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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy presents with a history of seasonal 'watering eyes' for the past 2 years. His symptoms have worsened this year. He complains of bilateral itchy eyes and difficulty in doing school work due to excessive tearing. There is no history of nasal symptoms, asthma or eczema. On examination, there is conjunctival redness, bulging tarsal conjunctivae and mild eyelid swelling. What is the initial management approach for this patient?
Your Answer: Instructions on 'eye care' including warm compresses and eyelid cleaning
Correct Answer: Topical antihistamines
Explanation:The symptoms exhibited by this patient are indicative of allergic conjunctivitis. The initial treatment approach for this condition involves the use of topical antihistamines. In case of additional symptoms like rhinosinusitis, oral antihistamines may also be prescribed.
Understanding Allergic Conjunctivitis
Allergic conjunctivitis is a condition that can occur on its own, but is often associated with hay fever. It is characterized by bilateral symptoms such as conjunctival erythema and swelling, as well as itchiness and swelling of the eyelids. Those with a history of atopy may be more prone to developing allergic conjunctivitis, which can be seasonal (due to pollen) or perennial (due to exposure to dust mites, washing powder, or other allergens).
When it comes to managing allergic conjunctivitis, first-line treatment typically involves the use of topical or systemic antihistamines. If these prove ineffective, second-line treatment options such as topical mast-cell stabilizers like Sodium cromoglicate and nedocromil may be recommended. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options for allergic conjunctivitis, individuals can take steps to manage their condition and reduce discomfort.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 60-year-old man presents with a sudden onset of vision loss in his left eye upon waking up this morning. He reports no pain in his eye. His medical history includes diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Upon fundoscopic examination, the right eye appears normal, but the left eye shows multiple retinal haemorrhages. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Central retinal vein occlusion
Explanation:The sudden painless loss of vision and severe retinal haemorrhages observed on fundoscopy in this patient are indicative of central retinal vein occlusion. Amaurosis fugax, which is caused by atheroembolism from the carotid arteries, results in temporary vision loss that resolves within a few minutes. In contrast, this patient’s vision loss is persistent. While central retinal artery occlusion also causes acute painless vision loss, it is characterized by a loss of relative afferent pupillary defect, a cherry-red macula, and a white/pale retina on fundoscopy. Hypertensive retinopathy may cause flame-shaped haemorrhages and cotton wool spots on the retina, but it does not result in sudden vision loss.
Understanding Central Retinal Vein Occlusion
Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) is a possible cause of sudden, painless loss of vision. It is more common in older individuals and those with hypertension, cardiovascular disease, glaucoma, or polycythemia. The condition is characterized by a sudden reduction or loss of visual acuity, usually affecting only one eye. Fundoscopy reveals widespread hyperemia and severe retinal hemorrhages, which are often described as a stormy sunset.
Branch retinal vein occlusion (BRVO) is a similar condition that affects a smaller area of the fundus. It occurs when a vein in the distal retinal venous system is blocked, usually at arteriovenous crossings.
Most patients with CRVO are managed conservatively, but treatment may be necessary in some cases. For instance, intravitreal anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) agents may be used to manage macular edema, while laser photocoagulation may be necessary to treat retinal neovascularization.
Overall, understanding the risk factors, features, and management options for CRVO is essential for prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment. Proper management can help prevent further vision loss and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman, who has a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus, visits your GP clinic complaining of sudden vision loss in her right eye. During direct ophthalmoscopy, you observe no discernible features of the retina or disc. However, you do notice redness in the vitreous. What is the probable reason for this presentation?
Your Answer: Pre-proliferative diabetic retinopathy
Correct Answer: Proliferative diabetic retinopathy
Explanation:Vitreous hemorrhage caused by proliferative retinopathy is more frequently observed in individuals with T1DM compared to T2DM. This is due to the presence of retinal neovascularization, which results in fragile blood vessels that are susceptible to bleeding. Conversely, vitreous hemorrhage is not typically associated with background, pre-proliferative diabetic retinopathy, or diabetic maculopathy as these conditions do not involve retinal neovascularization.
Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy
Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.
Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.
Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for non-proliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 68-year-old man came to your GP clinic complaining of stiffness and pain in his knee joints, painful urination, and a red eye with circumcorneal redness, hypopyon, and photophobia. What is the most probable reason for his red eye?
Your Answer: Iritis
Explanation:When dealing with reactive arthritis, it is important to keep in mind that anterior uveitis may also be present in addition to conjunctivitis.
Since reactive arthritis is linked to HLA-B27, it is important to consider the possibility of iritis or anterior uveitis, even though conjunctivitis is more commonly seen as part of the triad of symptoms. The specific description of a red eye with circumcorneal redness and hypopyon suggests iritis rather than conjunctivitis. Conjunctivitis typically causes a more generalized redness of the eye and hypopyon is not commonly observed. Corneal ulceration is unlikely in this case as there is no mention of increased fluorescein uptake on the cornea or a visible ulcer. Scleritis can be ruled out as it does not present with circumcorneal redness or hypopyon. While scleritis is associated with systemic conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis and other collagen/vascular disorders like Wegener’s granulomatosis, polyarteritis nodosa, and systemic lupus erythematosus, it is not associated with reactive arthritis. Blepharitis is also an incorrect diagnosis as there were no eyelid symptoms and blepharitis does not typically cause a red eye with photophobic symptoms.
Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. It is a common cause of red eye and is associated with HLA-B27, which may also be linked to other conditions. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small or irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness, tearing, and the presence of pus and inflammatory cells in the front part of the eye. This condition may be associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and treatment may involve the use of cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman arrived at the Emergency Department complaining of a painful and red eye with watering and mild sensitivity to light. The diagnosis was uncertain, but it was suspected to be either episcleritis or scleritis. The on-call ophthalmologist was contacted, and they requested that a specific eye drop be administered to differentiate between the two conditions.
Which of the following eye drops is capable of distinguishing between episcleritis and scleritis?Your Answer: Chloramphenicol eye drops
Correct Answer: Phenylephrine eye drops
Explanation:Distinguishing between episcleritis and scleritis can be achieved using eye drops. By administering the drops, it is possible to observe whether the redness in the eye blanches or not. If it does, then the condition is episcleritis, but if it doesn’t, then it is scleritis. This skill is particularly valuable for those working in an Emergency Medicine rotation. None of the other options are useful for distinguishing between these two conditions.
Understanding Episcleritis
Episcleritis is a condition that involves the sudden onset of inflammation in the episclera of one or both eyes. While the majority of cases are idiopathic, there are some associated conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease and rheumatoid arthritis. Symptoms of episcleritis include a red eye, mild pain or irritation, watering, and mild photophobia. However, unlike scleritis, episcleritis is typically not painful.
One way to differentiate between the two conditions is by applying gentle pressure on the sclera. If the injected vessels are mobile, it is likely episcleritis. In contrast, scleritis involves deeper vessels that do not move. Phenylephrine drops may also be used to distinguish between the two conditions. If the eye redness improves after phenylephrine, a diagnosis of episcleritis can be made.
Approximately 50% of cases of episcleritis are bilateral. Treatment for episcleritis is typically conservative, with artificial tears sometimes being used. Understanding the symptoms and differences between episcleritis and scleritis can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management for their eye condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl comes to the eye clinic with a painful red eye after a minor injury. The doctor diagnoses her with a corneal ulcer in her left eye and prescribes topical antibiotics for treatment. She asks for a prescription of the same numbing eye drops that were used during the examination to use at home. What is the most appropriate pain management for this condition?
Your Answer: Tetracaine eyedrops two times a day
Correct Answer: Oral analgesics
Explanation:It is not recommended to prescribe anaesthetic eye drops to patients with corneal ulcers as it can potentially worsen the condition by slowing down the healing process.
Understanding Corneal Ulcers
A corneal ulcer is a condition that occurs when there is a defect in the cornea, which is usually caused by an infection. It is important to note that corneal abrasions, on the other hand, are typically caused by physical trauma. There are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing a corneal ulcer, including contact lens use and vitamin A deficiency, which is particularly common in developing countries.
The pathophysiology of corneal ulcers can vary depending on the underlying cause. Bacterial, fungal, and viral infections can all lead to the development of a corneal ulcer. In some cases, contact lens use can also be associated with a type of infection called Acanthamoeba keratitis.
Symptoms of a corneal ulcer typically include eye pain, sensitivity to light, and excessive tearing. Additionally, a focal fluorescein staining of the cornea may be present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 6-week-old infant to your clinic suspecting that the baby may have a squint. She has observed that the baby's eyes do not always appear to be looking in the same direction. However, she reports that the baby is developing well and there are no concerns regarding their vision.
What would be the most suitable course of action in this situation?Your Answer: Provide eye patch to wear during day
Correct Answer: Reassure dad that intermittent squint in newborns is normal
Explanation:It is considered normal for newborns under 3 months to have intermittent squint due to their underdeveloped eye muscles. Therefore, there is no need for investigation. However, if the squint persists or there are concerns about the newborn’s vision, referral to secondary care is recommended. In older children, eye patches may be used to prevent lazy eye.
Squint, also known as strabismus, is a condition where the visual axes are misaligned. There are two types of squints: concomitant and paralytic. Concomitant squints are more common and are caused by an imbalance in the extraocular muscles. On the other hand, paralytic squints are rare and are caused by the paralysis of extraocular muscles. It is important to detect squints early on as they can lead to amblyopia, where the brain fails to process inputs from one eye and favours the other eye over time.
To detect a squint, a corneal light reflection test can be performed by holding a light source 30cm from the child’s face to see if the light reflects symmetrically on the pupils. The cover test is also used to identify the nature of the squint. This involves asking the child to focus on an object, covering one eye, and observing the movement of the uncovered eye. The test is then repeated with the other eye covered.
If a squint is detected, it is important to refer the child to secondary care. Eye patches may also be used to help prevent amblyopia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman came to your GP clinic complaining of sudden onset itching, burning, and watering in both eyes. During the examination, you noticed moderate chemosis in both eyes and conjunctival follicles. You also discovered tender preauricular lymph nodes while palpating her neck. She informed you that her boyfriend had similar symptoms a week ago. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adenoviral conjunctivitis
Explanation:Adenoviral conjunctivitis is easily spread from person to person. The patient’s boyfriend had the same condition a week ago, so it’s not surprising that she has it now. This type of viral conjunctivitis is the most common.
There is no evidence of herpes simplex because there are no cold sores or dendritic ulcers visible with fluorescein uptake.
Bacterial and chlamydial conjunctivitis are unlikely because there is no pus discharge. Allergic conjunctivitis is also unlikely because there is no history of atopy or itchiness.Conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes with a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.
In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves without treatment within one to two weeks. However, topical antibiotic therapy is often offered to patients, such as Chloramphenicol drops given every two to three hours initially or Chloramphenicol ointment given four times a day initially. Alternatively, topical fusidic acid can be used, especially for pregnant women, and treatment is twice daily.
For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn, and patients should be advised not to share towels. School exclusion is not necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of left eye pain. He has been unable to wear his contact lenses for the past day due to the severity of the pain. He describes the pain as intense and wonders if there is something lodged in his eye. Upon examination, diffuse hyperemia is observed in the left eye. The left cornea appears hazy, and there is a hypopyon present. Pupillary reaction is normal, but visual acuity is reduced on the left side, and the patient experiences some photophobia. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Keratitis
Explanation:A hypopyon in anterior uveitis can be seen, but a normal pupillary reaction and contact lens use suggest a diagnosis of keratitis.
Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea
Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.
Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.
Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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An elderly man aged 76 visits the surgery after a visit to his optician who noted raised intra-ocular pressure and decreased peripheral vision. He has a medical history of asthma and type 2 diabetes mellitus. The patient is referred to ophthalmology. What is the probable treatment he will receive for his likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Latanoprost
Explanation:Patients with a history of asthma should be prescribed a prostaglandin analogue as the first-line treatment.
Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma is a type where the iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is responsible for draining aqueous humour from the eye. This results in increased resistance to outflow and raised intraocular pressure. The condition affects 0.5% of people over 40 years old and increases with age. Genetics also play a role, with first-degree relatives having a 16% chance of developing the disease. Symptoms are usually absent, and diagnosis is made through routine eye examinations. Investigations include visual field tests, tonometry, and slit lamp examinations. Treatment involves eye drops to lower intraocular pressure, with prostaglandin analogues being the first line of treatment. Surgery may be considered in refractory cases. Regular reassessment is necessary to monitor progression and prevent visual field loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old pregnant woman came to your GP clinic complaining of mild pain and redness in both eyes that had been present for a week. During the examination, you noticed diffuse conjunctival injection with some purulent discharges and crusted eyelids. What is the ONE treatment you should initiate for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fusidic acid eye drops
Explanation:Pregnant women with bacterial conjunctivitis should use topical fusidic acid eye drops for treatment. It is not recommended to use chloramphenicol ointment or eye drops in pregnant patients. Oral antibiotics are typically unnecessary for treating bacterial conjunctivitis, and steroid eye drops are not effective. While viral conjunctivitis can be monitored without treatment, bacterial conjunctivitis requires prompt treatment with topical antibiotics to prevent a secondary bacterial infection.
Conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes with a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.
In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves without treatment within one to two weeks. However, topical antibiotic therapy is often offered to patients, such as Chloramphenicol drops given every two to three hours initially or Chloramphenicol ointment given four times a day initially. Alternatively, topical fusidic acid can be used, especially for pregnant women, and treatment is twice daily.
For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn, and patients should be advised not to share towels. School exclusion is not necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old man presents to the eye casualty department with an eye injury sustained during a game of squash. Upon examination of his right eye, there is evidence of blood in the anterior chamber, proptosis, a stiff eyelid, and a relative afferent pupillary defect, leading to a suspected diagnosis of orbital compartment syndrome. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immediate canthotomy
Explanation:In cases of ocular trauma, it is important to assess for orbital compartment syndrome as it may require urgent decompression before any imaging is done.
A man presents with symptoms of orbital compartment syndrome, including blood in the front part of the eye, bulging of the eye, a stiff eyelid, and a pupil defect. This is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention as it can lead to permanent vision loss. The condition is caused by an increase in volume within the orbit, which can be due to bleeding or swelling of the eye. It can be caused by surgical or external trauma, such as a sports injury. In this case, the correct course of action is to perform an immediate canthotomy to relieve the pressure.
B-scan ultrasonography is not the correct answer. This imaging technique is useful for examining the back part of the eye and is used to diagnose conditions such as retinal detachment or vitreous hemorrhage. It is not helpful in diagnosing orbital compartment syndrome.
Immediate IV acetazolamide is also not the correct answer. While this medication can be used to reduce intraocular pressure in acute closed-angle glaucoma, it is not the primary treatment for orbital compartment syndrome.
Non-contrast head CT is not the correct answer either. While this imaging test can help confirm the diagnosis and determine the cause of the condition, it should not be done before immediate surgical decompression is performed due to the severity of the condition.
Ocular Trauma and Hyphema
Ocular trauma can lead to hyphema, which is the presence of blood in the anterior chamber of the eye. This condition requires immediate referral to an ophthalmic specialist for assessment and management. The main concern is the risk of raised intraocular pressure due to the blockage of the angle and trabecular meshwork with erythrocytes. Patients with high-risk cases are often admitted and require strict bed rest to prevent the redispersement of blood. Even isolated hyphema requires daily ophthalmic review and pressure checks initially as an outpatient.
In addition to hyphema, an assessment should also be made for orbital compartment syndrome, which can occur secondary to retrobulbar hemorrhage. This is a true ophthalmic emergency and requires urgent management. Symptoms of orbital compartment syndrome include eye pain and swelling, proptosis, ‘rock hard’ eyelids, and a relevant afferent pupillary defect.
To manage orbital compartment syndrome, urgent lateral canthotomy is necessary to decompress the orbit. This should be done before diagnostic imaging to prevent further damage. Proper management and prompt referral to an ophthalmic specialist can help prevent vision loss and other complications associated with ocular trauma and hyphema.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man comes to you complaining of severe, stabbing pain in his right eye that has been occurring once a day for the past few weeks. The pain lasts for about 30 minutes and he is often seen pacing around and shouting during these episodes. His wife reports that his right eye appears red and he has clear nasal discharge during the episodes. Based on this presentation, what advice would you give the patient to prevent further episodes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alcohol
Explanation:Cluster headaches are often triggered by alcohol, and they typically affect individuals of a certain age and gender.
Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain typically occurs once or twice a day, lasting between 15 minutes to 2 hours. The pain is intense and sharp, usually around one eye, and is accompanied by redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, and nasal stuffiness. Some patients may also experience miosis and ptosis.
To manage cluster headaches, 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan can be used for acute treatment, with response rates of 80% and 75% respectively within 15 minutes. Verapamil is the drug of choice for prophylaxis, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches, especially with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man came to your GP clinic complaining of blurred vision for the past month. He has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. During direct ophthalmoscopy, you observed a ring of hard exudates at the fovea, but the rest of the retina appeared normal. What is the probable diagnosis for his vision blurring?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diabetic maculopathy
Explanation:Diabetic maculopathy refers to any structural anomaly in the macula caused by diabetes. The patient in this case had hard exudates in the macula, which resulted in blurred vision. As there were no abnormalities in the rest of the retina, options 1-3 (background, pre-proliferative and proliferative diabetic retinopathies) are incorrect. Although vitreous hemorrhage can cause blurred vision in cases of proliferative retinopathy, there is no indication of it in the given history.
Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy
Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.
Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.
Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for non-proliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man presents to the eye casualty department on his own accord. He mentions that he rarely visits doctors but decided to seek medical attention for his current issue. The patient has a medical history of ulcerative colitis.
Upon initial examination, the doctor notes inflammation in either the episclera or the sclera and proceeds to perform a slit lamp examination.
What is the classic distinguishing feature between the two diagnoses based on the history and examination?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pain
Explanation:Distinguishing between scleritis and episcleritis cannot be based solely on the redness of the eyes, as both conditions result in visible redness.
Rheumatoid Arthritis and Its Effects on the Eyes
Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects various parts of the body, including the eyes. In fact, ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis are quite common, with approximately 25% of patients experiencing eye problems. These eye problems can range from mild to severe and can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life.
The most common ocular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis is keratoconjunctivitis sicca, also known as dry eye syndrome. This condition occurs when the eyes do not produce enough tears, leading to discomfort, redness, and irritation. Other ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis include episcleritis, scleritis, corneal ulceration, and keratitis. Episcleritis and scleritis both cause redness in the eyes, with scleritis also causing pain. Corneal ulceration and keratitis both affect the cornea, with corneal ulceration being a more severe condition that can lead to vision loss.
In addition to these conditions, patients with rheumatoid arthritis may also experience iatrogenic ocular manifestations. These are side effects of medications used to treat the disease. For example, steroid use can lead to cataracts, while the use of chloroquine can cause retinopathy.
Overall, it is important for patients with rheumatoid arthritis to be aware of the potential ocular manifestations of the disease and to seek prompt medical attention if they experience any eye-related symptoms. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent vision loss and improve overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man arrived at the Emergency Department complaining of sudden eye pain, sensitivity to light, and feeling like there was something in his right eye after taking out his contact lens. Upon fluorescein examination, the cornea showed uptake. What is the initial treatment recommended for this patient's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical antibiotic
Explanation:To prevent secondary bacterial infection, topical antibiotics should be administered for a patient with a likely diagnosis of corneal abrasion. It is crucial to use fluorescein to confirm the integrity of the corneal epithelium. While topical lubricant can be used, it is not the primary treatment. Topical anaesthesia is not recommended as it may cause further corneal abrasion due to loss of sensation. Topical steroid is not used to treat corneal abrasion. Simply observing and waiting for the condition to improve is not an appropriate approach.
Understanding Corneal Abrasion
Corneal abrasion is a condition that occurs when there is damage to the corneal epithelium, which is the outermost layer of the cornea. This type of injury is often caused by local trauma, such as scratching the eye with fingernails or getting hit by a branch. The symptoms of corneal abrasion include eye pain, tearing, sensitivity to light, a feeling of having a foreign object in the eye, and redness of the conjunctiva. In addition, the affected eye may experience a decrease in visual acuity.
To diagnose corneal abrasion, doctors typically use fluorescein staining. This involves placing a special dye in the eye that will highlight any areas of damage to the cornea. The abrasion will appear as a yellow-stained area on the surface of the eye. To enhance visualization, doctors may use a cobalt blue filter or a Wood’s lamp.
The treatment for corneal abrasion typically involves the use of topical antibiotics to prevent secondary bacterial infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of bilateral gritty and sore eyes that have persisted for several weeks. He denies any history of trauma and has not experienced any discharge. He has not noticed any blurred vision. The patient's medical history is significant only for back pain, which he is managing with paracetamol and amitriptyline. During the examination, his visual acuity is 6/6 corrected bilaterally, and there are no apparent corneal or pupillary abnormalities. His eyes are not red, and eye movements are normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dry eye syndrome
Explanation:Dry eye syndrome is a common cause of bilateral sore eyes with a gritty or burning sensation. This can be treated with topical lubrication, such as hypromellose. While an examination may appear normal, fluorescein staining can reveal superficial punctate staining and Schirmer’s test may indicate reduced tear production. It is important to consider allergic conjunctivitis as a possible differential diagnosis, especially if symptoms persist for a prolonged period of time and there are no signs of conjunctival involvement.
Understanding Dry Eye Syndrome
Dry eye syndrome is a condition that causes discomfort in both eyes, with symptoms such as dryness, grittiness, and soreness that worsen throughout the day. Exposure to wind can also cause watering of the eyes. People with Meibomian gland dysfunction may experience symptoms that are worse upon waking, with eyelids sticking together and redness of the eyelids. In some cases, dry eye syndrome can lead to complications such as conjunctivitis or corneal ulceration, which can cause severe pain, photophobia, redness, and loss of visual acuity.
Although there may be no abnormalities on examination, eyelid hygiene is the most appropriate management step for dry eye syndrome. This can help control blepharitis, which is a common condition associated with dry eye syndrome. By understanding the symptoms and appropriate management steps, individuals with dry eye syndrome can find relief and improve their overall eye health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man came to the clinic complaining of pain, redness, and blurring of vision in his left eye. Upon fundoscopy, a combination of white and red retinal lesions was observed, indicating chorioretinitis. What is the essential test that must be performed to determine the underlying cause of chorioretinitis in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HIV test
Explanation:Performing an HIV test is crucial in patients with AIDS, as it is the primary diagnostic tool for identifying the underlying cause. While options 1, 2, and 3 may be necessary as baseline investigations in most patients, they are not sufficient for diagnosing the specific condition in this case.
Causes of Chorioretinitis
Chorioretinitis is a medical condition that affects the retina and choroid, which are the layers of tissue at the back of the eye. There are several causes of chorioretinitis, including syphilis, cytomegalovirus, toxoplasmosis, sarcoidosis, and tuberculosis.
Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. It can cause chorioretinitis as part of its secondary stage. Cytomegalovirus is a common virus that can cause chorioretinitis in people with weakened immune systems, such as those with HIV/AIDS. Toxoplasmosis is a parasitic infection that can be contracted from contaminated food or water, and it can cause chorioretinitis in some cases.
Sarcoidosis is a condition that causes inflammation in various parts of the body, including the eyes. It can lead to chorioretinitis in some cases. Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can affect the lungs, but it can also spread to other parts of the body, including the eyes. It can cause chorioretinitis as a rare complication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man with ankylosing spondylitis (AS) comes in with photophobia and a painful red eye.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Uveitis
Explanation:Understanding Eye Conditions Associated with Ankylosing Spondylitis
Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) is a chronic inflammatory disorder that primarily affects the sacroiliac joints and axial skeleton. However, it can also lead to various eye conditions. Uveitis, also known as iritis or iridocyclitis, is the most common extra-articular manifestation of AS, occurring in 20-30% of patients. Acute anterior uveitis is often unilateral and presents with symptoms such as a painful red eye, photophobia, and blurred vision. Patients with uveitis may also have or develop other spondyloarthropathies, including reactive arthritis, undifferentiated spondyloarthropathy, and psoriatic arthritis.
Acute angle-closure glaucoma, on the other hand, is not associated with AS. It is a medical emergency that needs immediate treatment to prevent vision loss. Conjunctivitis, which is responsible for approximately 30% of all eye complaints, is usually benign and self-limited. Herpes zoster ophthalmicus and keratoconus are also not associated with AS.
It is important for patients with AS to be aware of these potential eye conditions and seek urgent ophthalmological assessment if they experience any symptoms. Early diagnosis and treatment can prevent vision loss and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old child is presented for surgery due to the mother's observation of 'cross-eyed' appearance. The corneal light reflection test confirms the diagnosis. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to ophthalmology
Explanation:It is recommended to refer children who have a squint to ophthalmology for further evaluation.
Squint, also known as strabismus, is a condition where the visual axes are misaligned. There are two types of squints: concomitant and paralytic. Concomitant squints are more common and are caused by an imbalance in the extraocular muscles. On the other hand, paralytic squints are rare and are caused by the paralysis of extraocular muscles. It is important to detect squints early on as they can lead to amblyopia, where the brain fails to process inputs from one eye and favours the other eye over time.
To detect a squint, a corneal light reflection test can be performed by holding a light source 30cm from the child’s face to see if the light reflects symmetrically on the pupils. The cover test is also used to identify the nature of the squint. This involves asking the child to focus on an object, covering one eye, and observing the movement of the uncovered eye. The test is then repeated with the other eye covered.
If a squint is detected, it is important to refer the child to secondary care. Eye patches may also be used to help prevent amblyopia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 82-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of sudden loss of vision in his left eye since this morning. He denies any associated eye pain or headaches and is otherwise feeling well. His medical history includes ischaemic heart disease. Upon examination, the patient has no vision in his left eye. The left pupil shows poor response to light, but the consensual light reaction is normal. Fundoscopy reveals a red spot over a pale and opaque retina. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Central retinal artery occlusion
Explanation:Central Retinal Artery Occlusion: A Rare Cause of Sudden Vision Loss
Central retinal artery occlusion is a rare condition that can cause sudden, painless loss of vision in one eye. It is typically caused by a blood clot or inflammation in the artery that supplies blood to the retina. This can be due to atherosclerosis or arteritis, such as temporal arteritis. Symptoms may include a relative afferent pupillary defect and a cherry red spot on a pale retina. Unfortunately, the prognosis for this condition is poor, and management can be difficult. Treatment may involve identifying and addressing any underlying conditions, such as intravenous steroids for temporal arteritis. In some cases, intraarterial thrombolysis may be attempted, but the results of this treatment are mixed. Overall, central retinal artery occlusion is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man came to the clinic with painless, blurry vision in his right eye. He reported no other ocular symptoms and had a history of bilateral cataract surgery five years ago. What is the most probable reason for his vision impairment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Posterior capsule opacification
Explanation:Blurred vision years after cataract surgery may be caused by posterior capsule opacification, which can occur even after the cataract has been removed and an artificial lens has been implanted.
Understanding Cataracts: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
A cataract is a common eye condition that affects the lens of the eye, causing it to become cloudy and reducing the amount of light that reaches the retina. This can lead to blurred or reduced vision, making it difficult to see clearly. Cataracts are more common in women and tend to increase in incidence with age. While the normal ageing process is the most common cause, other factors such as smoking, alcohol consumption, trauma, diabetes, and long-term corticosteroid use can also contribute to the development of cataracts.
Symptoms of cataracts include reduced vision, faded colour vision, glare, and halos around lights. A defect in the red reflex is also a sign of cataracts. Diagnosis is typically made through ophthalmoscopy and slit-lamp examination, which can reveal the presence of a visible cataract.
In the early stages, age-related cataracts can be managed conservatively with stronger glasses or contact lenses and brighter lighting. However, surgery is the only effective treatment for cataracts and involves removing the cloudy lens and replacing it with an artificial one. Referral for surgery should be based on the presence of visual impairment, impact on quality of life, and patient choice. Complications following surgery can include posterior capsule opacification, retinal detachment, posterior capsule rupture, and endophthalmitis.
Overall, cataracts are a common and treatable eye condition that can significantly impact a person’s vision. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and management options can help individuals make informed decisions about their eye health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man visits his GP complaining of burning and itching of his eyelids, particularly in the mornings. He reports feeling dryness and grittiness in his eyes and has stopped using contact lenses, opting for glasses instead. Upon examination, the GP notes redness, crusting, and slight swelling of the eyelid margins, as well as a small chalazion on the lower right lid. The patient's visual acuity remains unchanged and both conjunctivae are clear. What is the recommended first-line treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Regular lid hygiene
Explanation:The initial and most important treatment for blepharitis, a common and chronic condition, is regular lid hygiene. Although there are different types of blepharitis, lid hygiene is the first-line treatment for all of them. The goal is to clear out any stagnant oily secretions, unblock meibomian glands, remove bacteria and flakes of skin, and soothe the eyelids. Patients should practice lid hygiene twice daily, which involves warmth, massage, and cleansing. There are many patient information leaflets available online that explain the process. Oral tetracycline is not the first-line treatment for blepharitis and is usually unnecessary if lid hygiene measures are followed. If symptoms persist, a course of oral tetracycline may be considered, especially in cases where meibomian gland dysfunction is prominent and there is associated rosacea. Sodium cromoglicate eye drops are not used in the management of blepharitis, as they are intended for allergic eye disease. Steroid eye drops are not a primary care treatment option for blepharitis and are not first-line, although they may be considered by specialists in cases resistant to other treatment measures.
Blepharitis is a condition where the eyelid margins become inflamed. This can be caused by dysfunction of the meibomian glands (posterior blepharitis) or seborrhoeic dermatitis/staphylococcal infection (anterior blepharitis). It is more common in patients with rosacea. The meibomian glands secrete oil to prevent rapid evaporation of the tear film, so any problem affecting these glands can cause dryness and irritation of the eyes. Symptoms of blepharitis are usually bilateral and include grittiness, discomfort around the eyelid margins, sticky eyes in the morning, and redness of the eyelid margins. Styes and chalazions are also more common in patients with blepharitis, and secondary conjunctivitis may occur.
Management of blepharitis involves softening the lid margin with hot compresses twice a day and practicing lid hygiene to remove debris from the lid margins. This can be done using cotton wool buds dipped in a mixture of cooled boiled water and baby shampoo or sodium bicarbonate in cooled boiled water. Artificial tears may also be given for symptom relief in people with dry eyes or an abnormal tear film.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male with a history of Marfan's syndrome arrives at the emergency department reporting a sudden, painless loss of vision in his left eye. He did not experience any symptoms beforehand and did not sustain any injuries.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lens dislocation
Explanation:In Marfan’s syndrome, painless loss of vision in one eye may be caused by lens dislocation, which is a common ocular symptom of the condition. The dislocation usually occurs in the upper outer part of the eye and can affect one or both eyes. While retinal detachment can also cause sudden vision loss without pain, it is less common than lens dislocation and is often preceded by visual disturbances such as flashes, floaters, or blind spots.
Causes of Lens Dislocation
Lens dislocation can occur due to various reasons. One of the most common causes is Marfan’s syndrome, which causes the lens to dislocate upwards. Homocystinuria is another condition that can lead to lens dislocation, but in this case, the lens dislocates downwards. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is also a known cause of lens dislocation. Trauma, such as a blow to the eye, can also cause the lens to dislocate. Uveal tumors and autosomal recessive ectopia lentis are other potential causes of lens dislocation. It is important to identify the underlying cause of lens dislocation to determine the appropriate treatment plan. Proper diagnosis and management can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner (GP) complaining of a headache and painless loss of vision in her left eye lasting for 5 minutes. Two days later, she developed sudden-onset, right-sided weakness affecting both upper and lower limbs and lasting for 30 minutes. Her past medical history includes mild hyperlipidemia. She is a non-smoker. There are no neurological abnormalities. Her blood pressure is 150/85 mmHg and heart rate 80 bpm. There are no audible carotid bruits.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) secondary to carotid artery disease
Explanation:Understanding Transient Ischaemic Attack (TIA) and its Possible Causes
Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a medical condition that occurs when blood flow to the brain is temporarily disrupted, leading to neurological symptoms that usually last for less than an hour. One of the most common causes of TIA is carotid artery disease, which accounts for up to 90% of cases. Symptoms of TIA due to carotid artery disease include contralateral motor and sensory disturbance, ipsilateral visual disturbance, and amaurosis fugax (monocular blindness). A carotid artery bruit in the neck may also be present.
Migraine equivalents are another possible cause of TIA, but they are characterized by absent headache and slow spread of symptoms from one body part to the next. Unlike migraines, TIA episodes are sudden-onset and resolved within an hour.
TIA can also be caused by cardioembolism, which accounts for 5-10% of cases. However, this is unlikely in the absence of atrial fibrillation or significant cardiac disease.
Small-vessel disease is another possible cause of TIA, but it is unlikely to account for both hemiparesis and visual loss. Giant cell arteritis (GCA) can also be associated with transient visual loss, but hemiparesis is not a feature. Prodromal symptoms such as malaise, weight loss, and characteristic temporal headache are commonly present in GCA.
In summary, TIA is a serious medical condition that requires prompt evaluation and treatment. Understanding the possible causes of TIA can help healthcare providers make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man complains of pain in his right eye that worsens with movement. Upon examination, a relative afferent pupillary defect is observed. What is the most probable reason for his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis
Explanation:Optic neuritis is a condition that can be caused by multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. It is characterized by a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days, as well as poor color discrimination and pain that worsens with eye movement. Other symptoms include a relative afferent pupillary defect and a central scotoma. The condition can be diagnosed through an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast. Treatment typically involves high-dose steroids, and recovery usually takes 4-6 weeks. If an MRI shows more than three white-matter lesions, the risk of developing multiple sclerosis within five years is approximately 50%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding the Holmes-Adie pupil is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bilateral in 80% of cases
Explanation:Understanding Holmes-Adie Pupil
Holmes-Adie pupil is a condition that is more commonly observed in women and is considered a benign condition. It is one of the possible causes of a dilated pupil. In about 80% of cases, it affects only one eye. The main characteristic of this condition is a dilated pupil that remains small for an unusually long time after it has constricted. The pupil also reacts slowly to accommodation but poorly or not at all to light.
Holmes-Adie syndrome is a condition that is associated with Holmes-Adie pupil. It is characterized by the absence of ankle and knee reflexes. This condition is not harmful and does not require any treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old female patient visits the ophthalmologist complaining of painful red eyes. Upon examination, the ophthalmologist diagnoses her with bilateral anterior uveitis. During the medical history, the patient reveals that she has been experiencing a persistent dry cough and has visited her GP several times. The ophthalmologist orders blood tests and a chest x-ray, which reveal elevated angiotensin-converting enzyme levels and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. What is the underlying cause of uveitis in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sarcoidosis
Explanation:Sarcoidosis may present as bilateral anterior uveitis in young adults, making it an important early consideration. Recurrent uveitis in both eyes, along with a history of pulmonary issues, should prompt investigation for sarcoidosis. The other options, which do not involve a dry cough, are not relevant. Rheumatoid arthritis affects small joints in the hands, feet, and wrists, while ankylosing spondylitis primarily affects the spine with symptoms of back pain and stiffness, neither of which are mentioned in this scenario.
Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. It is a common cause of red eye and is associated with HLA-B27, which may also be linked to other conditions. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small or irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness, tearing, and the presence of pus and inflammatory cells in the front part of the eye. This condition may be associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and treatment may involve the use of cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a one-day history of blurring of vision and headache. He tells you there is no pain on touching the scalp, or when eating and chewing food.
He has a past medical history of hypertension and type II diabetes mellitus, which is well controlled with metformin.
He tells you that his uncle died of brain cancer and he is afraid that he may have the same condition.
On examination, his visual acuity is 6/18 in both eyes. On dilated fundoscopy, you see some arterioles narrower than others. There are also venules being compressed by arterioles. There is optic disc swelling in both eyes with some exudates lining up like a star at the macula. There is also some dot-and-blot and flame-shaped haemorrhages.
His pulse is 80 beats per minute, while his blood pressure (BP) is 221/119 mmHg. His temperature is 37 °C, while his respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute. His oxygen saturations are 98% on room air.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypertensive retinopathy
Explanation:Differentiating Hypertensive Retinopathy from Other Eye Conditions: A Case Study
The patient in question presented with a highly raised blood pressure and complained of headache and blurring of vision. Fundoscopy revealed bilateral optic disc swelling, which is a typical feature of hypertensive retinopathy. However, other conditions such as giant-cell arteritis, age-related macular degeneration, intracranial space-occupying lesion, and proliferative diabetic retinopathy were also considered.
Giant-cell arteritis was ruled out due to the absence of scalp tenderness and jaw claudication. Age-related macular degeneration was also unlikely as there were no drusen or choroidal neovascularisation present. While an intracranial space-occupying lesion was a possibility, the lack of accompanying symptoms such as early-morning vomiting and weight loss made it less likely. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy was also ruled out as there were no new vessels at the disc or elsewhere.
In conclusion, the patient’s symptoms and fundoscopy findings strongly suggest a diagnosis of hypertensive retinopathy. It is important to differentiate this condition from other eye conditions to ensure appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man presents to his GP with a decline in his vision. He describes a gradual onset of dark floaters in his vision over the past few months and has recently experienced some episodes of flashing lights when outside in bright sunlight. The patient has a history of hypertension, which is managed with 5mg ramipril daily. He has a smoking history of 45 pack-years, does not consume alcohol, and is able to perform his daily activities independently. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient's vision changes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitreous detachment
Explanation:The patient has flashers and floaters associated with vitreous detachment, which can lead to retinal detachment. This is not central retinal artery occlusion, ischaemic optic neuropathy, macular degeneration, or temporal arteritis.
Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arteritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.
Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arteritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.
Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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