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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl has been discharged from hospital after having her tonsils removed.
Which of the following is typical after a tonsillectomy?Your Answer: Coughing up small amounts of blood ten days postoperatively
Correct Answer: Halitosis and ear pain temporarily
Explanation:Misconceptions about Tonsillectomy Recovery
Tonsillectomy is a common surgical procedure that involves the removal of the tonsils. However, there are several misconceptions about the recovery process that patients should be aware of.
Firstly, some patients may experience ear pain and halitosis after the surgery. This is due to referred pain from the tonsils and infection of the raw tissue areas, respectively.
Secondly, coughing up small amounts of blood ten days postoperatively is not normal and should be referred to secondary care for possible admission. Secondary bleeds are most common after about 5-10 days, and minor bleeding may be a precursor of a major bleed.
Thirdly, removal of the tonsils doesn’t guarantee a complete cessation of throat infections. Patients may still experience laryngitis or pharyngitis.
Fourthly, a temporary rise in the pitch of the voice is common after tonsillectomy due to swelling in the oropharynx. However, a permanent change in voice is not expected.
Lastly, it is normal to have moderate-to-severe discomfort for up to two weeks after the surgery, including pain while swallowing and pain in the throat. Adequate analgesia is needed, and children may become dehydrated if they do not take in adequate liquids after the surgery.
In conclusion, understanding the misconceptions about tonsillectomy recovery can help patients better prepare for the surgery and manage their expectations during the healing process.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a rash and feeling generally unwell. He has a history of epilepsy and was started on phenytoin three weeks ago. One week ago, he developed mouth ulcers, malaise, and a cough. Two days ago, he developed a widespread red rash that has now formed large fluid-filled blisters, covering approximately 30% of his body area. The lesions separate when slight pressure is applied. On examination, his temperature is 38.3ºC and pulse is 126/min. His blood results show:
- Na+ 144 mmol/l
- K+ 4.2 mmol/l
- Bicarbonate 19 mmol/l
- Urea 13.4 mmol/l
- Creatinine 121 µmol/l
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Drug-induced lupus
Correct Answer: Toxic epidermal necrolysis
Explanation:Understanding Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis
Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) is a severe skin disorder that can be life-threatening and is often caused by a reaction to certain drugs. The condition causes the skin to appear scalded over a large area and is considered by some to be the most severe form of a range of skin disorders that includes erythema multiforme and Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Symptoms of TEN include feeling unwell, a high temperature, and a rapid heartbeat. Additionally, the skin may separate with mild lateral pressure, a sign known as Nikolsky’s sign.
Several drugs are known to cause TEN, including phenytoin, sulphonamides, allopurinol, penicillins, carbamazepine, and NSAIDs. If TEN is suspected, the first step is to stop the use of the drug that is causing the reaction. Supportive care is often required, and patients may need to be treated in an intensive care unit. Electrolyte derangement and volume loss are potential complications that need to be monitored. Intravenous immunoglobulin is a commonly used first-line treatment that has been shown to be effective. Other treatment options include immunosuppressive agents such as ciclosporin and cyclophosphamide, as well as plasmapheresis.
In summary, TEN is a severe skin disorder that can be caused by certain drugs. It is important to recognize the symptoms and stop the use of the drug causing the reaction. Supportive care is often required, and patients may need to be treated in an intensive care unit. Intravenous immunoglobulin is a commonly used first-line treatment, and other options include immunosuppressive agents and plasmapheresis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 3
Correct
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Which of the following selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors has the highest occurrence of withdrawal symptoms in elderly patients?
Your Answer: Paroxetine
Explanation:Discontinuation symptoms are more likely to occur with Paroxetine.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 4
Correct
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A 68-year-old male presents with an increase in breast tissue that he finds embarrassing. He denies any recent weight gain and further questioning reveals no significant findings. The patient has a medical history of ischemic heart disease, atrial fibrillation, prostate cancer, and osteoarthritis of both hips. He is currently taking atorvastatin, bisoprolol, goserelin, GTN spray, lansoprazole, naproxen, and ramipril. Which medication from his current regimen could be responsible for his presenting complaint?
Your Answer: Goserelin
Explanation:The patient’s gynaecomastia is likely caused by taking goserelin for prostate cancer. Goserelin is a GnRH agonist that increases luteinising hormone and testosterone levels, leading to a change in oestrogen: androgen ratio and resulting in gynaecomastia. Bisoprolol, a β-blocker, may cause bronchospasm and bradycardia, while lansoprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, may lead to hyponatraemia and hypomagnesaemia. Naproxen, a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug, may worsen asthma symptoms and cause upper gastrointestinal haemorrhage.
Understanding Gynaecomastia: Causes and Drug Triggers
Gynaecomastia is a condition characterized by the abnormal growth of breast tissue in males, often caused by an increased ratio of oestrogen to androgen. It is important to distinguish the causes of gynaecomastia from those of galactorrhoea, which is caused by the actions of prolactin on breast tissue.
Physiological changes during puberty can lead to gynaecomastia, but it can also be caused by syndromes with androgen deficiency such as Kallman’s and Klinefelter’s, testicular failure due to mumps, liver disease, testicular cancer, and hyperthyroidism. Additionally, haemodialysis and ectopic tumour secretion can also trigger gynaecomastia.
Drug-induced gynaecomastia is also a common cause, with spironolactone being the most frequent trigger. Other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include cimetidine, digoxin, cannabis, finasteride, GnRH agonists like goserelin and buserelin, oestrogens, and anabolic steroids. However, it is important to note that very rare drug causes of gynaecomastia include tricyclics, isoniazid, calcium channel blockers, heroin, busulfan, and methyldopa.
In summary, understanding the causes and drug triggers of gynaecomastia is crucial in diagnosing and treating this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A child of 6 years is suspected to have Giardiasis.
Which one of the following drugs is the most appropriate treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metronidazole
Explanation:Giardia Lamblia: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Giardia lamblia is a parasite that can cause malabsorption and non-bloody diarrhea. The condition can be acquired locally, and stool microscopy may not always detect it. However, the good news is that it can be treated with metronidazole. Once treated, malabsorption typically resolves. If you experience symptoms of giardia lamblia, it is important to seek medical attention promptly to receive an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman presents to you with sudden loss of vision in her left eye while shopping. She reports two similar episodes in the past month that resolved within minutes. She has no other symptoms and is generally healthy, with a history of hypertension and ischaemic heart disease. Her vision is reduced to counting fingers. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Central retinal artery occlusion
Explanation:Visual Disturbances: Causes and Management
Visual disturbances can be caused by various conditions, including retinal transient ischaemic attack (TIA), central retinal artery occlusion, retinal vein occlusion, middle cerebral artery infarct, and migraine. Amaurosis fugax, or transient monocular blindness, may precede a central retinal artery occlusion or a stroke. Urgent referral to ophthalmology is necessary within the first 24 hours, and methods such as anterior chamber paracentesis, intravenous Diamox®, ocular massage, and breathing into a paper bag may help restore vision. Retinal vein occlusion causes sudden painless unilateral loss of vision, while middle cerebral artery infarct produces a wide variety of neurological deficits, including visual consequences such as gaze preference towards the side of the lesion and contralateral homonymous hemianopia. Migraine visual aura consists of an area that is not well seen, surrounded by shimmering zig-zag lines, that gradually enlarges and then breaks up over a period of 15-30 minutes. Proper management and investigation are necessary to prevent further complications and ensure appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about a noticeable bulge in his groin area. He has no significant medical history. During the examination, the doctor observes a reducible lump with a cough impulse above and medial to the pubic tubercle. The patient reports no pain or other symptoms.
What is the best course of action for managing this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Routine surgical referral
Explanation:Referral for surgical repair is the recommended course of action for inguinal hernias, even if they are not causing any symptoms. This patient, who has an inguinal hernia, should be referred for surgery as they are fit and well. Physiotherapy referral, reassurance and safety netting, and ultrasound scan are not appropriate in this case.
Understanding Inguinal Hernias
Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main symptom is a lump in the groin area, which disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are also common, especially during physical activity. However, severe pain is rare, and strangulation is even rarer.
The traditional classification of inguinal hernias into indirect and direct types is no longer relevant in clinical management. Instead, the current consensus is to treat medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for those who are not fit for surgery, but it has limited use in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method, as it has the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are usually repaired through an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically.
After surgery, patients are advised to return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks for open repair and 1-2 weeks for laparoscopic repair. Complications may include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman complains of a continuous watery left eye that has been bothering her for the last 4 days. Upon examination, there is redness and puffiness in the inner corner of her left eye. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dacryocystitis
Explanation:Lacrimal Duct Problems: Dacryocystitis and Congenital Obstruction
Lacrimal duct problems can manifest in two ways: dacryocystitis and congenital obstruction. Dacryocystitis is an infection of the lacrimal sac that causes a watering eye (epiphora) and swelling and redness at the inner corner of the eye. Treatment involves systemic antibiotics, and intravenous antibiotics may be necessary if there is associated periorbital cellulitis.
On the other hand, congenital lacrimal duct obstruction affects 5-10% of newborns and is bilateral in 20% of cases. It causes a watering eye, even when the baby is not crying, and may lead to secondary infections. However, in 99% of cases, symptoms resolve by the time the baby reaches 12 months of age.
It is important to identify and manage lacrimal duct problems promptly to prevent complications and ensure proper eye health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 9
Incorrect
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As part of your role in coordinating the introduction of the shingles vaccine (Zostavax) to the surgery, the Practice Manager has asked you to identify which age group should be offered the vaccine.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All adults aged 70-79 years
Explanation:Serologic studies reveal that adults aged 60 years and above have been exposed to Chickenpox to a great extent. Hence, it is recommended that individuals within the age range of 70-79 years should receive the vaccine, irrespective of their memory of having had Chickenpox. However, the vaccine may not be as efficacious in individuals above 80 years of age.
Varicella-Zoster Vaccination: Protection Against Chickenpox and Shingles
Varicella-zoster is a herpesvirus that causes Chickenpox and shingles. There are two types of vaccines available to protect against these infections. The first type is a live attenuated vaccine that prevents primary varicella infection or Chickenpox. This vaccine is recommended for healthcare workers who are not immune to VZV and for individuals who are in close contact with immunocompromised patients.
The second type of vaccine is designed to reduce the incidence of herpes zoster or shingles caused by reactivation of VZV. This live-attenuated vaccine is given subcutaneously and is offered to patients aged 70-79 years. The vaccine is also available as a catch-up campaign for those who missed out on their vaccinations in the previous two years of the program. However, the shingles vaccine is not available on the NHS to anyone aged 80 and over because it seems to be less effective in this age group.
The main contraindication for both vaccines is immunosuppression. Side effects of the vaccines include injection site reactions, and less than 1 in 10,000 individuals may develop Chickenpox. It is important to note that vaccination is the most effective way to prevent varicella-zoster infections and their complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A trial is proposed to see whether excess alcohol use is a risk factor for osteoporosis. It is decided to perform a case-control study rather than a cohort study.
What is an advantage of a case-control study?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is possible to study exposure to unusual risk factors
Explanation:Advantages and Limitations of Case-Control Studies
A case-control study is a type of research that compares the characteristics of patients with a particular disease to a control group of patients who do not have the disease. This type of study is particularly useful for investigating unusual risk factors, as a wide range of factors can be explored without the risk of loss to follow up. Results are typically presented as an odds ratio.
While case-control studies can provide valuable information on specific questions, they do have limitations. For example, it is not possible to control for all sources of bias, and factors that are identified as potentially causative may not actually be related to the disease in question. Additionally, incidence cannot be directly measured from a case-control study.
Despite these limitations, case-control studies have been instrumental in providing insights into the relationship between various risk factors and diseases. Examples include studies on hormone replacement therapy and breast cancer risk, as well as studies on alcohol consumption and the risk of osteoporosis. Overall, case-control studies are a valuable tool for researchers, but must be interpreted with caution and in the context of other available evidence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 11
Incorrect
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You are conducting a contraceptive evaluation on a 27-year-old female who is presently using Dianette (co-cyprindiol). During the discussion, you mention the higher risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE) associated with Dianette compared to standard combined oral contraceptive pills (COCP) that contain levonorgestrel. However, the patient is hesitant to switch as her acne has significantly improved since starting Dianette. Can you provide information on the exact increased risk of VTE in comparison to patients taking COCPs containing levonorgestrel?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Around twice the risk
Explanation:Dianette has a VTE risk that is approximately 1.5-2.0 times higher than that of typical COCPs.
Co-cyprindiol (Dianette) – Updated Guidance
Co-cyprindiol, also known as Dianette, is a medication licensed for the treatment of severe acne in women who are unresponsive to prolonged oral antibacterial therapy and moderately severe hirsutism. It is also an effective contraceptive, which has contributed to its popularity. However, some post-marketing studies have shown that some women were being prescribed additional hormonal contraception alongside co-cyprindiol, which is unnecessary and increases the risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE).
The duration of co-cyprindiol treatment is limited due to concerns about VTE. Interestingly, the increased risk of VTE associated with co-cyprindiol is similar to that of combined oral contraceptive pills (COCPs) containing desogestrel, gestodene, or drospirenone, compared to COCPs containing levonorgestrel. The current evidence suggests that the VTE risk is about 1.5-2.0 times higher. Therefore, it is important to consider the risks and benefits of co-cyprindiol and other COCPs when prescribing them to women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 12
Incorrect
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In a study of 950 subjects under the age of 30, a new serological marker for diabetes was evaluated against the standard test of fasting blood glucose levels. The results are as follows:
Test positive Test negative
Blood glucose high 80 20
Blood glucose normal 120 730
What is the sensitivity of this test?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 80%
Explanation:Understanding Sensitivity and Specificity in Medical Testing
Sensitivity and specificity are important measures in medical testing. Sensitivity refers to the probability that a person with a disease will be correctly identified by the test, while specificity refers to the probability that a person without the disease will be correctly identified as negative by the test.
In a study with 50 subjects who have the disease, 40 were correctly identified by the test, resulting in a sensitivity of 80%. On the other hand, out of 900 subjects without the disease, 840 were correctly identified as negative by the test, giving a specificity of 93%.
To better understand these measures, a table can be used to illustrate the results. The true positives (people with the disease who were correctly identified) and true negatives (people without the disease who were correctly identified as negative) are located in the diagonal cells of the table. False positives (people without the disease who were incorrectly identified as positive) and false negatives (people with the disease who were incorrectly identified as negative) are located in the off-diagonal cells.
Overall, sensitivity and specificity are important factors to consider when evaluating the accuracy of medical tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man came to the clinic complaining of discomfort in his scrotum on one side. He mentioned experiencing dysuria and frequency last week, but it went away on its own. Upon examination, there was a tender swelling at the back of his left testicle. The patient is in good health otherwise and has normal vital signs.
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Varicocele
Explanation:Possible Diagnosis for Testicular Pain
The most probable diagnosis for testicular pain in this scenario is epididymo-orchitis. This condition is characterized by pain, swelling, and inflammation of the epididymis and testes, often following a UTI or sexually transmitted infection. While testicular torsion is also a possibility, the patient’s age, recent UTI, and mild pain make it less likely. However, if the patient experiences severe pain, testicular torsion should be considered and referred to emergency care. Other potential differentials exist, but epididymo-orchitis is the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents for a cervical smear. Her previous three smears have all been negative. However, her latest smear reveals mild dyskaryosis. The local cervical screening programme includes human papillomavirus (HPV) testing as part of the screening process, and her sample has tested 'positive' for high-risk HPV. What is the next best course of action for her management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Colposcopy
Explanation:HPV Testing in Cervical Screening
The use of HPV testing in cervical screening has been studied to determine if it can improve the accuracy of identifying women who need further investigation and treatment. Currently, only a small percentage of women referred for colposcopy actually require treatment as low-grade abnormalities often resolve on their own. By incorporating HPV testing, women with borderline or mild dyskaryosis who test negative for high-risk HPV can simply return to routine screening recall, while those who test positive are referred for colposcopy.
HPV testing is also used as a test of cure for women who have been treated for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. Those with normal, borderline, or mild dyskaryosis smear results who are HPV negative can return to three-yearly recall. This approach ensures that women receive appropriate follow-up care while minimizing unnecessary referrals and treatments. Overall, the use of HPV testing in cervical screening has the potential to improve the accuracy and efficiency of the screening process.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 15
Incorrect
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What is the correct statement regarding thrombolytic treatment of acute ischaemic stroke?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Control of malignant or severe hypertension is required before thrombolysis
Explanation:Thrombolysis in Acute Ischaemic Stroke: Guidelines and Considerations
Thrombolysis is a treatment option for acute ischaemic stroke, but it must be administered within a narrow window of opportunity. Before thrombolysis can be given, haemorrhage must be excluded by CT scan. Unfortunately, only a minority of patients meet the criteria for thrombolysis due to the time-sensitive nature of the treatment.
While thrombolysis can reduce long-term deaths and disability, it does come with a small increase in short-term deaths. Uncontrolled hypertension is a risk factor that should be addressed before thrombolysis is considered. Additionally, there are several contraindications, including recent surgery, current anticoagulation, previous intracranial bleeding, urinary tract bleeding, and known cerebral aneurysm.
It’s important to note that thrombolysis is not beneficial for transient ischaemic attacks (TIAs). Overall, the decision to administer thrombolysis in acute ischaemic stroke requires careful consideration and adherence to guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man has a QRISK2 score of 14% and decides to start taking atorvastatin 20 mg after discussing the benefits and risks with his doctor. His cholesterol levels are as follows:
Total cholesterol: 5.6 mmol/l
HDL cholesterol: 1.0 mmol/l
LDL cholesterol: 3.4 mmol/l
Triglyceride: 1.7 mmol/l
When should he schedule a follow-up cholesterol test to assess the effectiveness of the statin?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 12 weeks
Explanation:Management of Hyperlipidaemia: NICE Guidelines
Hyperlipidaemia, or high levels of lipids in the blood, is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease (CVD). In 2014, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on lipid modification, which caused controversy due to the recommendation of statins for a significant proportion of the population over the age of 60. The guidelines suggest a systematic strategy to identify people over 40 years who are at high risk of CVD, using the QRISK2 CVD risk assessment tool. A full lipid profile should be checked before starting a statin, and patients with very high cholesterol levels should be investigated for familial hyperlipidaemia. The new guidelines recommend offering a statin to people with a QRISK2 10-year risk of 10% or greater, with atorvastatin 20 mg offered first-line. Special situations, such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease, are also addressed. Lifestyle modifications, including a cardioprotective diet, physical activity, weight management, alcohol intake, and smoking cessation, are important in managing hyperlipidaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents for a follow-up appointment eight weeks after an anterior MI. He reports no further episodes of chest pain or shortness of breath, but he is experiencing significant fatigue. On cardiovascular examination, there are no signs of cardiac failure.
The patient discloses feeling down for the past month, struggling with sleep, and having a poor appetite. He is anxious about the future and avoiding social interactions with colleagues and friends. He expresses a lack of motivation and purpose in life. He has a history of two severe depressive episodes and a mild episode about a year ago, which responded well to a low dose of amitriptyline.
What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop his beta blocker medication, as this is probably what is making him so tired
Explanation:Treating Post-MI Depression
Patients who have suffered a heart attack are at an increased risk of developing depression. It is crucial to identify and treat post-MI depression promptly. In this case, the patient is experiencing persistent low mood, anhedonia, sleep disturbance, and loss of appetite, indicating the need for immediate treatment. While assessing his symptoms using the PHQ-9 depression questionnaire is appropriate, delaying treatment is not advisable.
It is essential to continue the patient’s beta-blocker treatment as it is appropriate post-MI therapy. While it is reasonable to explain that post-MI depression is not uncommon, active treatment should be initiated immediately if the patient agrees. Amitriptyline should not be used as it increases the risk of arrhythmias, and the patient is already at a higher risk following his MI. Sertraline is a well-tolerated and effective treatment for post-MI depression and should be considered. Proper identification and treatment of post-MI depression can significantly improve the patient’s quality of life and overall prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with dyslipidaemia, hypertension and angina has recently been diagnosed with impaired glucose tolerance (IGT).
Clinically he is obese with a BMI of 33 kg/m2, his blood pressure is 145/85 mmHg. He is aware that having impaired glucose tolerance is a risk factor for type 2 diabetes and would like to discuss strategies to attenuate this risk.
Which of the following has been shown best to reduce the incidence of type 2 diabetes in individuals with IGT?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intensive lifestyle change
Explanation:Diabetes Prevention Interventions
The Diabetes Prevention Programme (DPP) and Finnish Diabetes Prevention Study both demonstrated a significant reduction in the incidence of type 2 diabetes through intensive lifestyle interventions. These interventions included dietary changes, increased physical activity, and weight loss. The DPP and Finnish study showed a 58% reduction in incidence, compared to a 31% reduction when using metformin. Acarbose has also been shown to reduce the incidence of diabetes when combined with lifestyle changes. The ACT Now study suggests that pioglitazone may reduce the progression from pre-diabetes to type 2 diabetes, although it is not licensed for this purpose in the UK. The Finnish Diabetes Prevention Study (DPS) specifically focused on lifestyle interventions and showed positive results after three years of dietary and physical activity changes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man presents to your clinic with complaints of stabbing pains on the right side of his face for the past two days. He also reports a new rash on the tip and right side of his nose.
Upon examination, you notice a vesicular rash on the right side of his nose. However, his right eye appears normal, and he is otherwise healthy with normal vital signs. Based on these findings, you suspect a diagnosis of shingles.
What would be the best course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for same day ophthalmology assessment
Explanation:Hutchinson’s sign is characterized by the presence of vesicles that extend to the tip of the nose and is strongly linked to shingles affecting the eyes. This sign indicates the possibility of eye inflammation, which can lead to permanent corneal denervation. Therefore, NICE recommends that patients showing this sign should be referred for immediate specialist assessment. Truncal shingles can be treated with antiviral medication, and oral steroids may be added to manage associated pain. However, steroid creams and antibiotics are not effective in treating shingles.
Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications
Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It is a type of shingles that affects around 10% of cases. The main symptom of HZO is a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the eye itself. Hutchinson’s sign, a rash on the tip or side of the nose, is a strong risk factor for ocular involvement.
The management of HZO involves oral antiviral treatment for 7-10 days, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset. Intravenous antivirals may be given for severe infection or if the patient is immunocompromised. Topical antiviral treatment is not recommended for HZO, but topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye. Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review.
Complications of HZO include conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old nursing home resident, with a long-term catheter in situ, had a urine sample sent for investigation after staff felt her urine was more cloudy than usual. The MSU grew Escherichia coli. The patient is otherwise well with a normal general examination, normal observations and is at their baseline cognition.
Which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral trimethoprim for three days
Explanation:Managing Urinary Tract Infection in Adults with Long-Term Indwelling Catheters
The SIGN guidance provides clear instructions on how to manage urinary tract infection (UTI) in adults with long-term indwelling catheters. It states that all patients with such catheters are bacteriuric, but treatment is not necessary unless they exhibit symptoms such as new costovertebral tenderness, fevers, rigors, or new onset delirium. It is important to note that classical UTI symptoms cannot be relied upon in these patients. Additionally, the guidance advises against sending urine samples for culture based on the appearance or smell of the urine. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage UTI in this patient population.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A mother of an 8-year-old boy is worried that her son might have developed an egg allergy. The child is experiencing abdominal pain, constipation, and atopic eczema/erythema. What is the most appropriate test to explore the likelihood of a food allergy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Elimination diet
Explanation:It is recommended to try eliminating egg as the symptoms indicate a non-IgE-mediated food allergy.
Food allergies in children and young people can be categorized as either IgE-mediated or non-IgE-mediated. It is important to note that food intolerance is not caused by immune system dysfunction and is not covered by the 2011 NICE guidelines. Symptoms of IgE-mediated allergies include skin reactions such as pruritus, erythema, urticaria, and angioedema, as well as gastrointestinal and respiratory symptoms. Non-IgE-mediated allergies may present with symptoms such as gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, loose or frequent stools, and abdominal pain. If the history suggests an IgE-mediated allergy, skin prick tests or blood tests for specific IgE antibodies to suspected foods and co-allergens should be offered. If the history suggests a non-IgE-mediated allergy, the suspected allergen should be eliminated for 2-6 weeks and then reintroduced, with consultation from a dietitian for nutritional adequacies, timings, and follow-up.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old medical student presents to the emergency department accompanied by his friend, reporting a 24-hour history of aggressive behaviour, irritability, and hallucinations. The friend suspects that the patient has experienced a mental breakdown due to sleep deprivation from studying for exams. Laboratory tests reveal no evidence of drug use or infection. The patient is admitted to the hospital for observation and returns to his usual behaviour the following day.
What is the probable diagnosis in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Brief psychotic disorder
Explanation:The correct answer is brief psychotic disorder, which is a short-term condition characterized by the sudden onset of at least one positive psychotic symptom, such as delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, or catatonic behavior. Unlike other disorders, brief psychotic disorder often resolves with a return to baseline functioning. Adjustment disorder, bipolar disorder, and schizoaffective disorder are not the correct answers as they have different symptoms and characteristics.
Understanding Psychosis: Symptoms and Associated Features
Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in a variety of ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. These symptoms can be associated with agitation, aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm.
Psychotic symptoms can occur in a number of conditions, including schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions like Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease, and as a result of prescribed drugs or certain illicit drugs like cannabis and phencyclidine.
The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years. It is important to understand the symptoms and associated features of psychosis in order to recognize and seek appropriate treatment for those experiencing these symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy presents with swollen legs and proteinuria (> 3.5g/24 hours). After referral and kidney biopsy, a diagnosis of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis is made.
Select from the list the single correct statement about this condition.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It may present as a nephritic syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Glomerulonephritis: Types, Symptoms, and Causes
Glomerulonephritis is a group of immune-mediated disorders that cause inflammation in the glomerulus and other parts of the kidney. It can be primary or secondary, and may present with various symptoms such as haematuria, proteinuria, nephrotic syndrome, nephritic syndrome, acute or chronic renal failure.
Primary glomerulonephritis can be classified based on clinical syndrome, histopathological appearance, or underlying aetiology. One common type is focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, which causes segmental scarring and podocyte fusion in the glomerulus. It often leads to nephrotic syndrome and may progress to end-stage renal failure, but can be treated with corticosteroids.
Another type is IgA nephropathy, which is characterised by IgA antibody deposition in the glomerulus and is the most common type of glomerulonephritis in adults worldwide. It usually presents with macroscopic haematuria but can also cause nephrotic syndrome.
Interstitial nephritis, on the other hand, affects the area between the nephrons and can be acute or chronic. The most common cause is a drug hypersensitivity reaction.
In summary, understanding the types, symptoms, and causes of glomerulonephritis is crucial in diagnosing and managing this group of kidney disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 8-week-old baby to the GP clinic for their routine 7-week check-up. The baby appears happy and responsive during the assessment. During the examination, you observe weak femoral pulses on both sides. The rest of the examination is normal.
What is the most suitable course of action to manage this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Same day discussion with paediatrics
Explanation:If a baby’s femoral pulses are absent or weak during their 6-8 week check, it is crucial to discuss this immediately with a paediatrics specialist. Similarly, if a child shows signs of a critical or major congenital heart abnormality during this check, urgent attention from a specialist is necessary. Advising the mother that these findings are normal would be incorrect, as they are abnormal and require prompt attention. Referring the child to the emergency department is also not the best course of action, as they may not have the necessary expertise to deal with this issue. Referring routinely to paediatrics or making an appointment in two weeks would also be inappropriate, as the child needs urgent attention from the appropriate specialist.
Types of Congenital Heart Disease
Congenital heart disease refers to heart defects that are present at birth. There are two main types of congenital heart disease: acyanotic and cyanotic. Acyanotic heart defects are more common and include ventricular septal defects (VSD), atrial septal defects (ASD), patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), coarctation of the aorta, and aortic valve stenosis. VSDs are the most common acyanotic heart defect, accounting for 30% of cases. ASDs are less common but tend to be diagnosed in adults as they present later.
Cyanotic heart defects are less common but more serious. They include tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries (TGA), and tricuspid atresia. Fallot’s is more common than TGA, but TGA is the more common lesion at birth as patients with Fallot’s generally present at around 1-2 months. The presence of cyanosis in pulmonary valve stenosis depends on the severity and any other coexistent defects. Understanding the different types of congenital heart disease is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl asks to begin taking the combined oral contraceptive pill.
Which of the following is not a fundamental aspect of the Fraser guidelines?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: They do not have, or have had in the past, a mental illness or learning disability
Explanation:Fraser Guidelines: Assessing Competence of Minors for Consent to Treatment
The Fraser guidelines are a set of criteria used to determine whether a minor under the age of 16 is competent to give consent for medical treatment, particularly in relation to contraception. To be considered competent, the minor must demonstrate an understanding of the healthcare professional’s advice and cannot be persuaded to inform their parents or allow the professional to contact them on their behalf. Additionally, the minor must be likely to engage in sexual activity with or without contraceptive treatment, and their physical or mental health is likely to suffer without it. Finally, it must be in the minor’s best interest to receive contraceptive advice or treatment, with or without parental consent.
These guidelines are crucial in ensuring that minors have access to necessary medical treatment while also protecting their autonomy and privacy. By assessing their competence to give consent, healthcare professionals can ensure that minors are making informed decisions about their own health and wellbeing. The Fraser guidelines provide a framework for balancing the rights of minors with the duty of healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man comes in for a check-up. He has been experiencing headaches for the past year. These headaches occur around 5-6 times per month and last all day. There is no associated aura. He describes the headache as a severe throbbing on both sides of his head with nausea and lethargy. He typically goes to bed when he gets a headache as activity makes it worse. He takes one of his father's diclofenac tablets before bed, which seems to help. Neurological examination is normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Migraine
Explanation:It is highly probable that this headache is indicative of a migraine. The symptoms described align with the typical presentation, although it is worth noting that most patients experience symptoms on only one side of the head. Additionally, there is no indication of medication overuse, which can lead to frequent headaches.
Migraine is a neurological condition that affects a significant portion of the population. The International Headache Society has established diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura, which includes at least five attacks lasting between 4-72 hours, with at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity. During the headache, there must be at least one of the following: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. The headache cannot be attributed to another disorder. In children, attacks may be shorter-lasting, headache is more commonly bilateral, and gastrointestinal disturbance is more prominent.
Migraine with aura, which is seen in around 25% of migraine patients, tends to be easier to diagnose with a typical aura being progressive in nature and may occur hours prior to the headache. Typical aura include a transient hemianopic disturbance or a spreading scintillating scotoma (‘jagged crescent’). Sensory symptoms may also occur. NICE criteria suggest that migraines may be unilateral or bilateral and give more detail about typical auras, which may occur with or without headache and are fully reversible, develop over at least 5 minutes, and last 5-60 minutes. Atypical aura symptoms, such as motor weakness, double vision, visual symptoms affecting only one eye, poor balance, and decreased level of consciousness, may prompt further investigation or referral.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old male patient visits the surgical department complaining of scrotal swelling and discomfort that has been ongoing for the past 4 months.
Upon examination, the left scrotum is visibly enlarged and transilluminates. The swelling is soft to the touch and doesn't cause any pain. The testis cannot be fully palpated due to the presence of fluid.
What would be the most suitable next step to take?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer urgently for testicular ultrasound
Explanation:An ultrasound is necessary for adult patients with a hydrocele to rule out any underlying causes, such as a tumor. Even though the most common cause of a non-acute hydrocele is unknown, it is crucial to exclude malignancy first. Therefore, providing reassurance or reevaluating the patient later would only be appropriate after a testicular ultrasound confirms the absence of malignancy. Testicular biopsy should not be used to investigate suspected testicular cancer as it may spread the malignancy through seeding along the needle’s track. Although a unilateral hydrocele can be an uncommon presentation of a renal carcinoma invading the renal vein, a CTAP would not be the first-line investigation in this scenario. If malignancy is confirmed, CT may be useful in staging the malignancy.
A hydrocele is a condition where fluid accumulates within the tunica vaginalis. There are two types of hydroceles: communicating and non-communicating. Communicating hydroceles are caused by the patency of the processus vaginalis, which allows peritoneal fluid to drain down into the scrotum. This type of hydrocele is common in newborn males and usually resolves within the first few months of life. Non-communicating hydroceles are caused by excessive fluid production within the tunica vaginalis. Hydroceles may develop secondary to epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors.
The features of a hydrocele include a soft, non-tender swelling of the hemi-scrotum that is usually anterior to and below the testicle. The swelling is confined to the scrotum, and it can be transilluminated with a pen torch. The testis may be difficult to palpate if the hydrocele is large. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated.
Management of hydroceles depends on the severity of the presentation. Infantile hydroceles are generally repaired if they do not resolve spontaneously by the age of 1-2 years. In adults, a conservative approach may be taken, but further investigation (e.g. ultrasound) is usually warranted to exclude any underlying cause such as a tumor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A senior gentleman with metastatic prostate cancer is being evaluated. He is presently managing his pain with MST 30 mg twice daily, but due to his inability to swallow medication, he has become lethargic. A syringe driver is being arranged. What would be the most suitable prescription?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diamorphine 20 mg over 24 hours in 'water for injection'
Explanation:The preferred diluent in syringe drivers is ‘water for injection’.
When a patient in palliative care is unable to take oral medication due to various reasons such as nausea, dysphagia, intestinal obstruction, weakness or coma, a syringe driver should be considered. In the UK, there are two main types of syringe drivers: Graseby MS16A (blue) and Graseby MS26 (green). The delivery rate for the former is given in mm per hour, while the latter is given in mm per 24 hours.
Most drugs are compatible with water for injection, but for certain drugs such as granisetron, ketamine, ketorolac, octreotide, and ondansetron, sodium chloride 0.9% is recommended. Commonly used drugs for various symptoms include cyclizine, levomepromazine, haloperidol, metoclopramide for nausea and vomiting, hyoscine hydrobromide, hyoscine butylbromide, or glycopyrronium bromide for respiratory secretions/bowel colic, midazolam, haloperidol, levomepromazine for agitation/restlessness, and diamorphine as the preferred opioid for pain.
When mixing drugs, diamorphine is compatible with most other drugs used, including dexamethasone, haloperidol, hyoscine butylbromide, hyoscine hydrobromide, levomepromazine, metoclopramide, and midazolam. However, cyclizine may precipitate with diamorphine when given at higher doses, and it is incompatible with a number of drugs such as clonidine, dexamethasone, hyoscine butylbromide (occasional), ketamine, ketorolac, metoclopramide, midazolam, octreotide, and sodium chloride 0.9%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man returns from a holiday in Spain. He is worried about the multiple white patches on his upper chest where he failed to get a proper suntan. Upon examination, these patches have well-defined scaly white skin and a significant lack of pigmentation compared to the tanned areas. What is the most suitable treatment option from the following list?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clotrimazole cream
Explanation:Understanding and Treating Pityriasis Versicolor
Pityriasis versicolor is a skin condition caused by the yeast Malassezia furfur. It presents as patches of scaling skin that become depigmented compared to surrounding normal skin areas, particularly noticeable during the summer months. The lesions primarily involve the trunk but may spread to other areas. The condition is not contagious as the organism is commensal.
Treatment usually involves topical antifungals such as clotrimazole, terbinafine, or miconazole. Selenium sulphide, an anti-dandruff shampoo, can also be used. However, the condition may recur, and repeat treatments may be necessary. Oral agents such as itraconazole or fluconazole are only used if topical treatments fail.
Skin camouflage can be used to disguise lesions of vitiligo, which may be distressing for patients. The charity organization ‘Changing Faces’ provides this service. Hydrocortisone and fusidic acid are ineffective in treating pityriasis versicolor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You are requested by the community midwives to assess a 26-year-old woman who was discharged four days ago following the delivery of her first child via caesarean section. The infant is healthy. During the examination, she complains of diffuse tenderness in her abdomen, especially around her caesarean scar. She has a fever of 38.1°C and is experiencing a bloody discharge per vaginum, which has a notably strong odour.
What is the most significant risk factor associated with postpartum infection?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prolonged labour
Explanation:Endometritis and its association with Caesarean section and Prolonged Labour
Endometritis is a common infection that affects women after childbirth. The two main factors that increase the risk of endometritis are Caesarean section and Prolonged labour. However, Caesarean section is more likely to result in infection than Prolonged labour. Studies have shown that the rate of endometritis is higher in women who have undergone Caesarean section compared to those who have had vaginal deliveries. Symptoms such as scar tenderness, abdominal tenderness, pyrexia, and strong/foul smelling vaginal discharge support the diagnosis of endometritis.
Prolonged labour and multiparity may also increase the risk of retained products of conception, which can lead to infection. Combination antibiotic therapy with an aminoglycoside and metronidazole may be used to treat endometritis. Pelvic ultrasound can be helpful in identifying haematoma or a collection of fluid that may require drainage. It is important to monitor and treat endometritis promptly to prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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