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Question 1
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A 24-year-old woman is attending her first appointment with her GP. She reports feeling healthy and has no current health concerns. However, when asked about her family medical history, she mentions that her mother and grandfather have both been diagnosed with glaucoma.
As her GP, what advice would you give her regarding glaucoma?Your Answer: He should get annual screening from age 40 years
Explanation:Individuals who have a positive family history of glaucoma are recommended to undergo annual screening from the age of 40. This is because glaucoma has a strong genetic component, and having a first-degree relative with the condition increases one’s risk. The NHS offers free examinations for those who meet this criteria. It is important to note that glaucoma often has no symptoms in its early stages, making regular screening crucial in detecting and treating the condition before it causes significant visual impairment. Opticians can typically perform these screenings.
Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) is a type of glaucoma where the peripheral iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is important in draining aqueous humour from the eye. POAG is more common in older individuals and those with a family history of the condition. It may present insidiously with symptoms such as peripheral visual field loss, decreased visual acuity, and optic disc cupping. Diagnosis is made through a series of investigations including automated perimetry, slit lamp examination, applanation tonometry, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy. It is important to assess the risk of future visual impairment based on factors such as IOP, CCT, family history, and life expectancy. Referral to an ophthalmologist is typically done through a GP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department with multiple facial lesions that appeared suddenly 24 hours ago and are painful to the touch. She experienced burning pain on her forehead a week ago. Upon examination, she has tenderness on the left side of her forehead and several 4-6mm vesicles on the left side. Hutchinson's sign is positive. What aspect of her condition necessitates an immediate evaluation by an ophthalmologist?
Your Answer: Lesions on the tip of the nose
Explanation:Hutchinson’s sign is a strong indicator of ocular involvement in shingles, characterized by vesicles extending to the tip of the nose. This patient is presenting with herpes zoster ophthalmicus, which is caused by the reactivation of herpes zoster affecting the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve. Urgent ophthalmological review is necessary due to the presence of lesions on the tip of the nose. Management involves oral antivirals and, if there is secondary inflammation of the eye, topical steroids may be given. Lesions above the eyebrow can also occur if the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve is affected, but this has no association with ocular involvement. Pain over the affected area is a common symptom preceding the eruption of the vesicles, but it is not indicative of ocular involvement. Lesions on the top eyelid can also occur if the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve is affected.
Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications
Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is a condition that occurs when the varicella-zoster virus reactivates in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It is responsible for approximately 10% of shingles cases. The main symptom of HZO is a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the eye itself. Hutchinson’s sign, a rash on the tip or side of the nose, is a strong indicator of nasociliary involvement and increases the risk of ocular involvement.
Treatment for HZO involves oral antiviral medication for 7-10 days, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset. Intravenous antivirals may be necessary for severe infections or immunocompromised patients. Topical antiviral treatment is not recommended for HZO, but topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye. Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review to prevent complications such as conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.
In summary, HZO is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It presents with a vesicular rash around the eye and may involve the eye itself. Treatment involves oral antiviral medication and urgent ophthalmology review is necessary for ocular involvement. Complications of HZO include various eye conditions, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman with a history of multiple sclerosis visits her GP complaining of issues with her right eye and right shoulder pain. Upon examination, the GP notes ptosis on the right side, a small pupil, and narrowing of the palpebral fissure with right lid lag. The left eye appears normal, and fundoscopy reveals no abnormalities. The patient has a 30-year history of smoking 30 cigarettes daily and consuming 12 units of alcohol per week. She has also been taking paracetamol and ibuprofen for her shoulder pain. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Horner's syndrome
Explanation:The patient is exhibiting symptoms consistent with Horner’s syndrome, including miosis (constricted pupil), ptosis (drooping eyelid), and enophthalmos (sunken eye). There may also be anhydrosis (lack of sweating) present. This could be indicative of a Pancoast tumor on the lung, which can infiltrate the brachial plexus and cause shoulder pain. It is important to note the patient’s smoking history in this case. Multiple sclerosis is not likely to be the cause of these symptoms. Argyll-Robertson pupil, Holmes-Adie pupil, and oculomotor nerve palsy are not applicable to this case.
Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.
Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.
There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 68-year-old man is referred to Ophthalmology with bilateral cataracts. He reports gradual worsening of his vision over many years and struggles with night-time driving due to glare. He is put on the waiting list for surgical repair.
What structure in the eye is affected by cataract formation?Your Answer: Lens
Explanation:Anatomy of the Eye: Understanding the Different Parts and Their Disorders
The eye is a complex organ that allows us to see the world around us. It is made up of several parts, each with its own function. Understanding the anatomy of the eye and the disorders that can affect it is important for maintaining good eye health.
Lens: The lens is a transparent structure located behind the pupil and iris. It helps to focus light onto the retina. Cataracts occur when the lens becomes cloudy or opaque, causing vision problems.
Cornea: The cornea is the clear dome-shaped surface of the eye that sits over the iris. It plays a role in refracting light. Damage to the cornea can cause pain and light sensitivity.
Iris: The iris is the colored part of the eye. It can be affected by disorders such as uveitis, which causes inflammation of the uvea (iris, ciliary body, and choroid).
Retina: The retina is located at the back of the eye and contains rods and cones that process incoming light. Disorders of the retina include retinitis pigmentosa, diabetic retinopathy, and retinal detachment.
Sclera: The sclera is the white part of the eye. Disorders of the sclera include scleritis, which causes redness, pain, and reduced visual acuity. It can be associated with rheumatoid arthritis.
Understanding the different parts of the eye and their functions can help you identify potential problems and seek treatment early. Regular eye exams are important for maintaining good eye health and preventing vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 14-year-old boy with a family history of short-sightedness visits his General Practice Clinic, reporting difficulty seeing distant objects. He is interested in the underlying pathophysiology of his condition as he is passionate about science. What is the most appropriate explanation for the pathophysiology of his myopia?
Your Answer: Increased axial length of the eye, meaning the focal point is anterior to the retina
Explanation:Understanding Refractive Errors: Causes and Effects
Refractive errors are common vision problems that occur when the shape of the eye prevents light from focusing properly on the retina. This can result in blurry vision at various distances. Here are some common types of refractive errors and their effects:
Myopia: This occurs when the axial length of the eye is increased, causing the focal point to be anterior to the retina. Myopia gives clear close vision but blurry far vision.
Hyperopia: This occurs when the axial length of the eye is reduced, causing the focal point to be posterior to the retina. Hyperopia results in blurry close vision but clear far vision.
Astigmatism: This occurs when the cornea has an abnormal curvature, resulting in two or more focal points that can be anterior and/or posterior to the retina. Astigmatism hinders refraction and leads to blurred vision at all distances.
Understanding the causes and effects of refractive errors can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and improve their vision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 48-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of vision problems. He has been experiencing difficulty while driving for the past few months, as he is unable to see cars approaching him from the sides of his vision. He suspects that this may also be the cause of his occasional headaches, but he does not report any pain around his eyes or any current headache. The patient has a history of peripheral vascular disease, type II diabetes, and short-sightedness, and he often neglects to wear his glasses. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Primary open-angle glaucoma
Explanation:The patient is likely suffering from primary open-angle glaucoma, which causes gradual loss of peripheral vision. This is supported by the patient’s symptoms and risk factors, such as diabetes and myopia. The headaches are likely due to eye strain from not wearing glasses. Acute angle-closure glaucoma, age-related macular degeneration, and cataracts are unlikely causes as they present with different symptoms and risk factors.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.
To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.
In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 7
Correct
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An 82-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden vision loss in her right eye. She reports experiencing painless vision loss without prior symptoms two hours ago, which has not improved. The left eye has a visual acuity of 6/12 (corrected with a pinhole), while the right eye has undetectable visual acuity. Upon fundoscopic examination, prominent retinal haemorrhages are observed. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Central retinal vein occlusion
Explanation:A sudden painless loss of vision with severe retinal haemorrhages on fundoscopy is indicative of central retinal vein occlusion. This is a common cause of monocular vision loss seen in emergency departments. Acute glaucoma, on the other hand, presents with a painful eye, fixed pupil, hazy cornea, and increased ocular pressures. Central retinal artery occlusion can be difficult to distinguish from venous occlusion, but a ‘cherry red spot’ in the macula is often seen on fundoscopy. However, the absence of this finding and the presence of retinal haemorrhages suggest that arterial occlusion is less likely in this case. Optic neuritis, which presents with eye pain and pain on eye movements, is another possible cause of vision loss.
Understanding Central Retinal Vein Occlusion
Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) is a possible cause of sudden, painless loss of vision. It is more common in older individuals and those with hypertension, cardiovascular disease, glaucoma, or polycythemia. The condition is characterized by a sudden reduction or loss of visual acuity, usually affecting only one eye. Fundoscopy reveals widespread hyperemia and severe retinal hemorrhages, which are often described as a stormy sunset.
Branch retinal vein occlusion (BRVO) is a similar condition that affects a smaller area of the fundus. It occurs when a vein in the distal retinal venous system is blocked, usually at arteriovenous crossings.
Most patients with CRVO are managed conservatively, but treatment may be necessary in some cases. For instance, intravitreal anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) agents may be used to manage macular edema, while laser photocoagulation may be necessary to treat retinal neovascularization.
Overall, understanding the risk factors, features, and management options for CRVO is essential for prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment. Proper management can help prevent further vision loss and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of itchy eyes. She reports a sensation of grittiness in both eyes and observes that they stick together in the morning. The grittiness is most severe upon waking up. She denies experiencing any other symptoms.
What is the probable diagnosis based on her presentation?Your Answer: Blepharitis
Explanation:The patient is experiencing bilateral grittiness that is worse in the mornings and sticking eyelids, which is a classic symptom of blepharitis. Dry eye syndrome, which is more common in the elderly, can also cause a bilateral gritty feeling, but symptoms are typically worse at the end of the day and may be associated with pain. Cellulitis, on the other hand, would present with redness, inflammation, tenderness, and signs of infection such as fever or discharge. A basal cell carcinoma (BCC) of the eyelid may cause a gritty feeling in the eye, but it would be unilateral, not bilateral. Allergic rhinitis (hay fever) may also cause itchy eyes, but other symptoms such as sneezing, a runny nose, and an itchy nose are typically present.
Blepharitis is a condition where the eyelid margins become inflamed. This can be caused by dysfunction of the meibomian glands (posterior blepharitis) or seborrhoeic dermatitis/staphylococcal infection (anterior blepharitis). It is more common in patients with rosacea. The meibomian glands secrete oil to prevent rapid evaporation of the tear film, so any problem affecting these glands can cause dryness and irritation of the eyes. Symptoms of blepharitis are usually bilateral and include grittiness, discomfort around the eyelid margins, sticky eyes in the morning, and redness of the eyelid margins. Styes and chalazions are also more common in patients with blepharitis, and secondary conjunctivitis may occur.
Management of blepharitis involves softening the lid margin with hot compresses twice a day and practicing lid hygiene to remove debris from the lid margins. This can be done using cotton wool buds dipped in a mixture of cooled boiled water and baby shampoo or sodium bicarbonate in cooled boiled water. Artificial tears may also be given for symptom relief in people with dry eyes or an abnormal tear film.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of pain in her left eye. She reports no sensitivity to light and no vision problems. She denies any past eye injuries or diseases. She has been managing her diabetes through diet alone for the past two years. During the examination, the eye is found to be red and tender to the touch.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Urgent and immediate referral to ophthalmic surgeon
Explanation:Management of a Patient with a Painful Red Eye and Diabetes
When managing a patient with a painful red eye and diabetes, it is important to consider the potential causes and appropriate interventions. Urgent referral to an ophthalmic surgeon is necessary if there is suspicion of acute closed-angle glaucoma, which is more common in diabetic patients. Referring the patient back to the diabetic clinic would not be appropriate in this case. Chloramphenicol drops are not indicated unless there is evidence of an infection. Oral flucloxacillin and eye swabs are not necessary unless there is suspicion of skin infection or bacterial conjunctivitis. Reassuring the patient and providing eye lubrication without addressing the underlying cause would be negligent. Prompt and appropriate management is crucial in preventing vision loss in diabetic patients with a painful red eye.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 28-year-old man presents with a 5-day history of increasing pain, blurry vision and lacrimation in the left eye. He also feels a foreign body sensation in the affected eye. He has recently been swimming in an indoor swimming pool with his friends with his contact lenses on.
On examination, his visual acuity is 6/24 in the left and 6/6 in the right. The conjunctiva in the left is red. There is a white dot on the cornea, and with fluorescein, it shows an uptake in the centre of the cornea.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Microbial keratitis
Explanation:Differentiating Microbial Keratitis from Other Eye Infections
Microbial keratitis, specifically Acanthamoeba keratitis (AK), should be considered in patients who have been swimming with contact lenses. Symptoms include ocular pain, redness, blurred vision, light sensitivity, foreign body sensation, and excessive tearing. Ring-like stromal infiltrate and lid edema may also be present. AK is often confused with Herpes simplex keratitis in its early stages and with fungal keratitis or corneal ulcer in its advanced stages. Other potential eye infections, such as viral keratitis, corneal abrasion, corneal foreign body, and fungal keratitis, can be ruled out based on the patient’s history and risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner, reporting crusting of both eyelids that is more severe in the morning and accompanied by an itchy feeling. She states that she has not experienced any changes in her vision. Upon examining her eyelids, the doctor observes crusting at the eyelid edges that are inflamed and red. The conjunctivae seem normal, and the pupils react equally to light. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Blepharitis
Explanation:Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms
Blepharitis: This condition presents with crusting of both eyelids, redness, swelling, and itching. It can be treated with eyelid hygiene and warm compress. If these measures are not effective, chloramphenicol ointment can be used.
Chalazion: A painless swelling or lump on the eyelid caused by a blocked gland. Patients report a red, swollen, and painful area on the eyelid, which settles within a few days but leaves behind a firm, painless swelling. Warm compresses and gentle massaging can encourage drainage.
Conjunctivitis: Patients with conjunctivitis present with conjunctival erythema, watery/discharging eye, and a gritty sensation. Most cases are self-limiting, but some patients will require topical antibiotics if symptoms have not resolved.
Entropion: This condition is when the margin of the eyelid turns inwards towards the surface of the eye, causing irritation. It is more common in elderly patients and requires surgical treatment.
Hordeolum: An acute-onset localised swelling of the eyelid margin that is painful. It is usually localised around an eyelash follicle, in which case plucking the affected eyelash can aid drainage. Styes are usually self-limiting, but eyelid hygiene and warm compress can help with resolution.
Understanding Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 67-year-old man presents to the eye clinic with a 12-hour history of flashers and floaters in his left eye. The patient denies any other vision problems and is in good health, except for a history of hypertension, ischaemic heart disease, and bilateral cataracts. He lives alone, does not smoke, and wears glasses. On examination of the left eye using a slit lamp, a small tear is observed in the inferior part of the retina, with the surrounding area appearing crinkled. What is the primary risk factor associated with this condition?
Your Answer: Myopia
Explanation:Retinal detachment can be caused by various risk factors, including diabetes mellitus, ageing, previous eye surgery, eye trauma, and myopia. In this case, a 73-year-old man presented with flashers and floaters in his right eye, which were indicative of retinal detachment. Myopia, which is characterized by an elongated eyeball, can increase the tension on the retina and is therefore a risk factor for this condition. It is important to note that blocked trabecular meshwork, cataract formation, and hyperopia are not associated with retinal detachment.
Retinal detachment is a condition where the tissue at the back of the eye separates from the underlying pigment epithelium. This can cause vision loss, but if detected and treated early, it can be reversible. Risk factors for retinal detachment include diabetes, myopia, age, previous cataract surgery, and eye trauma. Symptoms may include new onset floaters or flashes, sudden painless visual field loss, and reduced peripheral and central vision. If the macula is involved, visual outcomes can be much worse. Diagnosis is made through fundoscopy, which may show retinal folds or a lost red reflex. Urgent referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary for assessment and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman, a known type 1 diabetic, was asked to attend the General Practice (GP) Surgery for her results in the diabetic retinopathy screening.
You asked your GP supervisor if you can examine her eyes so that you can get signed off for using a direct ophthalmoscope. You found out that she had some dot-and-blot haemorrhages in her right eye with some venous looping and beading in the peripheral retina.
What is the next step in management for this patient's eye condition?Your Answer: Routine referral to ophthalmology
Explanation:Appropriate Management Plan for Pre-Proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy
Pre-proliferative diabetic retinopathy requires routine referral to ophthalmology as the appropriate management plan. The waiting time for this referral is usually less than 13 weeks. Observation every 4-6 months is the usual management plan, and pan-retinal photocoagulation is only necessary in selected cases, such as in the only eye where the first eye was lost to proliferative diabetic retinopathy or prior to cataract surgery. Referring to an optometrist for a regular eye test is not appropriate for any type of diabetic retinopathy. Annual screening is only appropriate if there is none or background retinopathy. Fast-track referral to ophthalmology is only necessary if there are signs of proliferative retinopathy. Pan-retinal laser photocoagulation is not necessary in pre-proliferative retinopathy and is not the immediate next step in management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 75-year-old male with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents for his annual diabetic eye screening. He was previously diagnosed with mild nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR) when micro-aneurysms were observed during retinal examination. However, during this visit, cotton wool spots are also detected in both eyes. What is the underlying pathophysiology of this new discovery?
Your Answer: Pre-capillary arteriolar occlusion
Explanation:Cotton wool spots in diabetic retinopathy are caused by pre-capillary arteriolar occlusion, leading to retinal infarction. This is the reason why the patient is presenting with new cotton wool spots, indicating the progression of their NPDR. Central retinal vein occlusion, lipid deposition in the retina, and thickening of the walls of retinal arterioles are not the underlying causes of cotton wool spots in diabetic retinopathy.
Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy
Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.
Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.
Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for nonproliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 67-year-old patient on your morning telephone appointment list reports a painful watering left eye after mowing the lawn. His daughter can see a grass seed visibly stuck near his cornea. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Refer to ophthalmology immediately for assessment that day
Explanation:If a patient has an organic foreign body in their eye, such as a grass seed, it is crucial to refer them immediately to ophthalmology for assessment due to the risk of infection. The removal of the foreign body should also be done on the same day as the assessment to prevent further complications. This is especially important in cases where the injury was caused by high-velocity objects, such as during grass cutting. Attempting to remove the foreign body in primary care or delaying the removal to the following day is not recommended as it may increase the risk of infection and prolong the patient’s discomfort. It is essential to seek specialist care to ensure proper treatment and avoid any potential complications.
A corneal foreign body can cause eye pain, a sensation of something being in the eye, sensitivity to light, watering, and redness. If the injury was caused by high-velocity objects or sharp items, or if there is significant trauma to the eye or surrounding area, it is important to refer the patient to an ophthalmologist. If a chemical injury has occurred, the eye should be irrigated for 20-30 minutes before referral. Foreign bodies made of organic material, such as seeds or soil, also require referral due to a higher risk of infection and complications. If the foreign body is located in or near the center of the cornea, or if there are any red flags such as severe pain, irregular pupils, or reduced vision, referral is necessary. For more information on management, please refer to Clinical Knowledge Summaries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 40-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with multiple sclerosis presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with blurring of her vision and pain on eye movement. The GP suspects that she may have optic neuritis.
Which of the following signs is most likely to be present on examination?Your Answer: Reduced colour vision
Explanation:Signs and Symptoms of Optic Neuritis
Optic neuritis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the optic nerve, often associated with demyelinating diseases like multiple sclerosis. One of the signs of optic neuritis is reduced color vision in the affected eye. Other symptoms may include decreased pupillary light reaction, relative afferent pupillary defect, reduced visual acuity, visual field defects, swollen optic disc, and pain on eye movements. However, optic neuritis is not associated with increased intraocular pressure, erythema, or vesicles around the affected eye. It is important to differentiate optic neuritis from other eye conditions to provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 68-year-old male with dry age-related macular degeneration is evaluated. Regrettably, his vision has worsened in the last six months. He has never smoked and is currently using antioxidant supplements. What would be the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Explain no other medical therapies currently available
Explanation:Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.
To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.
In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 30-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of a severe throbbing headache that is most intense in the morning. Despite taking paracetamol, the symptoms have persisted for several weeks. She also experiences vomiting in the mornings and has noticed blurry vision. Upon examination, her pupils are equal and reactive, and there are no abnormalities in her systemic examination. What would you anticipate observing during fundoscopy?
Your Answer: Blurring of optic disc margin
Explanation:Papilloedema is characterized by a blurry appearance of the optic disc margin during fundoscopy.
The patient in question is experiencing elevated intracranial pressure, the cause of which is uncertain. Their symptoms, including a morning headache, vision impairment, and vomiting, are indicative of papilloedema. As such, it is expected that their fundoscopy would reveal signs of this condition, such as a blurred optic disc margin.
Other potential indicators of papilloedema include a loss of optic cup and venous pulsation. However, increased arterial reflex is more commonly associated with hypertensive retinopathy, while retinal pigmentation is a hallmark of retinitis pigmentosa.
Understanding Papilloedema: Optic Disc Swelling Caused by Increased Intracranial Pressure
Papilloedema is a condition characterized by swelling of the optic disc due to increased pressure within the skull. This condition is typically bilateral and can be identified through fundoscopy. During this examination, venous engorgement is usually the first sign observed, followed by loss of venous pulsation, blurring of the optic disc margin, elevation of the optic disc, loss of the optic cup, and the presence of Paton’s lines, which are concentric or radial retinal lines cascading from the optic disc.
There are several potential causes of papilloedema, including space-occupying lesions such as tumors or vascular abnormalities, malignant hypertension, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, hydrocephalus, and hypercapnia. In rare cases, papilloedema may also be caused by hypoparathyroidism and hypocalcaemia, or vitamin A toxicity.
Overall, understanding papilloedema is important for identifying potential underlying conditions and providing appropriate treatment to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with sudden vision loss, redness, and pain in her left eye. She reports experiencing some discomfort and redness earlier in the day, which worsened over the next two hours. She has no history of trauma or other visual problems. Her medical history includes osteoarthritis, left eye cataract surgery three days ago, and no significant family history.
Upon examination, the left eye appears hyperemic with hypopyon, and eye movements are painful. Visual acuity is severely impaired, while the right eye appears normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Anterior uveitis
Correct Answer: Endophthalmitis
Explanation:Post-operative endophthalmitis is a rare but serious complication that can occur after cataract surgery and requires immediate treatment.
If a patient experiences sudden pain, redness, and vision loss shortly after eye surgery, it may indicate post-operative endophthalmitis. This infection affects the aqueous and vitreous humor of the eye and is a rare complication of any eye surgery.
While anterior uveitis can also cause a painful red eye, it is less likely in this case due to the patient’s history of cataract surgery. Additionally, there is no mention of an irregularly-shaped pupil or any systemic disease associated with anterior uveitis.
A corneal ulcer is another possibility, but it typically presents with a sensation of a foreign body in the eye and discharge. It is also more common in contact lens wearers who have been exposed to water.
Retinal detachment is less likely because it usually causes visual disturbances such as floaters, flashes of light, and a curtain descending over the peripheral visual field. Although ocular surgery is a risk factor for retinal detachment, it would not cause the intense redness and hypopyon seen in post-operative endophthalmitis.
Understanding Cataracts: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
A cataract is a common eye condition that affects the lens of the eye, causing it to become cloudy and reducing the amount of light that reaches the retina. This can lead to blurred or reduced vision, making it difficult to see clearly. Cataracts are more common in women and tend to increase in incidence with age. While the normal ageing process is the most common cause, other factors such as smoking, alcohol consumption, trauma, diabetes, and long-term corticosteroid use can also contribute to the development of cataracts.
Symptoms of cataracts include reduced vision, faded colour vision, glare, and halos around lights. A defect in the red reflex is also a sign of cataracts. Diagnosis is typically made through ophthalmoscopy and slit-lamp examination, which can reveal the presence of a visible cataract.
In the early stages, age-related cataracts can be managed conservatively with stronger glasses or contact lenses and brighter lighting. However, surgery is the only effective treatment for cataracts and involves removing the cloudy lens and replacing it with an artificial one. Referral for surgery should be based on the presence of visual impairment, impact on quality of life, and patient choice. Complications following surgery can include posterior capsule opacification, retinal detachment, posterior capsule rupture, and endophthalmitis.
Overall, cataracts are a common and treatable eye condition that can significantly impact a person’s vision. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and management options can help individuals make informed decisions about their eye health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man presents with complaints of blurred vision. Upon fundoscopy, drusen, retinal epithelial changes, and macular neovascularisation are noted. The clinician suspects age-related macular degeneration. What would be the most suitable follow-up investigation?
Your Answer: Vitreous fluid sampling
Correct Answer: Fluorescein angiography
Explanation:Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.
To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.
In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with increasing redness and swelling around her left eye over the past 48 hours. During the examination, she reports pain and double vision when her eye movements are assessed. There is also tenderness and erythema over the left eyelid. Her temperature is 38°C. Based on the probable diagnosis, what is the most suitable course of treatment?
Your Answer: Warm compresses
Correct Answer: Intravenous cefotaxime
Explanation:Orbital cellulitis can be distinguished from preseptal cellulitis by the presence of symptoms such as reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and pain when moving the eyes. If a person experiences painful eye movements and visual disturbances along with a red, swollen, and tender eye, it is a cause for concern and may indicate orbital cellulitis. In such cases, it is crucial to administer urgent empirical intravenous antibiotics that cover gram-positive and anaerobic organisms, such as Intravenous cefotaxime or clindamycin. On the other hand, preseptal cellulitis can be managed with oral co-amoxiclav and close monitoring. Unlike orbital cellulitis, preseptal cellulitis does not cause painful eye movements or visual disturbances and is less likely to cause fever.
In rare cases, subperiosteal or orbital abscess may complicate orbital cellulitis, leading to symptoms such as proptosis, headache (facial, throbbing), and reduced visual acuity. In such cases, surgical drainage may be necessary, but intravenous empirical antibiotics would still be an essential part of the treatment. It is worth noting that these conditions are more likely to occur as a complication of sinusitis rather than orbital cellulitis.
Bacterial keratitis, which is more common in contact lens users, can be treated with topical ciprofloxacin. This condition presents with symptoms such as eye pain, watering, and photophobia but does not cause eyelid swelling, diplopia, or fever.
Understanding Orbital Cellulitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Orbital cellulitis is a serious infection that affects the fat and muscles behind the orbital septum within the orbit, but not the globe. It is commonly caused by upper respiratory tract infections that spread from the sinuses and can lead to a high mortality rate. On the other hand, periorbital cellulitis is a less severe infection that occurs in the superficial tissues anterior to the orbital septum. However, it can progress to orbital cellulitis if left untreated.
Risk factors for orbital cellulitis include childhood, previous sinus infections, lack of Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccination, recent eyelid infections or insect bites, and ear or facial infections. Symptoms of orbital cellulitis include redness and swelling around the eye, severe ocular pain, visual disturbance, proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, eyelid edema, and ptosis. In rare cases, meningeal involvement can cause drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting.
To differentiate between orbital and preseptal cellulitis, doctors look for reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and ophthalmoplegia, which are not consistent with preseptal cellulitis. Full blood count and clinical examination involving complete ophthalmological assessment are necessary to determine the severity of the infection. CT with contrast can also help identify inflammation of the orbital tissues deep to the septum and sinusitis. Blood culture and microbiological swab are also necessary to determine the organism causing the infection.
Management of orbital cellulitis requires hospital admission for IV antibiotics. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent senior review. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and reduce the risk of mortality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old woman is presenting with a complaint of deteriorating vision that has been gradually worsening over the past few years. Upon examination, cataracts are evident in both eyes, but her best corrected visual acuity is only slightly diminished at 6/9. She has no prior history of eye problems.
What is the most suitable course of action for management?Your Answer: Reassure and monitor for progression
Correct Answer: Referral for cataract surgery
Explanation:It is important to note that rationing cataract removal operations based on visual acuity is not recommended according to NICE guidelines. Delaying surgery can lead to increased risks of falls and other complications, making cataract surgery a cost-effective solution. Although cataracts are not an urgent issue, delaying surgery is not a wise decision. Additionally, it is important to note that corticosteroids are a cause of cataracts, not a treatment.
Understanding Cataracts: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
A cataract is a common eye condition that affects the lens of the eye, causing it to become cloudy and reducing the amount of light that reaches the retina. This can lead to blurred or reduced vision, making it difficult to see clearly. Cataracts are more common in women and tend to increase in incidence with age. While the normal ageing process is the most common cause, other factors such as smoking, alcohol consumption, trauma, diabetes, and long-term corticosteroid use can also contribute to the development of cataracts.
Symptoms of cataracts include reduced vision, faded colour vision, glare, and halos around lights. A defect in the red reflex is also a sign of cataracts. Diagnosis is typically made through ophthalmoscopy and slit-lamp examination, which can reveal the presence of a visible cataract.
In the early stages, age-related cataracts can be managed conservatively with stronger glasses or contact lenses and brighter lighting. However, surgery is the only effective treatment for cataracts and involves removing the cloudy lens and replacing it with an artificial one. Referral for surgery should be based on the presence of visual impairment, impact on quality of life, and patient choice. Complications following surgery can include posterior capsule opacification, retinal detachment, posterior capsule rupture, and endophthalmitis.
Overall, cataracts are a common and treatable eye condition that can significantly impact a person’s vision. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and management options can help individuals make informed decisions about their eye health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 72-year-old myopic man with a history of hypertension arrives at the clinic complaining of a sudden, painless decrease in his vision. He reports a dense shadow obstructing his left eye, which began in the periphery and has advanced towards the center of his vision.
During the examination, he can only perceive hand movements in his left eye, while his right eye has a visual acuity of 6/6. What is the probable reason for the vision loss?Your Answer: Retinal detachment
Explanation:Retinal detachment is a condition that can cause sudden and painless loss of vision. It is characterized by a dense shadow that starts from the periphery and progresses towards the center of the visual field.
Central retinal artery occlusion, on the other hand, is caused by a blockage of blood flow due to thromboembolism or arthritis. This condition can also cause sudden and painless loss of vision, but it does not typically present with a peripheral-to-central progression. Instead, it is characterized by an afferent pupillary defect and a cherry red spot on a pale retina.
Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and is often seen in older patients, particularly those with glaucoma. This condition can also cause sudden and painless loss of vision, but it can affect any venous territory and is associated with severe retinal hemorrhages.
Retinal detachment is often seen in people with myopia and can be preceded by flashes and floaters. It typically presents with a shadow in the visual field that starts from the periphery and progresses towards the center.
Optic neuritis can also cause sudden visual loss, but this is usually temporary and is often accompanied by painful eye movement.
Vitreous hemorrhage, on the other hand, causes a dark spot in the visual field where the hemorrhage is located, rather than a shadow that progresses towards the center.
Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arthritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.
Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arthritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.
Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of an increasingly painful and swollen left eye. He complains of blurring of vision and pain, especially with eye movements.
On examination, visual acuity is 6/18 in the left and 6/6 in the right. The periorbital area of the left eye is very swollen and erythematosus. The eye itself is red and proptosed. The conjunctiva is chemosed. Eye movements in the left eye are quite restricted in all directions. There is relative afferent pupillary defect on the left. Fundoscopy shows a swollen optic disc in the left eye. Computed tomography (CT) scan shows some opacities in the ethmoid sinuses.
Vital observations are as follows:
Blood pressure 120/70 mmHg
Heart rate 75 bpm
Respiratory rate 18 per minute
Oxygen saturation 98% on air
Temperature 37.9 °C
What is the definitive treatment for this eye problem?Your Answer: Cefuroxime and metronidazole IV
Correct Answer: Drainage of the ethmoid sinuses
Explanation:Treatment Options for Ethmoidal Sinusitis and Orbital Cellulitis
Ethmoidal sinusitis is a common cause of orbital cellulitis, which requires prompt treatment to prevent complications. The most effective treatment for ethmoidal sinusitis is surgical drainage of the sinuses to remove the pus and debris. Antibiotics are also necessary to aid recovery, but they should be administered after the drainage procedure.
While there are several antibiotics that can be used to treat orbital cellulitis, such as cefuroxime, metronidazole, co-amoxiclav, and Tazocin®, they are not sufficient to address the underlying cause of the condition. Therefore, drainage of the ethmoid sinuses is the definitive treatment for ethmoidal sinusitis and orbital cellulitis.
In summary, the treatment options for ethmoidal sinusitis and orbital cellulitis include surgical drainage of the sinuses followed by antibiotics. Antibiotics alone are not enough to treat the condition, and the choice of antibiotic may vary depending on the patient’s age and other factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl visits her GP complaining of a swollen left eye. She noticed it while playing outside in the park. Her mother is concerned because she is having difficulty reading her books. The girl has no medical history, and this has never happened before.
During the examination, the left eyelid is warm and red, and the eye seems to be bulging. The girl's eye movements are limited in all directions. The right eye appears normal. Her heart rate is 120 beats/minute, and her temperature is 37.9ºC.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute mastoiditis
Correct Answer: Orbital cellulitis
Explanation:Orbital cellulitis can be distinguished from preseptal cellulitis based on the presence of reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and pain with eye movements. This classic presentation is accompanied by fever and tachycardia, indicating an infection. While preseptal cellulitis can also cause a swollen eye, it does not result in the same symptoms as orbital cellulitis. Other conditions, such as minimal change disease, mastoiditis, and bilateral periorbital edema, may cause swelling and fever, but they do not typically result in unilateral swelling with restricted eye movements and raised temperature.
Understanding Orbital Cellulitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Orbital cellulitis is a serious infection that affects the fat and muscles behind the orbital septum within the orbit, but not the globe. It is commonly caused by upper respiratory tract infections that spread from the sinuses and can lead to a high mortality rate. On the other hand, periorbital cellulitis is a less severe infection that occurs in the superficial tissues anterior to the orbital septum. However, it can progress to orbital cellulitis if left untreated.
Risk factors for orbital cellulitis include childhood, previous sinus infections, lack of Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccination, recent eyelid infections or insect bites, and ear or facial infections. Symptoms of orbital cellulitis include redness and swelling around the eye, severe ocular pain, visual disturbance, proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, eyelid edema, and ptosis. In rare cases, meningeal involvement can cause drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting.
To differentiate between orbital and preseptal cellulitis, doctors look for reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and ophthalmoplegia, which are not consistent with preseptal cellulitis. Full blood count and clinical examination involving complete ophthalmological assessment are necessary to determine the severity of the infection. CT with contrast can also help identify inflammation of the orbital tissues deep to the septum and sinusitis. Blood culture and microbiological swab are also necessary to determine the organism causing the infection.
Management of orbital cellulitis requires hospital admission for IV antibiotics. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent senior review. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and reduce the risk of mortality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 53-year-old male presents to the acute medical admissions unit with a one-day history of left-sided headache, retro-orbital pain, and dull facial pain on the left side. He has a medical history of hypertension and migraine and is currently taking ramipril 2.5mg. Upon examination, he displays partial ptosis and enophthalmos of the left eye, with anisocoria and miosis of the same eye. His visual acuity is 6/6 in both eyes, and the rest of his neurological exam is unremarkable, with normal sweating bilaterally. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer: Carotid artery dissection
Explanation:Horner’s syndrome is a condition that typically presents with ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis on the same side of the body. The degree of anhidrosis can help determine the location of the lesion along the sympathetic pathway. In cases where anhidrosis is absent, it may indicate a postganglionic lesion, such as in the case of carotid artery dissection. This condition can cause a partial Horner’s syndrome with ptosis and miosis, but without anhidrosis. While this is a rare presentation of carotid artery dissection, it is important to recognize to prevent further neurological complications, such as an ischemic stroke. Preganglionic lesions, such as a cervical rib or Pancoast tumor, can cause anhidrosis of just the face, while central lesions, such as a stroke or syringomyelia, can cause anhidrosis of the head, arm, and trunk in addition to ptosis and miosis.
Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.
Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.
There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 27
Correct
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Please rewrite the question while maintaining the paragraph structure.
Your Answer: Left homonymous scotoma – right occipital cortex
Explanation:Understanding Visual Field Defects and their Corresponding Brain Lesions
Visual field defects can occur due to various brain lesions. The location of the lesion determines the type of visual field defect. Here are some examples:
– Left homonymous scotoma – right occipital cortex: If the tip of the occipital cortex is affected, it can cause a contralateral scotoma, affecting the central vision. However, if the whole occipital lobe is affected, it will cause a homonymous hemianopia.
– Bitemporal hemianopia – optic chiasm: Bitemporal hemianopia occurs with a lesion of the optic chiasm, not the occipital cortex.
– Right superior homonymous quadrantanopia – left temporal cortex: Superior quadrantanopia occurs with temporal lesions, not parietal lesions.
– Left inferior homonymous quadrantanopia – right parietal cortex: Inferior quadrantanopia occurs with parietal lesions, not temporal lesions.
– Right monocular anopia – right optic nerve injury: Monocular anopia occurs with damage to the optic nerve on that same side, rather than damage to the occipital cortex.Understanding the relationship between visual field defects and their corresponding brain lesions can aid in diagnosis and treatment of neurological conditions affecting vision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden painless loss of vision on the left side. He reports experiencing dark 'floaters' in his vision and a 'red hue' before losing vision completely on the affected side. The symptoms were most severe when lying flat. The patient has a medical history of poorly controlled type 1 diabetes, proliferative diabetic retinopathy, hypertension, and a metallic aortic valve for which he takes warfarin. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Posterior vitreous detachment
Correct Answer: Vitreous haemorrhage
Explanation:Vitreous haemorrhage should be considered as a possible cause of sudden visual loss in diabetic patients. This patient’s symptoms, including painless loss of vision with floaters and a red hue, are typical of vitreous haemorrhage. The worsening of symptoms when lying flat is also consistent with this diagnosis. The patient has several risk factors for vitreous haemorrhage, such as proliferative retinal disease, hypertension, and anticoagulant use.
Acute angle-closure glaucoma, which presents with painful loss of vision, red-eye, halos around lights, and a semi-dilated non-reactive pupil, is less likely in this case as the patient denies pain and there is no mention of a red eye.
Central retinal vein occlusion is unlikely as it does not typically present with floaters and a red hue preceding sudden loss of vision. Additionally, symptoms would not worsen when lying flat.
Posterior vitreous detachment, which presents with flashes of light and floaters in the peripheral field of vision, does not cause loss of sight.
Understanding Vitreous Haemorrhage
Vitreous haemorrhage is a condition where there is bleeding into the vitreous humour, which can cause sudden painless loss of vision. This disruption to vision can range from floaters to complete visual loss. The bleeding can come from any vessel in the retina or extend through the retina from other areas. Once the bleeding stops, the blood is typically cleared from the retina at a rate of approximately 1% per day.
The incidence of spontaneous vitreous haemorrhage is around 7 cases per 100,000 patient-years. The incidence by age and sex varies according to the underlying causes. The most common causes, which collectively account for 90% of cases, include proliferative diabetic retinopathy, posterior vitreous detachment, and ocular trauma (which is the most common cause in children and young adults).
Patients with vitreous haemorrhage typically present with an acute or subacute onset of painless visual loss or haze, a red hue in the vision, or floaters or shadows/dark spots in the vision. Signs of the condition include decreased visual acuity (depending on the location, size, and degree of vitreous haemorrhage) and visual field defects if the haemorrhage is severe.
Investigations for vitreous haemorrhage include dilated fundoscopy, slit-lamp examination, ultrasound (useful to rule out retinal tear/detachment and if haemorrhage obscures the retina), fluorescein angiography (to identify neovascularization), and orbital CT (used if open globe injury is suspected).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 22-year-old woman, who is a known type 1 diabetic, visited the GP clinic with a complaint of decreased vision. Her left eye has a vision of 6/6, while her right eye has a vision of 6/18.
Your GP placement supervisor has requested you to conduct a dilated direct fundoscopy on her eyes. During the examination, you observed exudates forming a ring around a dot haemorrhage near the fovea.
What is the initial treatment for this eye condition?Your Answer: Anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) intravitreal injection
Explanation:Treatment Options for Diabetic Maculopathy
Diabetic maculopathy is a condition that affects the retina and can lead to vision loss. There are several treatment options available to manage this condition, including anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) intravitreal injection, focal laser photocoagulation, community diabetic eye screening, increase daily insulin dose, and pan-retinal photocoagulation.
Anti-VEGF intravitreal injection is a first-line treatment that works by stopping abnormal blood vessels from leaking, growing, and bleeding under the retina. This treatment targets VEGF, a protein that promotes the growth of new blood vessels.
Focal laser photocoagulation is another treatment option, but it is not recommended for lesions near the fovea due to the risk of damaging vision.
Community diabetic eye screening is not appropriate for diabetic maculopathy, as it requires more specialized treatment.
Increasing the daily insulin dose is not recommended unless blood glucose levels are erratic.
Pan-retinal photocoagulation is typically used in cases of proliferative diabetic retinopathy.
Overall, the best treatment option for diabetic maculopathy will depend on the individual patient’s condition and needs. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the most appropriate course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of painful eye movements and swelling in his left eye. He has a history of chronic sinusitis but is otherwise healthy. Upon examination, his left eye is completely swollen shut with significant eyelid swelling and redness that extends from his cheekbone to his eyebrow. When the eye is opened manually, there is chemosis. What is the best initial treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Oral antibiotics
Correct Answer: Intravenous antibiotics
Explanation:Hospital admission for IV antibiotics is necessary for patients with orbital cellulitis due to the risk of intracranial spread and cavernous sinus thrombosis. This patient’s condition requires urgent treatment with IV antibiotics to prevent further complications and preserve their vision. Orbital cellulitis is classified according to Chandler’s classification, with preseptal cellulitis being the mildest form and cavernous sinus thrombosis being the most severe. Signs of orbital cellulitis include painful and restricted eye movements, reduced visual acuity and fields, abnormal pupillary responses, and the presence of chemosis and proptosis. IV antibiotics are the primary treatment for orbital cellulitis, and if there is evidence of intracranial spread or abscess, external drainage or neurosurgical intervention may be necessary. While a CT head is important to assess the extent of spread, treatment with antibiotics should not be delayed. Ophthalmology review is also crucial in managing orbital cellulitis, and patients are typically managed jointly by ENT and ophthalmology. Oral antibiotics are not appropriate for this infection, and IV administration is recommended.
Understanding Orbital Cellulitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Orbital cellulitis is a serious infection that affects the fat and muscles behind the orbital septum within the orbit, but not the globe. It is commonly caused by upper respiratory tract infections that spread from the sinuses and can lead to a high mortality rate. On the other hand, periorbital cellulitis is a less severe infection that occurs in the superficial tissues anterior to the orbital septum. However, it can progress to orbital cellulitis if left untreated.
Risk factors for orbital cellulitis include childhood, previous sinus infections, lack of Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccination, recent eyelid infections or insect bites, and ear or facial infections. Symptoms of orbital cellulitis include redness and swelling around the eye, severe ocular pain, visual disturbance, proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, eyelid edema, and ptosis. In rare cases, meningeal involvement can cause drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting.
To differentiate between orbital and preseptal cellulitis, doctors look for reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and ophthalmoplegia, which are not consistent with preseptal cellulitis. Full blood count and clinical examination involving complete ophthalmological assessment are necessary to determine the severity of the infection. CT with contrast can also help identify inflammation of the orbital tissues deep to the septum and sinusitis. Blood culture and microbiological swab are also necessary to determine the organism causing the infection.
Management of orbital cellulitis requires hospital admission for IV antibiotics. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent senior review. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and reduce the risk of mortality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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