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Question 1
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a headache and blurred vision that have been present for 2 days. Upon fundoscopy, it is discovered that she has optic neuritis on the right side. She had a previous episode of arm weakness 5 months ago that was also accompanied by blurred vision. What is the most probable diagnostic test for this patient?
Your Answer: MRI brain
Explanation:High dose steroids are the recommended treatment for acute optic neuritis, which is the likely cause of this woman’s symptoms. However, her symptoms suggest a possible diagnosis of multiple sclerosis (MS) as they are spread out over both space and time.
Optic neuritis is a condition that can be caused by multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. It is characterized by a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days, as well as poor color discrimination and pain that worsens with eye movement. Other symptoms include a relative afferent pupillary defect and a central scotoma. The condition can be diagnosed through an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast. Treatment typically involves high-dose steroids, and recovery usually takes 4-6 weeks. If an MRI shows more than three white-matter lesions, the risk of developing multiple sclerosis within five years is approximately 50%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman presented with a sudden onset of vision loss in her left eye accompanied by pain during eye movement that had been ongoing for four days. Upon ocular examination, her left eye had a positive afferent pupillary defect and a visual acuity of only counting fingers, while her right eye had a visual acuity of 6/6. The anterior segments of both eyes appeared normal, but contrast sensitivity and colour vision tests revealed severe impairment. Additionally, a unilateral central scotoma was observed in the visual field. What is the underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Macular degeneration
Correct Answer: Optic neuritis
Explanation:Optic neuritis is characterized by the presence of a central scotoma.
Optic neuritis is a condition that can be caused by multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. It is characterized by a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days, as well as poor color discrimination and pain that worsens with eye movement. Other symptoms include a relative afferent pupillary defect and a central scotoma. The condition can be diagnosed through an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast. Treatment typically involves high-dose steroids, and recovery usually takes 4-6 weeks. If an MRI shows more than three white-matter lesions, the risk of developing multiple sclerosis within five years is approximately 50%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 40-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of left eye pain for the third time. She reports experiencing blurred vision and a sensation of something being stuck in her eye each time. She typically wears contact lenses and has accidentally scratched her eye multiple times in the past.
Investigations reveal an epithelial defect with surrounding corneal edema on slit lamp examination, as well as an area of increased uptake on fluorescein examination. What is the most likely diagnosis based on these findings?Your Answer: Corneal ulcer
Explanation:Diagnosing Corneal Ulcers in Contact Lens Wearers
Corneal ulcers are a common complication in contact lens wearers, caused by bacteria adhering to the lens surface and infecting the cornea. Symptoms include pain, photophobia, foreign body sensation, and most importantly, blurred vision. Treatment involves avoiding contact lenses for a few days, re-education on proper application, and topical antibiotics.
Other potential diagnoses, such as bacterial conjunctivitis, traumatic corneal abrasion, Fuchs’ endothelial dystrophy, and keratitis sicca, can be ruled out based on the patient’s history and examination findings. It is important to accurately diagnose and treat corneal ulcers in contact lens wearers to prevent further complications and vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 58-year-old woman has been referred by her optician to the eye clinic. She has been experiencing vision problems and is concerned about her eye health. On examination, her external eye, including the pupil, appears normal.
Investigations:
Slit-lamp: Quiet anterior chamber
Intra-ocular pressure: 30 mmHg
Fundoscopy: Optic disc appears slightly cupped
Visual field testing: Arcuate scotoma
Which of the following diagnoses is most likely based on this clinical presentation?Your Answer: Primary open angle glaucoma
Explanation:Differentiating Ophthalmic Conditions: A Guide
Primary Open Angle Glaucoma: This condition is characterized by unnoticed visual loss, which becomes apparent only after impaired vision is demonstrated. Patients with POAG develop a visual field defect due to loss of nerve fibers at the optic disc, resulting in the appearance of ‘cupping’ of the optic disc. Increased intraocular pressures are the most common cause of optic disc fiber damage.
Retinal Detachment: Patients with retinal detachment typically present with a history of flashing lights and floaters in their vision. The three most common causes of retinal detachment are rhegmatogenous, tractional, and exudative. The history and examination findings are not typical of retinal detachment.
Acute Angle Closure Glaucoma: This is an ophthalmology emergency that presents with an acutely painful red eye, usually with associated vomiting. The pupil is fixed and mid-dilated, and there is corneal edema. This condition occurs when the angle between the lens and iris becomes blocked off, causing an acute pressure rise. The high pressure can cause permanent damage to the optic nerve if not treated quickly. Although this patient has a high intraocular pressure, the history is not suggestive of an acute painful attack.
Central Retinal Vein Occlusion: This condition causes sudden painless loss of vision due to reduced blood flow to the retina. The patient in this case gives a history of slow, progressive visual loss, which is not typical of central retinal vein occlusion. This condition is also unlikely to cause a rise in intraocular pressure.
Anterior Uveitis: A quiet anterior chamber indicates that anterior uveitis (iritis) is unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms. Cells in the anterior chamber are a sign of ocular inflammation, which is not present in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman comes to the eye casualty department complaining of a gradual decline in her vision over the past 8 years. She reports difficulty reading books due to this issue. Upon examination, a central visual impairment is observed, and the patient displays metamorphopsia when using an Amsler grid. Fundoscopy reveals small yellow deposits in the macula. What is the most suitable medical treatment for this patient, given the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Vitamin supplementation
Explanation:Medical treatment cannot cure dry AMD. However, administering high doses of beta-carotene, vitamins C and E, and zinc can help slow down the progression of visual impairment.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.
To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.
In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 25-year-old female patient complains of a painful red eye with a tearing sensation. On a scale of 1 to 10, she rates the pain as 7. She mentions that she wears contact lenses regularly. What would be the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Same-day ophthalmology referral
Explanation:If a contact lens wearer experiences a painful red eye, it is important to refer them to an eye casualty immediately to rule out microbial keratitis. Due to the complexity of assessing red eye in contact lens wearers, a specialist should assess the patient on the same day to determine the cause and provide appropriate treatment. While acyclovir is effective in treating viral keratitis, other microbes may be responsible for this condition. Therefore, specialist referral is necessary. The patient should be advised to temporarily discontinue contact lens use and practice good hygiene. Reassurance is not appropriate as microbial keratitis can lead to vision loss if left untreated. It is important to make an urgent referral, which is typically offered to suspected cancer patients within two weeks.
Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea
Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.
Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.
Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 7
Correct
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An older man comes in with a severe headache, nausea, vomiting and a painful, red right eye. He has reduced visual acuity in the right eye and normal visual acuity in the left eye. During the examination, he had a stony hard eye with marked pericorneal reddening and a hazy corneal reflex. Tonometry revealed a raised intraocular pressure. The patient reports that he has recently been prescribed a new medication by his general practitioner.
What medication could be responsible for this sudden onset of symptoms?Your Answer: Ipratropium nebuliser
Explanation:Understanding Acute Closed Angle Glaucoma and its Treatment Options
Acute closed angle glaucoma is a serious eye condition that can cause sudden vision loss, severe eye pain, and nausea. It occurs when the angle between the iris and cornea is reduced, leading to a blockage of the aqueous humour flow and increased intraocular pressure. Risk factors include female sex, Asian ethnicity, and hypermetropia.
Certain drugs, such as nebulised ipratropium and tricyclic antidepressants, can induce angle closure due to their antimuscarinic effects. Other antimuscarinic drug side-effects include dry eyes, xerostomia, bronchodilation, decreased gut motility, urinary outflow obstruction, and hallucinations.
Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that is given intravenously to treat acute closed angle glaucoma. It helps to reduce intraocular pressure and prevent damage to the optic nerve. Bisoprolol is a β-blocker that does not precipitate an episode of acute closed angle glaucoma, while montelukast is used in the long-term management of asthma and does not increase the risk of acute closed angle glaucoma.
Topical pilocarpine is a miotic that is used to treat acute angle closure glaucoma by constricting the pupil and promoting aqueous humour flow. It is important to understand the causes and treatment options for acute closed angle glaucoma to prevent vision loss and other serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 35-year-old male comes to you with a complaint of sudden vision loss. He denies any previous symptoms or head injury and reports no pain. Upon conducting a fundoscopy, you observe significant retinal haemorrhages. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Central retinal vein occlusion
Explanation:Understanding Central Retinal Vein Occlusion
Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) is a possible cause of sudden, painless loss of vision. It is more common in older individuals and those with hypertension, cardiovascular disease, glaucoma, or polycythemia. The condition is characterized by a sudden reduction or loss of visual acuity, usually affecting only one eye. Fundoscopy reveals widespread hyperemia and severe retinal hemorrhages, which are often described as a stormy sunset.
Branch retinal vein occlusion (BRVO) is a similar condition that affects a smaller area of the fundus. It occurs when a vein in the distal retinal venous system is blocked, usually at arteriovenous crossings.
Most patients with CRVO are managed conservatively, but treatment may be necessary in some cases. For instance, intravitreal anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) agents may be used to manage macular edema, while laser photocoagulation may be necessary to treat retinal neovascularization.
Overall, understanding the risk factors, features, and management options for CRVO is essential for prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment. Proper management can help prevent further vision loss and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 9
Correct
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An 80-year-old female visits her doctor with a vesicular rash on the right-side of her face and tip of her nose, and is diagnosed with herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO). What is the most probable complication for this patient?
Your Answer: Anterior uveitis
Explanation:Hutchinson’s sign, which is characterized by vesicles that spread to the tip of the nose, is a strong indicator of shingles-related ocular involvement. As a result, the patient is at risk of developing anterior uveitis.
Treatment for herpes zoster ophthalmicus typically involves the use of antivirals and/or steroids. Given the likelihood of ocular involvement in this case, an urgent ophthalmology review is necessary.Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications
Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is a condition that occurs when the varicella-zoster virus reactivates in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It is responsible for approximately 10% of shingles cases. The main symptom of HZO is a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the eye itself. Hutchinson’s sign, a rash on the tip or side of the nose, is a strong indicator of nasociliary involvement and increases the risk of ocular involvement.
Treatment for HZO involves oral antiviral medication for 7-10 days, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset. Intravenous antivirals may be necessary for severe infections or immunocompromised patients. Topical antiviral treatment is not recommended for HZO, but topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye. Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review to prevent complications such as conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.
In summary, HZO is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It presents with a vesicular rash around the eye and may involve the eye itself. Treatment involves oral antiviral medication and urgent ophthalmology review is necessary for ocular involvement. Complications of HZO include various eye conditions, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department with multiple facial lesions that appeared suddenly 24 hours ago and are painful to the touch. She experienced burning pain on her forehead a week ago. Upon examination, she has tenderness on the left side of her forehead and several 4-6mm vesicles on the left side. Hutchinson's sign is positive. What aspect of her condition necessitates an immediate evaluation by an ophthalmologist?
Your Answer: Lesions on the tip of the nose
Explanation:Hutchinson’s sign is a strong indicator of ocular involvement in shingles, characterized by vesicles extending to the tip of the nose. This patient is presenting with herpes zoster ophthalmicus, which is caused by the reactivation of herpes zoster affecting the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve. Urgent ophthalmological review is necessary due to the presence of lesions on the tip of the nose. Management involves oral antivirals and, if there is secondary inflammation of the eye, topical steroids may be given. Lesions above the eyebrow can also occur if the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve is affected, but this has no association with ocular involvement. Pain over the affected area is a common symptom preceding the eruption of the vesicles, but it is not indicative of ocular involvement. Lesions on the top eyelid can also occur if the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve is affected.
Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications
Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is a condition that occurs when the varicella-zoster virus reactivates in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It is responsible for approximately 10% of shingles cases. The main symptom of HZO is a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the eye itself. Hutchinson’s sign, a rash on the tip or side of the nose, is a strong indicator of nasociliary involvement and increases the risk of ocular involvement.
Treatment for HZO involves oral antiviral medication for 7-10 days, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset. Intravenous antivirals may be necessary for severe infections or immunocompromised patients. Topical antiviral treatment is not recommended for HZO, but topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye. Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review to prevent complications such as conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.
In summary, HZO is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It presents with a vesicular rash around the eye and may involve the eye itself. Treatment involves oral antiviral medication and urgent ophthalmology review is necessary for ocular involvement. Complications of HZO include various eye conditions, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man visits his optometrist for a check-up. He has hyperopia and his current prescription is +3/+3.25 without any astigmatism or myopia. What is the primary eye condition that this patient is susceptible to with his present eye condition?
Your Answer: Cataracts
Correct Answer: Acute angle-closure glaucoma
Explanation:Hypermetropia is linked to acute angle-closure glaucoma, while myopia is associated with primary open-angle glaucoma. This is because those with hypermetropia have smaller eyes, shallower anterior chambers, and narrower angles. The connection between myopia and primary open-angle glaucoma is not as clear, but it may be due to the optic nerve head being more vulnerable to damage from increased intraocular pressure. Cataracts are commonly linked to aging and severe short-sightedness, while central retinal artery occlusion is associated with aneurysms, arterial disease, and emboli.
Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) is a type of glaucoma where the peripheral iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is important in draining aqueous humour from the eye. POAG is more common in older individuals and those with a family history of the condition. It may present insidiously with symptoms such as peripheral visual field loss, decreased visual acuity, and optic disc cupping. Diagnosis is made through a series of investigations including automated perimetry, slit lamp examination, applanation tonometry, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy. It is important to assess the risk of future visual impairment based on factors such as IOP, CCT, family history, and life expectancy. Referral to an ophthalmologist is typically done through a GP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 23-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with complaints of hand clumsiness and photophobia that started a day ago. Her colleagues have noticed her struggling to find words for the past two weeks, but she hasn't noticed it herself. She had a dry cough two weeks ago, which has since resolved. She has no known allergies, no regular medications, and no past medical history.
During the examination, some double vision is observed when assessing the right peripheral visual field. Other than that, there are no significant findings. Due to her photophobia, limited fundoscopy is performed, which reveals blurring of the optic disc margin and venous engorgement.
What further tests or procedures should be conducted at this point?Your Answer: CT head
Explanation:The presence of papilloedema in this patient suggests an increase in intracranial pressure, making a lumbar puncture contraindicated. Her symptoms, including hand clumsiness, difficulty with word-finding, and acute photophobia, are consistent with a space-occupying lesion. A CT or MRI scan of the head should be urgently performed, and the patient should be referred to a neurosurgeon. Acetazolamide, a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor used to treat idiopathic intracranial hypertension, is not appropriate for this patient as her symptoms are not consistent with IIH. Broad-spectrum antibiotics and blood cultures are not necessary as the patient does not exhibit any signs of infection. The focus should be on promptly identifying any potential space-occupying lesions causing mass effect.
Understanding Papilloedema: Optic Disc Swelling Caused by Increased Intracranial Pressure
Papilloedema is a condition characterized by swelling of the optic disc due to increased pressure within the skull. This condition is typically bilateral and can be identified through fundoscopy. During this examination, venous engorgement is usually the first sign observed, followed by loss of venous pulsation, blurring of the optic disc margin, elevation of the optic disc, loss of the optic cup, and the presence of Paton’s lines, which are concentric or radial retinal lines cascading from the optic disc.
There are several potential causes of papilloedema, including space-occupying lesions such as tumors or vascular abnormalities, malignant hypertension, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, hydrocephalus, and hypercapnia. In rare cases, papilloedema may also be caused by hypoparathyroidism and hypocalcaemia, or vitamin A toxicity.
Overall, understanding papilloedema is important for identifying potential underlying conditions and providing appropriate treatment to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 23-year-old female patient visits the GP complaining of visual symptoms. She states that her left eye's vision has significantly deteriorated in the last two days. Additionally, she experiences pain behind her left eye when moving it. The patient is healthy otherwise, without medical history, allergies, or regular medication intake. During the examination, a relative afferent pupillary defect is observed, and her left eye's visual acuity is lower than the right. What other symptom is she likely to mention?
Your Answer: Reduced colour vision
Explanation:The patient in the brief is a young female with acute unilateral vision loss and painful eye movements. Given her age and symptoms, optic neuritis is the most likely diagnosis. This is especially true since she does not have any other symptoms commonly associated with temporal arthritis, such as new headaches, general malaise, weight loss, and jaw claudication. Additionally, temporal arthritis typically affects older patients and does not cause painful eye movements.
While optic neuritis can result in any pattern of visual field defect, the most common one is central scotoma. Therefore, peripheral vision loss with central sparing is less likely to be reported. It is important to note that this patient is not likely to have optic neuritis associated with SLE, as this is a rare occurrence. Instead, she is more likely to have idiopathic optic neuritis or optic neuritis associated with multiple sclerosis.
Optic neuritis is a condition that can be caused by multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. It is characterized by a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days, as well as poor color discrimination and pain that worsens with eye movement. Other symptoms include a relative afferent pupillary defect and a central scotoma. The condition can be diagnosed through an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast. Treatment typically involves high-dose steroids, and recovery usually takes 4-6 weeks. If an MRI shows more than three white-matter lesions, the risk of developing multiple sclerosis within five years is approximately 50%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 65-year-old man presents for his regular diabetic eye screening. He had visited his GP recently and had his blood sugar levels under control. During the examination, cotton wool spots and neovascularisation are observed throughout the retina, leading to a diagnosis of proliferative retinopathy. What is the most effective treatment for this condition?
Your Answer: Panretinal laser photocoagulation
Explanation:Panretinal laser photocoagulation is the preferred treatment for proliferative retinopathy, a condition characterized by the growth of fragile new blood vessels that can cause vitreal hemorrhage. In addition to controlling blood sugar levels and using anti-VEGF injections, thermal burns are made using a laser to prevent abnormal blood vessel development. Conservative management and monitoring are not sufficient for definitive management, as neovascularization can lead to serious complications. Laser iridotomy and phacoemulsification are not indicated for this condition.
Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy
Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.
Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.
Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for nonproliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man visits his GP complaining of blurred vision that has been ongoing for 3 days. He has a medical history of hypertension, which is being managed with amlodipine, ramipril, and indapamide, as well as type II diabetes mellitus, which is well controlled with metformin.
During the examination, his visual acuity is found to be 6/18 in both eyes with a reduction in colour vision. There is no relative afferent pupillary defect. Upon direct fundoscopy, the optic disc margins appear ill-defined and raised in both eyes. Additionally, there are cotton-wool spots scattered around the retina in both eyes.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Pre-proliferative diabetic retinopathy
Correct Answer: Hypertensive retinopathy
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Hypertensive Retinopathy
Hypertensive retinopathy is a serious condition that can lead to vision loss if left untreated. In this case, the patient has grade 4 hypertensive retinopathy according to the Keith-Wagener-Barker classification. The fundoscopy revealed bilateral optic disc swelling with cotton-wool spots, indicating optic neuropathy secondary to hypertension. Despite being on multiple medications to control hypertension, the patient’s blood pressure is difficult to manage.
While considering the diagnosis of hypertensive retinopathy, it is important to rule out other potential causes of the patient’s symptoms. An intracranial space-occupying lesion is not indicated in the patient’s history. Optic neuritis can present with loss of optic nerve function, but it is more commonly unilateral and does not typically involve cotton-wool spots. Pre-proliferative and proliferative diabetic retinopathy are also unlikely given the patient’s well-controlled type II diabetes.
In conclusion, the patient’s presentation is most consistent with hypertensive retinopathy. However, it is important to consider other potential diagnoses and rule them out through further evaluation and testing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 16
Correct
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A teenage boy comes to the General Practitioner (GP) with a lump on his eyelid. He has noticed it for the past two days. The GP identifies it as a chalazion.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Apply heat and massage daily
Explanation:Managing Chalazion: Options and Recommendations
Chalazion, also known as meibomian cyst, is a painless inflammatory lesion of the eyelid that contains meibomian secretions. While it is a self-limiting condition, it may become infected and cause discomfort to the patient. Here are some management options and recommendations for chalazion:
Apply Heat and Massage Daily: The best management option for chalazion is to apply heat and massage daily to release the oil. This can help improve the condition without the need for antibiotics.
Refer to Ophthalmology Urgently: While chalazion can be managed by the GP, referrals to ophthalmology should be made if the lesion does not improve with treatment or if the GP feels the lesion might be suspicious.
Avoid Topical Antibiotics: There is no indication for the use of antibiotics in the treatment of chalazion.
Consider Surgical Incision: If medical management has been unsuccessful, chalazions can be removed surgically by incision and curettage.
Do Not Watch and Wait: While chalazions can sometimes resolve with time without treatment, they usually require treatment and can cause pain and discomfort to the patient. As such, watching and waiting is not an appropriate management option.
In summary, applying heat and massage daily is the best initial management option for chalazion. Referral to ophthalmology should be considered if the lesion does not improve with treatment. Topical antibiotics are not recommended, and surgical incision may be necessary if medical management is unsuccessful.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 65-year-old man presents with sudden vision loss in his right eye and dark floaters over the past few weeks. Fundoscopy is challenging due to patches of redness obscuring the fundus. He has a 20-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypercholesterolaemia, and proliferative diabetic retinopathy, and takes metformin, pioglitazone, atorvastatin, and dapagliflozin. He is concerned about having a stroke, as his father had one in the past. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Vitreous haemorrhage
Explanation:Retinal detachment and vitreous haemorrhage are the two main causes of sight loss in proliferative diabetic retinopathy.
Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy
Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.
Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.
Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for nonproliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old pregnant woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) with a complaint of redness, grittiness, and stickiness in both eyes for the past 5 days. She also reports experiencing whitish-yellow discharge on her lids, particularly in the morning. Upon examination, her vision is 6/6 in both eyes, and there is diffuse injection of the conjunctivae with mild chemosis. The cornea shows no fluorescein uptake. What is the recommended first-line treatment for this patient's eye condition?
Your Answer: Topical chloramphenicol eye drops
Correct Answer: Topical fusidic acid eye drops
Explanation:Treatment Options for Bacterial Conjunctivitis in Pregnant Women
Bacterial conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that can occur during pregnancy. While topical antibiotics are the mainstay of treatment, certain options should be avoided or used with caution in pregnant women. Here are the treatment options for bacterial conjunctivitis in pregnant women:
Topical Fusidic Acid Eye Drops: These eye drops are typically a second-line choice for treating bacterial conjunctivitis, but they are often the first-line treatment for pregnant women.
Topical Steroid Eye Drops: These eye drops are not recommended for bacterial conjunctivitis, especially in pregnant women.
Artificial Tears: While artificial tears can provide relief for dry eyes, they are not useful in treating bacterial conjunctivitis.
Eye Shield: An eye shield is not necessary for bacterial conjunctivitis.
Topical Chloramphenicol Eye Drops: Topical antibiotics are effective in treating bacterial conjunctivitis, but chloramphenicol should be avoided in pregnant women unless it is essential. The British National Formulary recommends avoiding topical chloramphenicol due to the risk of neonatal grey-baby syndrome with oral use in the third trimester.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old male comes to his GP complaining of experiencing dull pain in the orbital area, redness in the eye, tearing, and sensitivity to light for the past 4 days. During the examination, the doctor notices that the patient has an irregular, constricted pupil. What would be the best course of action for managing this condition?
Your Answer: Chloramphenicol eye drops
Correct Answer: Steroid + cycloplegic eye drops
Explanation:Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. It is a common cause of red eye and is associated with HLA-B27, which may also be linked to other conditions. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small or irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness, tearing, and the presence of pus and inflammatory cells in the front part of the eye. This condition may be associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and treatment may involve the use of cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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An 8-year old boy is referred for squint correction surgery on his left eye.
Regarding the extraocular muscles, which of the following statements is accurate?Your Answer: The superior rectus is supplied by the trochlear nerve
Correct Answer: The lateral rectus is supplied by the abducens nerve
Explanation:Cranial Nerves and Extraocular Muscles: Understanding Innervation
The movement of the eye is controlled by six extraocular muscles, each innervated by a specific cranial nerve. Understanding the innervation of these muscles is crucial in diagnosing and treating various eye conditions.
The abducens nerve (cranial nerve VI) supplies only one muscle, the lateral rectus, responsible for the abduction of the eye. The oculomotor nerve (cranial nerve III) supplies all extraocular muscles except the superior oblique and lateral rectus. The trochlear nerve (cranial nerve IV) supplies the superior oblique muscle.
The levator palpebrae superioris, responsible for lifting the eyelid, is innervated by both the oculomotor nerve and sympathetic nerve fibers. A third cranial nerve palsy or sympathetic interruption can result in ptosis (droopy eyelid), which can be distinguished by inspecting the pupil for mydriasis (enlarged pupil) or miosis (constricted pupil).
The superior and inferior oblique muscles are more complex in their actions. The superior oblique muscle abducts, depresses, and internally rotates the eye, while the inferior oblique muscle causes extorsion, abduction, and elevation. This is due to their attachment behind the axis of movement.
In summary, understanding the innervation of the extraocular muscles is essential in diagnosing and treating eye conditions. Remembering the cranial nerves and their corresponding muscles can be aided by the mnemonics SO4 (superior oblique, cranial nerve IV) and LR6 (lateral rectus, cranial nerve VI).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man comes in with redness in his eye, accompanied by mild sensitivity to light and slight tearing. He denies any discomfort or soreness, and his vision remains unaffected. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Scleritis
Correct Answer: Episcleritis
Explanation:Episcleritis is the only cause of red eye that is typically not accompanied by pain. Other causes listed are associated with pain, as well as blurred or decreased vision. While episcleritis may cause mild tenderness, it is generally not painful and can be treated with non-steroidal anti-inflammatories or steroids if necessary.
Understanding Episcleritis
Episcleritis is a condition that involves the sudden onset of inflammation in the episclera of one or both eyes. While the majority of cases are idiopathic, there are some associated conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease and rheumatoid arthritis. Symptoms of episcleritis include a red eye, mild pain or irritation, watering, and mild photophobia. However, unlike scleritis, episcleritis is typically not painful.
One way to differentiate between the two conditions is by applying gentle pressure on the sclera. If the injected vessels are mobile, it is likely episcleritis. In contrast, scleritis involves deeper vessels that do not move. Phenylephrine drops may also be used to distinguish between the two conditions. If the eye redness improves after phenylephrine, a diagnosis of episcleritis can be made.
Approximately 50% of cases of episcleritis are bilateral. Treatment for episcleritis is typically conservative, with artificial tears sometimes being used. Understanding the symptoms and differences between episcleritis and scleritis can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management for their eye condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 48-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of vision problems. He has been experiencing difficulty while driving for the past few months, as he is unable to see cars approaching him from the sides of his vision. He suspects that this may also be the cause of his occasional headaches, but he does not report any pain around his eyes or any current headache. The patient has a history of peripheral vascular disease, type II diabetes, and short-sightedness, and he often neglects to wear his glasses. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Primary open-angle glaucoma
Explanation:The patient is likely suffering from primary open-angle glaucoma, which causes gradual loss of peripheral vision. This is supported by the patient’s symptoms and risk factors, such as diabetes and myopia. The headaches are likely due to eye strain from not wearing glasses. Acute angle-closure glaucoma, age-related macular degeneration, and cataracts are unlikely causes as they present with different symptoms and risk factors.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.
To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.
In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with uncontrolled diabetes visits her doctor reporting sudden vision loss in her right eye without any pain. She also mentions seeing flashes of light in the periphery of her vision. What could be the possible diagnosis?
Your Answer: Diabetic retinopathy
Correct Answer: Retinal detachment
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest retinal detachment, which is characterized by a painless loss of vision over several hours and the presence of flashes and floaters. Acute closed-angle glaucoma, optic neuritis, diabetic retinopathy, and central retinal artery occlusion are less likely causes as they do not fit the patient’s presentation or symptoms.
Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arthritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.
Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arthritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.
Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 24
Correct
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A mother brings her 4-year-old son to her General Practitioner. She has noticed that when her son gets tired, his left eye appears to deviate to the left. The child is referred to an ophthalmologist for further tests.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial test to assess strabismus?Your Answer: Cover test
Explanation:Assessing Strabismus: Tests and Procedures
Strabismus, commonly known as a squint, is a condition where the visual axis is misaligned, causing one eye to deviate from the object being viewed. The cover test is a useful tool in assessing strabismus, where one eye is covered while the other is observed for a shift in fixation. If this is positive, it is a manifest squint. Another test is the cover/uncover test, where one eye is covered and then uncovered to observe for movement of that eye, indicating a latent squint.
The Ishihara test is used to assess colour vision and is not an initial test for evaluating strabismus. An MRI brain may be requested if an underlying neurological cause is suspected, but it is not an initial test. Retinal photography is not a first-line test for children presenting with possible strabismus, but the red reflex should be tested to exclude leukocoria, which may suggest a serious cause for the squint such as retinoblastoma. Tonometry is used to measure intraocular pressure and diagnose glaucoma, but it is not used in the assessment of strabismus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 48-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a gradual onset of left-sided visual issues. She reports no discomfort or itching in the affected area. During the examination, left-sided ptosis and miosis are observed. When the lights are dimmed, the right pupil dilates, but the left pupil does not. She has a history of smoking for 8 years. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung
Explanation:Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.
Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.
There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department reporting a sudden loss of vision in her left eye that occurred three hours ago and lasted for approximately 3 minutes. She explains the episode as a 'black-out' of her vision in that eye, without associated pain or nausea, and denies any other symptoms. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia, and depression, and is currently taking amlodipine, ramipril, simvastatin, and citalopram. What is the best description of this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Transient ischaemia of the posterior circulation
Correct Answer: Amaurosis fugax
Explanation:The patient’s symptom of painless, temporary blindness in one eye, accompanied by the sensation of a black curtain coming down, is indicative of amaurosis fugax. While advanced age and sudden vision loss may suggest giant cell arthritis, this condition typically causes pain and other symptoms such as scalp tenderness, headache, and jaw claudication. Acute closed-angle glaucoma is also unlikely as it is typically painful and causes redness and increased tearing. None of the medications the patient is taking are known to cause transient visual loss. A TIA of the posterior circulation is unlikely as the visual loss occurred in both eyes. Amaurosis fugax is the most likely cause, which is characterized by painless, temporary vision loss in one or both eyes, often due to retinal ischemia from an embolic or thrombotic event, which is consistent with the patient’s medical history. Reference: Wilkinson & Longmore, Oxford Handbook of Clinical Medicine (10th Ed.), p. 476.
Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arthritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.
Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arthritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.
Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 23-year-old woman urgently schedules an appointment due to a two-day history of increasing soreness, redness, and discharge from her left eye. She describes a gritty sensation in the affected eye but denies any foreign body exposure. The patient is otherwise healthy and admits to wearing contact lenses for up to 16 hours daily but has stopped since the onset of symptoms and is using glasses instead. Upon examination, the left eye appears inflamed with excessive tearing, while the right eye is normal. There are no abnormalities in the periorbital tissues, and visual acuity is normal with glasses. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Refer for same day ophthalmology assessment
Explanation:If a patient who wears contact lenses complains of a painful, red eye, it is important to refer them to an eye casualty department to rule out microbial keratitis. While conjunctivitis is the most common cause of a red eye, it can usually be treated with antibiotic eye drops in primary care. However, contact lens wearers are at a higher risk of developing microbial keratitis, which can lead to serious complications such as vision loss. Distinguishing between the two conditions requires a slit-lamp examination, which is why same-day referral to ophthalmology is necessary. Contact lenses should not be used, and medical treatment is required. It is important to note that steroid eye drops should not be prescribed for acute red eye from primary care, and artificial tears are not appropriate for this type of infection.
Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea
Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.
Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.
Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 28
Correct
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After an uncomplicated pregnancy, a 20-year-old woman gives birth to a baby boy through vaginal delivery. During the one-week check-up, the infant is observed to have crusting and purulent discharge in the eyes. What should be the next course of action for the baby's care?
Your Answer: Take urgent swabs of the discharge for microbiological investigation
Explanation:While minor conjunctivitis with encrusting of the eyelids is usually harmless, a purulent discharge could be a sign of a severe infection such as chlamydia or gonococcus. In infants with a purulent eye discharge, it is crucial to take swab samples immediately for microbiological testing that can detect chlamydia and gonococcus. Although it is recommended to begin systemic antibiotic treatment for potential gonococcal infection while waiting for the swab results, the swabs must be taken first.
Conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes with a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.
In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves without treatment within one to two weeks. However, topical antibiotic therapy is often offered to patients, such as Chloramphenicol drops given every two to three hours initially or Chloramphenicol ointment given four times a day initially. Alternatively, topical fusidic acid can be used, especially for pregnant women, and treatment is twice daily.
For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn, and patients should be advised not to share towels. School exclusion is not necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of painless, gradual vision loss in both eyes. During the examination, the GP observes bitemporal hemianopia. Where is the lesion located that is causing this visual field defect?
Your Answer: Optic chiasm
Explanation:Visual Field Defects and their Corresponding Lesions
Visual field defects can provide important clues to the location of lesions in the visual pathway. A bitemporal hemianopia, for example, is typically caused by a lesion at the optic chiasm, such as a pituitary tumor or a craniopharyngioma. A left occipital visual cortex lesion, on the other hand, will cause a right homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing. Similarly, a left temporal lobe optic radiation lesion will result in a right superior quadrantanopia, while a right optic tract lesion will cause a left homonymous hemianopia. Finally, a right parietal lobe optic radiation lesion will produce a left inferior quadrantanopia. Understanding these relationships can aid in the diagnosis and management of visual field defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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As an FY-2 doctor in ophthalmology, you encounter a 59-year-old male patient who complains of pain in his right eye, accompanied by tearing and reduced vision. Upon examination, you diagnose a corneal ulcer. What is the most probable cause of this condition?
Your Answer: Lubricant eye drops
Correct Answer: Steroid eye drops
Explanation:Fungal infections and subsequent corneal ulcers can be caused by the use of steroid eye drops. These drops are designed to reduce inflammation, but they can also weaken the immune response to infections, leaving the cornea vulnerable to bacteria, fungi, or protists. Treatment for corneal ulcers typically involves targeted eye drops to address the specific organism causing the infection, such as antibacterial or antifungal drops. Saline or lubricant eye drops, on the other hand, are sterile and do not pose a risk for corneal ulcers.
Understanding Corneal Ulcers
A corneal ulcer is a condition that occurs when there is a defect in the cornea, which is usually caused by an infection. It is important to note that corneal abrasions, on the other hand, are typically caused by physical trauma. There are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing a corneal ulcer, including contact lens use and vitamin A deficiency, which is particularly common in developing countries.
The pathophysiology of corneal ulcers can vary depending on the underlying cause. Bacterial, fungal, and viral infections can all lead to the development of a corneal ulcer. In some cases, contact lens use can also be associated with a type of infection called Acanthamoeba keratitis.
Symptoms of a corneal ulcer typically include eye pain, sensitivity to light, and excessive tearing. Additionally, a focal fluorescein staining of the cornea may be present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a right-sided headache associated with diplopia, binocularly. He is known to have hypertension and type II diabetes mellitus.
On examination, his visual acuity is 6/9 in both eyes. There is a ptosis of his right eye. His right pupil appears larger than the left. His right eye is abducted on primary gaze. His right eye movements are restricted in most directions except abduction.
Which one of the following is the most important cause you need to rule out in this condition?Your Answer: Space-occupying lesion
Correct Answer: Posterior-communicating artery aneurysm
Explanation:Causes of Third-Nerve Palsy and Their Differentiating Features
Third-nerve palsy is a condition that can be caused by various factors, each with its own differentiating features. One of the most urgent causes is a posterior-communicating artery aneurysm, which can be fatal due to subarachnoid hemorrhage. A space-occupying lesion can also compress onto the third nerve, but ruling out an impending subarachnoid hemorrhage caused by a posterior-communicating artery aneurysm is more urgent. On the other hand, an anterior-communicating artery aneurysm does not normally cause a third-nerve palsy. Demyelination can cause third-nerve palsy, but the presentation usually points towards a more ‘surgical’ than ‘medical’ cause. Microvascular ischemia is a common cause of ‘medical’ third-nerve palsy, but the pupillary fibers that control pupil dilation are not affected. Therefore, understanding the differentiating features of each cause is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 32
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman presents to an ophthalmologist with complaints of vision problems. She reports experiencing blackouts in her peripheral vision and severe headaches. Upon examination, the ophthalmologist notes bitemporal hemianopia in her visual fields. Where is the likely site of the lesion in her optic pathway?
Your Answer: Optic chiasm
Explanation:Understanding the Effects of Lesions in the Visual Pathway
The visual pathway is a complex system that allows us to perceive and interpret visual information. However, lesions in different parts of this pathway can result in various visual field defects. Here is a breakdown of the effects of lesions in different parts of the visual pathway:
Optic Chiasm: Lesions in the optic chiasm can cause bitemporal hemianopia or tunnel vision. This is due to damage to the fibers that receive visual stimuli from the temporal visual fields.
Optic Nerve: Lesions in the optic nerve can result in monocular blindness of the ipsilateral eye. If only one eye has a visual field defect, then the lesion cannot be further back than the optic nerve.
Optic Tract: Lesions in the optic tract can cause homonymous hemianopia of the contralateral visual field. This means that a lesion of the left optic tract causes loss of the right visual field in both eyes.
Lateral Geniculate Nucleus: Any lesions after the optic chiasm will result in a homonymous hemianopia.
Primary Visual Cortex: Lesions in the primary visual cortex can also result in homonymous hemianopia, but with cortical lesions, there is usually macular sparing because of the relatively large cortical representation of the macula. Less extensive lesions are associated with scotoma and quadrantic field loss.
Understanding the effects of lesions in the visual pathway is crucial in diagnosing and treating visual field defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old patient on your morning telephone appointment list reports a painful watering left eye after mowing the lawn. His daughter can see a grass seed visibly stuck near his cornea. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Advise eye irrigation to remove the seed and prescribe chloramphenicol eye drops for 7 days
Correct Answer: Refer to ophthalmology immediately for assessment that day
Explanation:If a patient has an organic foreign body in their eye, such as a grass seed, it is crucial to refer them immediately to ophthalmology for assessment due to the risk of infection. The removal of the foreign body should also be done on the same day as the assessment to prevent further complications. This is especially important in cases where the injury was caused by high-velocity objects, such as during grass cutting. Attempting to remove the foreign body in primary care or delaying the removal to the following day is not recommended as it may increase the risk of infection and prolong the patient’s discomfort. It is essential to seek specialist care to ensure proper treatment and avoid any potential complications.
A corneal foreign body can cause eye pain, a sensation of something being in the eye, sensitivity to light, watering, and redness. If the injury was caused by high-velocity objects or sharp items, or if there is significant trauma to the eye or surrounding area, it is important to refer the patient to an ophthalmologist. If a chemical injury has occurred, the eye should be irrigated for 20-30 minutes before referral. Foreign bodies made of organic material, such as seeds or soil, also require referral due to a higher risk of infection and complications. If the foreign body is located in or near the center of the cornea, or if there are any red flags such as severe pain, irregular pupils, or reduced vision, referral is necessary. For more information on management, please refer to Clinical Knowledge Summaries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 34
Correct
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A 42-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of erythema around his right eye and limited eye movements for the past 2 days. He has been experiencing sinusitis symptoms for the last week. During the examination of his right eye, the doctor observes erythema around the eye, proptosis, painful and restricted eye movements, and decreased visual acuity. The examination of his left eye is normal.
What is the most suitable test to perform?Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) orbit, sinuses and brain
Explanation:Imaging and Diagnostic Tools for Orbital Cellulitis
Orbital cellulitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. To evaluate patients with suspected orbital cellulitis, a computed tomography (CT) scan of the orbit, sinuses, and brain is necessary if they have central nervous system involvement, proptosis, eye movement restriction or pain, reduced visual acuity, or other symptoms. If patients do not improve after 36-48 hours of IV antibiotics, surgical drainage may be required, making imaging crucial for evaluation.
Ophthalmic ultrasound is not useful in the diagnosis or assessment of orbital cellulitis, but it is used in the evaluation of intra-ocular tumors. Optical coherence photography (OCT) is also not used in the assessment of orbital cellulitis, but it is useful in the diagnosis and assessment of other eye conditions such as glaucoma and macular degeneration.
An X-ray of the skull bones is not useful in the assessment of orbital cellulitis and is typically used in cases of suspected non-accidental injury in children. Overall, proper imaging and diagnostic tools are essential for the accurate diagnosis and treatment of orbital cellulitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 35
Correct
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A 73-year-old man visits the optician after hearing that individuals over 70 can receive a complimentary eye exam. He has been wearing glasses for his entire adult life due to being long-sighted. His doctor recently informed him that he has pre-diabetes, but he feels fine and hasn't noticed any issues with his vision. During the eye exam, the optometrist discovers that he has high intraocular pressure and advises him to see a specialist for further testing.
What symptom is he most likely to encounter based on the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Reduced peripheral vision
Explanation:The patient’s optic nerve fibers may have suffered irreversible damage, putting her at increased risk of developing glaucoma due to her age, pre-diabetes, and raised intraocular pressure. The optometrist detected this pressure, which is caused by impaired drainage of aqueous fluid within the eye. However, the patient is asymptomatic and therefore unlikely to have closed-angle glaucoma, which causes intense eye pain, redness, headaches, halos around lights, and nausea. Cloudy vision is more likely to be caused by cataracts, but there are no other features to suggest this diagnosis. Open-angle glaucoma can sometimes cause color blindness, but it more commonly affects the visual fields. It does not cause dry eyes, which can be caused by autoimmune conditions such as Sjogren’s syndrome and systemic lupus erythematosus.
Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) is a type of glaucoma where the peripheral iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is important in draining aqueous humour from the eye. POAG is more common in older individuals and those with a family history of the condition. It may present insidiously with symptoms such as peripheral visual field loss, decreased visual acuity, and optic disc cupping. Diagnosis is made through a series of investigations including automated perimetry, slit lamp examination, applanation tonometry, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy. It is important to assess the risk of future visual impairment based on factors such as IOP, CCT, family history, and life expectancy. Referral to an ophthalmologist is typically done through a GP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 36
Correct
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A 50-year-old welder comes to the Emergency Department with a metal splinter in his eye. What is the most effective course of action that can be provided in this setting?
Your Answer: Immediate ophthalmology referral
Explanation:Immediate Referral and Management of Corneal Foreign Body
If a patient presents with a suspected corneal foreign body, immediate referral to the emergency eye service is necessary. High-velocity injuries or injuries caused by sharp objects should be treated as penetrating injuries until proven otherwise. Once referred, the foreign body can be removed under magnification with a slit lamp and a blunted needle, using a topical anaesthetic to the cornea. Topical antibiotics are given, and the eye is covered with an eye pad. Chemical injuries require eye wash, but this will not remove a corneal foreign body. Retinoscopy is not relevant to this scenario. While topical antibiotics may play a role in management, the most important first step is to remove the foreign body to prevent corneal ulceration, secondary infection, and inflammation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 37
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of pain in her left eye. She reports no sensitivity to light and no vision problems. She denies any past eye injuries or diseases. She has been managing her diabetes through diet alone for the past two years. During the examination, the eye is found to be red and tender to the touch.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Urgent and immediate referral to ophthalmic surgeon
Explanation:Management of a Patient with a Painful Red Eye and Diabetes
When managing a patient with a painful red eye and diabetes, it is important to consider the potential causes and appropriate interventions. Urgent referral to an ophthalmic surgeon is necessary if there is suspicion of acute closed-angle glaucoma, which is more common in diabetic patients. Referring the patient back to the diabetic clinic would not be appropriate in this case. Chloramphenicol drops are not indicated unless there is evidence of an infection. Oral flucloxacillin and eye swabs are not necessary unless there is suspicion of skin infection or bacterial conjunctivitis. Reassuring the patient and providing eye lubrication without addressing the underlying cause would be negligent. Prompt and appropriate management is crucial in preventing vision loss in diabetic patients with a painful red eye.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 38
Correct
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A 75-year-old female comes to her doctor complaining of sudden left shoulder and arm pain that has been getting worse over the past week. The pain is now unbearable even with regular co-codamol. During the examination, the doctor observes that the patient's left pupil is smaller than the other and the eyelid is slightly drooping. What question would be most helpful in determining the diagnosis for this woman?
Your Answer: Smoking history
Explanation:Smoking is responsible for the majority of cases of cancer that lead to Pancoast’s syndrome. The patient’s condition is not influenced by factors such as alcohol consumption, physical activity, or exposure to pathogens.
Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.
Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.
There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 39
Correct
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A 63-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with sudden vision loss, redness, and pain in her left eye. She reports experiencing some discomfort and redness earlier in the day, which worsened over the next two hours. She has no history of trauma or other visual problems. Her medical history includes osteoarthritis, left eye cataract surgery three days ago, and no significant family history.
Upon examination, the left eye appears hyperemic with hypopyon, and eye movements are painful. Visual acuity is severely impaired, while the right eye appears normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Endophthalmitis
Explanation:Post-operative endophthalmitis is a rare but serious complication that can occur after cataract surgery and requires immediate treatment.
If a patient experiences sudden pain, redness, and vision loss shortly after eye surgery, it may indicate post-operative endophthalmitis. This infection affects the aqueous and vitreous humor of the eye and is a rare complication of any eye surgery.
While anterior uveitis can also cause a painful red eye, it is less likely in this case due to the patient’s history of cataract surgery. Additionally, there is no mention of an irregularly-shaped pupil or any systemic disease associated with anterior uveitis.
A corneal ulcer is another possibility, but it typically presents with a sensation of a foreign body in the eye and discharge. It is also more common in contact lens wearers who have been exposed to water.
Retinal detachment is less likely because it usually causes visual disturbances such as floaters, flashes of light, and a curtain descending over the peripheral visual field. Although ocular surgery is a risk factor for retinal detachment, it would not cause the intense redness and hypopyon seen in post-operative endophthalmitis.
Understanding Cataracts: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
A cataract is a common eye condition that affects the lens of the eye, causing it to become cloudy and reducing the amount of light that reaches the retina. This can lead to blurred or reduced vision, making it difficult to see clearly. Cataracts are more common in women and tend to increase in incidence with age. While the normal ageing process is the most common cause, other factors such as smoking, alcohol consumption, trauma, diabetes, and long-term corticosteroid use can also contribute to the development of cataracts.
Symptoms of cataracts include reduced vision, faded colour vision, glare, and halos around lights. A defect in the red reflex is also a sign of cataracts. Diagnosis is typically made through ophthalmoscopy and slit-lamp examination, which can reveal the presence of a visible cataract.
In the early stages, age-related cataracts can be managed conservatively with stronger glasses or contact lenses and brighter lighting. However, surgery is the only effective treatment for cataracts and involves removing the cloudy lens and replacing it with an artificial one. Referral for surgery should be based on the presence of visual impairment, impact on quality of life, and patient choice. Complications following surgery can include posterior capsule opacification, retinal detachment, posterior capsule rupture, and endophthalmitis.
Overall, cataracts are a common and treatable eye condition that can significantly impact a person’s vision. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and management options can help individuals make informed decisions about their eye health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 40
Correct
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A 75-year-old man visited his GP complaining of sudden, painless vision loss in his right eye that occurred 2 hours ago. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes requiring insulin, hypertension, and dyslipidemia. Upon further inquiry, he mentioned experiencing brief flashes of light before a dense shadow that began in the periphery and moved towards the center. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Retinal detachment
Explanation:Retinal detachment is a condition that can cause a sudden and painless loss of vision. It is characterized by a dense shadow that starts in the peripheral vision and gradually moves towards the center, along with increased floaters and flashes of light.
Central retinal artery occlusion, on the other hand, is a condition where the blood flow to the retina of one eye is blocked, resulting in sudden loss of vision in that eye. This is usually caused by an embolus and does not typically present with floaters, flashing lights, or dense shadows.
Similarly, central retinal vein occlusion can cause sudden vision loss in one eye, but it is often described as blurry or distorted vision rather than the symptoms seen in retinal detachment.
Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arthritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.
Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arthritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.
Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 41
Correct
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A 54-year-old man visits his optician for a check-up after being diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. During the examination, the doctor examines the back of his eye using a slit lamp and observes the presence of cotton wool spots. What is the probable underlying pathology responsible for this finding?
Your Answer: Retinal infarction
Explanation:Retinal detachment is a condition where the retina becomes separated from the normal structure of the eye, resulting in a large bullous separation in rhegmatogenous cases. On the other hand, retinal necrosis is an acute condition that causes an abrupt, one-sided, painful loss of vision. During a slit-lamp examination, multiple areas of retinal whitening and opacification with scalloped edges that merge together can be observed.
Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy
Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.
Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.
Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for nonproliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 42
Correct
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As part of a learning exercise, an elderly person drew a small black square and a black circle, 4 inches horizontally apart, on a piece of white paper. The elderly person then held the paper at arm’s length and closed their left eye, while focusing on the black square, which was to the left of the black circle, with their right eye. They moved the paper slowly towards them until the black circle disappeared.
Which of the following anatomical structures is responsible for the disappearance of the black circle?Your Answer: Optic disc
Explanation:Anatomy of the Eye: Optic Disc, Macula Lutea, Fovea Centralis, Dilator Pupillae, and Sphincter Pupillae
The eye is a complex organ that allows us to see the world around us. Within the eye, there are several important structures that play a role in vision. Here are five key components of the eye and their functions:
1. Optic Disc: This is the area where the optic nerve exits the retina. It lacks photoreceptor cells, creating a blind spot in our visual field. The optic disc is lighter in color than the surrounding retina and is the point from which branches of the central retinal artery spread out to supply the retina.
2. Macula Lutea: This small, yellow-colored area is located next to the optic disc. It has a higher visual sensitivity than other areas of the retina.
3. Fovea Centralis: This is the central depression of the macula lutea and contains the largest number of densely compact cone photoreceptors. It has the highest visual sensitivity of any area of the retina.
4. Dilator Pupillae: This structure is found in the iris and is innervated by sympathetic fibers. It dilates the pupillary opening.
5. Sphincter Pupillae: Also found in the iris, this structure is innervated by parasympathetics and constricts the pupillary opening.
Understanding the anatomy of the eye and how these structures work together is essential for maintaining good vision and identifying potential problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man comes in with a painful red eye. What feature would not indicate a diagnosis of acute angle closure glaucoma?
Your Answer: Patient sees halos around lights
Correct Answer: Small pupil
Explanation:Glaucoma is a group of disorders that cause optic neuropathy due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). However, not all patients with raised IOP have glaucoma, and vice versa. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in IOP due to impaired aqueous outflow. Factors that increase the risk of AACG include hypermetropia, pupillary dilation, and lens growth associated with age. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, halos around lights, and a hard, red-eye. Management of AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Emergency medical treatment is necessary to lower the IOP, followed by definitive surgical treatment once the acute attack has subsided.
There are no specific guidelines for the initial medical treatment of AACG, but a combination of eye drops may be used, including a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist. Intravenous acetazolamide may also be administered to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management of AACG involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a small hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humour to flow to the angle. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if symptoms of AACG are present to prevent permanent vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 44
Correct
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A 50-year-old female with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents to the emergency department with a painful, swollen right eye. She is compliant with her hydroxychloroquine medication and has had three arthritic flares in the past year, all of which responded well to IV steroids. The patient frequently uses artificial teardrops for foreign body sensation, but her current ocular symptoms are not improving with this treatment. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Scleritis
Explanation:Rheumatoid Arthritis and Its Effects on the Eyes
Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects various parts of the body, including the eyes. In fact, ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis are quite common, with approximately 25% of patients experiencing eye problems. These eye problems can range from mild to severe and can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life.
The most common ocular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis is keratoconjunctivitis sicca, also known as dry eye syndrome. This condition occurs when the eyes do not produce enough tears, leading to discomfort, redness, and irritation. Other ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis include episcleritis, scleritis, corneal ulceration, and keratitis. Episcleritis and scleritis both cause redness in the eyes, with scleritis also causing pain. Corneal ulceration and keratitis both affect the cornea, with corneal ulceration being a more severe condition that can lead to vision loss.
In addition to these conditions, patients with rheumatoid arthritis may also experience iatrogenic ocular manifestations. These are side effects of medications used to treat the disease. For example, steroid use can lead to cataracts, while the use of chloroquine can cause retinopathy.
Overall, it is important for patients with rheumatoid arthritis to be aware of the potential ocular manifestations of the disease and to seek prompt medical attention if they experience any eye-related symptoms. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent vision loss and improve overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man visits his primary care physician, reporting difficulty watching television. He has a medical history of hypertension, but no other significant issues.
Tests:
Fasting plasma glucose: 6.5 mmol/l
Fundoscopy: Bilateral drusen affecting the fovea
Visual field testing: Bilateral central visual field loss
Fluorescein angiography: Bilateral retinal neovascularisation and exudates present
What is the most appropriate diagnosis for this patient's symptoms and test results?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Age-related macular degeneration (AMD)
Explanation:Understanding Age-Related Macular Degeneration (AMD)
Age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is a common condition among individuals aged 75 years and above. It is characterized by the presence of yellow spots called drusen, which are waste products from the retinal pigment epithelium. Gradual loss of central vision, as well as the presence of foveal drusen on retinal examination, are typical signs of AMD. There are two types of AMD: wet (neovascular) and dry (non-neovascular). Dry AMD progresses slowly and has no known treatment, although stopping smoking can reduce its rate of progression. Wet AMD, on the other hand, arises when there is choroidal neovascularization and can be treated with laser treatment or anti-VEGF intravitreal injections to reduce new vessel formation.
Other eye conditions that may cause vision loss include diabetic maculopathy, proliferative retinopathy (PR), hypertensive retinopathy, diabetic retinopathy, retinitis pigmentosa, and chronic angle closure glaucoma. However, the patient’s symptoms and retinal examination findings suggest that AMD is the most likely diagnosis. It is important to understand the different eye conditions and their respective treatments to provide appropriate care and management for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl visits her GP complaining of a swollen left eye. She noticed it while playing outside in the park. Her mother is concerned because she is having difficulty reading her books. The girl has no medical history, and this has never happened before.
During the examination, the left eyelid is warm and red, and the eye seems to be bulging. The girl's eye movements are limited in all directions. The right eye appears normal. Her heart rate is 120 beats/minute, and her temperature is 37.9ºC.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Orbital cellulitis
Explanation:Orbital cellulitis can be distinguished from preseptal cellulitis based on the presence of reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and pain with eye movements. This classic presentation is accompanied by fever and tachycardia, indicating an infection. While preseptal cellulitis can also cause a swollen eye, it does not result in the same symptoms as orbital cellulitis. Other conditions, such as minimal change disease, mastoiditis, and bilateral periorbital edema, may cause swelling and fever, but they do not typically result in unilateral swelling with restricted eye movements and raised temperature.
Understanding Orbital Cellulitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Orbital cellulitis is a serious infection that affects the fat and muscles behind the orbital septum within the orbit, but not the globe. It is commonly caused by upper respiratory tract infections that spread from the sinuses and can lead to a high mortality rate. On the other hand, periorbital cellulitis is a less severe infection that occurs in the superficial tissues anterior to the orbital septum. However, it can progress to orbital cellulitis if left untreated.
Risk factors for orbital cellulitis include childhood, previous sinus infections, lack of Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccination, recent eyelid infections or insect bites, and ear or facial infections. Symptoms of orbital cellulitis include redness and swelling around the eye, severe ocular pain, visual disturbance, proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, eyelid edema, and ptosis. In rare cases, meningeal involvement can cause drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting.
To differentiate between orbital and preseptal cellulitis, doctors look for reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and ophthalmoplegia, which are not consistent with preseptal cellulitis. Full blood count and clinical examination involving complete ophthalmological assessment are necessary to determine the severity of the infection. CT with contrast can also help identify inflammation of the orbital tissues deep to the septum and sinusitis. Blood culture and microbiological swab are also necessary to determine the organism causing the infection.
Management of orbital cellulitis requires hospital admission for IV antibiotics. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent senior review. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and reduce the risk of mortality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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An ophthalmology clinic is treating a 75-year-old man with bilateral primary open-angle glaucoma. Despite using latanoprost eye drops, his intraocular pressures remain high. The ophthalmologist now needs to add a second topical agent to reduce intraocular pressure by decreasing the rate of aqueous humour production. What class of drug should be considered next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Beta-blocker
Explanation:Beta blockers, like timolol, are effective in treating primary open-angle glaucoma by reducing the production of aqueous humour. They are commonly used as a first-line or second-line treatment, either alone or in combination with a prostaglandin analogue. Topical antimuscarinics should not be used as they can increase IOP, while pilocarpine can be used to reduce it. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are available for glaucoma treatment, but not carbonic anhydrase analogues. Topical corticosteroids are not used for glaucoma. If a patient is not responding well to their current treatment, guidelines recommend trying a drug from a different therapeutic class rather than adding a second prostaglandin analogue.
Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma is a type where the iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is responsible for draining aqueous humour from the eye. This results in increased resistance to outflow and raised intraocular pressure. The condition affects 0.5% of people over 40 years old and increases with age. Genetics also play a role, with first-degree relatives having a 16% chance of developing the disease. Symptoms are usually absent, and diagnosis is made through routine eye examinations. Investigations include visual field tests, tonometry, and slit lamp examinations. Treatment involves eye drops to lower intraocular pressure, with prostaglandin analogues being the first line of treatment. Surgery may be considered in refractory cases. Regular reassessment is necessary to monitor progression and prevent visual field loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman came to her GP with a complaint of painless blurring and distortion of central vision and difficulty with night vision that has been going on for 2 years. She reports that her vision is sometimes poor and sometimes better. During the examination using a direct ophthalmoscope, yellow deposits were observed at the macula. What is the initial treatment for this patient's eye condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin supplementation
Explanation:Vitamin supplementation containing vitamins C and E, beta-carotene, and zinc can delay the progression of dry age-related macular degeneration (AMD) from intermediate to advanced stages. However, there is no other treatment available for dry AMD, and management is mainly supportive. Pan-retinal photocoagulation is not used for either dry or wet AMD. Anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) intravitreal injection is reserved for wet AMD, where there is choroidal neovascularization. This treatment stops abnormal blood vessels from leaking, growing, and bleeding under the retina. Focal laser photocoagulation is sometimes used in wet AMD, but anti-VEGF injections are now the preferred treatment. Photodynamic therapy can be used in wet AMD when anti-VEGF is not an option or for those who do not want repeated intravitreal injections. The patient in question has dry AMD, with metamorphopsia as a symptom and yellow deposits at the macula known as drusen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy eye with watery discharge on one side. The patient reports feeling generally healthy, without changes to their vision or fever symptoms. They wear contact lenses but have not had an optician appointment recently.
During the examination, the patient's right eye shows injected conjunctiva, but there is no noticeable swelling or redness around the eye. The application of topical fluorescein does not reveal any corneal staining.
What would be the best course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise she should not wear contact lenses for the duration of her symptoms
Explanation:During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn. In this case, the 15-year-old is likely experiencing viral conjunctivitis and should refrain from wearing contact lenses until symptoms have subsided. It is important to note that not having seen an optician recently may affect the patient’s lens prescription, but it does not increase their susceptibility to infection or more severe conditions.
While warm compresses can be helpful for styes or chalazion, they are not as effective for viral conjunctivitis. In this case, the fluorescein test did not show any corneal stains, indicating that the patient does not require a referral to ophthalmology. However, if a contact lens wearer with these symptoms had corneal staining, they would need to visit eye casualty as this would suggest a corneal injury.
Although topical antihistamine eye drops may be appropriate for allergic conjunctivitis, the unilateral nature of the patient’s symptoms makes this diagnosis less likely. Topical chloramphenicol is the preferred treatment for bacterial conjunctivitis, but the watery discharge in this case suggests viral conjunctivitis instead.
Conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes with a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.
In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves without treatment within one to two weeks. However, topical antibiotic therapy is often offered to patients, such as Chloramphenicol drops given every two to three hours initially or Chloramphenicol ointment given four times a day initially. Alternatively, topical fusidic acid can be used, especially for pregnant women, and treatment is twice daily.
For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn, and patients should be advised not to share towels. School exclusion is not necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man, with a history of atrial fibrillation, hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, presents to the Emergency Department with a sudden painless loss of vision in his left eye that lasted for a few minutes. He describes the loss of vision as a curtain coming into his vision, and he could not see anything out of it for a few minutes before his vision returned to normal.
Upon examination, his acuity is 6/9 in both eyes. On dilated fundoscopy, there is a small embolus in one of the vessels in the left eye. The rest of the fundus is normal in both eyes.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amaurosis fugax
Explanation:Differentiating Causes of Vision Loss: Amaurosis Fugax, Anterior Ischaemic Optic Neuropathy, CRAO, CRVO, and Retinal Detachment
When a patient presents with vision loss, it is important to differentiate between various causes. In the case of a transient and painless loss of vision, a typical diagnosis is amaurosis fugax. This is often seen in patients with atrial fibrillation and other vascular risk factors, and a small embolus may be present on fundoscopy. Treatment involves addressing the underlying cause and treating it as an eye transischaemic attack (TIA).
Anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy, on the other hand, is caused by giant-cell arthritis and presents with a sudden, painless loss of vision. However, there is no evidence of this in the patient’s history.
Central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO) is another potential cause of vision loss, but it does not present as a transient loss of vision. Instead, it causes long-lasting damage and may be identified by a cherry-red spot at the macula. The small embolus seen on fundoscopy is not causing a CRAO.
Similarly, central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) presents with multiple flame haemorrhages, which are not present in this case.
While the patient did mention a curtain-like loss of vision, this does not necessarily indicate retinal detachment. Retinal detachment typically presents with flashes and floaters, and vision is worse if the detachment is a macula-off detachment.
In summary, careful consideration of the patient’s history and fundoscopic findings can help differentiate between various causes of vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the Eye Casualty with a sudden onset of pain and reduced vision in her left eye over the past few hours. She denies any other symptoms.
Upon examination, her right eye has a visual acuity of 6/6 while her left eye has a visual acuity of 6/36 with reduced colour vision. Eye movements are normal, but the pain worsens. The swinging torch test reveals left pupil dilation when the torch light is swung from the right eye to the left.
A dilated fundoscopy shows normal optic discs in both eyes. An MRI scan of the head reveals white matter lesions in two different areas of the brain. An LP and CSF analysis show oligoclonal bands.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis
Explanation:Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Optic Neuritis
Optic neuritis is a condition that involves inflammation of the optic nerve, which can cause vision loss, pain, and other symptoms. When a patient presents with optic neuritis, there are several possible underlying diagnoses that could be considered.
One of the most likely diagnoses is multiple sclerosis, which can cause optic neuritis as a secondary symptom. To confirm this diagnosis, another MRI should be done at a later time to show that there are white matter plaques that are disseminated in time and space. However, the signs and examination findings are consistent with multiple sclerosis. It’s worth noting that if the optic disc is spared from inflammation, it can result in retrobulbar neuritis, which would not involve optic disc swelling.
Another possible diagnosis is giant-cell arthritis, which can cause a condition called anterior ischemic optic neuropathy (AION). This can result in a relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) and reduced visual acuity. However, the fundoscopy, MRI, and CSF findings are not consistent with AION.
Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is an ophthalmic sign that can be found in multiple sclerosis, but it is not a diagnosis in and of itself. It occurs when there is an injury or dysfunction to the medial longitudinal fasciculus.
Myasthenia gravis is another possible diagnosis, but it typically presents with variable diplopia or ptosis, which worsens in the evening or with exercise. There would not be any optic neuropathy signs.
Finally, post-viral demyelination is a type of atypical optic neuritis that is often bilateral and occurs a few weeks after a viral illness or vaccination. However, there is no history of any viral illnesses in this patient, making this diagnosis less likely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with elevated intraocular pressure is prescribed dorzolamide eye drops. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
Explanation:Dorzolamide is a type of medication that works as a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor.
Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma is a type where the iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is responsible for draining aqueous humour from the eye. This results in increased resistance to outflow and raised intraocular pressure. The condition affects 0.5% of people over 40 years old and increases with age. Genetics also play a role, with first-degree relatives having a 16% chance of developing the disease. Symptoms are usually absent, and diagnosis is made through routine eye examinations. Investigations include visual field tests, tonometry, and slit lamp examinations. Treatment involves eye drops to lower intraocular pressure, with prostaglandin analogues being the first line of treatment. Surgery may be considered in refractory cases. Regular reassessment is necessary to monitor progression and prevent visual field loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 53
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man presents to the clinic with an 8-month history of uncorrectable poor vision. He has a medical history of hypertension, allergic conjunctivitis, and type 1 diabetes mellitus, and has been a heavy smoker for the past 20 years. On examination, his right eye has a visual acuity of 6/30 while the left eye is normal. Fundoscopy reveals increased retinal blood vessels, blot haemorrhages, and hard exudates in the nasal upper quadrant of the right eye. He denies any sudden visual loss or ocular trauma. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Proliferative diabetic retinopathy
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for this patient is proliferative diabetic retinopathy, as evidenced by the presence of neovascularisation, microaneurysms, and hard exudates on fundoscopy. This condition is more common in type 1 diabetes mellitus. Dry age-related macular degeneration and hypertensive retinopathy are less likely diagnoses, as they do not explain all of the patient’s symptoms and findings.
Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy
Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.
Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.
Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for nonproliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old female patient complains of photophobia and a painful, red left eye. During examination, a dendritic corneal ulcer is observed. The patient has recently finished taking oral prednisolone for an asthma flare-up. What is the recommended treatment for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical acyclovir
Explanation:The most suitable treatment for herpes simplex keratitis is topical acyclovir. This patient’s symptoms, including a dendritic corneal ulcer, suggest herpes simplex keratitis, which may have been triggered by their recent use of oral prednisolone. Therefore, the most appropriate medication would be topical antivirals, such as acyclovir. It is important to note that acyclovir should be given topically rather than intravenously. Topical ciprofloxacin would be appropriate for bacterial or amoebic keratitis, which is more common in patients who wear contact lenses. Topical chloramphenicol would be suitable for a superficial eye infection like conjunctivitis, but it would not be appropriate for this patient, who likely has a viral cause for their symptoms.
Understanding Herpes Simplex Keratitis
Herpes simplex keratitis is a condition that affects the cornea of the eye and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. The most common symptom of this condition is a dendritic corneal ulcer, which can cause a red, painful eye, photophobia, and epiphora. In some cases, visual acuity may also be decreased. Fluorescein staining may show an epithelial ulcer, which can help with diagnosis. One common treatment for this condition is topical acyclovir, which can help to reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent further damage to the cornea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of pain in his left eye. He has a medical history of recurring sinusitis and ankylosing spondylitis. Upon examination, there is swelling and redness around the left eye, and there is discomfort when testing eye movements. The pupils appear normal. What is the recommended course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV antibiotics
Explanation:The appropriate treatment for patients with orbital cellulitis is admission to the hospital for IV antibiotics. This is due to the potential risk of cavernous sinus thrombosis and intracranial spread. The symptoms of ocular pain, pain on eye movements, redness, and swelling around the eye suggest this condition. IV acetazolamide, oral antibiotics, and oral steroids are not suitable treatments for orbital cellulitis as they are intended for different conditions.
Understanding Orbital Cellulitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Orbital cellulitis is a serious infection that affects the fat and muscles behind the orbital septum within the orbit, but not the globe. It is commonly caused by upper respiratory tract infections that spread from the sinuses and can lead to a high mortality rate. On the other hand, periorbital cellulitis is a less severe infection that occurs in the superficial tissues anterior to the orbital septum. However, it can progress to orbital cellulitis if left untreated.
Risk factors for orbital cellulitis include childhood, previous sinus infections, lack of Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccination, recent eyelid infections or insect bites, and ear or facial infections. Symptoms of orbital cellulitis include redness and swelling around the eye, severe ocular pain, visual disturbance, proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, eyelid edema, and ptosis. In rare cases, meningeal involvement can cause drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting.
To differentiate between orbital and preseptal cellulitis, doctors look for reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and ophthalmoplegia, which are not consistent with preseptal cellulitis. Full blood count and clinical examination involving complete ophthalmological assessment are necessary to determine the severity of the infection. CT with contrast can also help identify inflammation of the orbital tissues deep to the septum and sinusitis. Blood culture and microbiological swab are also necessary to determine the organism causing the infection.
Management of orbital cellulitis requires hospital admission for IV antibiotics. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent senior review. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and reduce the risk of mortality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 56
Incorrect
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An older woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe headache, nausea, vomiting and a painful, red right eye. She has reduced visual acuity in the right eye and normal visual acuity in the left eye. On examination, she had a stony hard eye with marked pericorneal reddening and a hazy corneal reflex. Tonometry revealed raised intraocular pressure.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management plan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit for immediate review by on call ophthalmologist. Topical pilocarpine, followed by a single dose of oral acetazolamide (500 mg) if there is a significant delay prior to specialist review
Explanation:Emergency Management of Acute Closed Angle Glaucoma
Acute closed angle glaucoma is a medical emergency that requires urgent ophthalmological review. The condition causes sudden loss of vision, severe eye pain, and marked pericorneal injection. The patient may also experience nausea and vomiting. On examination, the eye is stony hard with a semi-dilated, non-reactive pupil, and tonometry reveals a high intraocular pressure (40–80 mmHg).
The primary treatment for acute closed angle glaucoma is urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. However, if there is a significant delay in specialist review, a single dose of oral acetazolamide (500 mg) can be given to reduce aqueous secretion, and topical pilocarpine can be used to cause pupillary constriction.
It is important to note that topical steroids are not effective in resolving the underlying problems of acute closed angle glaucoma. Urgent referral to a neurologist is also not appropriate for managing this condition. Additionally, topical tropicamide should not be used as it has the opposite effect to pilocarpine and can worsen attacks of glaucoma.
In summary, acute closed angle glaucoma is a medical emergency that requires urgent ophthalmological review. If there is a delay in specialist review, a single dose of oral acetazolamide and topical pilocarpine can be given to manage the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of painful red eye on one side. Upon examination, the GP observes reduced visual acuity, photophobia, eye watering, and a poorly reactive pupil. The patient is suspected to have uveitis. What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Same-day referral to an Ophthalmologist
Explanation:Management of Acutely Painful Red Eye with Suspected Uveitis
Explanation:
When a patient presents with an acutely painful red eye and suspected uveitis, it is crucial to refer them for same-day assessment by an Ophthalmologist. A slit-lamp examination is necessary to confirm the diagnosis, which cannot be performed by a GP. Non-infective anterior uveitis is treated with a combination of steroids and cycloplegics to reduce inflammation and ciliary spasm. In cases of infective uveitis, antimicrobials are also added.Chloramphenicol is used in the treatment of conjunctivitis, but it is not appropriate for uveitis. Conservative management with pain relief alone is not sufficient for this condition. Topical steroids are required to reduce inflammation, along with a cycloplegic such as atropine to reduce ciliary spasm. However, topical steroids should not be initiated in primary care, and patients require urgent assessment in secondary care.
Referral within two weeks is not appropriate for a patient with an acutely painful red eye and suspected uveitis. Any delay in treatment can result in adhesions within the eye and long-term damage. Therefore, same-day referral to an Ophthalmologist is necessary for prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents with complaints of bumping into things since the morning. She is currently taking metformin, simvastatin and aspirin. She reports noticing multiple 'dark spots' over the vision in her right eye over the past two days. Upon examination, it is found that she has lost all vision in her right eye. The red reflex on the right side is difficult to elicit and the retina on the right side cannot be visualised during fundoscopy. However, examination of the left fundus reveals changes consistent with pre-proliferative diabetic retinopathy. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitreous haemorrhage
Explanation:Based on the patient’s medical history of diabetes and aspirin use, along with their symptoms of complete vision loss in one eye and inability to see the retina, it is likely that they are experiencing vitreous haemorrhage. To distinguish between this and retinal detachment, please refer to the table provided below.
Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arthritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.
Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arthritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.
Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with a lengthy history of hypertension is undergoing an eye examination. He has been experiencing deteriorating headaches and reduced visual acuity over the past few weeks. Upon fundoscopy, he displays flame haemorrhages, cotton wool spots, arteriovenous nipping, and papilloedema. What level of hypertensive retinopathy does this correspond to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Grade IV
Explanation:Grade IV hypertensive retinopathy is indicated by papilloedema, which is a severe manifestation that requires immediate attention due to its association with high morbidity and mortality. The various grades of hypertensive retinopathy have distinct characteristics, which are outlined below.
Understanding Hypertensive Retinopathy: Keith-Wagener Classification
Hypertensive retinopathy is a condition that affects the eyes due to high blood pressure. The Keith-Wagener classification is a system used to categorize the different stages of hypertensive retinopathy. Stage I is characterized by narrowing and twisting of the blood vessels in the eyes, as well as an increased reflection of light known as silver wiring. In stage II, the blood vessels become compressed where they cross over veins, leading to arteriovenous nipping. Stage III is marked by the appearance of cotton-wool exudates, which are white patches on the retina caused by blocked blood vessels. Additionally, there may be flame and blot hemorrhages that can collect around the fovea, resulting in a ‘macular star.’ Finally, stage IV is the most severe stage and is characterized by papilloedema, which is swelling of the optic disc at the back of the eye. Understanding the Keith-Wagener classification can help healthcare professionals diagnose and manage hypertensive retinopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A parent brings her daughter in for surgery suspecting a squint. She believes her left eye is 'turned inwards'. You conduct a cover test to gather more information. What result would indicate a left esotropia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: On covering the left eye the right eye moves laterally to take up fixation
Explanation:Squints can be categorized based on the direction in which the eye deviates. If the eye turns towards the nose, it is called esotropia. If it turns towards the temporal side, it is called exotropia. If it turns upwards, it is called hypertropia, and if it turns downwards, it is called hypotropia. For instance, when the left eye is covered, the right eye may move laterally from its esotropic position towards the center to focus on an object.
Squint, also known as strabismus, is a condition where the visual axes are misaligned. There are two types of squints: concomitant and paralytic. Concomitant squints are more common and are caused by an imbalance in the extraocular muscles. On the other hand, paralytic squints are rare and are caused by the paralysis of extraocular muscles. It is important to detect squints early on as they can lead to amblyopia, where the brain fails to process inputs from one eye and favours the other eye over time.
To detect a squint, a corneal light reflection test can be performed by holding a light source 30cm from the child’s face to see if the light reflects symmetrically on the pupils. The cover test is also used to identify the nature of the squint. This involves asking the child to focus on an object, covering one eye, and observing the movement of the uncovered eye. The test is then repeated with the other eye covered.
If a squint is detected, it is important to refer the child to secondary care. Eye patches may also be used to help prevent amblyopia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 61
Incorrect
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All can cause a mydriatic pupil, except?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Argyll-Robertson pupil
Explanation:The Argyll-Robertson pupil is a well-known pupillary syndrome that can be observed in cases of neurosyphilis. This condition is characterized by pupils that are able to accommodate, but do not react to light. A helpful mnemonic for remembering this syndrome is Accommodation Reflex Present (ARP) but Pupillary Reflex Absent (PRA). Other features of the Argyll-Robertson pupil include small and irregular pupils. The condition can be caused by various factors, including diabetes mellitus and syphilis.
Mydriasis, which is the enlargement of the pupil, can be caused by various factors. These include third nerve palsy, Holmes-Adie pupil, traumatic iridoplegia, pheochromocytoma, and congenital conditions. Additionally, certain drugs can also cause mydriasis, such as topical mydriatics like tropicamide and atropine, sympathomimetic drugs like amphetamines and cocaine, and anticholinergic drugs like tricyclic antidepressants. It’s important to note that anisocoria, which is when one pupil is larger than the other, can also result in the appearance of mydriasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of deteriorating vision. He states that his vision has been getting blurrier, particularly when reading. He denies experiencing any eye pain, redness, double vision, or other systemic symptoms. Upon examination, his visual acuity is measured using a Snellen chart and found to be 6/12 in both eyes. What is the most appropriate course of action to investigate a possible refractive error?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Use of a pinhole occluder
Explanation:Identifying refractive error cannot be achieved through the use of tropicamide or lens decentration.
Understanding Blurred Vision
Blurred vision is a condition where there is a loss of clarity or sharpness of vision. It is a common symptom experienced by patients with long-term refractive errors. However, the term can mean different things to different patients and doctors, which is why it is important to assess for associated symptoms such as visual loss, double vision, and floaters.
There are various causes of blurred vision, including refractive errors, cataracts, retinal detachment, age-related macular degeneration, acute angle closure glaucoma, optic neuritis, and amaurosis fugax. To assess the condition, doctors may use a Snellen chart to measure visual acuity, pinhole occluders to check for refractive errors, visual fields, and fundoscopy.
The management of blurred vision depends on the suspected underlying cause. If the onset is gradual, corrected by a pinhole occluder, and there are no other associated symptoms, an optician review may be the next step. However, patients with other associated symptoms such as visual loss or pain should be seen by an ophthalmologist urgently. Understanding the causes and assessment of blurred vision is crucial in determining the appropriate management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents for a routine optometry exam to assess his overall eye health. He has a medical history of diabetes but has not been consistent with his medication and rarely monitors his blood sugar levels. During the fundoscopy, diffuse neovascularization and cotton wool spots were observed. What is the recommended treatment plan for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravitreal VEGF inhibitors + pan-retinal photocoagulation laser
Explanation:The treatment for proliferative diabetic retinopathy may involve the use of intravitreal VEGF inhibitors in combination with panretinal laser photocoagulation.
Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy
Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.
Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.
Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for nonproliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner (GP) complaining of painless sudden vision loss in his eyes. Upon examination, the GP observes a right homonymous superior quadrantanopia. Where is the lesion located that is responsible for this visual field defect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left temporal lobe optic radiation
Explanation:Lesions and their corresponding visual field defects
Visual field defects can be caused by lesions in various parts of the visual pathway. Here are some examples:
Left temporal lobe optic radiation
Lesion in this area can cause a left superior quadrantanopia.Optic chiasm
A lesion in the optic chiasm can cause a bitemporal hemianopia.Left occipital visual cortex
A lesion in the left occipital visual cortex can cause a right homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing.Right optic tract
A lesion in the right optic tract can cause a left homonymous hemianopia.Right parietal lobe optic radiation
A lesion in the right parietal lobe optic radiation can cause a left inferior quadrantanopia.Understanding the location of the lesion and its corresponding visual field defect can aid in diagnosis and treatment of visual impairments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 65
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man visits an Ophthalmology Clinic with a complaint of distorted and bent straight lines. He has also observed blurry and dark areas in the centre of his vision in both eyes, which have been worsening over the past year and a half. He reports no pain or redness in either eye. A fundoscopy examination is conducted to assess his eye.
What is the most probable finding on fundoscopy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Drusen
Explanation:Differentiating Causes of Central Visual Loss: A Case Study
A patient presents with a slow-onset central visual loss without pain or redness of the eye. The most likely cause is age-related macular degeneration, which can be either dry or wet. Drusen, which can be seen on fundoscopic examination, is a common feature of both types.
Retinal detachment, which presents with an acute onset and a falling curtain-like visual loss, is not consistent with this patient’s symptoms. Disc cupping, which accompanies open-angle glaucoma, presents with peripheral visual loss rather than central visual loss. Macular neovascularisation, commonly seen in wet age-related macular degeneration, is not the best answer as this patient is more likely to have dry macular degeneration. Even if the patient had wet macular degeneration, drusen would be more likely to be seen on examination than macular neovascularisation. Retinal haemorrhages, along with a swollen disc and cotton-wool spots, are commonly seen in central-vessel occlusion of the retinal artery, which would result in complete visual loss and have an acute or subacute onset.
In summary, careful consideration of the timing and nature of symptoms, along with fundoscopic examination findings, can help differentiate between causes of central visual loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old swim instructor arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of severe pain in his right eye and feeling like there is something foreign in it, even though he has already removed his contact lenses. Upon examination, the right eye shows conjunctival injection, and the patient experiences photophobia, tearing, and discharge. His visual acuity is 6/6 in the left eye and 6/12 in the right eye, with intact ocular reflexes. A slit lamp inspection reveals mild, regular ulceration in the right eye. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acanthamoeba keratitis
Explanation:Wearing contact lenses increases the risk of acanthamoeba infection, which can cause keratitis. This is especially true for individuals who are frequently exposed to bodies of water, such as swimmers and lifeguards. Symptoms of acanthamoeba keratitis include eye pain, reduced visual acuity, redness, photophobia, and discharge. Treatment typically involves a combination of antiamoebic medications such as biguanides and diamidines. Anterior uveitis, conjunctivitis, and herpes simplex virus keratitis are less likely causes of the patient’s symptoms, given the history of contact lens use and occupation as a lifeguard.
Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea
Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.
Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.
Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents with an acutely red right eye. He also has dull aching pain affecting the eye, and he is photosensitive, with light severely worsening the pain in the eye. There is no mucopurulent discharge and he has mild blurring of vision. The left eye is not affected. Other past history of note includes intermittent diarrhoea, which he says looked bloody on a couple of occasions, but he put this down to food poisoning. On examination, his blood pressure is 125/72 mmHg; he looks thin, with a body mass index of 19.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 119 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 8.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 204 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 35 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 130 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Intraocular pressure: reduced in the affected eye, with numerous cells seen within the aqueous.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anterior uveitis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Red, Painful Eye with Photophobia: Anterior Uveitis
Anterior uveitis is a possible diagnosis for a patient presenting with a red, painful eye and photophobia. The condition can be idiopathic or associated with systemic inflammatory diseases, such as ulcerative colitis. The presence of inflammatory cells in the aqueous is a hallmark of anterior uveitis. Treatment typically involves cyclopentolate for ocular pain relief and corticosteroids to reduce inflammation. Tapering of corticosteroid therapy is guided by the degree of clinical response.
Other potential diagnoses, such as conjunctivitis and herpetic ulcer, can be ruled out based on the absence of certain symptoms and risk factors. Acute glaucoma is also unlikely as intraocular pressures are low in anterior uveitis, whereas they would be expected to be raised in acute glaucoma. Anterior scleritis is another possibility, but it is less likely in this case as the examination findings do not mention intense redness of the anterior sclera.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with multiple sclerosis presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with blurring of her vision and pain on eye movement. The GP suspects that she may have optic neuritis.
Which of the following signs is most likely to be present on examination?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced colour vision
Explanation:Signs and Symptoms of Optic Neuritis
Optic neuritis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the optic nerve, often associated with demyelinating diseases like multiple sclerosis. One of the signs of optic neuritis is reduced color vision in the affected eye. Other symptoms may include decreased pupillary light reaction, relative afferent pupillary defect, reduced visual acuity, visual field defects, swollen optic disc, and pain on eye movements. However, optic neuritis is not associated with increased intraocular pressure, erythema, or vesicles around the affected eye. It is important to differentiate optic neuritis from other eye conditions to provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 69
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a sudden painless loss of vision in his left eye. He has noticed a decline in his vision over the past few months, but attributed it to his age. He has a history of smoking 30 cigarettes daily for the last 45 years and well-controlled hypertension. The left eye has a visual acuity of 6/30, while the right eye has a visual acuity of 6/12. A central scotoma is evident on visual field testing. Fundus examination is being conducted after administering mydriatic eye drops. What is the most specific finding for the underlying cause of his presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Choroidal neovascularisation
Explanation:The patient’s acute onset painless visual loss, along with their chronic visual loss, distorted vision, age, and smoking history, suggest a diagnosis of age-related macular degeneration (AMD). Since the vision loss was sudden, wet AMD is more likely than dry AMD. Choroidal neovascularisation is a hallmark feature of wet AMD, as new blood vessels formed are weak and unstable, leading to intraretinal or subretinal fluid leakage or haemorrhage.
Blurring of the optic disc margins is not a feature of AMD, but rather papilloedema, which is associated with increased intracranial pressure and typically presents with progressive and positional headaches, nausea, and vomiting.
Cotton-wool exudates are not commonly seen in AMD, but rather in hypertensive and diabetic retinopathy. Although the patient has hypertension, it is well-controlled, and hypertensive retinopathy tends to present with slow and progressive visual loss.
Geographic atrophy may be seen in the late stages of both forms of AMD, but the presence of choroidal neovascularisation is the key differentiating feature between the two.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.
To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.
In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy is diagnosed with retinoblastoma after his mother noticed that the appearance of the child's left eye looked different to the right on photos. She had read in a magazine that this could be a dangerous sign and so reported it an optometrist.
Which one of the following statements about retinoblastoma is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Results from loss of heterozygosity of the normal Rb gene
Explanation:Retinoblastoma: Understanding the Mechanisms and Risks
Retinoblastoma is a type of cancer caused by a mutation in the Rb-1 gene, which is a tumour suppressor gene. This mutation can occur through loss of heterozygosity, where the normal Rb gene is lost in one region, but cancer only results when both copies of the normal gene are lost. While about 60% of cases are sporadic, the remaining 40% are inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, with a predisposition to non-ocular cancers such as pineal or suprasellar primitive neuroectodermal tumour. The Knudson’s two-hit hypothesis explains that in inherited cases, one genetic change is inherited from an affected parent, and the second mutation occurs after birth through somatic mutation. Understanding the mechanisms and risks of retinoblastoma is crucial for early detection and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old child with a suspected squint is referred to an ophthalmologist by her General Practitioner. The ophthalmologist makes a diagnosis of amblyopia (lazy eye) and suggests occlusion therapy.
What is occlusion therapy and how is it used to treat amblyopia in a 5-year-old child?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Covering the normal eye with a patch
Explanation:Different Treatment Options for Amblyopia and Squint
Amblyopia and squint are two common eye conditions that can affect children. Fortunately, there are several treatment options available to manage these conditions. Here are some of the most common treatments:
1. Occlusion therapy: This involves covering either the normal or abnormal eye with a patch to force the child to use the other eye. This helps to strengthen the muscles in the weaker eye and improve vision.
2. Penalisation therapy: If a child is non-compliant with occlusion therapy, atropine drops can be used in the normal eye to blur vision. This forces the child to use the weaker eye and improve its strength.
3. Corrective glasses: Glasses can be used to correct any refractive errors that may be contributing to the squint. This can help to improve the alignment of the eyes.
4. Surgical management: In some cases, surgery may be necessary to correct the misalignment of the eyes. This involves shortening or altering the insertion point of the extra-ocular muscles.
By using one or a combination of these treatments, children with amblyopia and squint can improve their vision and quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 72
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman visits the clinic with a complaint of blurred vision in her right eye for the past few months. She reports that straight lines appear crooked or wavy, but only in the center of her right visual field. She has never used glasses or contact lenses. During the examination, a central scotoma is observed in the right eye.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Age related macular degeneration
Explanation:Vision can be affected by various eye disorders, with macular degeneration causing loss of central field and primary open-angle glaucoma causing loss of peripheral field.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.
To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.
In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents to the eye emergency department with complaints of blurred vision and sensitivity to bright lights. She has a medical history of asthma, polymyalgia rheumatica, and gout. During the examination, the ophthalmologist identifies a subcapsular cataract in her left eye, located just beneath the lens in the visual axis.
What is the most significant risk factor for subcapsular cataracts?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Steroids
Explanation:Steroid use may be linked to the development of subcapsular cataracts, which are located behind the capsule in the visual axis and have a rapid progression. These cataracts are often accompanied by glare from bright lights and appear as a central granular lens opacity during examination. Dot cataracts are associated with myotonic dystrophy, while nuclear cataracts are linked to myopia. Nuclear cataracts with a stellate morphology are typically associated with ocular trauma, but this depends on the mechanism of the injury.
Understanding Cataracts: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
A cataract is a common eye condition that affects the lens of the eye, causing it to become cloudy and reducing the amount of light that reaches the retina. This can lead to blurred or reduced vision, making it difficult to see clearly. Cataracts are more common in women and tend to increase in incidence with age. While the normal ageing process is the most common cause, other factors such as smoking, alcohol consumption, trauma, diabetes, and long-term corticosteroid use can also contribute to the development of cataracts.
Symptoms of cataracts include reduced vision, faded colour vision, glare, and halos around lights. A defect in the red reflex is also a sign of cataracts. Diagnosis is typically made through ophthalmoscopy and slit-lamp examination, which can reveal the presence of a visible cataract.
In the early stages, age-related cataracts can be managed conservatively with stronger glasses or contact lenses and brighter lighting. However, surgery is the only effective treatment for cataracts and involves removing the cloudy lens and replacing it with an artificial one. Referral for surgery should be based on the presence of visual impairment, impact on quality of life, and patient choice. Complications following surgery can include posterior capsule opacification, retinal detachment, posterior capsule rupture, and endophthalmitis.
Overall, cataracts are a common and treatable eye condition that can significantly impact a person’s vision. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and management options can help individuals make informed decisions about their eye health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a sudden onset of unilateral ptosis on the left side. During the examination, the doctor observes anisocoria with miosis of the left pupil and anhidrosis of his left face, arm, and trunk. The patient reports no pain in the left arm or scapular region. He has a history of smoking for 45 pack-years. A chest X-ray is performed, but it shows no abnormalities. What is the probable cause of this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stroke
Explanation:Causes of Horner Syndrome: A Differential Diagnosis
Horner syndrome is a rare condition that affects the nerves that control the pupil, eyelid, and sweat glands in the face. It is characterized by a drooping eyelid, a constricted pupil, and decreased sweating on one side of the face. Here are some possible causes of Horner syndrome and their distinguishing features:
1. Stroke: A central type Horner syndrome is often caused by a stroke, especially in patients with a history of smoking.
2. Carotid artery dissection: This condition can cause a postganglionic or third-order Horner syndrome, which is characterized by neck pain, headache around the eye, pulsatile tinnitus, and Horner syndrome. Unlike the central and preganglionic types, there is no anhidrosis in postganglionic Horner syndrome.
3. Cavernous sinus thrombosis: This condition can also cause a postganglionic Horner syndrome, but it is usually accompanied by unilateral periorbital edema, headache, photophobia, and proptosis. Patients may also exhibit signs of sepsis due to the infective cause of this condition.
4. Multiple sclerosis: While multiple sclerosis can cause central Horner syndrome, it is not the most common cause. Patients with this condition should also present with other features of multiple sclerosis.
5. Pancoast tumor: Although this patient is a chronic heavy smoker, a Pancoast tumor is not necessarily the cause of Horner syndrome. This type of tumor causes a preganglionic Horner syndrome, which presents with ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis on the face. Additionally, a Pancoast tumor significant enough to cause Horner syndrome would be visible on a chest X-ray.
In conclusion, Horner syndrome can have various causes, and a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 75
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who presents with a red eye and significant nausea. She has noticed that her right eye was red when she woke up from sleep. She also has a concurrent headache with this and her vision is blurry. When asked, she feels that she can see rings around lights as well. She remains otherwise well.
Examination reveals significant conjunctival injection around the right eye. Sarah is very photophobic when testing her right eye. The pupil appears to be dilated at 5 mm and does not respond to light. Her left eye has a pupil size of 3mm and is reactive to light.
What is the likely cause for her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute closed angle glaucoma
Explanation:Acute closed-angle glaucoma is a rare but serious condition that can lead to vision loss if left untreated. It is more likely to occur in individuals who are long-sighted, have a shallow anterior chamber, or are female. Symptoms include sudden visual loss, a red eye, pain when moving the eye, and the appearance of halos around light. The pupil will be fixed and dilated, and the cornea may appear hazy. Treatment involves reducing intraocular pressure with topical drops.
Anterior uveitis is another possible cause of an acutely red eye with visual loss, but it is not typically associated with halos. The pupil will be normal-sized or small, and there may be precipitates or a hypopyon visible on slit-lamp examination. Uveitis may be a sign of an underlying inflammatory or autoimmune condition.
Primary open-angle glaucoma has a more gradual onset and is often asymptomatic, but may cause peripheral vision loss. Pupillary changes are not typically seen.
Cluster headaches can cause a severe headache, conjunctival injection, and blurry vision, but should not cause any pupillary defects.
Glaucoma is a group of disorders that cause optic neuropathy due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). However, not all patients with raised IOP have glaucoma, and vice versa. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in IOP due to impaired aqueous outflow. Factors that increase the risk of AACG include hypermetropia, pupillary dilation, and lens growth associated with age. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, halos around lights, and a hard, red-eye. Management of AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Emergency medical treatment is necessary to lower the IOP, followed by definitive surgical treatment once the acute attack has subsided.
There are no specific guidelines for the initial medical treatment of AACG, but a combination of eye drops may be used, including a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist. Intravenous acetazolamide may also be administered to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management of AACG involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a small hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humour to flow to the angle. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if symptoms of AACG are present to prevent permanent vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman came in with complaints of photophobia and an enlarged left pupil that exhibited delayed and incomplete constriction to light. Accommodation appeared to be relatively normal. A positive pilocarpine test was observed and no other neurological abnormalities were detected.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Holmes-Adie pupil
Explanation:Holmes-Adie Pupil: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis
Holmes–Adie pupil is a condition characterized by a dilated pupil that shows a delayed and incomplete constriction in response to light. It is commonly observed in young females and may be associated with reduced deep tendon reflexes, which is then called Holmes–Adie syndrome. To confirm the diagnosis, low-dose pilocarpine testing can be carried out, which reveals hypersensitivity to the solution due to degeneration of postganglionic neurons.
Differential diagnoses for Holmes–Adie pupil include Horner’s syndrome, which causes miosis due to damage to the sympathetic pathway responsible for pupil dilation, and third cranial nerve palsy, which presents with ptosis and reduced eye movements alongside the dilated pupil. Antimuscarinic drugs do cause pupil dilation, but they would not cause a delayed and incomplete constriction in response to light. Muscarinic agonists, on the other hand, cause miosis rather than pupillary dilation.
In summary, Holmes–Adie pupil is a condition that presents with a dilated pupil showing a delayed and incomplete constriction in response to light. It is commonly observed in young females and may be associated with reduced deep tendon reflexes. Differential diagnoses include Horner’s syndrome and third cranial nerve palsy. Low-dose pilocarpine testing can confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old male presents to the ophthalmology clinic with a recent complaint of difficulty seeing objects up close, particularly at night. His general practitioner referred him for evaluation. During fundoscopy, the doctor observes distinct red patches. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and is a lifelong smoker. What is the most probable diagnosis, and what is the most suitable treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)
Explanation:The most effective treatment for wet AMD is anti-VEGF therapy. Wet age-related macular degeneration, also known as exudative or neovascular macular degeneration, is caused by choroidal neovascularization, which can lead to rapid vision loss due to fluid and blood leakage. Symptoms include reduced visual acuity, particularly for near objects, worse vision at night, and red patches visible on fundoscopy indicating fluid leakage or hemorrhage. Anti-VEGF therapy targets vascular endothelial growth factor, a potent mitogen that increases vascular permeability in patients with wet ARMD, reducing leakage. Treatment should begin as soon as possible to prevent further vision loss.
Amaurosis fugax, on the other hand, is treated with aspirin and is caused by a variety of conditions, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. It typically presents as a sudden loss of vision, as if a curtain is coming down.
Cataract surgery is the appropriate treatment for cataracts, which cause reduced vision, faded color vision, glare, and halos around lights. A defect in the red reflex may be observed on fundoscopy.
High-dose steroids are used to treat optic neuritis, which presents with unilateral vision loss over hours or days, red desaturation, pain, and scotoma.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.
To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.
In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden painless loss of vision on the left side. He reports experiencing dark 'floaters' in his vision and a 'red hue' before losing vision completely on the affected side. The symptoms were most severe when lying flat. The patient has a medical history of poorly controlled type 1 diabetes, proliferative diabetic retinopathy, hypertension, and a metallic aortic valve for which he takes warfarin. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitreous haemorrhage
Explanation:Vitreous haemorrhage should be considered as a possible cause of sudden visual loss in diabetic patients. This patient’s symptoms, including painless loss of vision with floaters and a red hue, are typical of vitreous haemorrhage. The worsening of symptoms when lying flat is also consistent with this diagnosis. The patient has several risk factors for vitreous haemorrhage, such as proliferative retinal disease, hypertension, and anticoagulant use.
Acute angle-closure glaucoma, which presents with painful loss of vision, red-eye, halos around lights, and a semi-dilated non-reactive pupil, is less likely in this case as the patient denies pain and there is no mention of a red eye.
Central retinal vein occlusion is unlikely as it does not typically present with floaters and a red hue preceding sudden loss of vision. Additionally, symptoms would not worsen when lying flat.
Posterior vitreous detachment, which presents with flashes of light and floaters in the peripheral field of vision, does not cause loss of sight.
Understanding Vitreous Haemorrhage
Vitreous haemorrhage is a condition where there is bleeding into the vitreous humour, which can cause sudden painless loss of vision. This disruption to vision can range from floaters to complete visual loss. The bleeding can come from any vessel in the retina or extend through the retina from other areas. Once the bleeding stops, the blood is typically cleared from the retina at a rate of approximately 1% per day.
The incidence of spontaneous vitreous haemorrhage is around 7 cases per 100,000 patient-years. The incidence by age and sex varies according to the underlying causes. The most common causes, which collectively account for 90% of cases, include proliferative diabetic retinopathy, posterior vitreous detachment, and ocular trauma (which is the most common cause in children and young adults).
Patients with vitreous haemorrhage typically present with an acute or subacute onset of painless visual loss or haze, a red hue in the vision, or floaters or shadows/dark spots in the vision. Signs of the condition include decreased visual acuity (depending on the location, size, and degree of vitreous haemorrhage) and visual field defects if the haemorrhage is severe.
Investigations for vitreous haemorrhage include dilated fundoscopy, slit-lamp examination, ultrasound (useful to rule out retinal tear/detachment and if haemorrhage obscures the retina), fluorescein angiography (to identify neovascularization), and orbital CT (used if open globe injury is suspected).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents with a complaint of seeing an 'arc of white light and some cobwebs' in her vision with eye movements in her left eye for the past week. She also reports that her vision in the left eye is now very blurry. She denies any recent trauma and has a history of myopia in both eyes. Her past medical history is unremarkable. On examination, her left eye has a visual acuity of 6/18 while her right eye has a visual acuity of 6/6. Both anterior segments appear normal. However, on dilated fundoscopy, the view of the left fundus is blocked by some red and grey matter in the vitreous while the right fundus is unremarkable. What is the next most appropriate management step to determine the underlying cause of the findings in the left fundus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ultrasound B-scan of the eye
Explanation:The Importance of Ultrasound B-Scan in Diagnosing Vitreous Haemorrhage
Vitreous haemorrhage is a condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. While it may present with symptoms such as floaters and blurred vision, it is important to rule out any underlying causes such as retinal detachment. The most effective way to do this is through an ultrasound B-scan of the eye.
A CT scan of the head is not recommended as it exposes the patient to unnecessary radiation and does not provide useful information in diagnosing vitreous haemorrhage. Similarly, examining the fundus with a slit lamp, Volk lenses, or scleral indentation will not yield results as the haemorrhage obstructs the view.
An optical coherence tomography (OCT) of the macula may not be effective in ruling out important causes of vitreous haemorrhage due to the presence of the haemorrhage itself.
In conclusion, an ultrasound B-scan of the eye is the most effective way to diagnose vitreous haemorrhage and rule out any underlying causes such as retinal detachment. It is important to prioritize this diagnostic tool to ensure prompt and accurate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 80
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman presents to the Eye Casualty with a sudden onset of painful reduction in vision in her left eye. She denies any other symptoms and has no significant medical history.
Upon examination, her right eye has a visual acuity of 6/6 while her left eye has a visual acuity of 6/36 with reduced color vision. Eye movements are normal, but the pain worsens. The swinging torch test reveals left pupil dilation when the torch light swings from the right eye to the left. Dilated fundoscopy shows a swollen optic disc in her left eye.
What is the recommended first-line treatment for this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous methylprednisolone
Explanation:Treatment Options for Optic Neuritis in Multiple Sclerosis Patients
Optic neuritis is a common symptom of multiple sclerosis (MS) and can cause vision loss or pain. While the condition may improve on its own, treatment with steroids is often recommended. Intravenous methylprednisolone is the preferred route of administration for this medication, although it can cause side effects such as mood changes and weight gain.
Glatiramer acetate and interferon beta are first-line treatments for MS, but are not typically used for isolated episodes of optic neuritis. Natalizumab is a second-line treatment option for MS, but may not be appropriate for all patients.
It is important to note that oral prednisolone alone is not recommended for optic neuritis in MS patients due to an increased risk of recurrence. Overall, treatment options for optic neuritis in MS patients should be carefully considered based on individual patient needs and medical history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of an increasingly painful and swollen right eye. He complains of blurring of vision and pain, especially with eye movements, which were quite restricted. He has no past medical history and is allergic to penicillin.
On examination, the visual acuity is 6/18 in the right, 6/6 in the left. The periorbital area of the right eye is very swollen and erythematosus. The eye itself is red and proptosed. The conjunctiva is chemosed. Eye movements in the right eye are quite restricted in all directions. There is relative afferent pupillary defect on the right. Fundoscopy shows a swollen optic disc in the right eye. Computed tomography (CT) scan shows diffuse orbital infiltrate and proptosis.
Vital observations are as follows:
Blood pressure 120/70 mmHg
Heart rate 75 bpm
Respiratory rate 18 per minute
Oxygen saturation 98% on air
Temperature 37.9 °C
What is first-line management for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clindamycin and ciprofloxacin IV
Explanation:Treatment Options for Penicillin-Allergic Patients with Orbital Cellulitis
When treating a patient with orbital cellulitis who is allergic to penicillin, it is important to consider alternative treatment options. One option is to administer clindamycin and ciprofloxacin intravenously. However, cefuroxime alone is not sufficient and requires the addition of metronidazole. Co-amoxiclav should not be used in penicillin-allergic patients, and Tazocin® is also not recommended. It is important to note that drainage of the orbit is not necessary for the treatment of orbital cellulitis unless there are signs of an abscess. By considering these options, healthcare providers can effectively treat penicillin-allergic patients with orbital cellulitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 53-year-old male presents to the acute medical admissions unit with a one-day history of left-sided headache, retro-orbital pain, and dull facial pain on the left side. He has a medical history of hypertension and migraine and is currently taking ramipril 2.5mg. Upon examination, he displays partial ptosis and enophthalmos of the left eye, with anisocoria and miosis of the same eye. His visual acuity is 6/6 in both eyes, and the rest of his neurological exam is unremarkable, with normal sweating bilaterally. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carotid artery dissection
Explanation:Horner’s syndrome is a condition that typically presents with ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis on the same side of the body. The degree of anhidrosis can help determine the location of the lesion along the sympathetic pathway. In cases where anhidrosis is absent, it may indicate a postganglionic lesion, such as in the case of carotid artery dissection. This condition can cause a partial Horner’s syndrome with ptosis and miosis, but without anhidrosis. While this is a rare presentation of carotid artery dissection, it is important to recognize to prevent further neurological complications, such as an ischemic stroke. Preganglionic lesions, such as a cervical rib or Pancoast tumor, can cause anhidrosis of just the face, while central lesions, such as a stroke or syringomyelia, can cause anhidrosis of the head, arm, and trunk in addition to ptosis and miosis.
Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.
Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.
There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man has arrived at the eye emergency department following a blow to the face with a baseball bat. During the examination, it was observed that there is blood in the anterior chamber of his left eye. What is the primary risk associated with the presence of blood in the anterior chamber?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glaucoma
Explanation:Blunt trauma to the eye that results in hyphema can lead to increased intraocular pressure, which is a high-risk situation for the patient.
The blockage of aqueous humour drainage caused by the presence of blood can result in glaucoma, which is a serious complication that requires close monitoring of intraocular pressure. While cataracts and ectopia lentis can be associated with blunt trauma, they are not typically associated with hyphema. Endophthalmitis, on the other hand, is usually caused by infection, post-surgery, or penetrating ocular trauma.
Ocular Trauma and Hyphema
Ocular trauma can lead to hyphema, which is the presence of blood in the anterior chamber of the eye. This condition requires immediate referral to an ophthalmic specialist for assessment and management. The main concern is the risk of raised intraocular pressure due to the blockage of the angle and trabecular meshwork with erythrocytes. Patients with high-risk cases are often admitted and require strict bed rest to prevent the disbursement of blood. Even isolated hyphema requires daily ophthalmic review and pressure checks initially as an outpatient.
In addition to hyphema, an assessment should also be made for orbital compartment syndrome, which can occur secondary to retrobulbar hemorrhage. This is a true ophthalmic emergency and requires urgent management. Symptoms of orbital compartment syndrome include eye pain and swelling, proptosis, ‘rock hard’ eyelids, and a relevant afferent pupillary defect.
To manage orbital compartment syndrome, urgent lateral canthotomy is necessary to decompress the orbit. This should be done before diagnostic imaging to prevent further damage. Proper management and prompt referral to an ophthalmic specialist can help prevent vision loss and other complications associated with ocular trauma and hyphema.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy with a family history of short-sightedness visits his General Practice Clinic, reporting difficulty seeing distant objects. He is interested in the underlying pathophysiology of his condition as he is passionate about science. What is the most appropriate explanation for the pathophysiology of his myopia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased axial length of the eye, meaning the focal point is anterior to the retina
Explanation:Understanding Refractive Errors: Causes and Effects
Refractive errors are common vision problems that occur when the shape of the eye prevents light from focusing properly on the retina. This can result in blurry vision at various distances. Here are some common types of refractive errors and their effects:
Myopia: This occurs when the axial length of the eye is increased, causing the focal point to be anterior to the retina. Myopia gives clear close vision but blurry far vision.
Hyperopia: This occurs when the axial length of the eye is reduced, causing the focal point to be posterior to the retina. Hyperopia results in blurry close vision but clear far vision.
Astigmatism: This occurs when the cornea has an abnormal curvature, resulting in two or more focal points that can be anterior and/or posterior to the retina. Astigmatism hinders refraction and leads to blurred vision at all distances.
Understanding the causes and effects of refractive errors can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and improve their vision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of a headache and blurred vision that started 1 day ago. He reports no pain when touching his scalp or eating and chewing food. He has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, which he manages with metformin. He also mentions that his uncle died of brain cancer, and he is worried that he may have the same condition.
During the examination, his visual acuity is 6/18 in both eyes. Dilated fundoscopy reveals some arterioles narrower than others, with venules being compressed by arterioles. There is optic disc swelling in both eyes, with some exudates lining up like a star at the macula. Additionally, there are some dot-and-blot and flame-shaped haemorrhages.
His vital signs are as follows: heart rate 80 bpm, blood pressure 221/119 mmHg, oxygen saturation 98% on room air, respiratory rate 14 per minute, and temperature 37 °C.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypertensive retinopathy
Explanation:Diagnosis of Hypertensive Retinopathy: A Case Study
The patient in question presented with a highly raised blood pressure and complained of headache and blurring of vision. Fundoscopy revealed typical features of hypertensive retinopathy, including bilateral optic disc swelling. Although the patient had a family history of intracranial space-occupying lesions, there were no accompanying symptoms such as early-morning vomiting and weight loss, making this diagnosis unlikely. Additionally, there was no evidence of drusen or choroidal neovascularisation, ruling out age-related macular degeneration. The absence of scalp tenderness and jaw claudication made giant-cell arthritis an unlikely diagnosis as well. Finally, the lack of new vessels at the disc and elsewhere ruled out proliferative diabetic retinopathy. In conclusion, the patient’s symptoms and fundoscopy findings point towards a diagnosis of hypertensive retinopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 62-years-old-man presents to the pulmonology clinic with a recent onset of ptosis in his right upper lid. He has been experiencing a chronic cough for the past three months, accompanied by streaks of blood. Upon radiological examination, an opacification is observed in the upper right part of his chest. The patient appears cachexic and unwell, with a BMI of 18 kg/m² and a fasting blood sugar level of 8.3 mmol/L. What other clinical findings may be present in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right upper limb pain
Explanation:Patients with Pancoast tumours may experience shoulder pain and upper limb neurological signs, in addition to Horner’s syndrome, due to the tumour proximity to the brachial plexus. Therefore, the correct answer is right upper limb pain. Kussmaul breathing is an incorrect option as it is associated with metabolic acidosis, which is not present in this case. Lupus pernio is also an incorrect answer as it is more commonly seen in sarcoidosis rather than lung cancer. Opsoclonus-myoclonus syndrome is another incorrect option as it is a paraneoplastic syndrome typically associated with neuroblastoma in children.
Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.
Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.
There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of painful eye movements and swelling in his left eye. He has a history of chronic sinusitis but is otherwise healthy. Upon examination, his left eye is completely swollen shut with significant eyelid swelling and redness that extends from his cheekbone to his eyebrow. When the eye is opened manually, there is chemosis. What is the best initial treatment for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous antibiotics
Explanation:Hospital admission for IV antibiotics is necessary for patients with orbital cellulitis due to the risk of intracranial spread and cavernous sinus thrombosis. This patient’s condition requires urgent treatment with IV antibiotics to prevent further complications and preserve their vision. Orbital cellulitis is classified according to Chandler’s classification, with preseptal cellulitis being the mildest form and cavernous sinus thrombosis being the most severe. Signs of orbital cellulitis include painful and restricted eye movements, reduced visual acuity and fields, abnormal pupillary responses, and the presence of chemosis and proptosis. IV antibiotics are the primary treatment for orbital cellulitis, and if there is evidence of intracranial spread or abscess, external drainage or neurosurgical intervention may be necessary. While a CT head is important to assess the extent of spread, treatment with antibiotics should not be delayed. Ophthalmology review is also crucial in managing orbital cellulitis, and patients are typically managed jointly by ENT and ophthalmology. Oral antibiotics are not appropriate for this infection, and IV administration is recommended.
Understanding Orbital Cellulitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Orbital cellulitis is a serious infection that affects the fat and muscles behind the orbital septum within the orbit, but not the globe. It is commonly caused by upper respiratory tract infections that spread from the sinuses and can lead to a high mortality rate. On the other hand, periorbital cellulitis is a less severe infection that occurs in the superficial tissues anterior to the orbital septum. However, it can progress to orbital cellulitis if left untreated.
Risk factors for orbital cellulitis include childhood, previous sinus infections, lack of Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccination, recent eyelid infections or insect bites, and ear or facial infections. Symptoms of orbital cellulitis include redness and swelling around the eye, severe ocular pain, visual disturbance, proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, eyelid edema, and ptosis. In rare cases, meningeal involvement can cause drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting.
To differentiate between orbital and preseptal cellulitis, doctors look for reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and ophthalmoplegia, which are not consistent with preseptal cellulitis. Full blood count and clinical examination involving complete ophthalmological assessment are necessary to determine the severity of the infection. CT with contrast can also help identify inflammation of the orbital tissues deep to the septum and sinusitis. Blood culture and microbiological swab are also necessary to determine the organism causing the infection.
Management of orbital cellulitis requires hospital admission for IV antibiotics. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent senior review. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and reduce the risk of mortality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 88
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a painless, firm lump on her right upper eyelid. She mentions that it has been present for approximately two weeks and initially started as a small, tender swelling. There are no indications of infection and her vision remains unaffected.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meibomian cyst
Explanation:The patient is experiencing a painless swelling or lump on their eyelid, most likely a meibomian cyst (chalazion). This is caused by a blocked gland and typically appears as a firm, painless swelling away from the margin of the eyelid. While a hordeolum (stye) can present similarly in the initial stages, it is usually painful and self-limiting. Blepharitis, which causes crusting, redness, swelling, and itching of both eyelids, is not present in this case. An epidermal inclusion cyst is a less likely cause given the short history of only two weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 89
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a complaint of severe headache. He has a medical history of hypertension and takes Ramipril 10 mg and Amlodipine 10 mg. During the full workup, fundoscopy is conducted and reveals scattered cotton wool spots, tortuous vessels throughout, and AV nipping in both eyes. According to the Keith-Wagener classification, what stage of hypertensive retinopathy does this patient have?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stage 3
Explanation:Hypertensive retinopathy can be detected through fundoscopy, which may reveal end organ damage. This condition can progress through stages 1 to 3, and is often tested on as a final exam question. Diabetic retinopathy is also a commonly tested topic.
Understanding Hypertensive Retinopathy: Keith-Wagener Classification
Hypertensive retinopathy is a condition that affects the eyes due to high blood pressure. The Keith-Wagener classification is a system used to categorize the different stages of hypertensive retinopathy. Stage I is characterized by narrowing and twisting of the blood vessels in the eyes, as well as an increased reflection of light known as silver wiring. In stage II, the blood vessels become compressed where they cross over veins, leading to arteriovenous nipping. Stage III is marked by the appearance of cotton-wool exudates, which are white patches on the retina caused by blocked blood vessels. Additionally, there may be flame and blot hemorrhages that can collect around the fovea, resulting in a ‘macular star.’ Finally, stage IV is the most severe stage and is characterized by papilloedema, which is swelling of the optic disc at the back of the eye. Understanding the Keith-Wagener classification can help healthcare professionals diagnose and manage hypertensive retinopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 90
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes to the eye clinic complaining of sudden vision changes in her left eye for the past 2 days. She reports that her vision has been progressively deteriorating, as if she is looking through a cloud, and the colors around her appear less vivid. Additionally, she has been experiencing retro-orbital pain that worsens with eye movement. Her right eye is unaffected, and she has no prior history of eye problems or other medical conditions. What is the most probable finding on examination for this suspected diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Relative afferent pupillary defect
Explanation:Optic neuritis is a condition that affects the anterior visual pathway and is characterized by a specific sign called relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD). RAPD is a reliable indicator of unilateral optic nerve disease and is commonly observed in optic neuritis. However, it is not present in cases of bilateral optic neuritis. Cotton wool spots, on the other hand, are small exudates on the retina that are associated with various diseases, such as hypertension and diabetes mellitus. They are not typically associated with optic neuritis, which does not affect the retina. Visual field defects can occur in optic neuritis, with central scotoma being the most common. The optic disc is usually normal in optic neuritis, although mild swelling may be present in some cases. However, RAPD is a more common finding and is therefore a more reliable diagnostic indicator.
Optic neuritis is a condition that can be caused by multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. It is characterized by a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days, as well as poor color discrimination and pain that worsens with eye movement. Other symptoms include a relative afferent pupillary defect and a central scotoma. The condition can be diagnosed through an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast. Treatment typically involves high-dose steroids, and recovery usually takes 4-6 weeks. If an MRI shows more than three white-matter lesions, the risk of developing multiple sclerosis within five years is approximately 50%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman, who is a known type 1 diabetic, visited the GP clinic with a complaint of decreased vision. Her left eye has a vision of 6/6, while her right eye has a vision of 6/18.
Your GP placement supervisor has requested you to conduct a dilated direct fundoscopy on her eyes. During the examination, you observed exudates forming a ring around a dot haemorrhage near the fovea.
What is the initial treatment for this eye condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) intravitreal injection
Explanation:Treatment Options for Diabetic Maculopathy
Diabetic maculopathy is a condition that affects the retina and can lead to vision loss. There are several treatment options available to manage this condition, including anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) intravitreal injection, focal laser photocoagulation, community diabetic eye screening, increase daily insulin dose, and pan-retinal photocoagulation.
Anti-VEGF intravitreal injection is a first-line treatment that works by stopping abnormal blood vessels from leaking, growing, and bleeding under the retina. This treatment targets VEGF, a protein that promotes the growth of new blood vessels.
Focal laser photocoagulation is another treatment option, but it is not recommended for lesions near the fovea due to the risk of damaging vision.
Community diabetic eye screening is not appropriate for diabetic maculopathy, as it requires more specialized treatment.
Increasing the daily insulin dose is not recommended unless blood glucose levels are erratic.
Pan-retinal photocoagulation is typically used in cases of proliferative diabetic retinopathy.
Overall, the best treatment option for diabetic maculopathy will depend on the individual patient’s condition and needs. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the most appropriate course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man comes to the emergency department with a sudden onset of vision loss in his right eye. He experienced flashes and floaters before the loss of vision, which began at the edges and progressed towards the centre. There was no history of trauma, headaches, or eye redness, but he has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. He wears corrective glasses and sometimes contact lenses, but cannot recall his prescription. What factor raises the likelihood of this patient developing this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type 2 diabetes mellitus
Explanation:Retinal detachment should be considered as a potential cause of sudden vision loss in patients with diabetes mellitus, as they are at an increased risk. Symptoms of RD may include a gradual loss of peripheral vision that progresses towards the centre, often described as a veil or curtain descending over the visual field. Prior to detachment, patients may experience flashes and floaters due to vitreous humour pulling on the retina. Prompt medical attention is necessary to prevent permanent vision loss.
Retinal detachment is a condition where the tissue at the back of the eye separates from the underlying pigment epithelium. This can cause vision loss, but if detected and treated early, it can be reversible. Risk factors for retinal detachment include diabetes, myopia, age, previous cataract surgery, and eye trauma. Symptoms may include new onset floaters or flashes, sudden painless visual field loss, and reduced peripheral and central vision. If the macula is involved, visual outcomes can be much worse. Diagnosis is made through fundoscopy, which may show retinal folds or a lost red reflex. Urgent referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary for assessment and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 93
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner (GP) complaining of redness, watering, and burning in both eyes for the past week. Upon examination, her vision is 6/6 in both eyes, but the conjunctivae are diffusely injected. Tender preauricular lymphadenopathy is noticeable when the face and neck are palpated. Further questioning reveals that she also has a sore throat and a stuffy nose. What is the initial treatment for this patient's eye issue?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Supportive measures with cool compresses and artificial tears
Explanation:Treatment Options for Viral Conjunctivitis
Viral conjunctivitis, also known as pink eye, is a common condition that can cause redness, itching, and discharge in the eyes. While there is no cure for viral conjunctivitis, there are several treatment options available to help manage the symptoms.
The first-line treatment for viral conjunctivitis is supportive care, which typically involves using cool compresses and artificial tears to soothe the eyes. These measures can help reduce inflammation and relieve discomfort, and the condition will usually resolve on its own over time.
While an eye shield is not typically necessary for viral conjunctivitis, some doctors may recommend using topical chloramphenicol eye drops to prevent secondary bacterial infections. However, this is not a first-line treatment and is not always necessary.
Topical steroids, such as prednisolone and dexamethasone eye drops, are not recommended for the treatment of viral conjunctivitis. While these medications can help reduce inflammation, they can also increase the risk of complications and should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional.
In summary, the best course of action for treating viral conjunctivitis is to focus on supportive care with cool compresses and artificial tears. If necessary, your doctor may recommend additional treatments to help manage your symptoms and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of an increasingly painful and swollen right eye. He complains of blurring of vision and pain, especially with eye movements, which are quite restricted.
On examination, the visual acuity is 6/18 in the right eye and 6/6 in the left. The periorbital area of the right eye is very swollen and erythematosus. The eye itself is red and proptosed. The conjunctiva was chemosed. Eye movements in the right eye are quite restricted in all directions. There is relative afferent pupillary defect on the right.
Vital observations were as follows:
Blood pressure 120/70 mmHg
Heart rate 75 bpm
Respiratory rate 18 per minute
Oxygen saturation 98% on air
Temperature 37.9 °C
What is the most important step in your management plan to determine the cause of this patient’s eye problem?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) scan of the orbit, sinuses, and brain
Explanation:Diagnostic Steps for Orbital Cellulitis: CT Scan of the Orbit, Sinuses, and Brain
Orbital cellulitis is commonly caused by ethmoidal sinusitis and requires prompt diagnosis and management. While blood culture and normal blood tests can be helpful, they are not the most important steps in determining the cause of the infection. Instead, a CT scan of the orbit, sinuses, and brain is the most effective diagnostic tool. This scan can reveal diffuse orbital infiltrate, proptosis, sinus opacity, or even orbital abscesses. Once diagnosed, management often involves ENT assessment for sinus drainage and/or subperiosteal abscess. Intravenous cefuroxime and metronidazole or flucloxacillin are necessary to control the infection, but do not aid in determining the cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman with a history of type I diabetes visits her GP complaining of a 4-day decrease in visual acuity on her left side. During the examination, she reports that the object used appears to have a different color when using her left eye compared to her right eye. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Optic neuritis
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest optic neuritis as the most likely diagnosis, which can be associated with multiple sclerosis, diabetes, and syphilis. The patient has experienced a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a few days and has difficulty distinguishing colors, particularly with red appearing washed out, pink, or orange when viewed with the affected eye. The blind spot assessment is significant because it typically involves a red-tipped object, which may further highlight the patient’s red desaturation. Other exam findings may include pain with eye movement, a relative afferent pupillary defect, and a central scotoma. Acute angle-closure glaucoma would not typically cause color desaturation, and type I diabetes is not a risk factor for this condition. While type I diabetes can increase the risk of age-related macular degeneration, patients typically present with a gradual reduction in visual acuity without affecting color vision. Cataracts can also cause faded color vision, but the history would typically span several weeks to months.
Optic neuritis is a condition that can be caused by multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. It is characterized by a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days, as well as poor color discrimination and pain that worsens with eye movement. Other symptoms include a relative afferent pupillary defect and a central scotoma. The condition can be diagnosed through an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast. Treatment typically involves high-dose steroids, and recovery usually takes 4-6 weeks. If an MRI shows more than three white-matter lesions, the risk of developing multiple sclerosis within five years is approximately 50%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a red and irritated left eye with watering and discharge that has been going on for four days. He wakes up in the morning with his eyes stuck together and notices thick yellowish mucoid material. He denies any contact with sick people or exposure to similar symptoms and has not had an upper respiratory tract infection recently. The patient has a medical history of asthma, allergic rhinosinusitis, and eczema, and he takes loratadine, a salbutamol inhaler, a beclomethasone inhaler, and topical emollients. He wears contact lenses. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bacterial conjunctivitis
Explanation:The presence of purulent discharge is indicative of bacterial conjunctivitis, which is the correct diagnosis for this patient. They are experiencing red, sore eyes with stickiness and have a history of atopy, but the lack of bilateral itching and swollen eyelids makes allergic conjunctivitis less likely. Blepharitis is also an unlikely diagnosis as there is no mention of eyelid swelling or discomfort. Keratitis is not a probable diagnosis as there is no mention of photophobia or eye pain, and examination findings that may be present with keratitis are not mentioned.
Conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes with a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.
In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves without treatment within one to two weeks. However, topical antibiotic therapy is often offered to patients, such as Chloramphenicol drops given every two to three hours initially or Chloramphenicol ointment given four times a day initially. Alternatively, topical fusidic acid can be used, especially for pregnant women, and treatment is twice daily.
For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn, and patients should be advised not to share towels. School exclusion is not necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man with a history of glaucoma presents to the emergency department with sudden blurring and subsequent loss of vision in his left eye. He reports no pain or discharge. Fundoscopy reveals extensive flame haemorrhages and cotton wool spots, and there is a relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) on examination. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO)
Explanation:If a patient has a history of glaucoma and experiences sudden, painless vision loss accompanied by severe retinal haemorrhages and RAPD, it is likely that they are suffering from central retinal vein occlusion. This is a medical emergency and requires immediate attention from an ophthalmologist.
Amaurosis fugax, on the other hand, is characterized by brief episodes of sudden, painless vision loss that typically last for only a few seconds to minutes and resolve on their own. This condition is often indicative of underlying vascular disease.
Central retinal artery occlusion also causes sudden, painless vision loss, but it is typically described as a descending curtain. On fundoscopy, a pale retina with a cherry-red spot at the fovea centralis and atheromatous plaques are visible, and RAPD is also present.
Lens subluxation, which is often caused by trauma, does not typically result in severe vision loss or changes in visual acuity unless the condition is severe.
Understanding Central Retinal Vein Occlusion
Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) is a possible cause of sudden, painless loss of vision. It is more common in older individuals and those with hypertension, cardiovascular disease, glaucoma, or polycythemia. The condition is characterized by a sudden reduction or loss of visual acuity, usually affecting only one eye. Fundoscopy reveals widespread hyperemia and severe retinal hemorrhages, which are often described as a stormy sunset.
Branch retinal vein occlusion (BRVO) is a similar condition that affects a smaller area of the fundus. It occurs when a vein in the distal retinal venous system is blocked, usually at arteriovenous crossings.
Most patients with CRVO are managed conservatively, but treatment may be necessary in some cases. For instance, intravitreal anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) agents may be used to manage macular edema, while laser photocoagulation may be necessary to treat retinal neovascularization.
Overall, understanding the risk factors, features, and management options for CRVO is essential for prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment. Proper management can help prevent further vision loss and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 98
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents to the eye clinic with a 12-hour history of flashers and floaters in his left eye. The patient denies any other vision problems and is in good health, except for a history of hypertension, ischaemic heart disease, and bilateral cataracts. He lives alone, does not smoke, and wears glasses. On examination of the left eye using a slit lamp, a small tear is observed in the inferior part of the retina, with the surrounding area appearing crinkled. What is the primary risk factor associated with this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Myopia
Explanation:Retinal detachment can be caused by various risk factors, including diabetes mellitus, ageing, previous eye surgery, eye trauma, and myopia. In this case, a 73-year-old man presented with flashers and floaters in his right eye, which were indicative of retinal detachment. Myopia, which is characterized by an elongated eyeball, can increase the tension on the retina and is therefore a risk factor for this condition. It is important to note that blocked trabecular meshwork, cataract formation, and hyperopia are not associated with retinal detachment.
Retinal detachment is a condition where the tissue at the back of the eye separates from the underlying pigment epithelium. This can cause vision loss, but if detected and treated early, it can be reversible. Risk factors for retinal detachment include diabetes, myopia, age, previous cataract surgery, and eye trauma. Symptoms may include new onset floaters or flashes, sudden painless visual field loss, and reduced peripheral and central vision. If the macula is involved, visual outcomes can be much worse. Diagnosis is made through fundoscopy, which may show retinal folds or a lost red reflex. Urgent referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary for assessment and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents to eye casualty with a painful, red eye and blurred vision. She reports that the pain started suddenly this morning. On examination, there is swelling of the eyelid and a small hypopyon is present. Her vision is blurry in the affected eye and she can only see moving fingers at a distance of one meter. Fundoscopy reveals periphlebitis. The patient has no significant medical history except for cataract surgery performed 3 days ago. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endophthalmitis
Explanation:Endophthalmitis is a rare but serious complication of cataract surgery that requires urgent treatment. This patient is experiencing a painful and red eye after undergoing cataract surgery, which is a common symptom of endophthalmitis. The condition occurs when microbial organisms are introduced into the eye during surgery, either from the patient’s normal flora or contaminated instruments. Symptoms include retinal periphlebitis, pain, redness, ocular discharge, and worsening vision. Treatment involves prompt administration of intravitreal or systemic antibiotics. Blepharitis, infective conjunctivitis, and keratitis are other ocular conditions that do not fit the symptoms presented by this patient.
Understanding Cataracts: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
A cataract is a common eye condition that affects the lens of the eye, causing it to become cloudy and reducing the amount of light that reaches the retina. This can lead to blurred or reduced vision, making it difficult to see clearly. Cataracts are more common in women and tend to increase in incidence with age. While the normal ageing process is the most common cause, other factors such as smoking, alcohol consumption, trauma, diabetes, and long-term corticosteroid use can also contribute to the development of cataracts.
Symptoms of cataracts include reduced vision, faded colour vision, glare, and halos around lights. A defect in the red reflex is also a sign of cataracts. Diagnosis is typically made through ophthalmoscopy and slit-lamp examination, which can reveal the presence of a visible cataract.
In the early stages, age-related cataracts can be managed conservatively with stronger glasses or contact lenses and brighter lighting. However, surgery is the only effective treatment for cataracts and involves removing the cloudy lens and replacing it with an artificial one. Referral for surgery should be based on the presence of visual impairment, impact on quality of life, and patient choice. Complications following surgery can include posterior capsule opacification, retinal detachment, posterior capsule rupture, and endophthalmitis.
Overall, cataracts are a common and treatable eye condition that can significantly impact a person’s vision. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and management options can help individuals make informed decisions about their eye health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman presents with a sudden onset of severe pain and redness in her right eye. She denies any history of foreign body injury and has not experienced any cold-like symptoms. The patient has a medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus, which is currently being managed with hydroxychloroquine. She has no fever and upon examination, her sclera is erythematous and injected with a bluish hue. Her pupils are equal and reactive, and her visual acuity is normal in both eyes. There is no significant discharge present. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Scleritis
Explanation:The patient’s autoimmune history, painful red-eye, and bluish hue suggest scleritis, which is a medical emergency requiring urgent ophthalmology review. Episcleritis, which is not painful and presents with a different type of redness, is unlikely. Acute angle closure glaucoma and foreign body injury are also possible differentials, but the patient’s clear and reactive pupils and lack of eye discharge make these less likely. In any case, intraocular pressure should be checked to rule out acute glaucoma.
Understanding Scleritis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Scleritis is a condition that involves inflammation of the sclera, which is the white outer layer of the eye. This condition is typically non-infectious and can cause a red, painful eye. The most common risk factor associated with scleritis is rheumatoid arthritis, but it can also be linked to other conditions such as systemic lupus erythematosus, sarcoidosis, and granulomatosis with polyangiitis.
Symptoms of scleritis include a red eye, which is often accompanied by pain and discomfort. Patients may also experience watering and photophobia, as well as a gradual decrease in vision.
Treatment for scleritis typically involves the use of oral NSAIDs as a first-line treatment. In more severe cases, oral glucocorticoids may be used. For resistant cases, immunosuppressive drugs may be necessary, especially if there is an underlying associated disease. With proper treatment, most patients with scleritis can achieve relief from their symptoms and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 101
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner (GP) complaining of painless sudden vision loss in his eyes. Upon examination, the GP observes a left homonymous hemianopia. What is the site of the lesion responsible for this visual field defect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right optic tract
Explanation:Lesions and their corresponding visual field defects
Lesions in different parts of the visual pathway can cause specific visual field defects. Here are some examples:
– Right optic tract: A left homonymous hemianopia (loss of vision in the left half of both eyes) is caused by a lesion in the contralateral optic tract.
– Optic chiasm: A lesion in the optic chiasm (where the optic nerves cross) will cause bitemporal hemianopia (loss of vision in the outer half of both visual fields).
– Left occipital visual cortex: A lesion in the left occipital visual cortex (at the back of the brain) will cause a right homonymous hemianopia (loss of vision in the right half of both visual fields) with macular sparing (preserved central vision).
– Left temporal lobe optic radiation: A lesion in the left temporal lobe optic radiation (fibers that connect the occipital cortex to the temporal lobe) will cause a right superior quadrantanopia (loss of vision in the upper right quarter of the visual field).
– Right parietal lobe optic radiation: A lesion in the right parietal lobe optic radiation (fibers that connect the occipital cortex to the parietal lobe) will cause a left inferior quadrantanopia (loss of vision in the lower left quarter of the visual field). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 102
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents to the Ophthalmology Clinic with a painful red right eye and reduced visual acuity. He complains of watery eyes and photophobia. Upon examination, inflammatory cells are found in the anterior chamber. The patient is typically healthy, but has been receiving treatment from the Physiotherapy Team for back pain. What investigation would be most useful in identifying the underlying cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: MRI pelvis
Explanation:Diagnosis and Workup of Anterior Uveitis with Back Pain
Anterior uveitis is a condition characterized by an acutely red painful eye with blurred vision, eye watering, and photophobia. In young men, it is strongly associated with ankylosing spondylitis, which presents with lower back pain. Definitive diagnosis requires evidence of sacroiliitis, which can take years to show up on plain X-rays. However, changes can be seen earlier on MRI of the sacroiliac joints. Patients may also have raised ESR, normochromic anemia, and mildly raised alkaline phosphatase. HLA-B27 may also be raised.
An ESR test may be useful as part of the workup, but it would not help determine the specific underlying cause of the symptoms. Increased intraocular pressure is seen in patients with glaucoma, which may present with an acutely painful red eye, but it would not explain the presence of inflammatory cells or back pain. An MRI brain may be used in the workup of optic neuritis, which is commonly associated with multiple sclerosis. However, multiple sclerosis does not explain the back pain. Positive rheumatoid factor would indicate an underlying diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis, which can be associated with scleritis but not uveitis. Back pain is also less likely in rheumatoid arthritis, as it typically affects the smaller joints first and would be less common in someone of this age.
Therefore, an MRI of the pelvis is the most appropriate diagnostic test for this patient with anterior uveitis and back pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 103
Incorrect
-
During duty surgery (urgent care), you encounter a 55-year-old woman who is experiencing excruciating pain around her right eye. She has tried over-the-counter drops from the chemist, but they have not provided any relief. Although she has no significant medical history, she has been working 12-hour night shifts as a bank nurse. Upon examination, you notice a mild vesicular rash on the conjunctiva, but the eye itself appears normal under direct vision. Her visual acuity is normal, and fundoscopy reveals no abnormalities.
What would be the most appropriate next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral acyclovir and urgent ophthalmology referral
Explanation:The recommended course of action for suspected herpes zoster ophthalmicus is urgent referral to an ophthalmologist and a 7-10 day course of oral antivirals such as acyclovir. Prescribing high dose oral steroids or topical dexamethasone is not the appropriate treatment for this condition. While direct referral to the emergency department may result in eventual referral to ophthalmology and treatment, it is not the most efficient or effective approach.
Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications
Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is a condition that occurs when the varicella-zoster virus reactivates in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It is responsible for approximately 10% of shingles cases. The main symptom of HZO is a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the eye itself. Hutchinson’s sign, a rash on the tip or side of the nose, is a strong indicator of nasociliary involvement and increases the risk of ocular involvement.
Treatment for HZO involves oral antiviral medication for 7-10 days, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset. Intravenous antivirals may be necessary for severe infections or immunocompromised patients. Topical antiviral treatment is not recommended for HZO, but topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye. Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review to prevent complications such as conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.
In summary, HZO is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It presents with a vesicular rash around the eye and may involve the eye itself. Treatment involves oral antiviral medication and urgent ophthalmology review is necessary for ocular involvement. Complications of HZO include various eye conditions, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 104
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following statements regarding the management of conjunctivitis is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Contact lens may be worn once topical antibiotic treatment has been started
Explanation:It is not advisable to wear contact lenses while experiencing conjunctivitis.
Conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes with a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.
In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves without treatment within one to two weeks. However, topical antibiotic therapy is often offered to patients, such as Chloramphenicol drops given every two to three hours initially or Chloramphenicol ointment given four times a day initially. Alternatively, topical fusidic acid can be used, especially for pregnant women, and treatment is twice daily.
For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn, and patients should be advised not to share towels. School exclusion is not necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 105
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old woman comes to the ophthalmology clinic with anisocoria. She was referred by her primary care physician after visiting for a sinus infection 4 weeks ago.
During the examination, it is observed that the left pupil is larger than the right and does not constrict during the light reflex test. The accommodation reflex is slow but still present. Eye movement testing shows no apparent abnormalities, and there is no change in vision. The doctor administers 0.125% pilocarpine drops to both eyes, resulting in the left pupil constricting while the right pupil remains unchanged.
What is the most probable cause of this presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Holmes-Adie pupil
Explanation:The left pupil was affected by the pilocarpine drops, causing it to constrict, while the right pupil remained unaffected. Holmes-Adie pupil is a harmless condition that usually affects young women and may be caused by a viral or bacterial infection that affects the ciliary ganglion.
Mydriasis, which is the enlargement of the pupil, can be caused by various factors. These include third nerve palsy, Holmes-Adie pupil, traumatic iridoplegia, pheochromocytoma, and congenital conditions. Additionally, certain drugs can also cause mydriasis, such as topical mydriatics like tropicamide and atropine, sympathomimetic drugs like amphetamines and cocaine, and anticholinergic drugs like tricyclic antidepressants. It’s important to note that anisocoria, which is when one pupil is larger than the other, can also result in the appearance of mydriasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 106
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency department with complaints of severe pain and decreased vision in her right eye. She experienced sudden onset of symptoms earlier in the evening, accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and a headache. Upon examination, her visual acuity in the right eye is reduced to counting fingers, and there is significant congestion of conjunctival blood vessels. The cornea appears hazy, making it difficult to examine the pupil and fundus. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute angle closure glaucoma
Explanation:Differentiating Ocular Conditions
When it comes to ocular conditions, it is important to differentiate between them in order to provide the appropriate treatment. Acute angle closure glaucoma, for example, typically occurs in the evening and can cause headache, nausea, and vomiting due to high intraocular pressure. This condition can also lead to corneal haze, which is caused by oedema of the cornea. While reduced vision, ocular pain, and conjunctival injection can be seen in other conditions, systemic symptoms are typically only present in acute angle closure glaucoma.
Anterior uveitis, on the other hand, can have sudden or subacute symptoms. Corneal abrasions are usually accompanied by a history of trauma, while herpes simplex keratitis is associated with dendritic ulcer formation on the corneal surface. Viral conjunctivitis is often bilateral and preceded by a systemic viral episode.
By the unique symptoms and characteristics of each ocular condition, healthcare professionals can provide more effective treatment and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 107
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of gradual loss of peripheral vision over the past 4 months and a decline in overall visual acuity. She reports experiencing tunnel vision. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus and wears corrective glasses for her myopia. Upon fundoscopy, the doctor observes optic disc cupping and hemorrhages. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary open-angle glaucoma
Explanation:The main effect of glaucoma is the development of defects in the visual field.
Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) is a type of glaucoma where the peripheral iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is important in draining aqueous humour from the eye. POAG is more common in older individuals and those with a family history of the condition. It may present insidiously with symptoms such as peripheral visual field loss, decreased visual acuity, and optic disc cupping. Diagnosis is made through a series of investigations including automated perimetry, slit lamp examination, applanation tonometry, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy. It is important to assess the risk of future visual impairment based on factors such as IOP, CCT, family history, and life expectancy. Referral to an ophthalmologist is typically done through a GP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 108
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man visits his GP complaining of pain in his left eye, photophobia, and blurred vision that have been present for 2 days. He has no medical history but reports experiencing lower back pain that improves with exercise for the past year. During the examination, the doctor observes hyperemia of the sclera and yellow crusting on the patient's eyelashes. The patient experiences pain during cranial nerve examination, making it difficult to follow the doctor's finger with his eyes. Additionally, there is some swelling of his eyelids and constriction of the left pupil. What is the most appropriate next step, given the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent ophthalmology review
Explanation:The most appropriate course of action for a patient displaying symptoms consistent with anterior uveitis is to urgently refer them for assessment by an ophthalmologist on the same day. This condition is indicated by symptoms such as blurred vision, photophobia, miosis, and pain. Ankylosing spondylitis is a possible underlying cause, and anterior uveitis is a common feature of spondyloarthropathies. Prompt specialist evaluation is crucial as anterior uveitis can have significant morbidity. Treatment typically involves the use of topical steroids, mydriatics, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and cycloplegics, with immunosuppression as an option under specialist guidance. Ocular steroid drops, systemic antibiotics, topical chloramphenicol, and high-dose oral steroids are not appropriate treatments for anterior uveitis in this scenario.
Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. It is a common cause of red eye and is associated with HLA-B27, which may also be linked to other conditions. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small or irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness, tearing, and the presence of pus and inflammatory cells in the front part of the eye. This condition may be associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and treatment may involve the use of cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 109
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding macular degeneration is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wet macular degeneration carries the worst prognosis
Explanation:Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.
To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.
In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 110
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of a painful and red eye. He has been experiencing a gritty sensation and watery discharge in his left eye since yesterday morning. The patient usually wears contact lenses daily but has been unable to use them due to the pain.
During fundoscopy, the GP observes a hypopyon in the left eye and no foreign body is visible. The right eye appears normal, and both pupils are round, equal, and reactive to light. The patient's visual acuity is normal when wearing glasses, but he experiences marked photophobia in the left eye.
What is the most probable cause of these symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Explanation:The statement that herpes simplex virus is not a serious cause of keratitis is incorrect. In fact, it is the most common cause of corneal blindness and can present with a dendritic ulcer on slit-lamp examination. However, it would not typically show a hypopyon.
Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea
Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.
Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.
Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 111
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man contacts his GP regarding visual alterations in his left eye. He has been encountering flashes/floaters and spider webs for the past 2 days, and now there is some darkening on the periphery of vision. Additionally, he has observed that straight lines appear somewhat jagged. There is no associated pain or injury. The patient is in good health and has no chronic medical conditions.
What is the probable diagnosis for the aforementioned symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Retinal detachment
Explanation:If you experience peripheral vision loss accompanied by spider webs and flashing lights, it could be a sign of retinal detachment. This condition is often described as a curtain coming down over your vision and requires immediate attention from an ophthalmologist. Additionally, you may notice floaters or string-like shapes, and straight lines may appear distorted due to the retina detaching from the choroid.
Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arthritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.
Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arthritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.
Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 112
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old male visits his eye doctor for evaluation. His brother has been diagnosed with primary open-angle glaucoma, and he is worried that he may also have the same condition as his eyesight is deteriorating. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and prostate cancer.
What signs or symptoms would indicate a diagnosis of primary open-angle glaucoma in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Myopia
Explanation:Myopia is commonly associated with primary open-angle glaucoma, while hypermetropia is associated with acute angle closure glaucoma. Astigmatism, which is characterized by a rugby ball-shaped cornea, can be linked to either myopia or hypermetropia. Central scotoma, a blurred vision point in the center of the visual field, is often observed in optic nerve glioma, multiple sclerosis, or alcohol-induced ophthalmic disease. Glaucoma, on the other hand, is more likely to cause peripheral or off-center scotoma.
Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) is a type of glaucoma where the peripheral iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is important in draining aqueous humour from the eye. POAG is more common in older individuals and those with a family history of the condition. It may present insidiously with symptoms such as peripheral visual field loss, decreased visual acuity, and optic disc cupping. Diagnosis is made through a series of investigations including automated perimetry, slit lamp examination, applanation tonometry, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy. It is important to assess the risk of future visual impairment based on factors such as IOP, CCT, family history, and life expectancy. Referral to an ophthalmologist is typically done through a GP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 113
Incorrect
-
A 54-year-old female with a history of rheumatoid arthritis visited her GP complaining of redness in her right eye. She mentioned experiencing mild discomfort and irritation with occasional watering of the eye. However, she denied any dryness or significant pain. The examination of her pupils revealed no abnormalities, and she did not experience any discomfort when exposed to light. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Episcleritis
Explanation:Rheumatoid Arthritis and Its Effects on the Eyes
Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects various parts of the body, including the eyes. In fact, ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis are quite common, with approximately 25% of patients experiencing eye problems. These eye problems can range from mild to severe and can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life.
The most common ocular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis is keratoconjunctivitis sicca, also known as dry eye syndrome. This condition occurs when the eyes do not produce enough tears, leading to discomfort, redness, and irritation. Other ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis include episcleritis, scleritis, corneal ulceration, and keratitis. Episcleritis and scleritis both cause redness in the eyes, with scleritis also causing pain. Corneal ulceration and keratitis both affect the cornea, with corneal ulceration being a more severe condition that can lead to vision loss.
In addition to these conditions, patients with rheumatoid arthritis may also experience iatrogenic ocular manifestations. These are side effects of medications used to treat the disease. For example, steroid use can lead to cataracts, while the use of chloroquine can cause retinopathy.
Overall, it is important for patients with rheumatoid arthritis to be aware of the potential ocular manifestations of the disease and to seek prompt medical attention if they experience any eye-related symptoms. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent vision loss and improve overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 114
Incorrect
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Which of the following does not predispose to cataract formation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypercalcaemia
Explanation:Cataract formation is more likely to occur due to hypocalcaemia rather than hypercalcaemia.
Understanding Cataracts: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
A cataract is a common eye condition that affects the lens of the eye, causing it to become cloudy and reducing the amount of light that reaches the retina. This can lead to blurred or reduced vision, making it difficult to see clearly. Cataracts are more common in women and tend to increase in incidence with age. While the normal ageing process is the most common cause, other factors such as smoking, alcohol consumption, trauma, diabetes, and long-term corticosteroid use can also contribute to the development of cataracts.
Symptoms of cataracts include reduced vision, faded colour vision, glare, and halos around lights. A defect in the red reflex is also a sign of cataracts. Diagnosis is typically made through ophthalmoscopy and slit-lamp examination, which can reveal the presence of a visible cataract.
In the early stages, age-related cataracts can be managed conservatively with stronger glasses or contact lenses and brighter lighting. However, surgery is the only effective treatment for cataracts and involves removing the cloudy lens and replacing it with an artificial one. Referral for surgery should be based on the presence of visual impairment, impact on quality of life, and patient choice. Complications following surgery can include posterior capsule opacification, retinal detachment, posterior capsule rupture, and endophthalmitis.
Overall, cataracts are a common and treatable eye condition that can significantly impact a person’s vision. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and management options can help individuals make informed decisions about their eye health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 115
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man, who has been a diabetic for over 20 years, visits his GP for a routine check-up. During the appointment, he mentions to his doctor that he has been experiencing difficulty with his vision in his right eye for the past few months. He describes it as blurry vision and seeing halos around lights at night. The man has never had any vision problems before. He is currently taking medications for his high blood pressure and cholesterol levels. Other than his vision, his physical examination is unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis for the man's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cataract
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms and medical history strongly suggest a diagnosis of cataract. Their elderly age, long-standing diabetes mellitus, and unilateral blurry vision with halos around light sources are all classic signs of cataract. There is no indication of steroid use, which can also increase the risk of cataract development.
While primary open-angle glaucoma is a possibility, it is less likely given the patient’s symptoms. This condition typically presents with peripheral visual field loss rather than blurry vision. Acute angle-closure glaucoma is also a possibility, but it is more commonly associated with halos than primary open-angle glaucoma.
Uveitis is unlikely given the absence of pain and redness in the eye. Additionally, it is not typically associated with diabetes. Diabetic retinopathy is another possibility in this patient, but it is often asymptomatic or presents with hemorrhage.
Understanding Cataracts: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
A cataract is a common eye condition that affects the lens of the eye, causing it to become cloudy and reducing the amount of light that reaches the retina. This can lead to blurred or reduced vision, making it difficult to see clearly. Cataracts are more common in women and tend to increase in incidence with age. While the normal ageing process is the most common cause, other factors such as smoking, alcohol consumption, trauma, diabetes, and long-term corticosteroid use can also contribute to the development of cataracts.
Symptoms of cataracts include reduced vision, faded colour vision, glare, and halos around lights. A defect in the red reflex is also a sign of cataracts. Diagnosis is typically made through ophthalmoscopy and slit-lamp examination, which can reveal the presence of a visible cataract.
In the early stages, age-related cataracts can be managed conservatively with stronger glasses or contact lenses and brighter lighting. However, surgery is the only effective treatment for cataracts and involves removing the cloudy lens and replacing it with an artificial one. Referral for surgery should be based on the presence of visual impairment, impact on quality of life, and patient choice. Complications following surgery can include posterior capsule opacification, retinal detachment, posterior capsule rupture, and endophthalmitis.
Overall, cataracts are a common and treatable eye condition that can significantly impact a person’s vision. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and management options can help individuals make informed decisions about their eye health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 116
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old man presents with complaints of blurred vision. Upon fundoscopy, drusen, retinal epithelial changes, and macular neovascularisation are noted. The clinician suspects age-related macular degeneration. What would be the most suitable follow-up investigation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fluorescein angiography
Explanation:Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.
To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.
In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 117
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with increasing redness and swelling around her left eye over the past 48 hours. During the examination, she reports pain and double vision when her eye movements are assessed. There is also tenderness and erythema over the left eyelid. Her temperature is 38°C. Based on the probable diagnosis, what is the most suitable course of treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous cefotaxime
Explanation:Orbital cellulitis can be distinguished from preseptal cellulitis by the presence of symptoms such as reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and pain when moving the eyes. If a person experiences painful eye movements and visual disturbances along with a red, swollen, and tender eye, it is a cause for concern and may indicate orbital cellulitis. In such cases, it is crucial to administer urgent empirical intravenous antibiotics that cover gram-positive and anaerobic organisms, such as Intravenous cefotaxime or clindamycin. On the other hand, preseptal cellulitis can be managed with oral co-amoxiclav and close monitoring. Unlike orbital cellulitis, preseptal cellulitis does not cause painful eye movements or visual disturbances and is less likely to cause fever.
In rare cases, subperiosteal or orbital abscess may complicate orbital cellulitis, leading to symptoms such as proptosis, headache (facial, throbbing), and reduced visual acuity. In such cases, surgical drainage may be necessary, but intravenous empirical antibiotics would still be an essential part of the treatment. It is worth noting that these conditions are more likely to occur as a complication of sinusitis rather than orbital cellulitis.
Bacterial keratitis, which is more common in contact lens users, can be treated with topical ciprofloxacin. This condition presents with symptoms such as eye pain, watering, and photophobia but does not cause eyelid swelling, diplopia, or fever.
Understanding Orbital Cellulitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Orbital cellulitis is a serious infection that affects the fat and muscles behind the orbital septum within the orbit, but not the globe. It is commonly caused by upper respiratory tract infections that spread from the sinuses and can lead to a high mortality rate. On the other hand, periorbital cellulitis is a less severe infection that occurs in the superficial tissues anterior to the orbital septum. However, it can progress to orbital cellulitis if left untreated.
Risk factors for orbital cellulitis include childhood, previous sinus infections, lack of Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccination, recent eyelid infections or insect bites, and ear or facial infections. Symptoms of orbital cellulitis include redness and swelling around the eye, severe ocular pain, visual disturbance, proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, eyelid edema, and ptosis. In rare cases, meningeal involvement can cause drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting.
To differentiate between orbital and preseptal cellulitis, doctors look for reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and ophthalmoplegia, which are not consistent with preseptal cellulitis. Full blood count and clinical examination involving complete ophthalmological assessment are necessary to determine the severity of the infection. CT with contrast can also help identify inflammation of the orbital tissues deep to the septum and sinusitis. Blood culture and microbiological swab are also necessary to determine the organism causing the infection.
Management of orbital cellulitis requires hospital admission for IV antibiotics. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent senior review. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and reduce the risk of mortality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 118
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 1-day history of sudden loss of vision in the left eye. He complains of recent new-onset headache, particularly painful when combing his hair in the morning. He also has pain in his jaw when eating his meals.
His past medical history includes polymyalgia rheumatica, hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus.
On examination, his vision is 6/9 in the right eye, 6/60 in the left eye. Palpation of the temporal arteries reveals that they are non-pulsatile. The left pupil, on swinging torch test, dilates when the light is swung from the right to the left. On dilated fundoscopy, a swollen optic disc and some surrounding disc haemorrhages in the left can be seen. The rest of the retina looks normal bilaterally.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy
Explanation:Differentiating Optic Nerve Conditions: A Brief Overview
When it comes to optic nerve conditions, it’s important to differentiate between them in order to provide the appropriate treatment. Here are some key differences between a few common conditions:
– Arteritic anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy: This condition is caused by giant-cell arthritis and presents with unilateral vision loss.
– Amaurosis fugax: This is a transient loss of vision that typically lasts a few minutes and resolves on its own.
– Optic neuritis: Patients with optic neuritis may experience retrobulbar pain, but not the headache, scalp tenderness, or jaw claudication mentioned in the history.
– Papilloedema: This condition is characterized by bilateral optic disc swelling due to raised intracranial pressure, which is not present in the history.
– Retinal detachment: Flashes and floaters are typically present in retinal detachment, which is not mentioned in the history. Additionally, this condition does not present with headache.By understanding the unique features of each condition, healthcare providers can make a more accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 119
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old patient with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden visual disturbance that has been present for the past 2 hours. He describes dark spots obstructing his vision in his right eye, with a yellowish tint to his vision. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitreous haemorrhage
Explanation:Understanding Vitreous Haemorrhage
Vitreous haemorrhage is a condition where there is bleeding into the vitreous humour, which can cause sudden painless loss of vision. This disruption to vision can range from floaters to complete visual loss. The bleeding can come from any vessel in the retina or extend through the retina from other areas. Once the bleeding stops, the blood is typically cleared from the retina at a rate of approximately 1% per day.
The incidence of spontaneous vitreous haemorrhage is around 7 cases per 100,000 patient-years. The incidence by age and sex varies according to the underlying causes. The most common causes, which collectively account for 90% of cases, include proliferative diabetic retinopathy, posterior vitreous detachment, and ocular trauma (which is the most common cause in children and young adults).
Patients with vitreous haemorrhage typically present with an acute or subacute onset of painless visual loss or haze, a red hue in the vision, or floaters or shadows/dark spots in the vision. Signs of the condition include decreased visual acuity (depending on the location, size, and degree of vitreous haemorrhage) and visual field defects if the haemorrhage is severe.
Investigations for vitreous haemorrhage include dilated fundoscopy, slit-lamp examination, ultrasound (useful to rule out retinal tear/detachment and if haemorrhage obscures the retina), fluorescein angiography (to identify neovascularization), and orbital CT (used if open globe injury is suspected).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 120
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man on your contact list reports experiencing two small floaters that have appeared in his left eye, partially obstructing his vision over the past 24 hours. He has been working on computer screens more frequently than usual over the past week and wears glasses for myopia. He denies any pain or injury to either eye and has not visited an optometrist in several years. What is the best course of action for managing this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange same-day ophthalmology assessment
Explanation:If a patient presents with new-onset flashes or floaters, it is crucial to refer them urgently for assessment by an ophthalmologist within 24 hours. This is because the floaters could be a symptom of a retinal detachment, which requires immediate attention to prevent loss of sight. Therefore, the ophthalmology team may need to perform an urgent operation if a detachment is detected.
In this case, the patient has new-onset floaters, and there is no history of a foreign body or pain in her eye. Therefore, irrigation and antibiotic cover are unlikely to be helpful. While it is important to see her optician to ensure her glasses are the correct prescription, an urgent ophthalmology review should be organized first.
It is inappropriate to delay referral to ophthalmology by arranging a face-to-face assessment the following day. Additionally, the use of computer screens is an unlikely cause for floaters, and observing for further time does not adequately address potential sight-threatening causes.
Retinal detachment is a condition where the tissue at the back of the eye separates from the underlying pigment epithelium. This can cause vision loss, but if detected and treated early, it can be reversible. Risk factors for retinal detachment include diabetes, myopia, age, previous cataract surgery, and eye trauma. Symptoms may include new onset floaters or flashes, sudden painless visual field loss, and reduced peripheral and central vision. If the macula is involved, visual outcomes can be much worse. Diagnosis is made through fundoscopy, which may show retinal folds or a lost red reflex. Urgent referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary for assessment and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 121
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman was referred to ophthalmology with a vesicular rash around her left lower eyelid. The left eye is swollen and itchy. What is the recommended treatment for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral acyclovir
Explanation:Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications
Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is a condition that occurs when the varicella-zoster virus reactivates in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It is responsible for approximately 10% of shingles cases. The main symptom of HZO is a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the eye itself. Hutchinson’s sign, a rash on the tip or side of the nose, is a strong indicator of nasociliary involvement and increases the risk of ocular involvement.
Treatment for HZO involves oral antiviral medication for 7-10 days, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset. Intravenous antivirals may be necessary for severe infections or immunocompromised patients. Topical antiviral treatment is not recommended for HZO, but topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye. Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review to prevent complications such as conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.
In summary, HZO is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It presents with a vesicular rash around the eye and may involve the eye itself. Treatment involves oral antiviral medication and urgent ophthalmology review is necessary for ocular involvement. Complications of HZO include various eye conditions, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 122
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman comes to the Ophthalmology Clinic complaining of decreased vision in her right eye for the past 2 weeks. She reports seeing wavy lines and experiencing blurred vision in the centre of her right eye. She denies any pain in either eye. Upon fundoscopic examination, the doctor observes a greyish-green discolouration of the retina and subretinal exudate. Fluorescence angiography reveals neovascularisation and exudation in the macular region. What is the initial treatment option for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitor (bevacizumab, ranibizumab)
Explanation:Management of Wet Macular Degeneration: Treatment Options and Supportive Care
Wet macular degeneration is a serious eye condition that can lead to vision loss if left untreated. The most important first-line treatment for this condition is to prevent further neovascularisation with a Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitor, such as bevacizumab or ranibizumab. These drugs work by binding to specific endothelial growth factor receptors that promote the growth and survival of new blood vessels.
Laser coagulation therapy is a second-line treatment option if VEGF inhibitors do not work or are contraindicated. Photodynamic therapy may also be recommended alongside VEGF inhibitors, but is also a second-line treatment if there is insufficient response to VEGF inhibitors.
Supportive treatment, including patient education and risk-factor-avoidance education, plays a role in the management of wet macular degeneration. However, the most important aspect of management is treatment with a VEGF inhibitor. Contrast this with dry macular degeneration, whereby supportive treatment is the first-line and mainstay of management.
Visual and reading aids can also be helpful for patients with macular degeneration, but it is important to start therapy with a VEGF inhibitor to prevent further visual loss. Overall, early diagnosis and prompt treatment are crucial for the management of wet macular degeneration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 123
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man visited his GP complaining of a gradual blurring of vision in his right eye. He underwent cataract surgery on the same eye five years ago. Despite wearing reading glasses, he noticed no improvement. During the examination, his left eye had a visual acuity of 6/18, while his right eye had a visual acuity of 6/9. What possible diagnosis could explain his symptoms in the right eye?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Posterior capsule opacification
Explanation:Understanding Common Eye Conditions and Refraction
Posterior Capsule Opacification
Posterior capsule opacification is a common complication after cataract surgery. It can cause blurring of vision, but is harmless and can be treated with a laser procedure called YAG laser capsulotomy.Anterior Capsule Opacification
Anterior capsule opacification does not occur after cataract surgery as most of the anterior capsule would have been removed during the procedure.Hypermetropia and Myopia
Hypermetropia, also known as long-sightedness, and myopia, also known as short-sightedness, can cause blurring of vision if spectacles of the correct refraction were not prescribed. Hypermetropia requires a convex spectacle lens, while myopia requires a concave spectacle lens.Presbyopia
Presbyopia is the normal loss of near focusing ability that occurs with age. However, if wearing reading glasses does not improve blurring of vision, presbyopia may not be the correct diagnosis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 124
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his son. He is experiencing a severe headache around his left eye, significant nausea, and a few episodes of vomiting for the past 2 hours. He also complains of blurred vision and seeing halos with bright lights.
Upon examination, his left pupil is semi-dilated and non-reactive, and there is no evidence of papilloedema.
What is the most definitive treatment for this patient's most likely diagnosis once his condition is stable?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laser iridotomy
Explanation:The most effective treatment for acute angle-closure glaucoma is laser peripheral iridotomy. This condition occurs when the angle of the anterior chamber narrows and obstructs aqueous flow, leading to increased intraocular pressure and optic neuropathy. Treatment involves administering drugs to lower IOP and prevent further visual loss, such as beta-blockers, IV acetazolamide, and parasympathomimetics. Once the patient is stable, laser surgery is performed to create a hole in the iris and allow aqueous flow. Atropine eye drops should be avoided as they can worsen the angle closure. IV mannitol may be used to treat raised intracranial pressure, but it is less likely to cause the specific eye signs seen in acute angle-closure glaucoma. While beta-blockers and IV acetazolamide have their uses in treatment, they only slow progression and do not offer definitive treatment.
Glaucoma is a group of disorders that cause optic neuropathy due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). However, not all patients with raised IOP have glaucoma, and vice versa. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in IOP due to impaired aqueous outflow. Factors that increase the risk of AACG include hypermetropia, pupillary dilation, and lens growth associated with age. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, halos around lights, and a hard, red-eye. Management of AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Emergency medical treatment is necessary to lower the IOP, followed by definitive surgical treatment once the acute attack has subsided.
There are no specific guidelines for the initial medical treatment of AACG, but a combination of eye drops may be used, including a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist. Intravenous acetazolamide may also be administered to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management of AACG involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a small hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humour to flow to the angle. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if symptoms of AACG are present to prevent permanent vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 125
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman, who is typically healthy, arrives at the Emergency Department with a red, watery eye that has been mildly tender for the past two days. She had visited her GP and was prescribed chloramphenicol ointment to apply to her eyes four times daily, but saw no improvement. Upon examination, her visual acuity is 6/6 in both eyes, and a red patch is visible on the lateral side of her affected eye. After administering phenylephrine 10% eye drops, the redness appeared to have improved. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Episcleritis
Explanation:Eye Inflammation: Differentiating Episcleritis from Other Conditions
Episcleritis is a common eye condition that presents with mild discomfort and grittiness, similar to conjunctivitis. However, it can cause tenderness on palpation and worsened pain on ocular movements. The redness is sectorial and deeper compared to the superficial inflammation in conjunctivitis. Other eye conditions, such as iritis, keratitis, and scleritis, have distinct characteristics that differentiate them from episcleritis. Iritis presents with severe pain and worsened visual acuity, while keratitis causes an uptake of fluorescein under cobalt blue light. Scleritis causes severe aching pain and a blueish-red tinge under natural light. Understanding the differences between these conditions is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 126
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man visits the clinic with complaints of vision problems that have persisted for the past month. He reports difficulty reading words in books and blurry vision. The patient's visual acuity is 20/30 in both eyes upon examination. He currently takes amlodipine and ramipril for hypertension and smokes 30 cigarettes per day. The patient is concerned about losing his vision, as his father experienced a similar issue.
During fundoscopy, amber material deposits are observed under the retinal pigment epithelium in both eyes, without neovascularisation present. What is the most appropriate next step in diagnosing the patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Test with Amsler grid
Explanation:The Amsler grid test is a useful tool for assessing patients suspected of having age-related macular degeneration (AMD) as it checks for distortion of line perception. In this case, the patient has dry AMD, which is confirmed by the presence of drusen on fundoscopy. Patients with AMD typically see distorted lines instead of straight ones. Fluorescein angiography would not be appropriate for this patient as it assesses the vascular supply to the retina and choroid, which is not relevant in this case. Measuring intraocular pressure is also not useful in diagnosing AMD as it is associated with glaucoma. Similarly, a slit lamp examination of the anterior chamber is not relevant in diagnosing AMD as it is used to diagnose other eye conditions such as injuries, corneal infections, or cataracts.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.
To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.
In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 127
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old construction worker presents to the emergency department complaining of a foreign body sensation in his left eye. He reports experiencing pain and sensitivity to light on the left side. When asked about eye protection, he states that he wears it 99% of the time. Upon examination, you notice crusty, gold-colored lesions on his face. Using a slit lamp and fluorescein eye stain, you identify a dendritic ulcer in his left eye.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Herpes simplex keratitis
Explanation:A dendritic ulcer seen on fluorescein eye stain is indicative of herpes simplex keratitis, which is the likely diagnosis in this case. While mechanics may be at a higher risk for photokeratitis, it typically does not cause a foreign body sensation. While the other options are possible, the presence of a dendritic ulcer is a key diagnostic feature.
Understanding Herpes Simplex Keratitis
Herpes simplex keratitis is a condition that affects the cornea of the eye and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. The most common symptom of this condition is a dendritic corneal ulcer, which can cause a red, painful eye, photophobia, and epiphora. In some cases, visual acuity may also be decreased. Fluorescein staining may show an epithelial ulcer, which can help with diagnosis. One common treatment for this condition is topical acyclovir, which can help to reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent further damage to the cornea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 128
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of facial swelling and pain following a recent upper respiratory tract infection. Upon examination, the right eye is surrounded by erythema and swelling, and there is discomfort when moving the eye. The patient's left eye has a visual acuity of 6/6, while the right eye has a visual acuity of 6/24.
What would be the best course of action in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit to hospital for IV antibiotics
Explanation:Patients who exhibit symptoms of orbital cellulitis should be admitted to the hospital for IV antibiotics due to the potential risks of cavernous sinus thrombosis and intracranial spread. Prescribing high-dose oral steroids and checking thyroid function is not the appropriate course of action, as these symptoms are more indicative of orbital cellulitis resulting from the spread of infection from the upper respiratory tract. Referring to Rheumatology and prescribing high-dose oral steroids is also not recommended, as this would be more appropriate for suspected giant cell arthritis, which is rare in patients under 65 years old. Supportive management and nasal decongestants are not recommended at this stage, as the facial pain and swelling with painful eye movements suggest that the condition has progressed to orbital cellulitis and requires IV antibiotics.
Understanding Orbital Cellulitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Orbital cellulitis is a serious infection that affects the fat and muscles behind the orbital septum within the orbit, but not the globe. It is commonly caused by upper respiratory tract infections that spread from the sinuses and can lead to a high mortality rate. On the other hand, periorbital cellulitis is a less severe infection that occurs in the superficial tissues anterior to the orbital septum. However, it can progress to orbital cellulitis if left untreated.
Risk factors for orbital cellulitis include childhood, previous sinus infections, lack of Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccination, recent eyelid infections or insect bites, and ear or facial infections. Symptoms of orbital cellulitis include redness and swelling around the eye, severe ocular pain, visual disturbance, proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, eyelid edema, and ptosis. In rare cases, meningeal involvement can cause drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting.
To differentiate between orbital and preseptal cellulitis, doctors look for reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and ophthalmoplegia, which are not consistent with preseptal cellulitis. Full blood count and clinical examination involving complete ophthalmological assessment are necessary to determine the severity of the infection. CT with contrast can also help identify inflammation of the orbital tissues deep to the septum and sinusitis. Blood culture and microbiological swab are also necessary to determine the organism causing the infection.
Management of orbital cellulitis requires hospital admission for IV antibiotics. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent senior review. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and reduce the risk of mortality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 129
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man comes to the eye clinic complaining of bilateral redness around the corneal limbus. He has been experiencing this for one day and is in a lot of pain, particularly when reading the newspaper. He also reports sensitivity to light and blurry vision. Additionally, he has a headache that is affecting his entire head and back pain that is more severe in the morning but improves throughout the day.
During the examination, the patient's pupils are fixed and small, with an oval shape. There is no hypopyon, but his eyes are very watery.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Steroid and cycloplegic eye drops
Explanation:The recommended treatment for anterior uveitis is a combination of steroid and cycloplegic (mydriatic) eye drops. This patient exhibits typical symptoms of anterior uveitis, which may be caused by a systemic condition like ankylosing spondylitis. The patient experiences pain, redness, watering, blurry vision, and small, fixed, oval-shaped pupils in both eyes around the corneal limbus. Although hypopyon may not always be present, the patient’s back pain that improves throughout the day may suggest ankylosing spondylitis. Steroid and cycloplegic eye drops are the appropriate treatment options. Cyclopentolate helps relieve pain caused by muscle spasms controlling the pupil and prevents the formation of synechiae that may affect the pupils function. Steroids help treat the underlying inflammation. Bilateral laser iridotomy is not suitable for this patient, as it is most appropriate for acute closed-angle glaucoma. High flow oxygen and sumatriptan may seem like a possible treatment for cluster headaches due to the patient’s lacrimation, red eyes, and headache, but this presentation is more consistent with anterior uveitis. Topical sodium cromoglicate is not appropriate for this patient, as it is used to treat allergic conjunctivitis, which typically presents with watery, red, itchy eyes in patients with a history of atopy.
Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. It is a common cause of red eye and is associated with HLA-B27, which may also be linked to other conditions. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small or irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness, tearing, and the presence of pus and inflammatory cells in the front part of the eye. This condition may be associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and treatment may involve the use of cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 130
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of itchy, red, and watery eyes. She reports that the symptoms started in her left eye four days ago and have since spread to her right eye. Upon examination, bilateral redness and watery discharge are observed in both eyes. The patient has a history of using reusable contact lenses and reports that her 4-year-old son had similar symptoms a week ago. What management advice should the GP provide for this likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Do not wear contact lenses until symptoms have resolved. Clean the eyelids with a wet cloth and apply a cold compress as needed to relieve symptoms
Explanation:It is not recommended to wear contact lenses during an episode of conjunctivitis. The patient should refrain from using contact lenses until their symptoms have completely resolved. They can clean their eyelids with a wet cloth and use a cold compress as needed to alleviate discomfort. This is likely a case of viral conjunctivitis, which can be managed conservatively with good eye hygiene and cold compresses. Wearing contact lenses during this time can worsen symptoms as they may act as an irritant or carry infections. Administering chloramphenicol eye drops every 3 hours and using a cold compress is not appropriate for viral conjunctivitis. Continuing to wear contact lenses while using a cold compress is also not recommended. The patient should discard their current lenses, wait until their symptoms have resolved, and start using new lenses again.
Conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes with a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.
In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves without treatment within one to two weeks. However, topical antibiotic therapy is often offered to patients, such as Chloramphenicol drops given every two to three hours initially or Chloramphenicol ointment given four times a day initially. Alternatively, topical fusidic acid can be used, especially for pregnant women, and treatment is twice daily.
For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn, and patients should be advised not to share towels. School exclusion is not necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 131
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with a complaint of unequal pupil size. Upon examination, there is an anisocoria of >1mm. The anisocoria appears to be more pronounced when a light is shone on the patient's face compared to when the room is darkened. The patient's eye movements are normal, and a slit-lamp examination reveals no evidence of synechiae. What possible condition could be responsible for these findings?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adie's tonic pupil
Explanation:When a patient presents with anisocoria, it is important to determine whether the issue lies with dilation or constriction. In this case, the anisocoria is exacerbated by bright light, indicating a problem with the parasympathetic innervation and the affected pupil’s inability to constrict. Adie’s tonic pupil is a likely cause, as it involves dysfunction of the ciliary ganglion. Horner syndrome and oculomotor nerve palsy are unlikely causes, as they would result in different symptoms. Physiological anisocoria and pilocarpine are also incorrect answers.
Mydriasis, which is the enlargement of the pupil, can be caused by various factors. These include third nerve palsy, Holmes-Adie pupil, traumatic iridoplegia, pheochromocytoma, and congenital conditions. Additionally, certain drugs can also cause mydriasis, such as topical mydriatics like tropicamide and atropine, sympathomimetic drugs like amphetamines and cocaine, and anticholinergic drugs like tricyclic antidepressants. It’s important to note that anisocoria, which is when one pupil is larger than the other, can also result in the appearance of mydriasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 132
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old woman is attending her first appointment with her GP. She reports feeling healthy and has no current health concerns. However, when asked about her family medical history, she mentions that her mother and grandfather have both been diagnosed with glaucoma.
As her GP, what advice would you give her regarding glaucoma?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He should get annual screening from age 40 years
Explanation:Individuals who have a positive family history of glaucoma are recommended to undergo annual screening from the age of 40. This is because glaucoma has a strong genetic component, and having a first-degree relative with the condition increases one’s risk. The NHS offers free examinations for those who meet this criteria. It is important to note that glaucoma often has no symptoms in its early stages, making regular screening crucial in detecting and treating the condition before it causes significant visual impairment. Opticians can typically perform these screenings.
Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) is a type of glaucoma where the peripheral iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is important in draining aqueous humour from the eye. POAG is more common in older individuals and those with a family history of the condition. It may present insidiously with symptoms such as peripheral visual field loss, decreased visual acuity, and optic disc cupping. Diagnosis is made through a series of investigations including automated perimetry, slit lamp examination, applanation tonometry, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy. It is important to assess the risk of future visual impairment based on factors such as IOP, CCT, family history, and life expectancy. Referral to an ophthalmologist is typically done through a GP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 133
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman with a history of multiple sclerosis visits her GP complaining of issues with her right eye and right shoulder pain. Upon examination, the GP notes ptosis on the right side, a small pupil, and narrowing of the palpebral fissure with right lid lag. The left eye appears normal, and fundoscopy reveals no abnormalities. The patient has a 30-year history of smoking 30 cigarettes daily and consuming 12 units of alcohol per week. She has also been taking paracetamol and ibuprofen for her shoulder pain. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Horner's syndrome
Explanation:The patient is exhibiting symptoms consistent with Horner’s syndrome, including miosis (constricted pupil), ptosis (drooping eyelid), and enophthalmos (sunken eye). There may also be anhydrosis (lack of sweating) present. This could be indicative of a Pancoast tumor on the lung, which can infiltrate the brachial plexus and cause shoulder pain. It is important to note the patient’s smoking history in this case. Multiple sclerosis is not likely to be the cause of these symptoms. Argyll-Robertson pupil, Holmes-Adie pupil, and oculomotor nerve palsy are not applicable to this case.
Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.
Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.
There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 134
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of double vision that occurs when both eyes are open. He has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus.
During the examination, his visual acuity is measured at 6/9 in both eyes. The patient has complete drooping of his left eyelid. The size of his left pupil is the same as the right. His left eye is turned outward and slightly downward when looking straight ahead. The patient's left eye movements are limited in most directions except for outward movement.
What is the next step in investigating this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blood tests including full blood count (FBC), erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), C-reactive protein (CRP), lipids and blood glucose
Explanation:Investigations for Third-Nerve Palsy: What to Consider
When presented with a third-nerve palsy, it is important to investigate the potential causes and determine the appropriate course of action. A pupil-sparing complete palsy may suggest a medical cause, such as hypertension or diabetes, which can be assessed through blood tests including FBC, ESR, CRP, lipids, and blood glucose. Once all causes have been investigated and treated, an orthoptic review with Hess charts can help resolve diplopia. CSF testing for oligoclonal bands is not necessary unless a demyelinating cause is suspected. In cases of severe symptoms, an MRI head with MRA is the correct option to rule out a posterior-communicating artery aneurysm. A non-contrast CT head is only necessary if an acute intracranial or subarachnoid bleed is suspected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 135
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of vision issues. She reports seeing a red tint in her vision and dark spots in her right eye. The physician sends her to the eye casualty department where they suspect a vitreous haemorrhage.
What factors could potentially increase the likelihood of developing this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Use of warfarin
Explanation:The use of blood thinning agents such as warfarin is a predisposing factor for vitreous haemorrhage, which is characterized by red-tinged vision and dark spots. Other risk factors include diabetes, trauma, coagulation disorders, and severe short sightedness.
Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arthritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.
Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arthritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.
Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 136
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old man with untreated tertiary syphilis is undergoing screening for complications of neurosyphilis. During questioning, he reports experiencing a decrease in visual acuity and color vision on his left side. He denies any headaches or changes in vision when coughing.
Upon examination, there are no signs of gaze or eye movement abnormalities. However, a relative afferent pupillary defect is present, and fundoscopy reveals swelling of the optic disc on the left side. Based on this likely diagnosis, what other visual abnormality may be anticipated?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Central scotoma
Explanation:Optic neuritis is characterized by a central scotoma, which is a grey, black, or blind spot in the middle of the visual field. This condition is often associated with uveitis, but in rare cases, it can lead to optic papillitis, as seen in this patient. While the fundoscopy may suggest papilloedema, this is unlikely to be the case as it is typically bilateral and associated with other symptoms such as vision changes when coughing. Flashers, floaters, halos, and homonymous hemianopia are not associated with optic neuritis as they arise from different parts of the eye and visual pathway.
Optic neuritis is a condition that can be caused by multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. It is characterized by a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days, as well as poor color discrimination and pain that worsens with eye movement. Other symptoms include a relative afferent pupillary defect and a central scotoma. The condition can be diagnosed through an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast. Treatment typically involves high-dose steroids, and recovery usually takes 4-6 weeks. If an MRI shows more than three white-matter lesions, the risk of developing multiple sclerosis within five years is approximately 50%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 137
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old female who is overweight visits her doctor complaining of daily headaches that have been ongoing for two weeks. The headaches are felt on both sides of her forehead, persist throughout the day, and intensify when she bends over. She does not experience any aura with the headaches. During a fundoscopy, the doctor notices blurring of the optic disc. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Idiopathic intracranial hypertension
Explanation:Idiopathic intracranial hypertension is a possible diagnosis for a young woman with a high BMI, headache, and visual symptoms, as it is associated with papilloedema. Cluster headaches, migraines, and sinus headaches do not account for papilloedema and have different characteristics.
Understanding Papilloedema: Optic Disc Swelling Caused by Increased Intracranial Pressure
Papilloedema is a condition characterized by swelling of the optic disc due to increased pressure within the skull. This condition is typically bilateral and can be identified through fundoscopy. During this examination, venous engorgement is usually the first sign observed, followed by loss of venous pulsation, blurring of the optic disc margin, elevation of the optic disc, loss of the optic cup, and the presence of Paton’s lines, which are concentric or radial retinal lines cascading from the optic disc.
There are several potential causes of papilloedema, including space-occupying lesions such as tumors or vascular abnormalities, malignant hypertension, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, hydrocephalus, and hypercapnia. In rare cases, papilloedema may also be caused by hypoparathyroidism and hypocalcaemia, or vitamin A toxicity.
Overall, understanding papilloedema is important for identifying potential underlying conditions and providing appropriate treatment to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 138
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden visual loss. He reports no eye redness, ocular trauma, or headaches. The loss of vision began from the outside and progressed inward, accompanied by flashes and floaters. He wears corrective glasses and sometimes contact lenses, but he cannot recall his prescription. What characteristic raises the likelihood of this patient developing this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Myopia
Explanation:Myopia increases the likelihood of retinal detachment, which should be suspected if a patient experiences gradual vision loss starting from the periphery and moving towards the centre. This may be accompanied by the sensation of a curtain or veil descending over their vision, preceded by flashes and floaters caused by the vitreous humour tugging at the retina. Myopia elongates the eyeball, stretching the retina and making it more susceptible to tearing and detachment. Astigmatism, a refractive error caused by an irregularly shaped eyeball, does not increase the risk of RD. Contact lens use is not associated with RD but may increase the risk of infection. Hypermetropia, or farsightedness, does not increase the risk of RD but is associated with acute angle-closure glaucoma, which presents with severe ocular pain, visual blurring, a hard and red eye, and systemic symptoms such as nausea and vomiting.
Retinal detachment is a condition where the tissue at the back of the eye separates from the underlying pigment epithelium. This can cause vision loss, but if detected and treated early, it can be reversible. Risk factors for retinal detachment include diabetes, myopia, age, previous cataract surgery, and eye trauma. Symptoms may include new onset floaters or flashes, sudden painless visual field loss, and reduced peripheral and central vision. If the macula is involved, visual outcomes can be much worse. Diagnosis is made through fundoscopy, which may show retinal folds or a lost red reflex. Urgent referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary for assessment and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 139
Incorrect
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Please rewrite the question while maintaining the paragraph structure.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left homonymous scotoma – right occipital cortex
Explanation:Understanding Visual Field Defects and their Corresponding Brain Lesions
Visual field defects can occur due to various brain lesions. The location of the lesion determines the type of visual field defect. Here are some examples:
– Left homonymous scotoma – right occipital cortex: If the tip of the occipital cortex is affected, it can cause a contralateral scotoma, affecting the central vision. However, if the whole occipital lobe is affected, it will cause a homonymous hemianopia.
– Bitemporal hemianopia – optic chiasm: Bitemporal hemianopia occurs with a lesion of the optic chiasm, not the occipital cortex.
– Right superior homonymous quadrantanopia – left temporal cortex: Superior quadrantanopia occurs with temporal lesions, not parietal lesions.
– Left inferior homonymous quadrantanopia – right parietal cortex: Inferior quadrantanopia occurs with parietal lesions, not temporal lesions.
– Right monocular anopia – right optic nerve injury: Monocular anopia occurs with damage to the optic nerve on that same side, rather than damage to the occipital cortex.Understanding the relationship between visual field defects and their corresponding brain lesions can aid in diagnosis and treatment of neurological conditions affecting vision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 140
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman comes to the clinic with asymmetrical pupils. Upon shining light into her eyes, the right pupil is 3 mm larger than the left. In a darkened room, the right pupil remains larger, but by only 1mm. Both pupils are regular in shape. She reports no discomfort, her sclerae appear normal, and a slit-lamp examination reveals no abnormalities. Her eye movements are also unaffected. The patient's father died from a brain tumor, and she is concerned that she may have the same condition. What is the most probable underlying cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adie's tonic pupil
Explanation:The likely diagnosis for this patient’s anisocoria, which is worse in bright light, is Adie’s tonic pupil. This is because the pupil is unable to constrict properly, indicating dysfunction in the parasympathetic innervation. Adie’s tonic pupil is characterised by impaired pupil constriction due to ciliary ganglion dysfunction. Argyll-Robertson pupil, Horner syndrome, and oculomotor nerve palsy are not the correct diagnoses as they present with different symptoms and causes.
Mydriasis, which is the enlargement of the pupil, can be caused by various factors. These include third nerve palsy, Holmes-Adie pupil, traumatic iridoplegia, pheochromocytoma, and congenital conditions. Additionally, certain drugs can also cause mydriasis, such as topical mydriatics like tropicamide and atropine, sympathomimetic drugs like amphetamines and cocaine, and anticholinergic drugs like tricyclic antidepressants. It’s important to note that anisocoria, which is when one pupil is larger than the other, can also result in the appearance of mydriasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 141
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old male with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents for his annual diabetic eye screening. He was previously diagnosed with mild nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR) when micro-aneurysms were observed during retinal examination. However, during this visit, cotton wool spots are also detected in both eyes. What is the underlying pathophysiology of this new discovery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pre-capillary arteriolar occlusion
Explanation:Cotton wool spots in diabetic retinopathy are caused by pre-capillary arteriolar occlusion, leading to retinal infarction. This is the reason why the patient is presenting with new cotton wool spots, indicating the progression of their NPDR. Central retinal vein occlusion, lipid deposition in the retina, and thickening of the walls of retinal arterioles are not the underlying causes of cotton wool spots in diabetic retinopathy.
Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy
Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.
Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.
Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for nonproliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 142
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department with worsening periorbital oedema, erythema, and drainage in her left eye. During examination, mild proptosis is observed. To further investigate her symptoms, a point of care ultrasound is conducted, revealing retro-orbital soft tissue prominence and oedema with echogenic fat. What is the appropriate treatment plan for this patient based on the underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous antimicrobial
Explanation:Hospital admission for IV antibiotics is necessary for patients with orbital cellulitis due to the potential for cavernous sinus thrombosis and intracranial spread. It is imperative that all patients with a clinical diagnosis of orbital cellulitis be admitted to the hospital and receive an ophthalmic evaluation as soon as possible. Oral antimicrobial treatment is inadequate in this situation, as intravenous antibiotic therapy is required to manage this medical emergency. Failure to treat orbital cellulitis promptly may result in blindness or even death. Therefore, no antimicrobial other than intravenous antibiotics is appropriate for this condition. Topical antimicrobial treatment is also insufficient for managing orbital cellulitis.
Understanding Orbital Cellulitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Orbital cellulitis is a serious infection that affects the fat and muscles behind the orbital septum within the orbit, but not the globe. It is commonly caused by upper respiratory tract infections that spread from the sinuses and can lead to a high mortality rate. On the other hand, periorbital cellulitis is a less severe infection that occurs in the superficial tissues anterior to the orbital septum. However, it can progress to orbital cellulitis if left untreated.
Risk factors for orbital cellulitis include childhood, previous sinus infections, lack of Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccination, recent eyelid infections or insect bites, and ear or facial infections. Symptoms of orbital cellulitis include redness and swelling around the eye, severe ocular pain, visual disturbance, proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, eyelid edema, and ptosis. In rare cases, meningeal involvement can cause drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting.
To differentiate between orbital and preseptal cellulitis, doctors look for reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and ophthalmoplegia, which are not consistent with preseptal cellulitis. Full blood count and clinical examination involving complete ophthalmological assessment are necessary to determine the severity of the infection. CT with contrast can also help identify inflammation of the orbital tissues deep to the septum and sinusitis. Blood culture and microbiological swab are also necessary to determine the organism causing the infection.
Management of orbital cellulitis requires hospital admission for IV antibiotics. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent senior review. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and reduce the risk of mortality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 143
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner (GP) complaining of painless sudden vision loss in his eyes. Upon examination, the GP observes a right homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing. Where is the lesion located that is responsible for this visual field defect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left occipital visual cortex
Explanation:Lesions and their corresponding visual field defects
Lesions in different areas of the visual pathway can cause specific visual field defects. A lesion in the left occipital visual cortex can result in a right homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing. This is because the visual cortex typically presents with macular sparing. On the other hand, a lesion in the left temporal lobe optic radiation can cause a right superior quadrantanopia. An optic chiasm lesion can lead to bitemporal hemianopia, while a right optic tract lesion can cause a left homonymous hemianopia. Finally, a right parietal lobe optic radiation lesion can result in a left inferior quadrantanopia. Understanding these different visual field defects can aid in localizing the site of a lesion in the visual pathway.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 144
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man is referred to Ophthalmology with bilateral cataracts. He reports gradual worsening of his vision over many years and struggles with night-time driving due to glare. He is put on the waiting list for surgical repair.
What structure in the eye is affected by cataract formation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lens
Explanation:Anatomy of the Eye: Understanding the Different Parts and Their Disorders
The eye is a complex organ that allows us to see the world around us. It is made up of several parts, each with its own function. Understanding the anatomy of the eye and the disorders that can affect it is important for maintaining good eye health.
Lens: The lens is a transparent structure located behind the pupil and iris. It helps to focus light onto the retina. Cataracts occur when the lens becomes cloudy or opaque, causing vision problems.
Cornea: The cornea is the clear dome-shaped surface of the eye that sits over the iris. It plays a role in refracting light. Damage to the cornea can cause pain and light sensitivity.
Iris: The iris is the colored part of the eye. It can be affected by disorders such as uveitis, which causes inflammation of the uvea (iris, ciliary body, and choroid).
Retina: The retina is located at the back of the eye and contains rods and cones that process incoming light. Disorders of the retina include retinitis pigmentosa, diabetic retinopathy, and retinal detachment.
Sclera: The sclera is the white part of the eye. Disorders of the sclera include scleritis, which causes redness, pain, and reduced visual acuity. It can be associated with rheumatoid arthritis.
Understanding the different parts of the eye and their functions can help you identify potential problems and seek treatment early. Regular eye exams are important for maintaining good eye health and preventing vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 145
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner complaining of a painful red photophobic eye with some blurred vision. She reports no discharge, headache, nausea or vomiting. She has a medical history of inflammatory bowel disease but is otherwise healthy.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Uveitis
Explanation:Common Eye Inflammations and Their Symptoms
Uveitis, a condition that can affect people of all ages, is often associated with systemic diseases like inflammatory bowel disease, sarcoidosis, and seronegative arthritis. It typically presents as a painful red eye with photophobia, but there is usually no discharge. Upon examination, signs of intraocular inflammation such as cells in the anterior chamber will be present. Urgent referral to ophthalmology is necessary, and treatment may involve cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.
Conjunctivitis, on the other hand, is characterized by a red, sore eye with discharge that can be mucopurulent or clear depending on the cause. Tarsal conjunctiva inflammation is also likely.
Episcleritis, which affects mostly women and younger people, is self-limiting and causes mild pain, watering, and very mild photophobia. It does not cause any visual symptoms.
Acute glaucoma is an ophthalmological emergency that requires urgent referral to ophthalmology. Patients with this condition will present with an acutely painful red eye and systemic symptoms like nausea and vomiting. Medications to reduce intraocular pressure are necessary.
Keratitis, which refers to inflammation of the cornea, has many different causes, with infection being the most common, especially in contact lens wearers. While the symptoms may initially appear similar to uveitis, keratitis is unlikely to be associated with inflammatory bowel disease and will show abnormalities of the cornea upon examination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 146
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man presents with painful weeping rashes on his right upper eyelid and forehead, accompanied by acute punctate keratopathy. He had undergone chemotherapy for non-Hodgkin's lymphoma about a year ago. No other abnormalities are observed. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Herpes zoster
Explanation:Increased Risk of Herpes Zoster in Immunocompromised Patients
Immunosuppressed individuals who have undergone organ transplantation, as well as those with cancer, leukaemia, and AIDS, are more susceptible to developing herpes zoster. This condition, commonly known as shingles, is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, which remains dormant in the body after a previous chickenpox infection.
In cases of herpes zoster ophthalmicus, where the virus affects the eye and surrounding areas, the presence of the Hutchinson sign – a rash on the tip of the nose supplied by the external nasal nerve – indicates a higher risk of developing uveitis, an inflammation of the eye uvea. It is important for immunocompromised patients to be aware of this increased risk and seek prompt medical attention if they experience any symptoms of herpes zoster.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 147
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a painful and red right eye with photophobia for the past 2 days. He usually wears contact lenses but has been using glasses since the onset of pain. The patient has a medical history of allergic rhinitis and takes cetirizine daily.
During the examination, the doctor observes dilated conjunctival and episcleral vessels, mild eyelid swelling, and increased tearing in the right eye. The left eye appears normal, and the patient's corrected visual acuity is 6/6 in the left eye and 6/12 in the right eye.
What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer urgently to eye casualty
Explanation:If a person wearing contact lenses experiences a painful red eye, it is important to refer them to an eye casualty department to rule out the possibility of microbial keratitis.
Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea
Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.
Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.
Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 148
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of an increasingly painful and swollen left eye. He complains of blurring of vision and pain, especially with eye movements.
On examination, visual acuity is 6/18 in the left and 6/6 in the right. The periorbital area of the left eye is very swollen and erythematosus. The eye itself is red and proptosed. The conjunctiva is chemosed. Eye movements in the left eye are quite restricted in all directions. There is relative afferent pupillary defect on the left. Fundoscopy shows a swollen optic disc in the left eye. Computed tomography (CT) scan shows some opacities in the ethmoid sinuses.
Vital observations are as follows:
Blood pressure 120/70 mmHg
Heart rate 75 bpm
Respiratory rate 18 per minute
Oxygen saturation 98% on air
Temperature 37.9 °C
What is the definitive treatment for this eye problem?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Drainage of the ethmoid sinuses
Explanation:Treatment Options for Ethmoidal Sinusitis and Orbital Cellulitis
Ethmoidal sinusitis is a common cause of orbital cellulitis, which requires prompt treatment to prevent complications. The most effective treatment for ethmoidal sinusitis is surgical drainage of the sinuses to remove the pus and debris. Antibiotics are also necessary to aid recovery, but they should be administered after the drainage procedure.
While there are several antibiotics that can be used to treat orbital cellulitis, such as cefuroxime, metronidazole, co-amoxiclav, and Tazocin®, they are not sufficient to address the underlying cause of the condition. Therefore, drainage of the ethmoid sinuses is the definitive treatment for ethmoidal sinusitis and orbital cellulitis.
In summary, the treatment options for ethmoidal sinusitis and orbital cellulitis include surgical drainage of the sinuses followed by antibiotics. Antibiotics alone are not enough to treat the condition, and the choice of antibiotic may vary depending on the patient’s age and other factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 149
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man has been experiencing a gradual decline in his vision in both eyes. He is struggling to read and recognize faces, and has had multiple falls due to difficulty in perceiving edges of objects such as stairs. Upon examination with a slit-lamp, amber retinal deposits are observed but no signs of neovascularisation are present. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus and is currently taking amlodipine and metformin. He has been a heavy smoker for the past 40 years, smoking 30 cigarettes a day, but does not consume alcohol. What is the most appropriate treatment option for this patient's likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamins C+E and beta-carotene supplementation
Explanation:Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.
To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.
In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 150
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman presents with a complaint of seeing an 'arc of white light and some cobwebs' in her vision for the past week. She reports no pain or recent trauma. The patient has a history of myopia in both eyes. Upon examination, her vision is 6/9 in both eyes and the anterior segments appear normal. Dilated fundoscopy reveals no horseshoe tear in either eye. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Posterior vitreous detachment
Explanation:Understanding Eye Conditions: Posterior Vitreous Detachment and Other Possibilities
Posterior vitreous detachment is a common condition that occurs with age, particularly in myopic patients. It happens when the vitreous becomes more liquid and separates from the retina, causing symptoms like flashes and floaters. However, it’s important to rule out any retinal tears or breaks that could lead to retinal detachment. Cataracts, on the other hand, are unlikely to cause these symptoms. Exudative retinal detachment is rare and usually associated with underlying pathologies. Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment is the most common type but not evident in the fundoscopy result. Tractional retinal detachment is uncommon and often linked to diseases like diabetes. However, there’s no indication of diabetes or retinal detachment in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 151
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old male patient visits his general practitioner with a complaint of sore eyes. He reports experiencing stickiness in his eyes upon waking up and a gritty sensation when he blinks. Dry eyes are not a concern. Upon examination, the only notable finding is slightly red eyelid margins. What is the most suitable treatment for the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hot compresses
Explanation:The primary treatment for blepharitis is hot compresses. This is the most likely diagnosis for the patient, who is experiencing discomfort and grittiness in both eyes, along with redness of the eyelid margins and stickiness in the morning. While artificial tears may be used for dry eyes, this is not necessary in this case. Topical chloramphenicol is only necessary if there is secondary conjunctivitis present. Topical sodium cromoglicate is typically used for allergic conjunctivitis, which presents with itchiness and is often associated with hayfever.
Blepharitis is a condition where the eyelid margins become inflamed. This can be caused by dysfunction of the meibomian glands (posterior blepharitis) or seborrhoeic dermatitis/staphylococcal infection (anterior blepharitis). It is more common in patients with rosacea. The meibomian glands secrete oil to prevent rapid evaporation of the tear film, so any problem affecting these glands can cause dryness and irritation of the eyes. Symptoms of blepharitis are usually bilateral and include grittiness, discomfort around the eyelid margins, sticky eyes in the morning, and redness of the eyelid margins. Styes and chalazions are also more common in patients with blepharitis, and secondary conjunctivitis may occur.
Management of blepharitis involves softening the lid margin with hot compresses twice a day and practicing lid hygiene to remove debris from the lid margins. This can be done using cotton wool buds dipped in a mixture of cooled boiled water and baby shampoo or sodium bicarbonate in cooled boiled water. Artificial tears may also be given for symptom relief in people with dry eyes or an abnormal tear film.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 152
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man presented to the Emergency Department with a 1-day history of blurring of vision and headache. He does not complain of any pain when touching the scalp or any pain when eating and chewing food.
Past medical history includes hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, which is well controlled with metformin.
On further history taking, he tells you that he has a family history of brain cancer and he is afraid that this could be relevant to his symptoms.
On examination, his visual acuity is 6/18 in both eyes. On dilated fundoscopy, you could see some arterioles narrower than others. You also see venules being compressed by arterioles. There are also some dot-and-blot and flame-shaped haemorrhages, as well as some cotton-wool spots.
His vital observations are as follows:
Heart rate 80 bpm
Blood pressure 221/119 mmHg
Oxygen saturation 98% on room air
Respiratory rate 14 per minute
Temperature 37 °C
According to the Keith-Wagener-Barker classification of hypertensive retinopathy, what grade of hypertensive retinopathy is this?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Grade 3
Explanation:Stages of Diabetic Retinopathy
Diabetic retinopathy is a condition that affects the eyes of people with diabetes. It is important to detect and treat it early to prevent vision loss. There are different stages of diabetic retinopathy, each with its own set of features.
Grade 1 is characterized by arteriolar narrowing. Grade 2 includes features of grade 1 and arteriovenous nipping. Grade 3 includes features of grade 2 and microaneurysms, dot-and-blot haemorrhages, flame-shaped haemorrhages, cotton-wool spots, and hard exudates. Grade 4 includes features of grade 3 and optic disc swelling.
It is important to have regular eye exams if you have diabetes to detect any signs of diabetic retinopathy early. With proper management and treatment, vision loss can be prevented or delayed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 153
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old myopic man with a history of hypertension arrives at the clinic complaining of a sudden, painless decrease in his vision. He reports a dense shadow obstructing his left eye, which began in the periphery and has advanced towards the center of his vision.
During the examination, he can only perceive hand movements in his left eye, while his right eye has a visual acuity of 6/6. What is the probable reason for the vision loss?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Retinal detachment
Explanation:Retinal detachment is a condition that can cause sudden and painless loss of vision. It is characterized by a dense shadow that starts from the periphery and progresses towards the center of the visual field.
Central retinal artery occlusion, on the other hand, is caused by a blockage of blood flow due to thromboembolism or arthritis. This condition can also cause sudden and painless loss of vision, but it does not typically present with a peripheral-to-central progression. Instead, it is characterized by an afferent pupillary defect and a cherry red spot on a pale retina.
Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and is often seen in older patients, particularly those with glaucoma. This condition can also cause sudden and painless loss of vision, but it can affect any venous territory and is associated with severe retinal hemorrhages.
Retinal detachment is often seen in people with myopia and can be preceded by flashes and floaters. It typically presents with a shadow in the visual field that starts from the periphery and progresses towards the center.
Optic neuritis can also cause sudden visual loss, but this is usually temporary and is often accompanied by painful eye movement.
Vitreous hemorrhage, on the other hand, causes a dark spot in the visual field where the hemorrhage is located, rather than a shadow that progresses towards the center.
Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arthritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.
Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arthritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.
Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 154
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman presented with a complaint of gradual loss of vision in her right eye over the past 3 days. She reported a sensation of a 'curtain' coming from the right inferotemporal side towards the centre, along with flashes of lights at the right inferotemporal side and an increase in the number of floaters in her right eye. Upon examination, her vision in the right eye was measured at 6/18, while her left eye was 6/6. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superonasal retinal detachment
Explanation:Different Locations of Retinal Detachment and their Corresponding Symptoms
Retinal detachment can occur in different locations of the retina, and the symptoms experienced by the patient depend on the location of the detachment. For instance, a superonasal retinal detachment will cause a curtain-like vision from the right inferotemporal side towards the center, along with flashes at the right inferotemporal side. However, it is more common for retinal detachment to start at the upper temporal quadrant of the retina.
On the other hand, an inferonasal retinal detachment will cause symptoms at the superotemporal side, while an inferior retinal detachment will cause symptoms at the superior side. Similarly, an inferotemporal retinal detachment will cause symptoms at the superonasal side, and a superotemporal retinal detachment will cause symptoms at the inferonasal side.
Therefore, understanding the location of the retinal detachment is crucial in diagnosing and treating the condition. Patients experiencing any of these symptoms should seek immediate medical attention to prevent permanent vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 155
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old male visits his general practitioner complaining of a painless red left eye accompanied by tearing for the past three days. He reports no changes in his vision. The patient has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis. Upon examination, the doctor notes a red left eye but finds nothing else unusual. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Episcleritis
Explanation:Episcleritis is the likely diagnosis for this patient’s painless red left eye of acute onset, which is associated with lacrimation. The absence of pain, visual impairment, or significant examination findings distinguishes it from scleritis. Episcleritis is an inflammation of the episclera that typically resolves within 2-3 weeks.
Anterior uveitis is not the correct diagnosis as it presents with an acutely painful red eye associated with photophobia and reduced visual acuity, and requires urgent referral to ophthalmology.
Bacterial conjunctivitis is also unlikely as it is characterized by a sore, red-eye with a purulent discharge, which is not present in this case.
Scleritis is not the correct diagnosis as it presents with a subacute onset of red-eye associated with pain that is exacerbated by eye movement, and may also have scleral thinning.
Understanding Scleritis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Scleritis is a condition that involves inflammation of the sclera, which is the white outer layer of the eye. This condition is typically non-infectious and can cause a red, painful eye. The most common risk factor associated with scleritis is rheumatoid arthritis, but it can also be linked to other conditions such as systemic lupus erythematosus, sarcoidosis, and granulomatosis with polyangiitis.
Symptoms of scleritis include a red eye, which is often accompanied by pain and discomfort. Patients may also experience watering and photophobia, as well as a gradual decrease in vision.
Treatment for scleritis typically involves the use of oral NSAIDs as a first-line treatment. In more severe cases, oral glucocorticoids may be used. For resistant cases, immunosuppressive drugs may be necessary, especially if there is an underlying associated disease. With proper treatment, most patients with scleritis can achieve relief from their symptoms and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 156
Incorrect
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Which statement about childhood squints is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The corneal light reflection test is a suitable screening test
Explanation:Both paralytic and non-paralytic squints can lead to the development of amblyopia.
Squint, also known as strabismus, is a condition where the visual axes are misaligned. There are two types of squints: concomitant and paralytic. Concomitant squints are more common and are caused by an imbalance in the extraocular muscles. On the other hand, paralytic squints are rare and are caused by the paralysis of extraocular muscles. It is important to detect squints early on as they can lead to amblyopia, where the brain fails to process inputs from one eye and favours the other eye over time.
To detect a squint, a corneal light reflection test can be performed by holding a light source 30cm from the child’s face to see if the light reflects symmetrically on the pupils. The cover test is also used to identify the nature of the squint. This involves asking the child to focus on an object, covering one eye, and observing the movement of the uncovered eye. The test is then repeated with the other eye covered.
If a squint is detected, it is important to refer the child to secondary care. Eye patches may also be used to help prevent amblyopia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 157
Incorrect
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An 8-year-old boy comes to the clinic 2 days after injuring his right upper eyelid. He has a fever and feels generally sick. Upon examination, the eyelid is visibly swollen, red, and tender to the touch. The boy also has ptosis, but no pain when moving his eyes or visual impairment. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Periorbital cellulitis
Explanation:Periorbital (preseptal) cellulitis can be distinguished from orbital cellulitis by the absence of painful eye movements, double vision, and visual impairment. These symptoms are indicative of orbital cellulitis, which is more severe and involves infection of the orbit. Children are more susceptible to both types of cellulitis. Dry eyes, or keratoconjunctivitis sicca, typically presents as a painful, gritty feeling in the eye with redness of the conjunctiva, similar to viral conjunctivitis.
Understanding Preseptal Cellulitis
Preseptal cellulitis, also known as periorbital cellulitis, is an infection that affects the soft tissues in front of the orbital septum. This includes the skin, eyelids, and subcutaneous tissue of the face, but not the contents of the orbit. Unlike orbital cellulitis, which is a more severe infection that affects the soft tissues behind the orbital septum, preseptal cellulitis is less serious. The infection typically spreads from nearby sites, such as breaks in the skin or local infections like sinusitis or respiratory tract infections. Common causative organisms include Staph. aureus, Staph. epidermidis, streptococci, and anaerobic bacteria.
Preseptal cellulitis is most commonly seen in children, with 80% of patients under the age of 10 and a median age of presentation at 21 months. It is more prevalent in the winter due to the increased incidence of respiratory tract infections. Symptoms of preseptal cellulitis include a sudden onset of a red, swollen, and painful eye, often accompanied by fever.
Clinical signs of preseptal cellulitis include erythema and edema of the eyelids, which can spread to the surrounding skin, as well as partial or complete ptosis of the eye due to swelling. It is important to note that orbital signs, such as pain on eye movement, restriction of eye movements, proptosis, visual disturbance, chemosis, and relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD), should be absent in preseptal cellulitis. If these signs are present, it may indicate orbital cellulitis.
Diagnosis of preseptal cellulitis is typically made based on clinical presentation and blood tests showing raised inflammatory markers. A swab of any discharge present may also be taken. A contrast CT of the orbit may be performed to differentiate between preseptal and orbital cellulitis.
Management of preseptal cellulitis involves referral to secondary care for assessment. Oral antibiotics, such as co-amoxiclav, are often sufficient for treatment. Children may require admission for observation. If left untreated, bacterial infection may spread into the orbit and evolve into orbital cellulitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 158
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old type 1 diabetic undergoes fundoscopy as part of his annual follow-up. His HbA1c is 9.5% (81 mmol/mol). Fundoscopy reveals haemorrhages, cotton-wool spots and the presence of new vessels.
What is the next step in his management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to ophthalmology
Explanation:Management of Diabetic Retinopathy: Referral Criteria and Pathways
Diabetic retinopathy is a common complication of diabetes that can lead to vision loss if left untreated. The National Screening Committee (NSC) has established grading criteria to help physicians assess the severity of diabetic retinopathy and determine the appropriate referral pathway.
The grading criteria include four levels of retinopathy severity: R0 (no retinopathy), R1 (background retinopathy), R2 (pre-proliferative retinopathy), and R3 (proliferative retinopathy). Additionally, there are two levels of maculopathy severity: M0 (nil present) and M1 (maculopathy present).
The management pathways for each level of severity are as follows:
– R0: Annual screening
– R1: Annual screening and inform diabetes care team
– R2: Refer to hospital eye service for specialized follow-up
– R3: Fast-track referral to hospital eye service
– M0: Annual screening
– M1: Refer to hospital eye serviceAny change in the macula, regardless of severity, should prompt urgent referral to ophthalmology.
It is important to note that patients with R0 disease who have well-controlled diabetes may continue yearly follow-up. However, any other stage of retinopathy warrants referral to ophthalmology.
In summary, early detection and appropriate management of diabetic retinopathy is crucial in preventing vision loss. Physicians should be familiar with the NSC grading criteria and referral pathways to ensure timely and effective treatment for their diabetic patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 159
Incorrect
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An elderly man aged 73 complains of a painful, red eye and seeks medical attention at the Emergency Department. Ophthalmology is consulted due to the severity of his symptoms and reduced visual acuity, and they diagnose him with acute glaucoma. What are the treatment goals that should be pursued?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reducing aqueous secretion + inducing pupillary constriction
Explanation:Glaucoma is a group of disorders that cause optic neuropathy due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). However, not all patients with raised IOP have glaucoma, and vice versa. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in IOP due to impaired aqueous outflow. Factors that increase the risk of AACG include hypermetropia, pupillary dilation, and lens growth associated with age. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, halos around lights, and a hard, red-eye. Management of AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Emergency medical treatment is necessary to lower the IOP, followed by definitive surgical treatment once the acute attack has subsided.
There are no specific guidelines for the initial medical treatment of AACG, but a combination of eye drops may be used, including a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist. Intravenous acetazolamide may also be administered to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management of AACG involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a small hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humour to flow to the angle. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if symptoms of AACG are present to prevent permanent vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 160
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old nursing student is experiencing intense pain in their left eye after returning from a clinical placement in South America. When asked, they admitted to swimming with their contact lens in freshwater. Upon examination, their left eye appeared slightly red, but no other significant clinical signs were observed. What is the probable organism responsible for their symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acanthamoeba
Explanation:Acanthamoebic keratitis is characterized by severe pain that is disproportionate to the clinical presentation, and is often associated with a history of recent freshwater swimming while wearing contact lenses. Other symptoms may include pseudodendritic ulcers, epithelial defects, anterior uveitis, and perforation in advanced cases. Cat scratch disease caused by Bartonella henselae typically presents with neuroretinitis and a macular star, as well as systemic symptoms and lymphadenopathy. Lyme disease caused by Borrelia burgdorferi may result in a follicular conjunctivitis or panuveitis, and is often accompanied by a target rash and systemic symptoms. While HSV can cause keratitis, it typically presents with a dendritic ulcer.
Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea
Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.
Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.
Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 161
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy comes to your clinic with his mother. He reports that for the past year, he has been experiencing intermittent episodes of red, itchy eyelids. These episodes usually resolve on their own, but the current flare has been ongoing for over a month. The boy has not experienced any changes in his vision.
During the examination, the boy is cheerful and cooperative. His eyelids appear slightly red, and there is some foamy discharge on the lid margins with matting of the eyelashes. On the superior lid of his right eye, there is a small, tender, red lump in the medial canthus. However, his eye is not painful or red, and he has no fever.
What is the best initial management option for this 7-year-old boy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hot compresses to both eyes
Explanation:The initial treatment for blepharitis involves the use of hot compresses. Blepharitis is a common inflammatory condition that affects the margins of the eyelids. Symptoms of this condition include burning, itching, and crusting of the eyelids, which are often worse in the mornings and aggravated by makeup and wind. Both eyelids are typically affected, and patients may experience recurrent hordeolum or styes, as well as intolerance to contact lenses. While blepharitis cannot be cured, hot compresses and eyelid hygiene measures should be used twice daily to reduce the frequency and severity of relapses. Oral antibiotics are only used as a secondary option for patients who have not responded to hygiene measures and who have meibomian gland dysfunction and rosacea. If hygiene measures are ineffective, topical antibiotics like chloramphenicol may be prescribed. However, topical steroids such as dexamethasone drops are not recommended for the treatment of blepharitis.
Blepharitis is a condition where the eyelid margins become inflamed. This can be caused by dysfunction of the meibomian glands (posterior blepharitis) or seborrhoeic dermatitis/staphylococcal infection (anterior blepharitis). It is more common in patients with rosacea. The meibomian glands secrete oil to prevent rapid evaporation of the tear film, so any problem affecting these glands can cause dryness and irritation of the eyes. Symptoms of blepharitis are usually bilateral and include grittiness, discomfort around the eyelid margins, sticky eyes in the morning, and redness of the eyelid margins. Styes and chalazions are also more common in patients with blepharitis, and secondary conjunctivitis may occur.
Management of blepharitis involves softening the lid margin with hot compresses twice a day and practicing lid hygiene to remove debris from the lid margins. This can be done using cotton wool buds dipped in a mixture of cooled boiled water and baby shampoo or sodium bicarbonate in cooled boiled water. Artificial tears may also be given for symptom relief in people with dry eyes or an abnormal tear film.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 162
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man reports experiencing a scratchy sensation in his eyes as the day goes on. He feels that his eyes become tired. These symptoms only occur during weekdays when he works as a computer programmer for a local business. During examination, there is mild conjunctival hyperemia, but the rest of the ocular examination is normal. Which nerve stimulation is linked to tear production?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intermediate nerve
Explanation:Cranial Nerves and Their Parasympathetic Functions
The cranial nerves play a crucial role in the parasympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for regulating various bodily functions. Here are some of the cranial nerves and their parasympathetic functions:
1. Intermediate Nerve: This nerve supplies secretomotor innervation to the lacrimal gland. The parasympathetic fibers originate from the geniculate ganglion of the facial nerve and travel through the greater petrosal nerve, deep petrosal nerve, Vidian nerve, and maxillary nerve to reach the lacrimal gland.
2. Oculomotor Nerve: The oculomotor nerve provides motor innervation to four of the six ocular muscles and parasympathetic innervation to the ciliary muscle and sphincter pupillae muscle of the iris.
3. Glossopharyngeal Nerve: This nerve provides secretomotor innervation to the parotid gland. The parasympathetic fibers travel through the tympanic branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve, tympanic plexus, lesser petrosal nerve, and auriculotemporal nerve to reach the parotid gland.
4. Vagus Nerve: The vagus nerve provides parasympathetic innervation to the heart, lung, and gastrointestinal tract.
5. Chorda Tympani: This branch of the facial nerve contains preganglionic parasympathetic fibers that synapse at the submandibular ganglion attached to the lingual nerve. The postganglionic parasympathetic fibers reach the submandibular and sublingual glands via the branches of the lingual nerve.
Understanding the parasympathetic functions of these cranial nerves is essential in diagnosing and treating various medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 163
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a gradual onset of dry, itchy right eye and associated blurring of his vision. The patient and his family have also observed that he has difficulty completely closing his eyelid. The patient has a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes but has never been hospitalized or had any eye problems before.
During the examination, the patient displays signs of miosis, partial ptosis, anhidrosis of the face, and enophthalmos.
What is the probable cause of this patient's presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pancoast tumour
Explanation:Horner’s syndrome is a condition that occurs when there is a lesion in the sympathetic nerve trunk, resulting in symptoms such as miosis, partial ptosis, enophthalmos, and anhidrosis on the same side as the lesion. The location of the lesion can be determined by the presence and location of anhidrosis. If anhidrosis is present only in the face, it indicates a Preganglionic lesion, which can be caused by conditions such as Pancoast tumors, cervical rib, and thyroid issues. On the other hand, a postganglionic lesion, which can be caused by carotid artery dissection or cavernous sinus thrombosis, results in Horner’s syndrome without anhidrosis. Central lesions, such as those caused by stroke or syringomyelia, result in Horner’s syndrome with anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk on the affected side.
Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.
Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.
There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 164
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old boy comes to his General Practitioner complaining of redness around his left eye and pain when moving his eye since waking up this morning. He has been experiencing symptoms of a cold for a few days. Upon examination of his left eye, there is redness around the eye, proptosis, limited and painful eye movements, and decreased visual acuity. The examination of his right eye is normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Orbital cellulitis
Explanation:Orbital cellulitis is a serious eye infection that can cause redness around the eye, pain when moving the eye, limited eye movement, bulging of the eye, and decreased vision. It is more commonly seen in children and is caused by an infection behind the orbital septum. This infection can spread from the sinuses, trauma to the eye, or from preseptal cellulitis. On the other hand, a chalazion, which is a small cyst in the eyelid, would not cause these symptoms. Optic neuritis, which is inflammation of the optic nerve, is often associated with multiple sclerosis and can cause vision problems and abnormal color vision. Preseptal cellulitis, which is an infection in front of the orbital septum, can cause eyelid swelling and drooping, but does not cause the same symptoms as orbital cellulitis. Sinusitis, which is inflammation of the sinuses, can lead to orbital cellulitis, but it does not fully explain the patient’s symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 165
Incorrect
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A client of yours has been diagnosed with Horner's syndrome. What is the most probable symptom that will be observed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Miosis + ptosis + enophthalmos
Explanation:Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.
Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.
There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 166
Incorrect
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An older woman presents with an intermittent frontal headache associated with pain around her right eye which looks slightly red. She describes episodes occurring while she watches television in the evening, during which she sees halos around lights in the room. On examination, there is no tenderness around her temporal artery and her eye appears normal. She has normal visual acuity.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Closed angle glaucoma
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Painful Red Eye with Headache and Visual Symptoms
When a patient presents with a painful red eye, headache, and visual symptoms, several conditions should be considered. One possible diagnosis is primary closed angle glaucoma, which can present as latent, subacute, or acute. Subacute closed angle glaucoma causes intermittent attacks with blurring of vision and halos around light sources, while acute glaucoma is more severe and requires urgent reduction in intraocular pressure. Another possible diagnosis is anterior uveitis, which presents with a persistent painful red eye and photophobia but does not cause headaches or halos in the vision.
Migraine is also an important differential, as its symptoms can be mistaken for acute glaucoma. Tension headaches are less likely, as they are not associated with visual symptoms. Finally, giant cell arthritis should be considered, especially if the patient has symptoms of claudication such as temporal headache and jaw pain when chewing food, as well as scalp tenderness and pulseless beaded temporal arteries on examination.
In summary, a painful red eye with headache and visual symptoms can have several possible causes, and a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 167
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of intense pain around his left eye and vomiting. Upon examination, his left eye appears red and there is a noticeable decrease in visual acuity. What is the best initial course of action for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer immediately to hospital
Explanation:Glaucoma is a group of disorders that cause optic neuropathy due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). However, not all patients with raised IOP have glaucoma, and vice versa. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in IOP due to impaired aqueous outflow. Factors that increase the risk of AACG include hypermetropia, pupillary dilation, and lens growth associated with age. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, halos around lights, and a hard, red-eye. Management of AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Emergency medical treatment is necessary to lower the IOP, followed by definitive surgical treatment once the acute attack has subsided.
There are no specific guidelines for the initial medical treatment of AACG, but a combination of eye drops may be used, including a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist. Intravenous acetazolamide may also be administered to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management of AACG involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a small hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humour to flow to the angle. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if symptoms of AACG are present to prevent permanent vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 168
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset blurring of vision in both eyes and light sensitivity. He is a known type II diabetic with well-controlled blood sugars through diet. His vital signs are as follows: temperature 36.6 °C, BP 191/127 mmHg, heart rate 80 bpm, respiratory rate 19, and O2 saturations 99% on room air. Dilated fundoscopy reveals swollen optic discs with widespread flame-shaped haemorrhages and cotton-wool spots. What is the initial treatment for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous (IV) labetalol
Explanation:Treatment Options for Hypertensive Retinopathy: Understanding the Appropriate Interventions
Hypertensive emergency with retinopathy requires careful management to avoid complications such as watershed infarcts in the brain. Intravenous (IV) labetalol is a suitable option for lowering blood pressure (BP) slowly, with the aim of reducing diastolic BP to 100 mmHg or 20-25 mmHg/day, whichever is lesser. However, intravitreal anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (anti-VEGF) injection is not a treatment for hypertensive retinopathy. Oral amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, is also not useful in an acute setting of hypertensive emergency. Similarly, pan-retinal photocoagulation or any laser treatment for the eye is not a treatment for hypertensive retinopathy, but rather for proliferative diabetic retinopathy. Lastly, sublingual glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray, although capable of reducing blood pressure, is typically used in patients with angina and acute coronary syndrome (ACS). Understanding the appropriate interventions for hypertensive retinopathy is crucial for effective management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 169
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about unusual symptoms in his eyes. He reports experiencing flashes of light in his eyes for a few days and has also noticed dark specks floating around in his vision. He denies any discomfort. The patient is nearsighted and wears glasses, but has no significant medical history. Upon examination, his visual acuity and fields are normal. What is the probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Posterior vitreous detachment
Explanation:The most likely cause of the patient’s flashers and floaters is posterior vitreous detachment, which is a common age-related condition that occurs when the vitreous membrane separates from the retina. This condition does not cause pain or vision loss, but highly myopic patients are at increased risk. It is important to refer the patient to an ophthalmologist within 24 hours to rule out retinal tears or detachment.
Migraine is an unlikely cause as there is no headache described. Optic neuritis is also unlikely as there is no pain or history of previous disease. While retinal detachment may be a complication of PVD, it is not as common as PVD itself and would present with sudden visual loss and a veil covering the visual field. A retinal tear may also occur without progressing to detachment and would require intervention from an ophthalmologist.
Understanding Posterior Vitreous Detachment
Posterior vitreous detachment is a condition where the vitreous membrane separates from the retina due to natural changes in the vitreous fluid of the eye with ageing. This is a common condition that does not cause any pain or loss of vision. However, it is important to rule out retinal tears or detachment as they may result in permanent loss of vision. Posterior vitreous detachment occurs in over 75% of people over the age of 65 and is more common in females. Highly myopic patients are also at increased risk of developing this condition earlier in life.
Symptoms of posterior vitreous detachment include the sudden appearance of floaters, flashes of light in vision, blurred vision, and cobweb across vision. If there is an associated retinal tear or detachment, the patient will require surgery to fix this. All patients with suspected vitreous detachment should be examined by an ophthalmologist within 24 hours to rule out retinal tears or detachment.
The management of posterior vitreous detachment alone does not require any treatment as symptoms gradually improve over a period of around 6 months. However, it is important to monitor the condition and seek medical attention if any new symptoms arise. The appearance of a dark curtain descending down vision indicates retinal detachment and requires immediate medical attention. Overall, understanding posterior vitreous detachment and its associated risks is important for maintaining good eye health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 170
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female patient visits her GP clinic complaining of a painful lump on the border of her left eyelid. She has no medical history and is generally healthy. Upon examination, a small abscess filled with pus is observed in the area. Her visual field is unaffected. What treatment should be recommended for the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Regular warm steaming or soaking with a warm flannel
Explanation:It is recommended to use regular warm steaming as the initial treatment for a stye. This is the most appropriate course of action based on the given information. Other treatments mentioned are not necessary for this particular condition. Styes are commonly caused by staphylococcus bacteria.
Eyelid problems are quite common and can include a variety of issues. One such issue is blepharitis, which is inflammation of the eyelid margins that can cause redness in the eye. Another problem is a stye, which is an infection of the glands in the eyelids. Chalazion, also known as Meibomian cyst, is another eyelid problem that can occur. Entropion is when the eyelids turn inward, while ectropion is when they turn outward.
Styes can come in different forms, such as external or internal. An external stye is an infection of the glands that produce sebum or sweat, while an internal stye is an infection of the Meibomian glands. Treatment for styes typically involves hot compresses and pain relief, with topical antibiotics only being recommended if there is also conjunctivitis present. A chalazion, on the other hand, is a painless lump that can form in the eyelid due to a retention cyst of the Meibomian gland. While most cases will resolve on their own, some may require surgical drainage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 171
Incorrect
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Mrs Green is a 58-year-old woman who comes to eye casualty with sudden vision loss in her left eye. She reports having observed some dark spots in her vision over the past few days. She is not in any pain and has a medical history of diet-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. What is the most probable cause of her visual impairment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitreous haemorrhage
Explanation:Understanding Vitreous Haemorrhage
Vitreous haemorrhage is a condition where there is bleeding into the vitreous humour, which can cause sudden painless loss of vision. This disruption to vision can range from floaters to complete visual loss. The bleeding can come from any vessel in the retina or extend through the retina from other areas. Once the bleeding stops, the blood is typically cleared from the retina at a rate of approximately 1% per day.
The incidence of spontaneous vitreous haemorrhage is around 7 cases per 100,000 patient-years. The incidence by age and sex varies according to the underlying causes. The most common causes, which collectively account for 90% of cases, include proliferative diabetic retinopathy, posterior vitreous detachment, and ocular trauma (which is the most common cause in children and young adults).
Patients with vitreous haemorrhage typically present with an acute or subacute onset of painless visual loss or haze, a red hue in the vision, or floaters or shadows/dark spots in the vision. Signs of the condition include decreased visual acuity (depending on the location, size, and degree of vitreous haemorrhage) and visual field defects if the haemorrhage is severe.
Investigations for vitreous haemorrhage include dilated fundoscopy, slit-lamp examination, ultrasound (useful to rule out retinal tear/detachment and if haemorrhage obscures the retina), fluorescein angiography (to identify neovascularization), and orbital CT (used if open globe injury is suspected).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 172
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient is receiving medical treatment for primary open-angle glaucoma and experiences side effects of increased eyelash length, iris, and periocular pigmentation. What medication class is responsible for these effects?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prostaglandin analogues
Explanation:Prostaglandin analogues can cause hyperaemia, increased eyelash growth, periocular skin pigmentation, and increased iris pigmentation as side effects. On the other hand, beta-blockers have the potential to exacerbate asthma and heart block, unlike the other options mentioned.
Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma is a type where the iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is responsible for draining aqueous humour from the eye. This results in increased resistance to outflow and raised intraocular pressure. The condition affects 0.5% of people over 40 years old and increases with age. Genetics also play a role, with first-degree relatives having a 16% chance of developing the disease. Symptoms are usually absent, and diagnosis is made through routine eye examinations. Investigations include visual field tests, tonometry, and slit lamp examinations. Treatment involves eye drops to lower intraocular pressure, with prostaglandin analogues being the first line of treatment. Surgery may be considered in refractory cases. Regular reassessment is necessary to monitor progression and prevent visual field loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 173
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female complains of fatigue and frequent headaches. During the swinging light test, an abnormality is noticed in her eyes. Both pupils appear to dilate as the light is moved from the left to the right eye. However, the pupillary response to accommodation is normal bilaterally. Fundoscopy also reveals normal findings bilaterally. The patient has a medical history of type one diabetes and hypertension. What is the probable cause of this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Marcus-Gunn Pupil (relative afferent pupillary defect) on the right
Explanation:The swinging light test can diagnose Marcus Gunn pupil (also known as relative afferent pupillary defect). If there is damage to the afferent pathway (retina or optic nerve) of one eye, the affected eye’s pupil will abnormally dilate when a light is shone into it because the healthy eye’s consensual pupillary relaxation response will dominate. This condition can be found in patients with multiple sclerosis, so it should be ruled out in this patient based on the history. However, the history and examination findings do not suggest raised intracranial pressure, which typically presents with symptoms such as a headache, vomiting, bilateral blurred vision, and seizures, and often shows bilateral papilloedema on fundoscopy. Although the patient is diabetic, diabetic eye disease typically does not affect pupillary light responses, and some abnormality on fundoscopy would be expected. The information provided does not match Holmes-Aide’s pupil, which is a dilated pupil that poorly reacts to direct light but slowly reacts to accommodation. The history also does not suggest Argyll Robertson pupil, which is characterised by a constricted pupil that does not respond to light but responds to accommodation and is often associated with neurosyphilis.
Understanding Relative Afferent Pupillary Defect
A relative afferent pupillary defect, also known as the Marcus-Gunn pupil, is a condition that can be identified through the swinging light test. This condition is caused by a lesion that is located anterior to the optic chiasm, which can be found in the optic nerve or retina.
When conducting the swinging light test, the affected eye will appear to dilate when light is shone on it, while the normal eye will not. This is due to the fact that the afferent pathway of the pupillary light reflex is disrupted. The pathway starts from the retina, then goes through the optic nerve, lateral geniculate body, and midbrain. The efferent pathway, on the other hand, starts from the Edinger-Westphal nucleus in the midbrain and goes through the oculomotor nerve.
There are various causes of relative afferent pupillary defect, such as retina detachment and optic neuritis, which is commonly associated with multiple sclerosis. Understanding this condition is important in diagnosing and treating patients who may be experiencing vision problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 174
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman, a known type 1 diabetic, visited the GP clinic.
Your GP placement supervisor requested you to conduct a dilated direct fundoscopy on her eyes. During the examination, you observed a few dot haemorrhages and hard exudates.
What is the probable diagnosis of the patient's eye condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Background diabetic retinopathy
Explanation:Understanding the Different Stages of Diabetic Retinopathy
Diabetic retinopathy is a condition that affects the eyes of people with diabetes. It is important to understand the different stages of diabetic retinopathy to ensure timely diagnosis and treatment.
Background diabetic retinopathy is the earliest stage, characterized by a few dot haemorrhages and microaneurysms. Pre-proliferative diabetic retinopathy is marked by intraretinal microvascular abnormalities, venous beading or loops, large blot haemorrhages, and cotton-wool spots.
Diabetic maculopathy occurs when these features affect the macula, which is responsible for central vision. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy is a more advanced stage, with new vessels forming at the disc or elsewhere in the retina.
Finally, proliferative diabetic retinopathy with maculopathy combines the features of pre-proliferative retinopathy, new vessel formation, and diabetic maculopathy. By understanding these stages, individuals with diabetes can work with their healthcare providers to manage their condition and prevent vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 175
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man presents with a history of poor health for several months and is subsequently diagnosed with syphilis. During the physical examination, it is observed that he has small pupils on both sides that are able to accommodate but do not react to light. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Argyll-Robertson pupil
Explanation:Argyll-Robertson Pupil: A Classic Pupillary Syndrome
The Argyll-Robertson Pupil (ARP) is a classic pupillary syndrome that is sometimes observed in neurosyphilis. It is characterized by small, irregular pupils that do not respond to light but do respond to accommodation. A useful mnemonic for remembering this syndrome is Accommodation Reflex Present (ARP) but Pupillary Reflex Absent (PRA).
The ARP can be caused by various factors, including diabetes mellitus and syphilis. It is important to note that the presence of an ARP may indicate underlying neurological or systemic disease and should prompt further evaluation and management. Proper diagnosis and treatment of the underlying condition can help prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 176
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis complains of a painful, red eye with excessive tearing and blurred vision that has been ongoing for a few days. She has a family history of glaucoma and is also nearsighted. Upon examination, you diagnose her with scleritis. What potential complication should you be concerned about?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Perforation of the globe
Explanation:Scleritis is a serious condition that requires urgent ophthalmology attention within 24 hours to prevent complications such as perforation of the globe. Other potential complications of scleritis include glaucoma, cataracts, raised intraocular pressure, retinal detachment, and uveitis. It is important to note that scleritis can lead to raised intraocular pressure, not decreased, and that entropion and episcleritis are not complications of this condition.
Understanding Scleritis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Scleritis is a condition that involves inflammation of the sclera, which is the white outer layer of the eye. This condition is typically non-infectious and can cause a red, painful eye. The most common risk factor associated with scleritis is rheumatoid arthritis, but it can also be linked to other conditions such as systemic lupus erythematosus, sarcoidosis, and granulomatosis with polyangiitis.
Symptoms of scleritis include a red eye, which is often accompanied by pain and discomfort. Patients may also experience watering and photophobia, as well as a gradual decrease in vision.
Treatment for scleritis typically involves the use of oral NSAIDs as a first-line treatment. In more severe cases, oral glucocorticoids may be used. For resistant cases, immunosuppressive drugs may be necessary, especially if there is an underlying associated disease. With proper treatment, most patients with scleritis can achieve relief from their symptoms and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 177
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of a headache on the right side of his head, localized at the eye, and neck pain. He reports that the pain started suddenly over an hour. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and a 20-year pack history of smoking. He appears to be in significant pain, with sweat on his forehead.
Observations reveal a heart rate of 102 bpm, blood pressure of 158/89 mmHg, and a Glasgow coma scale of 15/15. On examination, the right pupil is small, and the eyelid is drooping. The sclera is white, and there is no swelling of the eyelid. The left eye appears normal.
What is the most probable cause of these symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carotid artery dissection
Explanation:A localised headache, neck pain, and neurological signs such as Horner’s syndrome are indicative of carotid artery dissection. This is a crucial diagnosis to consider when dealing with such symptoms. The presence of a localised headache, neck pain, and Horner’s syndrome suggest carotid artery dissection. The patient’s right eye is showing signs of loss of sympathetic innervation, such as a small pupil and drooping eyelid. The presence of sweat on the forehead indicates that the lesion causing Horner’s syndrome is postganglionic. A carotid artery dissection is the most likely cause of these symptoms, given the patient’s risk factors of smoking and hypertension. Cluster headache, encephalitis, and subarachnoid haemorrhage are less likely diagnoses, as they do not fit with the patient’s symptoms and presentation.
Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.
Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.
There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 178
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old male with dry age-related macular degeneration is evaluated. Regrettably, his vision has worsened in the last six months. He has never smoked and is currently using antioxidant supplements. What would be the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Explain no other medical therapies currently available
Explanation:Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.
To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.
In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 179
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with a sudden onset of painful redness in her left eye. The left eye has significantly reduced visual acuity compared to the right eye. During a slit-lamp examination, you observe the presence of pus in the anterior chamber.
What is the most suitable treatment for the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Steroid eye drops and cycloplegic eye drops
Explanation:The recommended treatment for anterior uveitis is a combination of steroid eye drops and cycloplegic eye drops. This condition is characterized by sudden onset of eye pain, redness, and decreased vision, along with sensitivity to light. Upon examination, the affected pupil may appear small and there may be pus in the front part of the eye. In case of suspected infective anterior uveitis, consultation with an ophthalmologist is necessary. Dorzolamide is a medication used to reduce aqueous production in primary open-angle glaucoma, while IV acetazolamide is indicated for acute angle-closure glaucoma. Latanoprost is a prostaglandin analogue that increases uveoscleral outflow and is also used in primary open-angle glaucoma. It is important to provide prompt treatment for anterior uveitis to prevent permanent vision loss.
Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. It is a common cause of red eye and is associated with HLA-B27, which may also be linked to other conditions. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small or irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness, tearing, and the presence of pus and inflammatory cells in the front part of the eye. This condition may be associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and treatment may involve the use of cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 180
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old individual who wears contact lenses presents to the emergency department complaining of pain in their left eye. They describe a sensation of having something gritty stuck in their eye. The eye appears red all over and they have difficulty looking at bright lights. Upon examination with a slit-lamp, there is a hypopyon and focal white infiltrates on the cornea. What is the probable causative organism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Explanation:Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the likely cause of bacterial keratitis in contact lens wearers. Symptoms include a foreign body sensation, conjunctival injection, and hypopyon on slit-lamp examination. Staphylococci and streptococci are also common causes, but pseudomonas is particularly prevalent in this population. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Acanthamoeba, and herpes simplex are less likely causes.
Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea
Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.
Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.
Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 181
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old patient complains of a painful lump on their eyelid. The lump has been present for about 3 days and is gradually increasing in size. Upon examination, a tender, smooth lump measuring approximately 3 mm in diameter is observed, originating from the outer edge of the left upper eyelid. There is no redness in the eye, no orbital or periorbital erythema, and normal visual acuity.
What would be the most suitable approach to managing this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Provide advice on application of hot compresses and simple analgesia
Explanation:Management of Stye or Hordeolum: Hot Compresses and Simple Analgesia
A stye or hordeolum is a common condition that presents as an acute and painful swelling of the eyelid, usually around a single eyelash follicle. While it does not affect visual acuity, it can make the eye watery. The first-line management for a stye is the application of warm compresses a few times a day, which can help the stye resolve or drain. Incision and drainage is rarely used and should only be considered if symptoms do not resolve and needs to be performed by an experienced individual in the hospital setting/Eye Casualty. There is no indication to prescribe systemic antibiotics, as the patient is well and there are no signs of cellulitis over the eyelid. Topical antibiotics are not recommended in the absence of conjunctivitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 182
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old individual arrives at the emergency department complaining of sensitivity to light and a red right eye that began an hour ago. Upon examination, the right eye is painful, red, and has an irregularly-shaped pupil, while the left eye appears normal. The patient is referred to ophthalmology for further evaluation. What is the probable medical treatment that the patient received?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Steroid and cycloplegic drops
Explanation:The most common treatment for anterior uveitis involves using a combination of steroid and cycloplegic (mydriatic) drops. This is because the symptoms of photophobia and a small, irregularly-shaped pupil are indicative of anterior uveitis. Steroids are administered to reduce inflammation, while cycloplegics such as atropine or cyclopentolate are used to dilate the pupil and alleviate pain and sensitivity to light. Chloramphenicol is an antibiotic that is typically used to treat bacterial conjunctivitis without the need for steroids. Acetazolamide, on the other hand, is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that is used to manage acute angle-closure glaucoma. Pilocarpine, a muscarinic receptor agonist, is used to treat primary open-angle glaucoma and acute closed angle glaucoma.
Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. It is a common cause of red eye and is associated with HLA-B27, which may also be linked to other conditions. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small or irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness, tearing, and the presence of pus and inflammatory cells in the front part of the eye. This condition may be associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and treatment may involve the use of cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 183
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man with a history of metastatic lung cancer presents to the oncology clinic for follow-up. Despite multiple rounds of radiotherapy, there has been no improvement in his condition and he is now receiving palliative care. During the visit, he mentions that his daughter has noticed a change in his facial appearance. Upon examination, the physician observes drooping of the right eyelid and a smaller right pupil. What other symptom is indicative of Horner's syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ipsilateral loss of sweating of the face
Explanation:The answer is the loss of sweating on the same side of the face as the affected eye. This could indicate Horner’s syndrome, which is often caused by a Pancoast’s tumor. Horner’s syndrome is characterized by a drooping eyelid, a constricted pupil, sunken eyes, and a lack of sweating on one side of the face. Although a tumor that causes damage to the brachial plexus and results in arm nerve function loss may be present, it is not a symptom of Horner’s syndrome.
Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.
Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.
There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 184
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old female patient complains of a painless red eye that has been present for 2 days. She reports no other symptoms and has not experienced any vision changes. The patient has no significant medical history and is not taking any long-term medications. During the examination, both eyes appear red and injected. When applying light pressure with a cotton bud, the injected vessels appear to move. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Episcleritis
Explanation:The vessels in episcleritis can be easily moved with gentle pressure on the sclera, while in scleritis, the vessels are deeper and do not move. Episcleritis is characterized by the absence of a decrease in visual acuity and mobile vessels, but the degree of pain can vary. Iritis, also known as anterior uveitis, is typically painful and causes photophobia and vision loss. Posterior uveitis often results in floaters and vision loss. Scleritis does not have mobile vessels due to the deeper location of the injected vessels.
Understanding Episcleritis
Episcleritis is a condition that involves the sudden onset of inflammation in the episclera of one or both eyes. While the majority of cases are idiopathic, there are some associated conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease and rheumatoid arthritis. Symptoms of episcleritis include a red eye, mild pain or irritation, watering, and mild photophobia. However, unlike scleritis, episcleritis is typically not painful.
One way to differentiate between the two conditions is by applying gentle pressure on the sclera. If the injected vessels are mobile, it is likely episcleritis. In contrast, scleritis involves deeper vessels that do not move. Phenylephrine drops may also be used to distinguish between the two conditions. If the eye redness improves after phenylephrine, a diagnosis of episcleritis can be made.
Approximately 50% of cases of episcleritis are bilateral. Treatment for episcleritis is typically conservative, with artificial tears sometimes being used. Understanding the symptoms and differences between episcleritis and scleritis can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management for their eye condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 185
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman, a known type 1 diabetic, visited the GP clinic with a complaint of decreased vision. Her left eye has a vision of 6/6, while her right eye has a vision of 6/18.
Your GP placement supervisor requested you to conduct a dilated direct fundoscopy on her eyes. During the examination, you observed exudates forming a ring around a dot haemorrhage near the fovea.
What is the probable diagnosis of the patient's eye condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diabetic maculopathy
Explanation:Understanding the Different Stages of Diabetic Retinopathy
Diabetic retinopathy is a condition that affects the eyes of people with diabetes. It is caused by damage to the blood vessels in the retina, which can lead to vision loss if left untreated. There are different stages of diabetic retinopathy, each with its own set of features.
The first stage is background diabetic retinopathy, which is characterized by microaneurysms, small blot haemorrhages, hard exudates, and occasional cotton-wool spots. The next stage is pre-proliferative diabetic retinopathy, which includes intraretinal microvascular abnormalities (IRMA), venous beading or loops, clusters of large blot haemorrhages, and multiple cotton-wool spots.
Proliferative diabetic retinopathy is the most advanced stage and includes all the features of pre-proliferative retinopathy, as well as new vessels at the disc or elsewhere in the retina. Finally, proliferative diabetic retinopathy with maculopathy is when there are any features of diabetic retinopathy but existing at the macula, such as a ring of exudates and a dot haemorrhage near the fovea.
It is important for people with diabetes to have regular eye exams to detect and treat diabetic retinopathy early on. With proper management, vision loss can be prevented or minimized.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 186
Incorrect
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Which eye sign is correctly matched with its corresponding condition from the following options?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ehlers–Danlos syndrome and blue sclerae
Explanation:Ocular Signs and Systemic Diseases: A Brief Overview
Various systemic diseases can manifest ocular signs that can aid in their diagnosis. Here are some examples:
Ehlers–Danlos syndrome and blue sclerae: This genetic disorder affects collagen production and can cause the sclerae to have a blue tint.
Down syndrome and Bitot’s spots: Children with Down syndrome may have small white or greyish/brown spots on the iris called Brushfield spots. Bitot’s spots, on the other hand, are a sign of vitamin A deficiency and are collections of keratin on the anterior conjunctiva.
Haemochromatosis and Kayser–Fleischer rings: Wilson’s disease, an autosomal recessive disease in which copper accumulates in tissues, can cause a brown ring around the periphery of the cornea called Kayser–Fleischer ring.
Hypocalcaemia and band keratopathy: Hypercalcaemia can cause band keratopathy, which is visualised as bands across the centre of the cornea.
Tuberous sclerosis and Lisch nodules: Retinal hamartomas are associated with tuberous sclerosis, while Lisch nodules, pigmented nodules affecting the iris, are a sign of neurofibromatosis type 1.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 187
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl is referred to the optometrist by her GP due to her mother's concern about a squint. The optometrist diagnoses her with exotropia and offers treatment options, including intermittent eye patching. However, before any treatment can be started, the family moves to a different area and misses their follow-up appointments. The mother does not seek further attention for her daughter's exotropia.
What potential future health risks may this child be more susceptible to due to the lack of treatment for her exotropia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amblyopia
Explanation:If childhood squints are not corrected, it may result in amblyopia, also known as ‘lazy eye’. This condition is more likely to occur if the child has exotropia, where one eye deviates outward. However, it can be treated with patching. There is no increased risk of developing esotropia, hypermetropia, hypertropia, or hypotropia due to non-compliance with exotropia treatment, as these are different forms of squint.
Squint, also known as strabismus, is a condition where the visual axes are misaligned. There are two types of squints: concomitant and paralytic. Concomitant squints are more common and are caused by an imbalance in the extraocular muscles. On the other hand, paralytic squints are rare and are caused by the paralysis of extraocular muscles. It is important to detect squints early on as they can lead to amblyopia, where the brain fails to process inputs from one eye and favours the other eye over time.
To detect a squint, a corneal light reflection test can be performed by holding a light source 30cm from the child’s face to see if the light reflects symmetrically on the pupils. The cover test is also used to identify the nature of the squint. This involves asking the child to focus on an object, covering one eye, and observing the movement of the uncovered eye. The test is then repeated with the other eye covered.
If a squint is detected, it is important to refer the child to secondary care. Eye patches may also be used to help prevent amblyopia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 188
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden vision loss in her right eye. She reports experiencing painless vision loss without prior symptoms two hours ago, which has not improved. The left eye has a visual acuity of 6/12 (corrected with a pinhole), while the right eye has undetectable visual acuity. Upon fundoscopic examination, prominent retinal haemorrhages are observed. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Central retinal vein occlusion
Explanation:A sudden painless loss of vision with severe retinal haemorrhages on fundoscopy is indicative of central retinal vein occlusion. This is a common cause of monocular vision loss seen in emergency departments. Acute glaucoma, on the other hand, presents with a painful eye, fixed pupil, hazy cornea, and increased ocular pressures. Central retinal artery occlusion can be difficult to distinguish from venous occlusion, but a ‘cherry red spot’ in the macula is often seen on fundoscopy. However, the absence of this finding and the presence of retinal haemorrhages suggest that arterial occlusion is less likely in this case. Optic neuritis, which presents with eye pain and pain on eye movements, is another possible cause of vision loss.
Understanding Central Retinal Vein Occlusion
Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) is a possible cause of sudden, painless loss of vision. It is more common in older individuals and those with hypertension, cardiovascular disease, glaucoma, or polycythemia. The condition is characterized by a sudden reduction or loss of visual acuity, usually affecting only one eye. Fundoscopy reveals widespread hyperemia and severe retinal hemorrhages, which are often described as a stormy sunset.
Branch retinal vein occlusion (BRVO) is a similar condition that affects a smaller area of the fundus. It occurs when a vein in the distal retinal venous system is blocked, usually at arteriovenous crossings.
Most patients with CRVO are managed conservatively, but treatment may be necessary in some cases. For instance, intravitreal anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) agents may be used to manage macular edema, while laser photocoagulation may be necessary to treat retinal neovascularization.
Overall, understanding the risk factors, features, and management options for CRVO is essential for prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment. Proper management can help prevent further vision loss and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 189
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of itchy eyes. She reports a sensation of grittiness in both eyes and observes that they stick together in the morning. The grittiness is most severe upon waking up. She denies experiencing any other symptoms.
What is the probable diagnosis based on her presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blepharitis
Explanation:The patient is experiencing bilateral grittiness that is worse in the mornings and sticking eyelids, which is a classic symptom of blepharitis. Dry eye syndrome, which is more common in the elderly, can also cause a bilateral gritty feeling, but symptoms are typically worse at the end of the day and may be associated with pain. Cellulitis, on the other hand, would present with redness, inflammation, tenderness, and signs of infection such as fever or discharge. A basal cell carcinoma (BCC) of the eyelid may cause a gritty feeling in the eye, but it would be unilateral, not bilateral. Allergic rhinitis (hay fever) may also cause itchy eyes, but other symptoms such as sneezing, a runny nose, and an itchy nose are typically present.
Blepharitis is a condition where the eyelid margins become inflamed. This can be caused by dysfunction of the meibomian glands (posterior blepharitis) or seborrhoeic dermatitis/staphylococcal infection (anterior blepharitis). It is more common in patients with rosacea. The meibomian glands secrete oil to prevent rapid evaporation of the tear film, so any problem affecting these glands can cause dryness and irritation of the eyes. Symptoms of blepharitis are usually bilateral and include grittiness, discomfort around the eyelid margins, sticky eyes in the morning, and redness of the eyelid margins. Styes and chalazions are also more common in patients with blepharitis, and secondary conjunctivitis may occur.
Management of blepharitis involves softening the lid margin with hot compresses twice a day and practicing lid hygiene to remove debris from the lid margins. This can be done using cotton wool buds dipped in a mixture of cooled boiled water and baby shampoo or sodium bicarbonate in cooled boiled water. Artificial tears may also be given for symptom relief in people with dry eyes or an abnormal tear film.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 190
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female accountant comes to the emergency eye clinic with a painful red eye on the right side. She reports a burning sensation around the eye, sensitivity to light, and excessive tearing. Fluorescein staining reveals a linear, branching epithelial defect. She has no history of wearing contact lenses and no significant medical history. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical acyclovir
Explanation:Topical acyclovir is the treatment for herpes simplex keratitis, which presents with a painful red eye, photophobia, and abnormal fluorescein staining. Artificial tears are used for dry eyes, while topical chloramphenicol is used for bacterial conjunctivitis.
Understanding Herpes Simplex Keratitis
Herpes simplex keratitis is a condition that affects the cornea of the eye and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. The most common symptom of this condition is a dendritic corneal ulcer, which can cause a red, painful eye, photophobia, and epiphora. In some cases, visual acuity may also be decreased. Fluorescein staining may show an epithelial ulcer, which can help with diagnosis. One common treatment for this condition is topical acyclovir, which can help to reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent further damage to the cornea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 191
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner, reporting crusting of both eyelids that is more severe in the morning and accompanied by an itchy feeling. She states that she has not experienced any changes in her vision. Upon examining her eyelids, the doctor observes crusting at the eyelid edges that are inflamed and red. The conjunctivae seem normal, and the pupils react equally to light. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blepharitis
Explanation:Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms
Blepharitis: This condition presents with crusting of both eyelids, redness, swelling, and itching. It can be treated with eyelid hygiene and warm compress. If these measures are not effective, chloramphenicol ointment can be used.
Chalazion: A painless swelling or lump on the eyelid caused by a blocked gland. Patients report a red, swollen, and painful area on the eyelid, which settles within a few days but leaves behind a firm, painless swelling. Warm compresses and gentle massaging can encourage drainage.
Conjunctivitis: Patients with conjunctivitis present with conjunctival erythema, watery/discharging eye, and a gritty sensation. Most cases are self-limiting, but some patients will require topical antibiotics if symptoms have not resolved.
Entropion: This condition is when the margin of the eyelid turns inwards towards the surface of the eye, causing irritation. It is more common in elderly patients and requires surgical treatment.
Hordeolum: An acute-onset localised swelling of the eyelid margin that is painful. It is usually localised around an eyelash follicle, in which case plucking the affected eyelash can aid drainage. Styes are usually self-limiting, but eyelid hygiene and warm compress can help with resolution.
Understanding Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 192
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old male presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of left eye pain and slightly blurred vision. He has no significant medical history and does not wear glasses or contact lenses. His family history includes type 2 diabetes and Crohn's disease.
Upon examination, the patient is wearing sunglasses due to photophobia and his left eye appears red. Ophthalmoscopy is not possible due to the severity of his symptoms. A white fluid level is visible in the inferior part of the anterior chamber and his pupil is small and irregular. Based on these findings, ophthalmology is urgently consulted. What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anterior uveitis
Explanation:The patient has a medical history of a systemic condition such as rheumatoid arthritis or ankylosing spondylitis, which can lead to recurrent episodes. Although he has a family history of IBD, his symptoms do not match the typical presentation, as he does not experience a gritty sensation in his eye and his pupil does not appear abnormal.
Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. It is a common cause of red eye and is associated with HLA-B27, which may also be linked to other conditions. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small or irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness, tearing, and the presence of pus and inflammatory cells in the front part of the eye. This condition may be associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and treatment may involve the use of cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 193
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is not a recognized cause of tunnel vision?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Macular degeneration
Explanation:Understanding Tunnel Vision and Its Causes
Tunnel vision is a condition where the visual fields become smaller and more concentrated. This means that the person affected can only see what is directly in front of them, while the peripheral vision is diminished. There are several causes of tunnel vision, including papilloedema, glaucoma, retinitis pigmentosa, chorioretinitis, optic atrophy secondary to tabes dorsalis, and hysteria.
Papilloedema is a condition where there is swelling of the optic nerve head, which can cause pressure on the surrounding tissues. Glaucoma is a condition where there is damage to the optic nerve, which can lead to vision loss. Retinitis pigmentosa is a genetic disorder that affects the retina, causing progressive vision loss. Chorioretinitis is an inflammation of the choroid and retina, which can cause vision loss. Optic atrophy secondary to tabes dorsalis is a condition where there is damage to the optic nerve due to syphilis. Hysteria is a psychological condition that can cause physical symptoms, including tunnel vision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 194
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man comes to your clinic exhibiting typical symptoms of seborrhoeic dermatitis. He also reports experiencing eye itchiness. What is the most probable diagnosis to accompany seborrhoeic dermatitis in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blepharitis
Explanation:Seborrhoeic dermatitis, dry eye syndrome, and acne rosacea are conditions that may be linked to blepharitis. However, the treatment for blepharitis remains consistent, with patients advised to clean their eyelids twice daily and use a warm compress with their eyes closed for 5-10 minutes. There is no apparent reason for an elevated risk of the other conditions mentioned.
Blepharitis is a condition where the eyelid margins become inflamed. This can be caused by dysfunction of the meibomian glands (posterior blepharitis) or seborrhoeic dermatitis/staphylococcal infection (anterior blepharitis). It is more common in patients with rosacea. The meibomian glands secrete oil to prevent rapid evaporation of the tear film, so any problem affecting these glands can cause dryness and irritation of the eyes. Symptoms of blepharitis are usually bilateral and include grittiness, discomfort around the eyelid margins, sticky eyes in the morning, and redness of the eyelid margins. Styes and chalazions are also more common in patients with blepharitis, and secondary conjunctivitis may occur.
Management of blepharitis involves softening the lid margin with hot compresses twice a day and practicing lid hygiene to remove debris from the lid margins. This can be done using cotton wool buds dipped in a mixture of cooled boiled water and baby shampoo or sodium bicarbonate in cooled boiled water. Artificial tears may also be given for symptom relief in people with dry eyes or an abnormal tear film.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 195
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presented with a 5-day history of increasing pain, blurry vision and lacrimation in the left eye. He also felt a foreign body sensation in the affected eye. He had been doing some DIY work at home without wearing any goggles for the past few days prior to the onset of pain.
On examination, his visual acuities were 6/18 in the left and 6/6 in the right. The conjunctiva in the left was red. The cornea was tested with fluorescein and it showed an uptake in the centre of the cornea, which looked like a dendrite. You examined his face and noticed some small vesicles at the corner of his mouth as well.
What is the first-line treatment for this patient’s eye condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical antiviral ointment such as acyclovir
Explanation:Treatment Options for Herpes Simplex Keratitis
Herpes simplex keratitis is a condition that requires prompt and appropriate treatment to prevent complications. The most effective treatment for this condition is topical antiviral ointment, such as acyclovir 3% ointment, which should be applied for 10-14 days. Topical artificial tears and topical antibiotic drops or ointment are not indicated for this condition. In fact, the use of topical steroid drops, such as prednisolone, may worsen the ulcer and should be avoided until the corneal ulcer is healed. Therefore, it is important to seek medical attention and follow the recommended treatment plan to manage herpes simplex keratitis effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 196
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-day history of itching and watery discharge from both eyes.
On examination, the vision is 6/9 in both eyes. Both pupils are equally reactive to light. The conjunctivae are both chemosed with mild diffuse injection. The eyelids are slightly oedematous.
Her past medical history includes eczema. Her vital observations are as follows:
Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg
Heart rate 65 bpm
Respiratory rate 12
Temperature 36.7 °C
Oxygen saturation 99% on air
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Allergic conjunctivitis
Explanation:Distinguishing Different Types of Eye Infections: A Case Study
Upon examination of a patient with eye symptoms, it was determined that the presentation pointed towards the diagnosis of allergic conjunctivitis. This was due to the patient’s history of itchiness, watery discharge, slightly swollen eyelids, and atopy. It was ruled out that the patient had bacterial conjunctivitis, as it typically presents with more purulent discharges bilaterally. Orbital cellulitis was also ruled out, as the eyelids and orbit would be very swollen and red with restriction and pain in eye movements, and the vital observations were normal. Preseptal cellulitis can present with oedematous eyelids, but the eye itself should be quiet and white. While viral conjunctivitis can present with watery discharges, the patient’s history of atopy and itchiness made allergic conjunctivitis the more likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 197
Incorrect
-
A 63-year-old man visits his optician for routine screening and is discovered to have elevated intraocular pressure without any symptoms. The diagnosis of primary open-angle glaucoma is confirmed. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications. Can you identify a potential treatment and its mode of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical timolol - reduces aqueous production
Explanation:Timolol eye drops are effective in treating primary open-angle glaucoma by reducing the production of aqueous fluid in the anterior chamber. This helps to lower the intraocular pressure and prevent further fluid buildup. Other medications, such as acetazolamide, latanoprost, brimonidine, and pilocarpine, work by different mechanisms such as reducing aqueous production or increasing uveoscleral outflow. However, timolol is specifically known for its ability to reduce aqueous production and is commonly used as a first-line treatment for primary open-angle glaucoma.
Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma is a type where the iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is responsible for draining aqueous humour from the eye. This results in increased resistance to outflow and raised intraocular pressure. The condition affects 0.5% of people over 40 years old and increases with age. Genetics also play a role, with first-degree relatives having a 16% chance of developing the disease. Symptoms are usually absent, and diagnosis is made through routine eye examinations. Investigations include visual field tests, tonometry, and slit lamp examinations. Treatment involves eye drops to lower intraocular pressure, with prostaglandin analogues being the first line of treatment. Surgery may be considered in refractory cases. Regular reassessment is necessary to monitor progression and prevent visual field loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 198
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old man presents with a 5-day history of increasing pain, blurry vision and lacrimation in the left eye. He also feels a foreign body sensation in the affected eye. He has recently been swimming in an indoor swimming pool with his friends with his contact lenses on.
On examination, his visual acuity is 6/24 in the left and 6/6 in the right. The conjunctiva in the left is red. There is a white dot on the cornea, and with fluorescein, it shows an uptake in the centre of the cornea.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Microbial keratitis
Explanation:Differentiating Microbial Keratitis from Other Eye Infections
Microbial keratitis, specifically Acanthamoeba keratitis (AK), should be considered in patients who have been swimming with contact lenses. Symptoms include ocular pain, redness, blurred vision, light sensitivity, foreign body sensation, and excessive tearing. Ring-like stromal infiltrate and lid edema may also be present. AK is often confused with Herpes simplex keratitis in its early stages and with fungal keratitis or corneal ulcer in its advanced stages. Other potential eye infections, such as viral keratitis, corneal abrasion, corneal foreign body, and fungal keratitis, can be ruled out based on the patient’s history and risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 199
Incorrect
-
A 57-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of pain, redness, and tearing in her right eye for the past two weeks. She also experiences sensitivity to light. The pain is constant and dull, and it can be so intense that it wakes her up at night. The pain sometimes spreads to her jaw, neck, and head. She has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis.
During the examination, her left eye has a visual acuity of 6/6, while her right eye has a visual acuity of 6/9. The eye appears diffusely injected.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Scleritis
Explanation:Distinguishing Scleritis from Other Eye Conditions
Scleritis is a condition that causes severe, deep, and boring pain in the eye, often associated with systemic diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis, vasculitis, and sarcoidosis. Unlike episcleritis, the pain in scleritis is more intense and may be felt even when the eye moves. The eye appears diffusely red, and the globe is tender to touch. To differentiate between episcleritis and scleritis, topical phenylephrine 2.5-10% can be used, which causes the superficial episcleral vessels to blanch in episcleritis but not the deeper scleral vessels in scleritis.
Other eye conditions can be ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms. Acute angle-closure glaucoma, for example, presents with sudden, severe pain and a reduction or loss of vision, while central retinal artery occlusion causes painless vision loss. Conjunctivitis, on the other hand, causes milder pain, and episcleritis may cause teary and photophobic symptoms but is usually not associated with systemic diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 200
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old man visits his doctor with a complaint of double vision. He reports that he has developed a squint and his left eye seems to be turning inwards towards his nose. During the examination, the doctor observes that the patient is unable to move his left eye to the left and diagnoses him with a lateral rectus palsy. Which cranial nerve lesion is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abducens nerve
Explanation:Overview of Cranial Nerves and Their Functions
The human body has 12 pairs of cranial nerves that originate from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Here are brief explanations of some of the cranial nerves and their functions:
Abducens nerve: This nerve controls the lateral rectus muscle, which moves the eye outward. Damage to this nerve can cause double vision and an inability to move the eye outward.
Oculomotor nerve: This nerve controls several muscles of the eye, including those responsible for moving the eye up, down, and inward. It also controls the size of the pupil and the ability to focus. Damage to this nerve can cause the eye to be positioned downward and outward, loss of accommodation, and a dilated pupil.
Optic nerve: This nerve transmits visual information from the retina to the brain. Damage to this nerve can cause visual loss and abnormal pupillary reflexes.
Trigeminal nerve: This nerve provides sensation to the face and controls the muscles of mastication. It has three branches that control different areas of the face. Damage to this nerve can cause sensory loss or changes.
Trochlear nerve: This nerve controls the superior oblique muscle, which allows the eye to look down and in. Damage to this nerve can cause double vision, especially when looking down.
Understanding the functions of the cranial nerves can help diagnose and treat various neurological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
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Average Question Time (
Mins)