnosis of ALD-related cirrhosis can be confirmed with an abdominal ultrasound (US) scan, which shows a shrunken, nodular liver. However, sometimes a liver biopsy may be required if the diagnosis cannot be confirmed on US.

      Routine liver blood tests, including alanine transaminase (ALT), should not be used to rule significant liver pathology in or out, as ALT can be normal in cirrhosis. Bilirubin levels may be raised in cirrhosis, but a raised bilirubin can also be caused by other conditions, such as hepatitis, cholangitis, haemolysis, and pancreatic cancer.

      Ceruloplasmin levels are used to diagnose Wilson’s disease, but in the case of ALD-related cirrhosis, it is much more likely that the diagnosis is related to alcohol consumption. Gastroscopy is not used to diagnose cirrhosis but should be undertaken once cirrhosis is diagnosed to screen for oesophageal varices, which are a complication occurring in around half of patients with cirrhosis.

      Overall, a diagnosis of ALD-related cirrhosis is based on a combination of clinical history, physical examination, and imaging studies. It is important to diagnose cirrhosis early to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

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  • Question 37 - A 30-year-old man comes in for a drug review. During the discussion of...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man comes in for a drug review. During the discussion of his illicit opioid use, it becomes apparent that he is extremely anxious about quitting drugs completely but is interested in attempting a maintenance program. He also abuses alcohol and consumes up to 40 units per week. He has been referred to a community treatment program to assist with his decreased use of drugs and alcohol.
      What is the best course of action for managing this patient next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer a harm-reduction programme but advise that complete detoxification remains the goal of treatment

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Substance Abuse

      Substance abuse can have harmful effects on a person’s health, and reducing the use of alcohol and illicit drugs is an appropriate treatment goal. While maintenance can be an important step towards detoxification and abstinence, complete detoxification should always be the main goal of a reduction programme. It is important to discuss this with the patient when treatment is commenced.

      When it comes to opioid reduction, it is recommended to achieve complete detoxification from alcohol before attempting to reduce opioid use. Withdrawal effects can be managed with appropriate medical care, and patients should not be penalised for using illicit substances. However, it is important to discuss the impact of continued drug use on the treatment programme.

      While there doesn’t need to be a strict timeline imposed at the start of treatment, it is important to work towards reducing drug and alcohol use. Buprenorphine and methadone are both recommended for substitute prescribing, but methadone is typically prescribed as the first choice. The choice of drug may depend on patient preference or experience with the medication. Overall, the goal of treatment should be to achieve complete detoxification and abstinence from substance abuse.

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  • Question 38 - You are contemplating prescribing varenicline to a 42-year-old man who wants to quit...

    Incorrect

    • You are contemplating prescribing varenicline to a 42-year-old man who wants to quit smoking. What is the most probable condition that would contraindicate the use of varenicline?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Past history of deliberate self-harm

      Explanation:

      Patients with a history of depression should use varenicline with caution due to ongoing studies investigating the risk of suicidal behavior. The MHRA/CHM advises patients to seek medical attention immediately if they experience agitation, depressed mood, or suicidal thoughts while taking varenicline. Patients with a history of psychiatric illness should be closely monitored during treatment. Additionally, varenicline may exacerbate underlying illnesses, including depression, and should be used with caution in patients with a history of cardiovascular disease or predisposition to seizures. Upon completion of a 12-week course, dose tapering should be considered to minimize the risk of relapse, irritability, depression, and insomnia.

      Smoking cessation is the process of quitting smoking. In 2008, NICE released guidance on how to manage smoking cessation. The guidance recommends that patients should be offered nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline or bupropion, and that clinicians should not favour one medication over another. These medications should be prescribed as part of a commitment to stop smoking on or before a particular date, and the prescription should only last until 2 weeks after the target stop date. If unsuccessful, a repeat prescription should not be offered within 6 months unless special circumstances have intervened. NRT can cause adverse effects such as nausea and vomiting, headaches, and flu-like symptoms. NICE recommends offering a combination of nicotine patches and another form of NRT to people who show a high level of dependence on nicotine or who have found single forms of NRT inadequate in the past.

      Varenicline is a nicotinic receptor partial agonist that should be started 1 week before the patient’s target date to stop. The recommended course of treatment is 12 weeks, but patients should be monitored regularly and treatment only continued if not smoking. Varenicline has been shown in studies to be more effective than bupropion, but it should be used with caution in patients with a history of depression or self-harm. Nausea is the most common adverse effect, and varenicline is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding.

      Bupropion is a norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist that should be started 1 to 2 weeks before the patient’s target date to stop. There is a small risk of seizures, and bupropion is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Having an eating disorder is a relative contraindication.

      In 2010, NICE recommended that all pregnant women should be tested for smoking using carbon monoxide detectors. All women who smoke, or have stopped smoking within the last 2 weeks, or those with a CO reading of 7 ppm or above should be referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services. The first-line interventions in pregnancy should be cognitive behaviour therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support from NHS Stop Smoking Services. The evidence for the use of NRT in pregnancy is mixed, but it is often used if the above measures fail. There is no evidence that it affects the child’s birthweight. Pregnant women

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  • Question 39 - A middle-aged woman arrives unannounced at your surgery and has been slotted in...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged woman arrives unannounced at your surgery and has been slotted in to an appointment cancellation by one of your receptionists.

      She doesn't appear to be registered with a GP and is of no fixed abode. She says that she has been living rough for the past few years since the break up of a tempestuous marriage due to her alcoholism.

      She claims to have no friends or relatives but has come to see you because her health is deteriorating due to her drinking. She has had several episodes of loss of consciousness and others have noticed convulsions. She is unable to give an accurate description of her consumption other than to say that she drinks extra strong lager all day long and a bottle of whiskey or vodka every day if she can get hold of it.

      On examination, she appears dishevelled, very anxious and has a resting tremor.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate way to intervene with a view to reducing her alcohol dependency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inpatient detoxification

      Explanation:

      Inpatient Admission for Severe Alcohol Withdrawal

      This individual has a severe alcohol dependency and requires inpatient admission during alcohol withdrawal to prevent delirium tremens and further fits. To reduce withdrawal symptoms and lower the risk of fits, a 5-7 day reducing course of Chlordiazepoxide, a benzodiazepine, may be necessary. Due to cross-tolerance with alcohol, high doses of Chlordiazepoxide may be required. Additionally, parenteral multivitamins, such as parentrovite, should be administered.

      For patients with milder alcohol dependency and strong social support, detoxification can be completed successfully at home without the need for admission. However, in cases where there is a history of seizures and a high degree of physiological dependency, behavioural modification or the use of disulfiram is unlikely to be effective.

      In summary, inpatient admission is necessary for individuals with severe alcohol dependency during withdrawal to prevent serious complications. A benzodiazepine such as Chlordiazepoxide can be used to reduce withdrawal symptoms, and parenteral multivitamins should also be given. For those with milder dependency and good social support, detoxification can be completed at home, but for those with a high degree of physiological dependency, other treatment options may be necessary.

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  • Question 40 - A 35-year-old man has a range of symptoms.

    He has a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man has a range of symptoms.

      He has a history of heroin addiction and you suspect that he is currently experiencing withdrawal from heroin.

      Which of the following symptoms would be unusual for heroin withdrawal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Yawning

      Explanation:

      Heroin Withdrawal Symptoms

      People experiencing heroin withdrawal often experience insomnia instead of feeling sleepy. However, all the other symptoms are typical. Heroin withdrawal can cause a range of physical and psychological symptoms, including muscle aches, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, anxiety, depression, and intense drug cravings. These symptoms can be extremely uncomfortable and can last for several days or even weeks. It is important for individuals going through heroin withdrawal to seek medical attention and support to manage their symptoms and increase their chances of successful recovery.

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      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 41 - A 35-year-old man has depression which has not responded to an MAOI. You...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man has depression which has not responded to an MAOI. You stop the MAOI (which is of the non reversible kind) and wish to prescribe an SSRI.

      How long should you wait before starting the SSRI?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 14 days

      Explanation:

      Switching between MAOIs and SSRIs

      When switching from an MAOI to an SSRI, it is important to wait at least two weeks before starting the new medication. This is because MAOIs can inactivate the enzymes that break down certain neurotransmitters, such as noradrenaline and 5HT. It can take up to two weeks for these enzymes to resume normal activity after stopping an MAOI, and during this time there is a risk of severe drug reactions if an SSRI is started too soon. Therefore, it is crucial to allow enough time for the body to adjust before switching between these types of antidepressants.

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      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 42 - Your practice is willing to participate in the management of drug dependence in...

    Incorrect

    • Your practice is willing to participate in the management of drug dependence in the community, as emphasized by the new General Medical Services (nGMS) contract. Identify the patient who would be appropriate for shared-care drug rehabilitation in general practice.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 32-year-old married woman with children who has been smoking heroin for some months and has been under the care of the local drugs and alcohol service for 3 months

      Explanation:

      Shared-Care Management of Drug Misuse

      Shared-care management of drug misuse is a treatment approach designed for stable patients who have been receiving care from community drug and alcohol services and require maintenance prescribing of Subutex® or methadone. This method involves regular meetings with a drugs worker and a General Practitioner to ensure the patient’s progress and well-being. However, it is not recommended for individuals who are still chaotic in their drug use, those who need to start replacement treatment, or those who cannot attend regular appointments. It is also important to note that children should be referred to specialist drug services for appropriate care and treatment.

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  • Question 43 - A 25-year-old female is attempting to quit smoking. She recently smoked 10 cigarettes...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female is attempting to quit smoking. She recently smoked 10 cigarettes a day but has managed to cut down to 5 cigarettes a day by using nicotine gum. She is also curious about the effectiveness of E-cigarettes in aiding smoking cessation.

      In your discussion with her, you may want to cover the following:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is probably preferable to use E-cigarettes than normal cigarettes as the harm is likely to be less

      Explanation:

      Although E-cigarettes have been found to aid smoking cessation, their short-term use has been linked to harm. However, there is still a lack of long-term data on their effects.

      There is growing concern that teenagers who start using E-cigarettes may be more likely to transition to regular cigarette smoking.

      It is worth noting that preparations of nicotine replacement therapy are approved for use in children over 12 years old and can be used alongside E-cigarettes without issue.

      Overall, the long-term health effects of E-cigarettes are not yet fully understood, and while they may be less harmful than traditional cigarettes, they still contain addictive nicotine and can have negative health consequences.

      While E-cigarettes may be helpful for some individuals trying to quit smoking, it is important to remember that they are not FDA-approved for this purpose. Nicotine replacement therapy, such as gum or patches, has been shown to be effective and may be a better option.

      Quitting smoking is a challenging process that may require multiple attempts, so it is important to have a support system and be patient with oneself.

      Smoking cessation is the process of quitting smoking. In 2008, NICE released guidance on how to manage smoking cessation. The guidance recommends that patients should be offered nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline or bupropion, and that clinicians should not favour one medication over another. These medications should be prescribed as part of a commitment to stop smoking on or before a particular date, and the prescription should only last until 2 weeks after the target stop date. If unsuccessful, a repeat prescription should not be offered within 6 months unless special circumstances have intervened. NRT can cause adverse effects such as nausea and vomiting, headaches, and flu-like symptoms. NICE recommends offering a combination of nicotine patches and another form of NRT to people who show a high level of dependence on nicotine or who have found single forms of NRT inadequate in the past.

      Varenicline is a nicotinic receptor partial agonist that should be started 1 week before the patient’s target date to stop. The recommended course of treatment is 12 weeks, but patients should be monitored regularly and treatment only continued if not smoking. Varenicline has been shown in studies to be more effective than bupropion, but it should be used with caution in patients with a history of depression or self-harm. Nausea is the most common adverse effect, and varenicline is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding.

      Bupropion is a norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist that should be started 1 to 2 weeks before the patient’s target date to stop. There is a small risk of seizures, and bupropion is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Having an eating disorder is a relative contraindication.

      In 2010, NICE recommended that all pregnant women should be tested for smoking using carbon monoxide detectors. All women who smoke, or have stopped smoking within the last 2 weeks, or those with a CO reading of 7 ppm or above should be referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services. The first-line interventions in pregnancy should be cognitive behaviour therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support from NHS Stop Smoking Services. The evidence for the use of NRT in pregnancy is mixed, but it is often used if the above measures fail. There is no evidence that it affects the child’s birthweight. Pregnant women

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  • Question 44 - A 40-year-old man comes to the General Practice Surgery with a six-month history...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man comes to the General Practice Surgery with a six-month history of persistent fatigue. He has no medical problems and takes no regular medication. He briefly injected heroin when he was younger but has not done so for the last ten years.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis C

      Explanation:

      Blood-Borne Infections Commonly Associated with Intravenous Drug Use

      Intravenous (IV) drug use is a major risk factor for acquiring blood-borne infections. The most common infections associated with IV drug use are hepatitis C, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), and hepatitis B. Syphilis and tetanus are also possible, but less common, infections.

      Hepatitis C is the most prevalent blood-borne virus among IV drug users, affecting up to 50% of users in the UK and 67% worldwide. Acute infection is usually asymptomatic or presents with vague symptoms, but can progress to chronic hepatitis C in the majority of cases. Cirrhosis and liver failure are potential long-term complications.

      HIV is present in up to 15% of IV drug users and is transmitted through shared needles. Acute infection presents with flu-like symptoms, followed by an asymptomatic period until the CD4 count drops enough to allow for opportunistic infections.

      Hepatitis B is less common than hepatitis C among IV drug users, but still poses a risk. Acute infection presents with flu-like symptoms and can progress to chronic infection, which increases the risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.

      Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection that can also be transmitted through direct contact with skin lesions or mucous membranes. Primary infection presents with a painless ulcer, followed by a generalised rash and lymphadenopathy. Latent syphilis can be asymptomatic, but is not associated with IV drug use.

      Tetanus is rare in the UK due to immunisation programs, but can occur if spores enter an open wound. It presents with muscle stiffness and spasms, but is not associated with a prolonged asymptomatic period or IV drug use.

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  • Question 45 - A 32-year-old man presents with anxiety, dilated pupils and sweating. You suspect an...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents with anxiety, dilated pupils and sweating. You suspect an overdose.

      Which one of the following is most likely?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cocaine

      Explanation:

      Cocaine Overdose Symptoms and Management

      Cocaine overdose can lead to a range of symptoms, including anxiety, dilated pupils, and sweating. Other common features of cocaine overdose include persecutory delusions, hypertension, tachycardia, piloerection, and seizures.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these symptoms and to have a plan in place for managing cocaine and crack users in primary care. The Royal College of General Practitioners (RCGP) has provided guidance for working with these individuals, which can be helpful for those looking to revise their knowledge on this topic. By understanding the symptoms and having a plan in place, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support for those experiencing cocaine overdose.

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  • Question 46 - A 36-year-old cocaine user, Sarah, visits the clinic and asks for a prescription...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old cocaine user, Sarah, visits the clinic and asks for a prescription for methadone. She had taken methadone at 30 mg once a day last year. Sarah is currently using the same amount of cocaine as she did last year and wants to resume taking 30 mg of methadone to manage withdrawal symptoms. However, you have no experience prescribing methadone and feel unsure about doing so. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Not prescribe methadone

      Explanation:

      Prescribing methadone is a serious matter that requires an experienced and competent prescriber. It is important that the prescriber doesn’t feel pressured to prescribe the drug due to patient demands. As you are not confident in prescribing methadone, it would be unsafe for you to do so.

      Before prescribing methadone, it is essential to confirm opioid dependence through a thorough history, examination, and toxicology screening using urine or oral fluid swabs. The prescribing process should involve a multidisciplinary team, including the patient’s drug team or local drug worker and pharmacist.

      Methadone should be prescribed at a low dose and titrated upwards. The standard concentration is 1 mg/ml oral solution, with higher concentrations rarely used. The starting dose should be between 10 mg and 30 mg daily, depending on the amount and method of heroin or other opioids being used. Methadone is typically taken once daily.

      Understanding Opioid Misuse and its Management

      Opioid misuse is a serious problem that can lead to various complications and health risks. Opioids are substances that bind to opioid receptors, including natural opiates like morphine and synthetic opioids like buprenorphine and methadone. Signs of opioid misuse include rhinorrhoea, needle track marks, pinpoint pupils, drowsiness, watering eyes, and yawning.

      Complications of opioid misuse can range from viral and bacterial infections to venous thromboembolism and overdose, which can lead to respiratory depression and death. Psychological and social problems such as craving, crime, prostitution, and homelessness can also arise.

      In case of an opioid overdose, emergency management involves administering IV or IM naloxone, which has a rapid onset and relatively short duration of action. Harm reduction interventions such as needle exchange and testing for HIV, hepatitis B & C may also be offered.

      Patients with opioid dependence are usually managed by specialist drug dependence clinics or GPs with a specialist interest. Treatment options may include maintenance therapy or detoxification, with methadone or buprenorphine recommended as the first-line treatment by NICE. Compliance is monitored using urinalysis, and detoxification can last up to 4 weeks in an inpatient/residential setting and up to 12 weeks in the community. Understanding opioid misuse and its management is crucial in addressing this growing public health concern.

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  • Question 47 - A 65-year-old woman presents to her GP with neuropathic pain that has not...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to her GP with neuropathic pain that has not responded to amitriptyline. She has a medical history of severe congestive heart failure and is currently taking aspirin, atorvastatin, bisoprolol, furosemide, and ramipril. If the GP prescribes medication for her pain, what is the most common side effect she is likely to experience? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dizziness

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Best Neuropathic Pain Medication for a Patient with Cardiac History: Understanding Side-Effects

      When treating a patient with neuropathic pain and a history of congestive cardiac failure, it is important to choose a medication that is safe and effective. The four options available are amitriptyline, gabapentin, pregabalin, and duloxetine. If the patient has already tried amitriptyline with no effect, one of the other three agents should be offered. However, caution must be taken with pregabalin and duloxetine due to their contraindications in heart failure.

      Gabapentin is the safest and best choice for this patient, as it has no contraindications or cautions in heart failure and doesn’t interact with any of her medications. While dizziness is a very common side-effect of gabapentin, affecting more than 1 in 10 people taking the drug, it is still the most likely side-effect she will experience.

      It is important to note that memory disturbance is not a side-effect of gabapentin, but is a common side-effect of pregabalin. Nausea is also a common side-effect of gabapentin, affecting between 1 in 10 to 1 in 100 people, but is less likely than dizziness. Palpitations, on the other hand, are a common side-effect of duloxetine, which is not the most appropriate medication to prescribe in this case. Finally, while urticaria is a common side-effect of gabapentin, it is less likely than dizziness. Understanding these side-effects can help clinicians make informed decisions when choosing the best medication for their patients.

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  • Question 48 - Among the patients listed below, which one is the most probable candidate for...

    Incorrect

    • Among the patients listed below, which one is the most probable candidate for having their Group 1 driving license denied or taken away?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 40-year-old woman who is taking a supra-therapeutic dose of diazepam as part of a benzodiazepine withdrawal programme

      Explanation:

      Benzodiazepines and Driving: Guidelines for Licensing

      Benzodiazepines, particularly long-acting ones, are known to impair driving performance, especially when combined with alcohol. The Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA) has set guidelines for licensing regarding the use of these drugs.

      For Group 1 vehicles, persistent misuse or dependence on benzodiazepines will result in license refusal or revocation until a minimum of one year free of use has been achieved. For Group 2 vehicles, this period is extended to three years. The DVLA may require independent medical assessment and urine screening, as well as a favorable report from a consultant or specialist upon reapplication.

      The non-prescribed use of benzodiazepines or the use of supra-therapeutic doses, whether in a substance withdrawal/maintenance program or not, is considered misuse/dependence for licensing purposes. However, occasional misuse doesn’t constitute persistent misuse or dependence.

      Prescribed use of benzodiazepines at therapeutic doses, without evidence of impairment, is not considered misuse/dependence for licensing purposes, although clinical dependence may exist. It is important to note that any patient taking benzodiazepines may become unfit to drive at some point, but the guidelines are clear regarding licensing.

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  • Question 49 - Your next patient is a 32-year-old man who has a history of alcohol...

    Incorrect

    • Your next patient is a 32-year-old man who has a history of alcohol abuse. He has been consuming approximately 100 units of alcohol per week for the past five years. He often skips meals and is a heavy smoker, smoking 20 cigarettes per day. Do you suggest any vitamin supplements for him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral thiamine

      Explanation:

      Management of Problem Drinking: Nutritional Support and Drug Therapy

      Problem drinking can have serious consequences on an individual’s health and well-being. To manage this condition, nutritional support and drug therapy are often recommended. According to SIGN, alcoholic patients should receive oral thiamine if their diet may be deficient. This is because alcohol can interfere with the absorption and utilization of thiamine, which can lead to neurological complications such as Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome.

      In addition to nutritional support, drug therapy can also be used to manage problem drinking. Benzodiazepines are commonly used for acute withdrawal symptoms, while disulfiram is used to promote abstinence. Disulfiram works by inhibiting acetaldehyde dehydrogenase, which causes a severe reaction when alcohol is consumed. Patients should be aware that even small amounts of alcohol in perfumes, foods, or mouthwashes can produce severe symptoms. However, disulfiram is contraindicated in patients with ischaemic heart disease and psychosis.

      Another drug used to manage problem drinking is acamprosate. This medication reduces craving and has been shown to improve abstinence in placebo-controlled trials. Acamprosate is a weak antagonist of NMDA receptors, which are involved in the development of alcohol dependence. By blocking these receptors, acamprosate may help reduce the reinforcing effects of alcohol and prevent relapse.

      In summary, the management of problem drinking involves a combination of nutritional support and drug therapy. Oral thiamine is recommended for alcoholic patients with a deficient diet, while benzodiazepines can be used for acute withdrawal symptoms. Disulfiram promotes abstinence but should be used with caution in patients with certain medical conditions. Acamprosate reduces craving and improves abstinence by blocking NMDA receptors.

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  • Question 50 - A 28-year-old man, who regularly injects drugs, presents to the General Practice clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man, who regularly injects drugs, presents to the General Practice clinic with a four-day history of a painful swelling in his groin.

      During examination, a 5 cm tender, hot, fluctuant mass with overlying erythema is observed. Tympanic temperature is 38 oC (normal range: 36.5-37.5 oC).

      What is the most suitable initial management option for this case? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Incision and drainage

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Groin Abscess in Injecting Drug Users

      Groin abscesses are a common complication of injecting drug use, characterized by a tender fluctuant mass, overlying erythema, and fever. The first-line treatment for an abscess is incision and drainage, followed by antibiotics if necessary. Risk factors for infection at injection sites include frequent drug use, reusing equipment, and poor nutrition.

      Co-amoxiclav 625 mg three times daily for seven days may be prescribed as a second-line treatment for cellulitis if first-line treatment, such as flucloxacillin, has failed. It is important to check local guidelines on antibiotic regimens. Flucloxacillin 1 g four times daily for seven days is the first-line treatment for cellulitis.

      Laparoscopic hernia repair is the gold standard treatment for an inguinal hernia, which presents as a reducible mass with a cough impulse. Open hernia repair may be indicated for larger herniae. Risk factors for inguinal hernia include obesity, constipation, chronic coughing, and heavy lifting.

      Treatment Options for Groin Abscess and Inguinal Hernia in Injecting Drug Users

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  • Question 51 - A 50-year-old male presents with abdominal swelling, nausea and mild jaundice. He admits...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male presents with abdominal swelling, nausea and mild jaundice. He admits to a long history of regular alcohol consumption, drinking two 330ml bottles of lager per day (3% ABV) as well as a 75cl bottle of 12% ABV wine per week.

      What is this man's weekly alcohol consumption in units (to the nearest unit of alcohol)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 23 units

      Explanation:

      Calculating Units of Alcohol

      To calculate the number of units of alcohol in a drink, you need to multiply the percentage of alcohol (ABV) by the volume in millilitres and then divide by 1000. However, there are potential pitfalls to watch out for, such as converting volumes from centilitres to millilitres and adjusting for daily or weekly consumption.

      For example, if a person drinks two 330ml bottles of lager per day with a 3% ABV, the calculation would be 3% x 330ml = 9.9ml, divided by 1000 = 0.99 units per bottle, rounded up to 1 unit. This equates to 14 units per week. If they also drink one 750ml bottle of wine per week with a 12% ABV, the calculation would be 12% x 750ml = 90ml, divided by 1000 = 9 units per bottle. Therefore, the total amount of units consumed per week would be 23 units.

      It is important to check the units of volume and duration when calculating units of alcohol. The UK recommendations are for no more than 14 units per week for both sexes. While these calculations may seem simple, it is important to be prepared for any eventuality in an exam setting.

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  • Question 52 - A 70-year-old man has isolated systolic hypertension. He also suffers from stable angina,...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man has isolated systolic hypertension. He also suffers from stable angina, gout and peripheral vascular disease. He doesn't have diabetes.
      Which one of the following antihypertensives is best suited for him initially?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Modified release nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Medication for Hypertension: NICE Guidelines

      When it comes to managing hypertension, it’s important to choose the right medication based on the patient’s age, medical history, and other factors. According to NICE guidelines, the first-line therapy for hypertension in patients over the age of 55 without diabetes is a calcium-channel blocker, such as modified release nifedipine. Beta-blockers like atenolol may be considered in younger patients or those with certain contraindications, while ACE inhibitors are recommended for patients under 55. Thiazide-like diuretics can also be used in certain cases, such as when a calcium channel blocker is not tolerated or in cases of resistant hypertension. It’s important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual patient.

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  • Question 53 - A 35-year-old man visits his GP for a consultation. He is addicted to...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits his GP for a consultation. He is addicted to intravenous heroin and asks for methadone substitution. What is true about methadone substitution?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A starting dose of 10-30 mg methadone per day should be used

      Explanation:

      Guidance for Primary Care Practitioners on Substitute Prescribing for Opioid Dependence

      Managing opioid dependence in primary care requires a multidisciplinary approach, involving various healthcare professionals. General practitioners should only prescribe and treat within their level of competence and confidence, but referral to specialist services is not always necessary.

      Before prescribing any substitute medication, opioid dependence should be confirmed through history, examination, and toxicology screening. When prescribing methadone, it is important to start with a low dose and titrate up slowly to prevent overdosage. Methadone is excreted slowly in methadone-naive individuals, and deaths have been reported on doses as low as 40 mg. The starting dose should be between 10 mg and 30 mg daily, with increases of 5-10 mg a day and a maximum of 30 mg a week for the first two weeks. Optimal levels are usually between 60 mg and 120 mg a day.

      When initiating treatment in general practice, it is recommended to see the patient frequently at the outset to assess concordance and cumulative dosing effects.

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  • Question 54 - A man in his 40s presents with very severe and widespread seborrhoeic dermatitis....

    Incorrect

    • A man in his 40s presents with very severe and widespread seborrhoeic dermatitis.

      It has been present for over three months and is not responding well to treatment. He has only had very mild episodes in the past.

      He has a history of heroin addiction in his twenties but has been off drugs for more than five years.

      Which of the following conditions is most likely to be present?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HIV infection

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions and HIV

      Skin conditions are a common occurrence in individuals with HIV, affecting over 90% of those infected. These conditions can either exacerbate pre-existing conditions or lead to new skin problems. One such condition is seborrhoeic dermatitis, which can be particularly severe or difficult to treat in those with HIV. It is important for individuals with HIV to be aware of the potential for skin conditions and to seek medical attention if any issues arise. Proper management and treatment can help alleviate symptoms and improve overall quality of life.

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  • Question 55 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic seeking advice on quitting smoking as...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic seeking advice on quitting smoking as she is planning to start a family. Despite several attempts to quit on her own, she has been unsuccessful. She is hesitant to attend a smoking cessation program and asks about medical options to aid in quitting. What would be the most suitable management to suggest, considering she has not tried any medications before?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) alone

      Explanation:

      Smoking Cessation Options for a Woman Trying to Conceive

      Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) is the recommended option for a woman trying to conceive who is struggling to quit smoking. While it is ideal for her to delay conception until she has successfully quit smoking and ceased NRT, the benefits of NRT outweigh the risks of smoking and NRT. It is important for her to also receive behavioral support through a Stop Smoking Service. E-cigarettes are not currently recommended due to lack of evidence on their safety and effectiveness. Bupropion and varenicline are contraindicated in pregnancy and should not be prescribed. While attending a Stop Smoking Service is preferred, medical treatments such as NRT can be prescribed in primary care.

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  • Question 56 - What is the most suitable medication for preventing symptoms of alcohol withdrawal such...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most suitable medication for preventing symptoms of alcohol withdrawal such as seizures or delirium tremens?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acamprosate

      Explanation:

      Medications for Alcohol Dependence and Withdrawal

      Acamprosate is a medication that can be helpful in maintaining abstinence in individuals with alcohol dependence. Buprenorphine, on the other hand, is an opioid analgesic. Bupropion is commonly used as a supplement for smoking cessation, but it is contraindicated in patients who are experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. Long-acting benzodiazepines are the preferred treatment for preventing symptoms of acute withdrawal. Diazepam is a commonly used benzodiazepine, but chlordiazepoxide is recommended as the first choice because it has less of a market for illicit use.

      By using these medications, individuals with alcohol dependence can receive the support they need to maintain abstinence and manage withdrawal symptoms. It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual’s unique needs. Proper medication management, along with therapy and support, can greatly improve the chances of successful recovery.

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  • Question 57 - A 35-year-old man is using intravenous heroin every day. He has not disclosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man is using intravenous heroin every day. He has not disclosed this before and has not sought support for this in the past. He requests methadone substitution from his general practitioner.
      What is the single most appropriate action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer referral to specialist drug-abuse service

      Explanation:

      Managing Opioid Dependence: Recommended Actions for GPs

      As a GP, managing patients with opioid dependence can be challenging. Here are some recommended actions to help you provide the best care for your patients:

      1. Offer referral to a specialist drug-abuse service. NICE advises that doctors assess and manage people with opioid dependence within their competence and confidence, which for the majority would mean referral to a specialist service. Here, they have an MDT who can effectively assess, treat, and follow up patients like this.

      2. Prescribe methadone at a dose indicated in the British National Formulary (BNF). It is possible for a GP to prescribe methadone, but this should only be done if they have received higher-level training, or they feel confident to do so and have input from a shared-care multidisciplinary team (MDT).

      3. Avoid prescribing a reducing course of dihydrocodeine. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) advises that dihydrocodeine should not be used in detoxification, except in specific circumstances within specialist care.

      4. Avoid performing urine toxicology unless you are confident in managing this situation. Urine toxicology would not be of any benefit here if you are not confident in managing this situation.

      5. Avoid arranging weekly review. This man is requesting care which requires specialist input, so arranging review in a week would only cause unnecessary delay.

      By following these recommended actions, you can help your patients manage their opioid dependence effectively and safely.

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  • Question 58 - A 28-year-old man collapses in the General Practice waiting room. His breathing is...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man collapses in the General Practice waiting room. His breathing is shallow with a respiratory rate of six breaths per minute. His oxygen saturations are unrecordable. Blood sugar is normal. His pupils are both constricted.
      Which of the following drugs should be administered immediately?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Naloxone

      Explanation:

      Antidotes for Poisoning: Understanding Their Uses

      When a patient presents with symptoms of poisoning, it is important to identify the specific toxin involved in order to administer the appropriate antidote. Here are some common antidotes and their uses:

      Naloxone: This opiate antagonist is used to treat acute opiate toxicity. It rapidly reverses respiratory depression, loss of consciousness, and constricted pupils. Patients may become aggressive upon awakening, and repeated doses may be necessary.

      Fomepizole: This antidote is used in confirmed cases of ethylene glycol poisoning as an alternative to ethanol. Symptoms include nausea, vomiting, altered consciousness, and seizures.

      Acetylcysteine: This is the antidote for paracetamol poisoning. It should be administered in a hospital after a full clinical assessment has been carried out. Symptoms may not appear until days later, and can include hepatic encephalopathy.

      Flumazenil: This antidote is used for benzodiazepine overdose. It should only be administered by experienced specialists in a hospital setting, as it can precipitate seizures.

      Glucagon: This antidote can be used to treat hypoglycaemia and beta-blocker overdose. However, if a patient’s blood sugar is normal, hypoglycaemia is not the cause of their collapse.

      By understanding the uses of these antidotes, healthcare professionals can quickly and effectively treat cases of poisoning.

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  • Question 59 - A 55-year-old male presents with chronic productive cough and dyspnoea.

    He is a smoker...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male presents with chronic productive cough and dyspnoea.

      He is a smoker of 10 cigarettes per day and has smoked for 30 years.

      To how many pack years does this equate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 15

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pack Year History

      Pack year history is a tool used to estimate the risk of tobacco exposure. It is calculated by multiplying the number of packs of cigarettes smoked per day (20 cigarettes in one pack) by the number of years of smoking. For instance, if someone smoked half a pack of cigarettes per day for 30 years, their pack year history would be 15 (1/2 x 30 = 15). This tool helps to standardize tobacco exposure and provide a clearer understanding of the potential risks associated with smoking. By knowing one’s pack year history, healthcare professionals can better assess the potential health consequences and provide appropriate care and support.

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  • Question 60 - A 32-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with concerns about his fertility....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with concerns about his fertility. He and his partner have been trying to conceive for the past two years without success. He also reports that he has noticed his testicles appear to be shrinking. He is typically healthy, doesn't smoke or drink alcohol, exercises regularly, and is not taking any medications.
      During the examination, the patient is noted to have a muscular build, a BMI of 31 kg/m2 (normal range: 18–25 kg/m2), facial acne, and gynaecomastia.
      What is the most probable cause of his symptoms? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anabolic steroid use

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of male infertility and related symptoms

      Anabolic steroid use, unexplained infertility, Cushing’s disease, Klinefelter syndrome, and obesity are among the possible causes of male infertility and related symptoms. Anabolic steroid use can lead to a range of unwanted effects, including acne, gynaecomastia, testicular shrinkage, and altered mood, as well as physical and psychological dependence. Unexplained infertility affects a significant proportion of infertile men and couples, but additional symptoms such as gynaecomastia and acne may suggest anabolic steroid use. Cushing’s disease, caused by a pituitary adenoma, can produce a distinct pattern of symptoms, including truncal obesity, muscle weakness, gonadal dysfunction, and impaired immune function, but in a young and muscular gym-goer, anabolic steroid use is more likely. Klinefelter syndrome, a genetic disorder affecting 1 in 660 men, can cause small testes, hypogonadism, infertility, gynaecomastia, and learning disability, but not testicular shrinkage or acne. Obesity, especially with a BMI over 30 kg/m2, can also impair fertility, but is not associated with testicular shrinkage or acne. A careful history, physical examination, and appropriate investigations can help to establish the underlying cause of male infertility and related symptoms.

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  • Question 61 - A 35-year-old man visits the General Practitioner seeking assistance in quitting alcohol after...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits the General Practitioner seeking assistance in quitting alcohol after a prolonged period of heavy drinking. He reports experiencing moderate withdrawal symptoms in the past, but has never had seizures or delirium tremens. His wife is supportive and he is in good health. What is the most suitable medication to use in a community-based assisted alcohol withdrawal program?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chlordiazepoxide

      Explanation:

      Medications for Alcohol Withdrawal: Types and Uses

      Alcohol withdrawal can be a challenging process, and medications are often used to manage symptoms and prevent complications. Here are some common medications used for alcohol withdrawal:

      Chlordiazepoxide: This long-acting benzodiazepine is used to reduce withdrawal symptoms in people with moderate alcohol dependence.

      Lorazepam: For people with liver impairment, lorazepam is suggested as it requires limited liver metabolism. It is also used intravenously for alcohol withdrawal seizures.

      Acamprosate: This medication is effective in preventing relapse in patients with alcohol dependence.

      Clomethiazole: While licensed for use in acute alcohol withdrawal, benzodiazepines are preferred. Clomethiazole should only be used in an inpatient setting and not prescribed if the patient is likely to continue drinking alcohol.

      Haloperidol: Antipsychotic drugs like haloperidol or olanzapine may be prescribed as adjunctive therapy to benzodiazepines for patients with marked agitation or hallucinations and those at risk of delirium tremens.

      It is important to note that these medications should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional and in conjunction with other forms of treatment, such as therapy and support groups.

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  • Question 62 - A 35-year-old man visits the General Practitioner with his partner for a check-up....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits the General Practitioner with his partner for a check-up. His partner is worried about the patient's alcohol consumption, stating that they can drink a few bottles of spirits over the weekend. What is the most probable finding in a patient who excessively uses alcohol?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psychotic symptoms

      Explanation:

      Alcohol and its Effects on the Body

      Alcohol consumption can lead to a variety of physical and mental health issues. One such issue is alcohol-related psychosis, which can cause hallucinations and delusions. Another is Korsakoff syndrome, which is caused by a deficiency in thiamine and can result in amnesia. While an increase in carbohydrate-deficient transferrin (CDT) is a sign of excessive alcohol use, red blood cell macrocytosis is also a common finding. Additionally, alcohol use is strongly associated with violent crime. It is important to be aware of the potential risks and consequences of alcohol consumption.

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  • Question 63 - A 25-year-old man is brought into the General Practice Surgery by a concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is brought into the General Practice Surgery by a concerned friend. He is drowsy, confused and sweating profusely. The accompanying friend reports drug use earlier that evening. A toxicology screen for opiates, cocaine, cannabis and alcohol is negative.
      What is the most likely causative drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spice

      Explanation:

      Spice, a synthetic cannabinoid, is a type of new psychoactive substance (NPS) that is often referred to as a legal high despite being prohibited by the Psychoactive Substances Act 2016 and the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971. NPS use has become increasingly common in the UK, particularly among young men who mistakenly believe that they are safer than traditional illicit drugs. Spice is typically consumed as a herbal smoking mixture and is responsible for over half of all NPS use. While it produces similar effects to cannabis, it is more potent and can cause negative side effects such as dizziness, agitation, paranoia, and seizures. Based on the symptoms described in this scenario and the negative toxicology screen for other illicit drugs, Spice is the most likely cause.

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  • Question 64 - A 56-year-old known alcoholic comes to the emergency department with acute haematemesis. Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old known alcoholic comes to the emergency department with acute haematemesis. Emergency endoscopy shows bleeding oesophageal varices that are treated with banding. He is admitted and discharged 10 days later without any complications. What medication would be the most appropriate prophylactic agent to prevent further variceal bleeding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Portal Hypertension and Varices in Alcoholic Cirrhosis

      The portal vein is responsible for carrying blood from the gut and spleen to the liver. In cases of alcoholic cirrhosis, this flow can become obstructed, leading to increased pressure and the development of porto-systemic collaterals. The most common site for these collaterals to form is at the gastro-oesophageal junction, resulting in the development of varices. These varices are prone to rupture, leading to acute and potentially life-threatening haematemesis.

      To prevent rebleeding and reduce portal pressures, beta blockers such as propranolol are commonly used. Propranolol has been found to be the most effective treatment for portal hypertension and is licensed for this purpose. By understanding the underlying mechanisms of portal hypertension and variceal formation in alcoholic cirrhosis, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate management and prevent potentially fatal complications.

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  • Question 65 - A 35-year-old ex-footballer comes in seeking treatment for alcoholism and is given a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old ex-footballer comes in seeking treatment for alcoholism and is given a prescription for disulfiram.

      What is the mechanism of action of disulfiram?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits acetaldehyde dehydrogenase activity

      Explanation:

      Disulfiram and Acetaldehyde Syndrome

      Alcohol is primarily metabolized in the liver through a two-step process. First, alcohol dehydrogenase converts alcohol into acetaldehyde. Then, acetaldehyde dehydrogenase further metabolizes acetaldehyde into acetate. Disulfiram is a medication used to treat alcohol dependence by irreversibly inhibiting the oxidation of acetaldehyde. It does this by competing with the cofactor nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) for binding sites on acetaldehyde dehydrogenase. As a result, acetaldehyde levels increase, leading to the unpleasant side effects associated with acetaldehyde syndrome, such as headaches, nausea, and flushing.

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  • Question 66 - A young adult presents with bradycardia of 40 beats per minute and small...

    Incorrect

    • A young adult presents with bradycardia of 40 beats per minute and small pupils.

      Which of the following substances could be responsible for these clinical signs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methadone

      Explanation:

      Common Drugs and Their Effects

      Methadone, a synthetic compound similar to morphine and heroin, is often used as a substitute for an abused opiate. However, it has almost equal addiction liability. Opiates cause pinpoint pupils and bradycardia. Cannabis, on the other hand, affects motor control and impairs balance, tracking ability, hand-eye coordination, reaction time, and physical strength. It also produces a fast heart rate at low doses, but larger doses can slow the heart and lower blood pressure, leading to sudden death in some cases. Cocaine powerfully constricts blood vessels, leading to a massive rise in blood pressure and a risk of stroke. Khat, a leaf chewed mostly in Africa, has stimulant properties similar to amphetamine and causes tachycardia. LSD, when taken orally, induces perceptual changes, particularly visual hallucinations, accompanied by mild hypertension, tachycardia, mydriasis, flushing, salivation, lacrimation, and mild ataxia. The effects may last eight to 12 hours, and mood changes range from ecstatic euphoria to terrifying gloom and despair. While accidental death or suicide under the influence of LSD is reported, dependence is not recognized.

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  • Question 67 - A 60-year-old man has a history of alcohol dependence disorder for several years....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man has a history of alcohol dependence disorder for several years. He is currently experiencing confusion, double vision, and an unsteady gait. Additionally, his short term memory is poor. He reports abstaining from alcohol for the past week. What is the urgent vitamin requirement for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B1

      Explanation:

      Urgent Treatment Needed for Wernicke’s Encephalopathy

      Explanation: The most probable diagnosis for the patient is Wernicke’s encephalopathy, a neurological disorder caused by thiamine deficiency. The patient requires immediate treatment with vitamin B1 (thiamine) to prevent further damage to the brain. It is crucial to administer thiamine as soon as possible to avoid irreversible brain damage and potential death. Therefore, urgent medical attention is necessary to ensure the patient’s recovery.

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  • Question 68 - A 35-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner seeking help to quit using...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner seeking help to quit using illicit opioids but is struggling to achieve complete abstinence. He has recently been prescribed maintenance methadone by his local drug and alcohol withdrawal service.
      What is the next best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Have the patient collect their prescribed drugs daily from a nominated pharmacy

      Explanation:

      Best Practices for Prescribing Methadone for Opioid Addiction Treatment

      Methadone is a commonly prescribed medication for opioid addiction treatment. However, prescribing and dispensing methadone requires careful consideration and adherence to best practices. Here are some guidelines for prescribing methadone for opioid addiction treatment:

      1. Have the patient collect their prescribed drugs daily from a nominated pharmacy.
      2. Prescribe a week-long methadone regime, reducing the dosage on a daily basis.
      3. Ask the patient whether they would prefer an oral or injectable form of methadone.
      4. Give the patient a prescription which they can take to a pharmacy of their choice in order to collect their methadone.
      5. Nominate a representative who can collect the patient’s methadone on their behalf.

      It is important to note that prescribing and dispensing methadone should be done in consultation with the patient and their healthcare team. By following these best practices, patients can receive safe and effective treatment for opioid addiction.

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  • Question 69 - After a prolonged episode of binge drinking, a young patient is prepared to...

    Incorrect

    • After a prolonged episode of binge drinking, a young patient is prepared to stop. You are concerned about withdrawal symptoms. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends that vulnerable people in acute withdrawal be considered for hospital admission.
      Select from the list the feature that would LEAST SUGGEST vulnerability in this patient.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Age 65 years

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Medically Assisted Alcohol Withdrawal

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends that individuals who require medically assisted alcohol withdrawal should receive treatment in the most appropriate setting based on their age, severity of alcohol dependence, social support, and any physical or psychiatric comorbidities. Hospital admission should be considered for vulnerable individuals, such as those who are frail, have cognitive impairment or multiple comorbidities, lack social support, or have learning difficulties. Frailty, which includes loss of muscle mass, muscle weakness, and osteoporosis, is a geriatric syndrome that may require hospitalization. However, being 65 years of age doesn’t necessarily imply vulnerability. On the other hand, individuals aged 16 or 17 years are considered vulnerable according to NICE.

      Hospital admission is recommended for individuals with a history of withdrawal seizures or delirium tremens. Urgent admission is necessary for patients suspected of having Wernicke’s encephalopathy, who require intravenous thiamine treatment. Individuals younger than 16 years should also be admitted.

      In summary, NICE guidelines emphasize the importance of individualized treatment for medically assisted alcohol withdrawal, taking into account various factors such as age, severity of dependence, and comorbidities. Hospital admission should be considered for vulnerable individuals and those with a history of severe withdrawal symptoms.

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  • Question 70 - A 28-year-old man visits the General Practitioner seeking advice. He is addicted to...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man visits the General Practitioner seeking advice. He is addicted to heroin and is interested in maintenance drug substitution therapy. What medication is approved for substitution therapy in the United Kingdom for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Buprenorphine sublingual tablets

      Explanation:

      Substitute Medications for Opioid Dependence Treatment in Primary Care

      Substitute medications such as methadone and buprenorphine are effective in treating opioid dependence in primary care settings in the UK. The goal of opioid substitute treatment is to improve the quality of life of patients and reduce harm from illicit drug use. Buprenorphine is licensed for opioid dependence treatment and is available in sublingual tablets of 0.4 mg, 2 mg, and 8 mg. The 2 mg and 8 mg strengths are also available in combination with naloxone, which has an opiate effect when taken sublingually but causes withdrawal symptoms if injected. Diamorphine, while unlicensed, has the advantage of known purity and has been shown to reduce street heroin use in supervised injectable trials. Dihydrocodeine is not licensed for drug dependency and is difficult to supervise, making it prone to diversion for street use. Methadone oral solution is licensed for opioid dependence treatment, but methadone tablets are not licensed due to their potential for injection and high street value. Slow-release oral morphine is not licensed and should only be used in rare circumstances by specialists.

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  • Question 71 - A 42-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner due to abdominal pain. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner due to abdominal pain. She discloses that she drinks upward of 100 units a week and had alcohol withdrawal seizures in the past. She has had periods of abstinence of up to six months but has been daily drinking again for two years.
      Which of the following is the best assessment tool for a dependent drinker?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Severity of Alcohol Dependence Questionnaire (SADQ)

      Explanation:

      Assessment Tools for Alcohol Dependence: SADQ, AUDIT-C, CAGE, Full AUDIT, and GGT Blood Test

      Assessing the severity of alcohol dependence is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment for individuals struggling with alcohol misuse. There are several assessment tools available, each with its own strengths and limitations.

      The Severity of Alcohol Dependence Questionnaire (SADQ) is a recommended tool by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence. It consists of 20 questions and takes 5-10 minutes to complete. A score of >30 indicates severe alcohol dependence requiring assisted withdrawal, while a score of 15-30 indicates moderate dependence that can be managed in a community setting.

      The Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT-C) is an abridged version of the full AUDIT questionnaire, consisting of three questions. It is appropriate as an initial screen for alcohol misuse if time is limited.

      The Cut, Annoyed, Guilty, and Eye (CAGE) questionnaire is a quick screening test with four questions. However, it is not the best assessment tool for known dependent drinkers.

      The Full AUDIT questionnaire is recommended when there is ambiguity about the severity of alcohol misuse. However, it is not the best assessment tool for known dependent drinkers.

      The Gamma Glutamyl Transferase (GGT) blood test is often used to detect heavy drinking, but it is not sensitive and only detects a third of patients who drink >16 units daily.

      In conclusion, choosing the appropriate assessment tool for alcohol dependence depends on the individual’s situation and needs. It is important to consider the strengths and limitations of each tool to make an informed decision.

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  • Question 72 - A 17-year-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner by her mother because...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner by her mother because she has been drinking alcohol. Her mother disapproves of her daughter's decision, but is having difficulty justifying her stance to her daughter. She asks the General Practitioner to explain to her daughter some of the problems associated with alcohol use.
      From which of the following complications is she most at risk?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      The Risks and Benefits of Cannabis Use: Psychiatric Complications and Medicinal Benefits

      Cannabis use can have both negative and positive effects on an individual’s health. When it comes to psychiatric complications, the age of onset of cannabis smoking, duration of exposure, and individual risk factors play a significant role. Panic attacks are the most common complication, but early cannabis use (before the age of 15) carries a greater risk for schizophrenia than use starting later in life. In fact, one study found that 1 in 10 people who used cannabis before the age of 15 developed a schizophrenic-like disorder by age 26, compared to only 3% of older cannabis users. It’s important to note that the risk of schizophrenia is specific to cannabis and not other drugs.

      On the other hand, medicinal cannabis has been shown to have benefits for certain health conditions. It has been advocated for pain and spasticity in multiple sclerosis, pain control in sensory neuropathies, seizure control in epilepsy, and in the treatment of Crohn’s disease. As with any medication, it’s important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before use.

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  • Question 73 - A 30-year-old woman expecting her first child attends the Obstetrics Outpatient Clinic at...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman expecting her first child attends the Obstetrics Outpatient Clinic at 12 weeks' gestation. She is normally well, is prescribed no medications, doesn't smoke or drink alcohol, and uses cocaine most weekends. Her body mass index (BMI) is 24 kg/m2.
      What intervention is most likely to be recommended?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound (US) assessment of fetal size and Umbilical Artery Doppler at 26 weeks' gestation

      Explanation:

      Assessment and Management of a Pregnant Cocaine User

      Assessment and management of a pregnant woman who uses cocaine requires careful consideration of potential risks to both the mother and the developing fetus. In this case, the following interventions are considered:

      Ultrasound (US) assessment of fetal size and Umbilical Artery Doppler at 26 weeks’ gestation: This is indicated to screen for small gestational age (SGA) babies in those with one or more major risk factors, including cocaine use. As such, this woman would be offered an US for fetal growth and wellbeing at 26 weeks’ gestation.

      Aspirin 75 mg daily until delivery: Aspirin is used to reduce the risk of developing pre-eclampsia in pregnancy, where there are risk factors. However, cocaine use is not a risk factor, and none of the other risk factors apply to this patient, so this is not indicated.

      No additional intervention: Cocaine use is a risk factor for fetal growth restriction, so additional scans to assess fetal growth and wellbeing are indicated.

      Tinzaparin from 28 weeks gestation: Tinzaparin is prescribed as prophylaxis for venous thromboembolism (VTE) where risk factors are present. However, cocaine use is not a risk factor for VTE in pregnancy, and this woman has no additional risk factors, so tinzaparin would not be indicated.

      Uterine Artery Doppler at 20 weeks gestation: This is indicated to screen for SGA babies in those with three or more minor risk factors. However, this woman has just one of these risk factors and this is therefore not indicated.

      Overall, careful assessment and management of pregnant women who use cocaine is essential to ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.

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  • Question 74 - A 55-year-old man presents to his doctor with a six-month history of increasing...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to his doctor with a six-month history of increasing shortness of breath and multiple instances of coughing up blood in the past four weeks. He has a 40-year history of smoking 30 cigarettes per day and has worked as a painter and builder. Based on the probable diagnosis, which of the following risk factors is the most probable contributing factor? Choose only ONE option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tobacco

      Explanation:

      Identifying Risk Factors for Lung Cancer: A Case Study

      A patient presents with symptoms of lung cancer, including breathlessness and haemoptysis, as well as chest pain, cough, fatigue, and weight loss. Given that smoking is responsible for 72% of lung cancer cases in the UK and 86% of lung cancer deaths, it is the most likely risk factor in this case.

      While alcohol consumption is linked to an increased risk of certain cancers, it is not strongly associated with lung cancer. Exposure to arsenic is associated with certain occupations, but only accounts for 0.003% of lung cancers in the UK. Asbestos exposure, which is linked to construction and shipyard work, is responsible for 6-8% of lung cancer deaths, but tobacco is still a more significant risk factor.

      Exposure to silica, which is associated with certain industries such as glass manufacture and mining, increases lung cancer risk by 68%. However, it only accounts for 0.02% of lung cancers in the UK. While silica exposure may have contributed to this patient’s lung cancer, smoking remains the most likely cause. Overall, identifying and addressing risk factors for lung cancer is crucial for prevention and early detection.

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  • Question 75 - A 6-month-old baby girl is brought to the General Practice Surgery by her...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old baby girl is brought to the General Practice Surgery by her father, who is concerned as she has trouble sleeping. Her weight, length, and head circumference are all below the 5th centile. She has a flat nasal bridge, microcephaly, and retrognathia.
      What additional feature would support the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Speech and language delay

      Explanation:

      The presence of speech and language delay, along with growth failure and craniofacial abnormalities, is indicative of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS). FAS is caused by alcohol consumption during pregnancy and can also result in low IQ, hyperactivity, feeding difficulties, and problems with memory, coordination, problem-solving, and judgement. However, not all heavy drinking during pregnancy leads to FAS, as other factors such as the mother’s health, age, stress levels, and nutritional status may also play a role. Recurrent regurgitation after feeding is a common symptom of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GORD), which can cause feeding difficulties and failure to thrive, but is not associated with the physical abnormalities seen in FAS. Preterm delivery and small for gestational age babies with microcephaly are typical of infants born to mothers who use cocaine during pregnancy, but this is less common than FAS. Rocker bottom feet are a distinguishing feature of Edward’s syndrome (Trisomy 18), which also presents with low birth weight, micrognathia, microphthalmia, microstomia, low set ears, cleft palate, a short sternum, and thumb aplasia, but not with a flat philtrum or posteriorly rotated ears. Sensorineural deafness is associated with congenital rubella infection, which is the most common cause of congenital deafness in the developed world. Congenital rubella infection can also cause intrauterine growth restriction, microcephaly, microphthalmia, jaundice, learning disability, congenital heart disease, congenital cataracts, and congenital glaucoma, but is not associated with a flat philtrum, retrognathia, or posterior rotation of the ears.

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  • Question 76 - Chronic alcohol abuse is known to have a negative impact on the cardiovascular...

    Incorrect

    • Chronic alcohol abuse is known to have a negative impact on the cardiovascular system. Among the following conditions, which is the LEAST likely to be associated with excessive alcohol consumption?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      Alcohol Abuse and Cardiovascular Problems: Effects and Risks

      Alcohol abuse can lead to various cardiovascular problems, including atrial fibrillation, hypertension, strokes, and cardiomyopathy with heart failure. Additionally, infective endocarditis is more common in those who abuse alcohol. However, it is interesting to note that mild to moderate alcohol consumption, particularly in the form of wine and beer, which are rich in polyphenols, may actually have cardiovascular protective effects. This is true for both individuals with existing cardiovascular disease and healthy individuals. It is important to be aware of the potential risks associated with alcohol abuse, but also to consider the potential benefits of moderate alcohol consumption.

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  • Question 77 - The following patient is a 28-year-old ST1 doctor in anaesthetics. He has poorly...

    Incorrect

    • The following patient is a 28-year-old ST1 doctor in anaesthetics. He has poorly controlled asthma and casually mentions that he uses cannabis. What should be done in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Discuss the potential negative effects of smoking cannabis

      Explanation:

      The doctor’s actions as a cannabis user do not seem to be impacting his performance as an anaesthetist. It should be noted that the doctor has sought medical attention as a patient.

      It is not advisable to breach confidentiality by contacting the clinical director or threatening to involve the hospital. Additionally, involving the police is not appropriate as the issue of cannabis use should be handled differently.

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  • Question 78 - A 45-year-old man seeks assistance from his General Practitioner to quit drinking alcohol....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man seeks assistance from his General Practitioner to quit drinking alcohol. He confesses to consuming over 50 units of alcohol per week and has struggled to maintain a lower level of consumption. Although he has never encountered severe withdrawal symptoms, he is open to attending cognitive behaviour therapy and wonders if there is any medication that could aid him in his journey.
      What is the most suitable medication to recommend?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No medication should be prescribed

      Explanation:

      Medications for Alcohol Addiction: NICE Guidelines and Recommendations

      The National Institute of Healthcare Excellence (NICE) has issued guidelines on the management of alcohol withdrawal, stating that medication should only be prescribed by specialist teams. Acamprosate is a second-line treatment that stabilizes the chemical balance in the brain disrupted by alcohol withdrawal. Chlordiazepoxide, a long-acting benzodiazepine, is used to reduce withdrawal symptoms in alcohol detoxification programs but should not be prescribed in primary care. Fluoxetine, a selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor, has been used to decrease drinking but is not licensed for this purpose. Naltrexone and nalmefene are opioid receptor antagonists used as second-line treatments after assisted withdrawal. Nalmefene has advantages over naltrexone, including a longer half-life and greater oral bioavailability, but none of these options should be prescribed in primary care.

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  • Question 79 - A patient in their 20s presents with alcohol problems.

    This is long standing...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 20s presents with alcohol problems.

      This is long standing and they have struggled for many years. They have an allocated worker but feel they need something different. They ask about AA (Alcoholics Anonymous) and about drinking in the long term.

      Which one of the following best represents AA advice regarding future alcohol consumption?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alcoholics Anonymous suggests that once in 'recovery' the alcoholic can resume social drinking

      Explanation:

      Alcoholics Anonymous: A Global Organisation for Abstinence

      Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) is a non-governmental organisation that is solely funded by its own membership. Its message is one of total abstinence from alcohol, and it has a worldwide presence. Members meet regularly, sometimes daily, to share their experiences and support each other in their journey towards sobriety. The only requirement for membership is a desire to stop drinking alcohol.

      AA’s 12-step recovery programme is based on self-reliance and has been emulated by other organisations such as Narcotics Anonymous (NA). It can be highly effective for individuals struggling with addiction. However, AA doesn’t advocate for a return to social or moderate drinking after recovery from alcoholism.

      Overall, Alcoholics Anonymous provides a supportive community for individuals seeking to overcome their addiction to alcohol and maintain sobriety.

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  • Question 80 - Which of the following characteristics is least commonly linked to ecstasy overdose? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following characteristics is least commonly linked to ecstasy overdose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypernatraemia

      Explanation:

      Water intoxication can lead to the development of hyponatraemia.

      Understanding Ecstasy Poisoning

      Ecstasy, also known as MDMA or 3,4-Methylenedioxymethamphetamine, gained popularity in the 1990s with the rise of dance music culture. However, its use can lead to poisoning with various clinical features. Neurological symptoms such as agitation, anxiety, confusion, and ataxia are common, as well as cardiovascular symptoms like tachycardia and hypertension. Hyponatremia, hyperthermia, and rhabdomyolysis are also possible.

      When it comes to managing ecstasy poisoning, supportive measures are typically used. However, if simple measures fail, dantrolene may be administered to address hyperthermia. It’s important to understand the risks associated with ecstasy use and to seek medical attention if any symptoms of poisoning arise. By being aware of the potential dangers, individuals can make informed decisions about their drug use and take steps to protect their health.

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  • Question 81 - A 28-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner in a state of distress....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner in a state of distress. He reports that he has been abusing opiates and has suddenly stopped, experiencing withdrawal symptoms. Which of the following features is NOT typical of opiate withdrawal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Constricted pupils

      Explanation:

      Understanding Opioid Withdrawal Syndrome: Symptoms and Signs

      Opioid withdrawal syndrome can be likened to a severe flu-like illness. The symptoms include rhinorrhea, sneezing, yawning, lacrimation, abdominal and leg cramping, gooseflesh, sweating, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and rapid heart rate. Patients may also feel anxious, tremulous, and restless. Dilated pupils are a common sign of opioid withdrawal and cannot be easily faked. Therefore, careful inspection of the pupils is necessary when a patient claims to be experiencing withdrawal symptoms.

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  • Question 82 - A young man who abuses drugs typically exhibits certain behaviors. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • A young man who abuses drugs typically exhibits certain behaviors. Which of the following options would be atypical for such a person?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Excessive care in physical appearance

      Explanation:

      Recognizing Signs of Drug Abuse

      Drug abuse can manifest in various behavioural signs that can be observed by those around the individual. One common sign is a drop in attendance and performance at work or school. The individual may also engage in secretive or suspicious behaviours, such as hiding their drug use or lying about their whereabouts. They may frequently get into trouble, such as fights, accidents, or illegal activities.

      Another sign of drug abuse is a sudden change in friends, favourite haunts, and hobbies. The individual may distance themselves from their usual social circle and become involved with a new group of people who are also using drugs. Additionally, they may have an unexplained need for money and resort to borrowing or stealing to acquire it.

      Deterioration in physical appearance and personal grooming habits is also a common sign of drug abuse. The individual may neglect their hygiene and appearance, or they may take excessive care of their appearance if they have a partner who is unaware of their drug use.

      Recognizing these signs of drug abuse can help individuals intervene and seek help for themselves or their loved ones.

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  • Question 83 - You see a 56-year-old man with a medical background of hypertension and alcohol...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 56-year-old man with a medical background of hypertension and alcohol dependency. An alcohol history reveals he consumes 60 units of alcohol per week. He presents with feelings of unsteadiness while walking, for 2 weeks. You believe he may have developed Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
      Which of the following potential features is most suggestive of the development of Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ataxia

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of Alcohol Withdrawal vs. Wernicke’s Encephalopathy

      Alcohol withdrawal and Wernicke’s encephalopathy can both present with various symptoms, but it is important to differentiate between the two. Ataxia, confusion, ophthalmoplegia, nystagmus, memory disturbance, hypothermia, hypotension, and coma are all classic symptoms of Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which requires urgent admission for parenteral thiamine. Excessive sweating and anxiety are common symptoms of alcohol withdrawal, but not typically associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy. Headache can occur in both conditions, but a thorough history and examination are necessary to determine the cause. Tremor is also common in alcohol withdrawal, but a resting tremor is not the same as the ataxic features seen in Wernicke’s encephalopathy. Proper recognition and diagnosis of these conditions is crucial for appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 84 - A 50-year-old heavy drinker is experiencing confusion, ataxia, and double vision. What vitamin...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old heavy drinker is experiencing confusion, ataxia, and double vision. What vitamin deficiency is most likely causing these symptoms? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thiamine

      Explanation:

      Common vitamin deficiencies and their associated symptoms

      Thiamine deficiency, often seen in individuals with a history of alcohol abuse, can lead to Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which presents with confusion, ataxia, ophthalmoplegia, nystagmus, memory disturbance, hypothermia, hypotension, and coma. Vitamin B12 deficiency can cause macrocytic anaemia, glossitis, mouth ulcers, and neurological symptoms like paraesthesia and memory disturbance. Pellagra, a vitamin B3 deficiency, is characterised by diarrhoea, dermatitis, and dementia. Folate deficiency is commonly found in macrocytic anaemia and may present with symptoms like paraesthesia and fatigue. Vitamin D deficiency can lead to osteomalacia, which presents with bone and muscle pain and weakness.

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  • Question 85 - A 21-year-old man presents in a confused state. He is known to regularly...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man presents in a confused state. He is known to regularly smoke cannabis.
      Which of the following physical signs is NOT a recognised feature of cannabis intoxication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sweating

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cannabis Intoxication: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Cannabis intoxication refers to the problematic behavioural or psychological changes that occur after recent use of cannabis. These changes may include impaired motor coordination, euphoria, anxiety, a sensation of slowed time, impaired judgment, or social withdrawal. To diagnose cannabis intoxication, at least two physical signs must be present. However, sweating is not considered a recognized sign of cannabis intoxication, as it is more commonly associated with cannabis withdrawal. It is important for doctors to rule out any underlying medical conditions or mental disorders that may be causing the patient’s symptoms. This article provides an overview of the symptoms and diagnosis of cannabis intoxication.

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  • Question 86 - A 28-year-old man visits the General Practitioner (GP) as a temporary resident and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man visits the General Practitioner (GP) as a temporary resident and asks for opiate analgesics to manage a sickle-cell crisis. Which of the following choices would be the LEAST suspicious that he is a drug abuser?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staying for a month with his parents

      Explanation:

      Identifying Drug-Seeking Behavior in Patients: Signs to Look Out For

      When dealing with patients, it’s important to be able to identify drug-seeking behavior. One sign to look out for is when a patient claims to be a temporary resident in the area. This is a common tactic used by drug seekers who are just passing through. However, if the patient’s parents are also your patients and they are a stable couple, this can be reassuring.

      Other signs to watch for include strange smells such as cannabis, cocaine, or heroin, as well as the smell of acetone or glue on the breath. Additionally, needle tracks or difficult intravenous access may also be present. By being aware of these signs, healthcare professionals can better identify and address drug-seeking behavior in their patients.

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  • Question 87 - A 28-year-old mother who has not accessed antenatal care gives birth to a...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old mother who has not accessed antenatal care gives birth to a 2 kg baby. The baby becomes agitated, with a high-pitched cry, tremor, sweating, excessive yawning, and a high respiratory rate 24 hours after delivery. What is the most likely substance abused during this pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heroin

      Explanation:

      Neonatal Withdrawal Symptoms and Associated Substance Use During Pregnancy

      Neonatal withdrawal symptoms can occur when a baby is born to a mother who has used certain substances during pregnancy. Opiate withdrawal is characterized by classic symptoms such as sweating, yawning, vomiting, diarrhea, and seizures, and typically begins 24-48 hours after birth. Cocaine withdrawal can cause tremors, agitation, and difficulty feeding, and is associated with intrauterine growth restriction. Alcohol use during pregnancy can lead to fetal alcohol syndrome, which presents with craniofacial features, low birth weight, and neurodevelopmental dysfunction. Cannabis use is not typically associated with poor outcomes, while heavy use may lead to growth restriction and sudden infant death syndrome. Methadone withdrawal typically begins 48-72 hours after birth and presents with symptoms similar to opiate withdrawal. Antenatal care can help identify substance use during pregnancy and provide additional support and monitoring for both mother and baby.

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  • Question 88 - A depressed, 35-year-old woman presents with confusion, pinpoint pupils and bradycardia.

    She has...

    Incorrect

    • A depressed, 35-year-old woman presents with confusion, pinpoint pupils and bradycardia.

      She has been found in a distressed state at the home of her terminally ill mother where she has access to a number of different analgesics. You suspect an overdose.

      Which one of the following is most likely?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Opiate

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of Opiate Overdose

      An opiate overdose can lead to confusion, coma, pinpoint pupils, and bradycardia. Other symptoms may include hypotension, hypothermia, and respiratory arrest.

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  • Question 89 - A 27-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of fatigue and dyspnoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of fatigue and dyspnoea that have been getting worse over the past three months. He is typically healthy and has no family history of heart or lung disease or sudden death.
      During the examination, he seems nervous and fidgety, has an elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP), an enlarged heart, a loud third heart sound, and peripheral swelling. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals sinus tachycardia (ST) with a heart rate of 110 beats per minute (bpm) (normal range: 60-100 bpm).
      Based on the probable diagnosis, what is the most probable cause of this patient's symptoms? Choose only ONE option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cocaine

      Explanation:

      Causes of Dilated Cardiomyopathy: A Brief Overview

      Dilated cardiomyopathy is a condition that often presents as congestive heart failure, with symptoms such as dyspnoea, fatigue, and weakness. There are several potential causes of dilated cardiomyopathy, including cocaine use, amyloidosis, and sarcoidosis.

      Cocaine use can directly damage the heart, leading to heart failure, while amyloidosis can cause both dilated and restrictive cardiomyopathy. Sarcoidosis, a chronic inflammatory condition, is a rare cause of dilated cardiomyopathy.

      Other substances, such as cannabis and benzodiazepines, are not typically associated with cardiomyopathy. However, chronic cannabis use can lead to other heart and lung conditions, while abrupt withdrawal from benzodiazepines can cause a rare form of cardiomyopathy called Takotsubo cardiomyopathy.

      Overall, it is important to identify the underlying cause of dilated cardiomyopathy in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.

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  • Question 90 - A 26-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of retrosternal burning after...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of retrosternal burning after eating. He has no regular medication and is generally healthy. He has never smoked, but drinks 80 units of alcohol per week. Based on these factors, which is the most likely indication that he is dependent on alcohol?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Feels he needs more alcohol to have the same effect as it would have had last year

      Explanation:

      Identifying Problem Drinking: Symptoms and Screening Tools

      Problem drinking can have serious consequences on an individual’s health and daily life. Here are some common symptoms of alcohol dependence and screening tools that can help identify problem drinking:

      – Tolerance: Needing more alcohol to achieve the same effect as before.
      – Craving: Strong desire to drink.
      – Loss of control: Inability to stop drinking once started.
      – Withdrawal symptoms: Physical symptoms when not drinking.
      – AUDIT questionnaire: Comprehensive screening tool for problem drinking.
      – AUDIT-C: Shortened form of AUDIT questionnaire consisting of three questions.
      – CAGE questionnaire: Screening tool for problem drinking with a score of 2 or more indicating high likelihood of problem drinking.
      – Excessive alcohol consumption linked to over 200 medical conditions.
      – Types of alcohol consumed do not impact dependence.
      – Inability to fulfill responsibilities due to alcohol consumption is a feature of problem drinking.

      It is important to recognize the symptoms of problem drinking and utilize screening tools to identify and address the issue.

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  • Question 91 - Which one of the following statements regarding retirement planning is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding retirement planning is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nicotine replacement therapy and varenicline may be combined if patients have failed monotherapy

      Explanation:

      Smoking cessation is the process of quitting smoking. In 2008, NICE released guidance on how to manage smoking cessation. The guidance recommends that patients should be offered nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline or bupropion, and that clinicians should not favour one medication over another. These medications should be prescribed as part of a commitment to stop smoking on or before a particular date, and the prescription should only last until 2 weeks after the target stop date. If unsuccessful, a repeat prescription should not be offered within 6 months unless special circumstances have intervened. NRT can cause adverse effects such as nausea and vomiting, headaches, and flu-like symptoms. NICE recommends offering a combination of nicotine patches and another form of NRT to people who show a high level of dependence on nicotine or who have found single forms of NRT inadequate in the past.

      Varenicline is a nicotinic receptor partial agonist that should be started 1 week before the patient’s target date to stop. The recommended course of treatment is 12 weeks, but patients should be monitored regularly and treatment only continued if not smoking. Varenicline has been shown in studies to be more effective than bupropion, but it should be used with caution in patients with a history of depression or self-harm. Nausea is the most common adverse effect, and varenicline is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding.

      Bupropion is a norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist that should be started 1 to 2 weeks before the patient’s target date to stop. There is a small risk of seizures, and bupropion is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Having an eating disorder is a relative contraindication.

      In 2010, NICE recommended that all pregnant women should be tested for smoking using carbon monoxide detectors. All women who smoke, or have stopped smoking within the last 2 weeks, or those with a CO reading of 7 ppm or above should be referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services. The first-line interventions in pregnancy should be cognitive behaviour therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support from NHS Stop Smoking Services. The evidence for the use of NRT in pregnancy is mixed, but it is often used if the above measures fail. There is no evidence that it affects the child’s birthweight. Pregnant women

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  • Question 92 - A 38-year-old woman comes to your clinic for a regular check-up. During the...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman comes to your clinic for a regular check-up. During the consultation, she reveals that she smokes around 12 cigarettes per day and has made two attempts in the past to quit smoking. What is the most effective intervention for achieving smoking cessation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brief advice from a physician

      Explanation:

      Effective Interventions for Smoking Cessation: Brief Advice and Lifestyle Changes

      Brief advice from a physician can be a powerful tool in helping people quit smoking. In less than 30 seconds, a physician can ask a person if they smoke and if they have considered quitting, while also offering help. This type of intervention has been proven effective for lifestyle changes, such as smoking cessation and weight loss. However, acupuncture and hypnotherapy have little evidence to support their effectiveness in smoking cessation. While a prescribed exercise program may not be effective, short bouts of moderate exercise can help distract from cravings. Additionally, a low-calorie diet doesn’t impact a person’s ability to quit smoking successfully. By incorporating brief advice and lifestyle changes, physicians can help their patients successfully quit smoking.

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  • Question 93 - 32-year-old Sarah is on methadone 60mg once a day to manage her symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • 32-year-old Sarah is on methadone 60mg once a day to manage her symptoms from heroin withdrawal. She collects her methadone daily from the pharmacy and is supervised consuming it. One Friday morning Sarah fails to turn up to the pharmacy. What should the pharmacist do in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give him his usual 60mg methadone when he turns up the next day on Thursday and forfeit the dose from the day before

      Explanation:

      Understanding Opioid Misuse and its Management

      Opioid misuse is a serious problem that can lead to various complications and health risks. Opioids are substances that bind to opioid receptors, including natural opiates like morphine and synthetic opioids like buprenorphine and methadone. Signs of opioid misuse include rhinorrhoea, needle track marks, pinpoint pupils, drowsiness, watering eyes, and yawning.

      Complications of opioid misuse can range from viral and bacterial infections to venous thromboembolism and overdose, which can lead to respiratory depression and death. Psychological and social problems such as craving, crime, prostitution, and homelessness can also arise.

      In case of an opioid overdose, emergency management involves administering IV or IM naloxone, which has a rapid onset and relatively short duration of action. Harm reduction interventions such as needle exchange and testing for HIV, hepatitis B & C may also be offered.

      Patients with opioid dependence are usually managed by specialist drug dependence clinics or GPs with a specialist interest. Treatment options may include maintenance therapy or detoxification, with methadone or buprenorphine recommended as the first-line treatment by NICE. Compliance is monitored using urinalysis, and detoxification can last up to 4 weeks in an inpatient/residential setting and up to 12 weeks in the community. Understanding opioid misuse and its management is crucial in addressing this growing public health concern.

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  • Question 94 - You are helping a 29-year-old woman quit smoking. She has multiple medical conditions...

    Incorrect

    • You are helping a 29-year-old woman quit smoking. She has multiple medical conditions and takes various medications for them. Which of the following health issues would not prevent the prescription of bupropion (Zyban)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stable angina

      Explanation:

      Although there is no concrete evidence to support this, it is recommended to avoid using bupropion during pregnancy. The BNF states that bupropion should not be used in cases of acute alcohol or benzodiazepine withdrawal, severe hepatic cirrhosis, CNS tumor, history of seizures, eating disorders, or bipolar disorder.

      Smoking cessation is the process of quitting smoking. In 2008, NICE released guidance on how to manage smoking cessation. The guidance recommends that patients should be offered nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline or bupropion, and that clinicians should not favour one medication over another. These medications should be prescribed as part of a commitment to stop smoking on or before a particular date, and the prescription should only last until 2 weeks after the target stop date. If unsuccessful, a repeat prescription should not be offered within 6 months unless special circumstances have intervened. NRT can cause adverse effects such as nausea and vomiting, headaches, and flu-like symptoms. NICE recommends offering a combination of nicotine patches and another form of NRT to people who show a high level of dependence on nicotine or who have found single forms of NRT inadequate in the past.

      Varenicline is a nicotinic receptor partial agonist that should be started 1 week before the patient’s target date to stop. The recommended course of treatment is 12 weeks, but patients should be monitored regularly and treatment only continued if not smoking. Varenicline has been shown in studies to be more effective than bupropion, but it should be used with caution in patients with a history of depression or self-harm. Nausea is the most common adverse effect, and varenicline is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding.

      Bupropion is a norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist that should be started 1 to 2 weeks before the patient’s target date to stop. There is a small risk of seizures, and bupropion is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Having an eating disorder is a relative contraindication.

      In 2010, NICE recommended that all pregnant women should be tested for smoking using carbon monoxide detectors. All women who smoke, or have stopped smoking within the last 2 weeks, or those with a CO reading of 7 ppm or above should be referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services. The first-line interventions in pregnancy should be cognitive behaviour therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support from NHS Stop Smoking Services. The evidence for the use of NRT in pregnancy is mixed, but it is often used if the above measures fail. There is no evidence that it affects the child’s birthweight. Pregnant women

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  • Question 95 - A 62-year-old woman has been immobilised by a ruptured Achilles tendon. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman has been immobilised by a ruptured Achilles tendon. She is known to abuse alcohol. She requests a home visit because she is feeling unwell.
      Which of the following findings is NOT typically a feature of alcohol withdrawal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominal pain

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alcohol Withdrawal: Symptoms and Timeline

      Alcohol withdrawal is a range of symptoms that can occur when someone stops drinking alcohol. The severity of symptoms can vary greatly and typically appear about eight hours after the last drink. Symptoms peak on day two and usually improve by day four or five.

      Minor symptoms may appear within 6-12 hours and include cravings, anxiety, restlessness, depression, insomnia, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, tremors, headache, sweating, and palpitations. Hallucinations can occur 12-24 hours after the last drink, while tonic-clonic seizures may occur after 24-48 hours.

      The most severe form of alcohol withdrawal is delirium tremens, which can occur after 48-72 hours. It is important to seek medical attention if experiencing alcohol withdrawal symptoms, especially if they are severe. Understanding the timeline and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and support.

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  • Question 96 - A 75-year-old man is experiencing alcohol withdrawal syndrome. What class of drugs would...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man is experiencing alcohol withdrawal syndrome. What class of drugs would be the most suitable for treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Barbiturate

      Explanation:

      Benzodiazepines for Alcohol Withdrawal Syndrome

      Benzodiazepines are the preferred first line treatment for alcohol withdrawal syndrome. The two most commonly used benzodiazepines in primary care are chlordiazepoxide and diazepam. However, chlordiazepoxide is the preferred option due to its longer half-life and lower potential for abuse.

      Both chlordiazepoxide and diazepam are equally effective in treating alcohol withdrawal syndrome. However, it is recommended that patients using diazepam are supervised by someone else during the detoxification period.

      The NHS National Library for Health provides helpful information on alcohol detoxification, including a suggested tapering dose regime.

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  • Question 97 - A 35-year-old man visits his General Practitioner for a consultation after a routine...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits his General Practitioner for a consultation after a routine health check revealed an elevated level of γ-glutamyltransferase (γ-GT). He confesses to regularly consuming over 30 units of alcohol per week but doesn't exhibit any signs of alcohol dependence. What is the most accurate statement regarding brief interventions in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: They involve giving information, advice and support

      Explanation:

      Brief Interventions for Hazardous or Harmful Drinking

      Brief interventions are a valuable tool in addressing hazardous or harmful drinking. These interventions aim to identify potential problems and motivate individuals to take action. They are targeted at those who are not dependent on alcohol but may be at risk of developing problems. Brief interventions can range from a short 5-10 minute conversation to multiple sessions of motivational interviewing or counseling.

      During a brief intervention, patients are encouraged to consider both the negative and positive aspects of their drinking. If a patient decides to reduce their drinking, they are provided with support. These interventions are often opportunistic, meaning they are given when a patient is attending for another reason and has not necessarily expressed concern about their drinking.

      Brief interventions can be given by a variety of healthcare professionals, including general practitioners, nurses, hospital doctors, social workers, and probation officers. By providing early intervention and support, brief interventions can help prevent the development of more serious alcohol-related problems.

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  • Question 98 - A 55-year-old man with alcohol dependency disorder feels unwell. He stopped drinking six...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with alcohol dependency disorder feels unwell. He stopped drinking six days ago.

      Which one of the following symptoms is most suggestive of delirium tremens?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Visual hallucinations

      Explanation:

      Delirium Tremens: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Delirium tremens is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals who have been drinking heavily for a prolonged period of time. It is characterised by a range of symptoms, including confusion, agitation, tremors, tachycardia, fevers, high blood pressure, and visual hallucinations.

      One of the key features of delirium tremens is the presence of visual hallucinations, which can be particularly distressing for individuals experiencing this condition. These hallucinations may involve seeing things that are not there, such as animals or people, or distortions of reality, such as objects appearing to move or change shape.

      Other symptoms of delirium tremens can include sweating, nausea, vomiting, and seizures. In severe cases, delirium tremens can be life-threatening, and medical intervention may be necessary to manage the symptoms and prevent complications.

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  • Question 99 - A 55-year-old man is undergoing a community-based assisted alcohol withdrawal programme. He presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is undergoing a community-based assisted alcohol withdrawal programme. He presents to a routine follow-up with his General Practitioner and states that he feels he needs a slower withdrawal regimen as he had to have a drink the night before. He is on day six of the programme and is also asking for a larger supply of medication as he lives five miles from the pharmacy and cannot drive.
      Which of the following is most in line with the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommendations on how such a programme should be carried out?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No more than two days’ worth of medication to be dispensed at any one time

      Explanation:

      Assisted Alcohol Withdrawal in the Community: Recommendations and Guidelines

      To minimize the risk of overdose or supplying the drug to someone other than the intended patient, it is recommended that no more than two days’ worth of medication be dispensed at any one time. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence provides the following recommendations for assisted alcohol withdrawal in the community:

      – Use a benzodiazepine (chlordiazepoxide or diazepam) as the drug of choice.
      – Use fixed-dose medication regimens.
      – Monitor the patient every other day.
      – If possible, have a family member or carer oversee the use of medication.
      – Adjust the dose if there are signs of severe withdrawal or oversedation.
      – Gradually reduce the dose of benzodiazepine over 7-10 days to zero.
      – Do not offer clomethiazole due to a risk of overdose or it being misused.

      A symptom-triggered variable dosage regimen is preferred over a fixed-dose regimen, where doses are titrated in response to a points-based system. Detoxification should continue during incomplete abstinence, but if a patient relapses and starts drinking again during detoxification, the medication should be stopped. The standard regimen involves reducing the dose of benzodiazepine over 7-10 days, to reach zero at the end of the course. Patients on a community withdrawal program should be monitored every other day, with slow dose reduction until a low maintenance level is reached.

      Guidelines for Safe and Effective Assisted Alcohol Withdrawal in the Community

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  • Question 100 - A 72-year-old woman comes in asking for 'her sleeping pills'. Upon reviewing her...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman comes in asking for 'her sleeping pills'. Upon reviewing her records, you find out that she has been taking 40 mg of Temazepam for 20 years. After some questioning, she expresses a desire to discontinue use. How should this situation be handled?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Convert to an equivalent dose of diazepam and then reduce slowly

      Explanation:

      The Risks of Hypnotic Dependence

      Hypnotic dependence remains a significant concern, as benzodiazepines and Z-class drugs have the potential to cause dependence without proven efficacy in treating chronic insomnia. Withdrawal from these drugs can lead to rebound insomnia and even seizures with high doses of benzodiazepines. Additionally, hypnotics have a street value and can be diverted for non-medical use. To mitigate these risks, it is recommended that prescriptions for hypnotics be limited to one week. If a doctor wishes to withdraw a patient from a hypnotic, they should first convert the dosage to an equivalent dose of diazepam, which has a longer half-life, allowing for a slower withdrawal process.

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