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Question 1
Correct
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A 6-month-old girl is brought to surgery as her parents are worried about her excessive hypotonia. Upon examination, it is found that her hypotonia is more severe than what is typical for her age. Which of the following is not a likely cause for her condition?
Your Answer: Cystic fibrosis
Explanation:Hypotonia in infancy is not caused by cystic fibrosis.
Understanding Hypotonia: Causes and Types
Hypotonia, also known as floppiness, is a condition characterized by decreased muscle tone and weakness. It can be caused by central nervous system disorders or nerve and muscle problems. In some cases, an acutely ill child may exhibit hypotonia during examination. Hypotonia associated with encephalopathy in newborns is often caused by hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy.
Central causes of hypotonia include Down’s syndrome, Prader-Willi syndrome, hypothyroidism, and cerebral palsy. In some cases, hypotonia may precede the development of spasticity in cerebral palsy patients. On the other hand, neurological and muscular problems that can cause hypotonia include spinal muscular atrophy, spina bifida, Guillain-Barre syndrome, myasthenia gravis, muscular dystrophy, and myotonic dystrophy.
It is important to identify the underlying cause of hypotonia to determine the appropriate treatment plan. Early intervention and therapy can help improve muscle strength and function in individuals with hypotonia. Understanding the different types and causes of hypotonia can aid in early diagnosis and management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 2
Correct
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A 63-year-old male is being seen at the heart failure clinic by a nurse. Despite being treated with furosemide, bisoprolol, enalapril, and spironolactone, he experiences breathlessness with minimal exertion. Upon examination, there is minimal ankle edema and clear chest auscultation. Recent test results show sinus rhythm with a rate of 84 bpm on ECG, cardiomegaly with clear lung fields on chest x-ray, and an ejection fraction of 35% on echo. Isosorbide dinitrate with hydralazine was attempted but had to be discontinued due to side effects. What additional medication would be most effective in alleviating his symptoms?
Your Answer: Digoxin
Explanation:Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A study is conducted to evaluate the efficacy of the faecal immunochemical test as a screening tool for bowel cancer in individuals over the age of 50. The study involves 1000 patients, and 100 of them test positive for the test. Out of these 100 patients, 60 are diagnosed with bowel cancer through colonoscopy. On the other hand, 10 patients who tested negative for the test were later found to have bowel cancer.
What is the nearest whole number likelihood ratio for a positive test result?Your Answer: 86
Correct Answer: 20
Explanation:The likelihood ratio for a positive test result is 20. This is calculated by dividing the sensitivity (85.7%) by 1 minus the specificity (4.3%).
Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 4
Correct
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A 28-year-old female, originally from Malta, presents with complaints of oral and genital ulcers. She has a history of recurrent ulcers and scarring from previous episodes. Other than the ulcers, she appears to be in good health. Upon reviewing her medical records, it is noted that she has a history of arthritis and anterior uveitis. What is the most probable diagnosis that connects all of these symptoms?
Your Answer: Behçet's disease
Explanation:Oral and Genital Ulceration: A Sign of Behçet’s Disease
Oral ulceration can be a symptom of various diseases, both local and systemic. However, when combined with genital ulceration, the differential diagnosis narrows down, and clinicians should consider potential systemic causes. One such disease is Behçet’s disease, a multisystem vasculitic disorder that typically presents with recurrent oral and genital ulcers. Patients with Behçet’s may also experience arthritis and uveitis. This disease is more common in individuals of Mediterranean and eastern backgrounds.
Inflammatory bowel disease is also a possible differential diagnosis, but it typically presents with gastrointestinal symptoms such as abdominal pain, blood/mucous in the stool, and altered bowel habits. Crohn’s disease can cause oral ulceration and perianal disease, while ulcerative colitis can cause aphthous ulcers in the mouth. Eye problems and arthritis are also associated with inflammatory bowel disease.
Reactive arthritis is characterized by a triad of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis, but ulceration is not a feature. Rheumatoid arthritis is another multisystem vasculitic disorder that can have various clinical manifestations, including eye problems, but recurrent oral and genital ulcers are not typical. Stevens-Johnson syndrome, on the other hand, is an acute problem characterized by blistering and mucous membrane erosions triggered by drugs, infections, or systemic illnesses, but it doesn’t involve arthritis or uveitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents for follow up after being prescribed trimethoprim for a suspected urinary tract infection by an out-of-hours doctor two weeks ago. She reports experiencing lower abdominal pains and bloating for the past six months, which have become increasingly severe and often wake her from sleep. She denies vomiting or diarrhea but notes increased frequency of urination. She has a poor appetite and has lost no weight. On examination, there is no clinical evidence of anemia or jaundice, and PR examination is normal. Which investigation is most likely to reveal the cause of this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: CA125
Correct Answer: Colposcopy
Explanation:Diagnosing Ovarian Cancer: Symptoms, Risk Factors, and Tumour Markers
Patients with ovarian cancer often present with vague abdominal symptoms that may have been wrongly attributed to other conditions such as urinary tract infection or irritable bowel syndrome. The key to establishing a diagnosis is to first think of ovarian cancer as a possibility and then, as always, to obtain a thorough history.
It helps to think of risk factors as well, because we know that certain factors are associated with an increased risk of ovarian cancer. These include obesity, late menopause, nulliparity, diabetes, and endometriosis. In terms of symptoms, patients may experience vague abdominal pains, early satiety, and urinary frequency/urgency.
Tumour markers can be a useful tool in certain clinical contexts. CA125 is a tumour marker associated with ovarian cancer and is a valuable test in the diagnosis of ovarian cancer with regard to initial primary care investigations. NICE recommends that women over the age of 50 who have one or more symptoms associated with ovarian cancer that occur more than 12 times a month or for more than a month are offered CA125 testing.
In summary, a high index of suspicion is needed when considering ovarian cancer as a possibility. It is important to take into account risk factors and symptoms, and to consider the use of tumour markers such as CA125 in certain clinical contexts. By being aware of these factors, healthcare professionals can help to ensure timely and accurate diagnosis of ovarian cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Correct
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At what age, typically, should a child be able to use a spoon proficiently and drink from a cup without spilling it?
Your Answer: 2-2.5 years
Explanation:At the age of 2, a child is expected to have the ability to use a spoon proficiently and drink from a cup without spilling. This is based on both the MRCPCH development guidelines and commonly accepted developmental milestones. As such, it appears that the child in question is progressing normally, and the mother can be given reassurance.
Developmental Milestones in Social Behaviour, Feeding, Dressing, and Play
Developmental milestones are important markers in a child’s growth and development. In terms of social behaviour and play, there are several milestones that parents and caregivers can look out for. At six weeks, a baby may start to smile, which develops into laughter by three months. At six months, they become less shy, but by nine months, they may exhibit shyness. Additionally, babies at this age tend to put everything in their mouths.
In terms of feeding, a six-month-old may start to put their hand on the bottle while being fed. By 12-15 months, they can drink from a cup and use a spoon, which develops over a three-month period. At two years, they become competent with a spoon and don’t spill with a cup, and by three years, they can use a spoon and fork. Finally, at five years, they can use a knife and fork.
When it comes to dressing, a child may start to help with getting dressed and undressed at 12-15 months. By 18 months, they can take off shoes and hats but may not be able to replace them. At two years, they can put on hats and shoes, and by four years, they can dress and undress independently, except for laces and buttons.
Lastly, in terms of play, a nine-month-old may start to play peek-a-boo and wave bye-bye. By 12 months, they may play pat-a-cake, and at 18 months, they can play contentedly alone. At two years, they may play near others but not necessarily with them, and by four years, they can play with other children. These milestones can help parents and caregivers track a child’s development and ensure they are meeting age-appropriate goals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 7
Incorrect
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During a ward round consultation, the Psychiatrist was assessing a 12-year-old patient's current mental state. The patient's reply to most of the questions consisted of sentences which did not make any sense such as - 'painting pizza prince bus brush'. This is a good example of which of the following thought disorder?
Your Answer: Echolalia
Correct Answer: Word salad
Explanation:Disordered speech, such as word salad, neologisms, perseveration, and echolalia, is commonly linked to psychosis and mania.
Understanding Psychosis: Symptoms and Associated Features
Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in a variety of ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. These symptoms can be associated with agitation, aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm.
Psychotic symptoms can occur in a number of conditions, including schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions like Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease, and as a result of prescribed drugs or certain illicit drugs like cannabis and phencyclidine.
The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years. It is important to understand the symptoms and associated features of psychosis in order to recognize and seek appropriate treatment for those experiencing these symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents with a change in bowel habit. She has noticed that over the past four to six weeks she has been opening her bowels two to three times a day with very loose stools. On a few occasions there have been small amounts of fresh blood in the stools. She has attributed this fresh blood to haemorrhoids which she has had in the past. Prior to this recent four to six week period she had typically opened her bowels once a day with well-formed stools.
There is no reported family history of bowel problems. A stool sample was sent to the laboratory two to three weeks after the looser stools started and stool microscopy was normal, as are her recent blood tests which show she is not anaemic. Clinical examination is unremarkable with normal abdominal and rectal examinations. Her weight is stable.
She tells you that she is not overly concerned about the symptoms as about a month ago she submitted her bowel screening samples and recently had a letter saying that her screening tests were negative.
What is the most appropriate next approach in this instance?Your Answer: Refer her urgently to a specialist for investigation of her lower gastrointestinal tract
Correct Answer: Reassure the patient that in view of the negative bowel screening she doesn't require any further investigation but should continue to participate in screening every two years
Explanation:Importance of Urgent Referral for Patients with Bowel Symptoms
Screening tests are designed for asymptomatic individuals in at-risk populations. However, it is not uncommon for patients with bowel symptoms to falsely reassure themselves with negative screening results. In the case of a 68-year-old woman with persistent changes in bowel habit and rectal bleeding, urgent referral for further investigation is necessary.
It is important to note that relying on recent negative screening results can be inadequate and should not delay necessary medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 21-year-old woman presents herself for consultation a day after being discharged from the hospital following a termination of pregnancy at 16 weeks. Despite discussing long-acting reversible contraceptives, she expresses her eagerness to commence the combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill. What is the best course of action in this scenario?
Your Answer: Start COC immediately
Explanation:Following a miscarriage or abortion, the COC can be initiated without delay and provides immediate protection against pregnancy for women.
Women who are considering taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COC) should receive counselling on various aspects. This includes the potential benefits and harms of the COC, such as its high effectiveness rate of over 99% when taken correctly, but also the small risk of blood clots, heart attacks, strokes, and increased risk of breast and cervical cancer. Additionally, advice on taking the pill should be provided, such as starting it within the first 5 days of the cycle to avoid the need for additional contraception, taking it at the same time every day, and considering tailored regimens that eliminate the pill-free interval. It is also important to discuss situations where efficacy may be reduced, such as vomiting or taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs. Finally, counselling should include information on STIs and the use of concurrent antibiotics, which may no longer require extra precautions except for enzyme-inducing antibiotics like rifampicin.
Overall, women should receive comprehensive counselling on the COC to make informed decisions about their reproductive health. This includes discussing the potential benefits and harms, advice on taking the pill, and situations where efficacy may be reduced. By providing this information, women can make informed decisions about their contraceptive options and reduce the risk of unintended pregnancies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman complains of a yellowish-green frothy offensive vaginal discharge that started one week ago. On examination, her vagina is erythematous. She also has dysuria and dyspareunia.
What is the most suitable diagnostic method in General Practice?Your Answer: Potassium hydroxide 'whiff test'
Correct Answer: Culture of a vaginal swab
Explanation:Diagnostic Methods for Trichomoniasis in Women
Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Trichomonas vaginalis. In women, it can cause symptoms such as vaginal discharge, itching, and pain during sex. To diagnose trichomoniasis, several diagnostic methods are available.
Culture of a vaginal swab is the standard for diagnosis. It is more sensitive and specific than microscopy. Swab specimens may be obtained by the patient, making it useful in resource-poor settings. The GP may also consider testing for other sexually transmitted diseases such as chlamydia and gonorrhoea.
Cervical smear has a low sensitivity for detecting Trichomonas and is not used for this purpose. The ‘whiff test’ (amine odour test) and vaginal pH test are not accurate means of diagnosing trichomoniasis as they may also indicate bacterial vaginosis.
Wet-mount microscopy has historically been used to diagnose trichomoniasis in women. However, it has a low sensitivity in detecting T vaginalis and specimens have to be examined fresh.
In conclusion, culture of a vaginal swab is the most reliable method for diagnosing trichomoniasis in women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman presents with a red left eye. She reports experiencing an itchy, gritty sensation in the left eye for the past 24 hours. She notes some grey-green discharge at the lid margins and mentions using an eye bath she purchased from the pharmacy to clear it this morning. Her visual acuity is 6/6 in both eyes, and both pupils are equal and reactive with no other abnormalities detected. Fluorescein staining shows no focal lesion. She has no history of eye problems and doesn't wear contact lenses. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Refer immediately to eye casualty
Correct Answer: Prescribe a regular ocular lubricant
Explanation:Antibiotic Stewardship in the Management of Acute Infective Conjunctivitis
In the management of acute infective conjunctivitis, it is important to consider good antibiotic stewardship and follow national guidance from NICE. While it can be difficult to differentiate between bacterial and viral conjunctivitis, most cases are self-limiting and resolve within 1-2 weeks without the need for antibiotics. Lubricant eye drops can help reduce discomfort, and patients should clean away infected secretions with a cotton wool ball soaked in water. Additionally, up to 10% of patients may experience adverse reactions to topical antibiotics.
According to the NICE Clinical Knowledge summary, treatment with topical antibiotics should be reserved for severe cases where other serious causes have been ruled out, for schools and childcare organizations requiring treatment before allowing a child to return, and for patients who understand the limitations of treatment but still prefer it. If patients prefer early treatment with antibiotics, they should consider delaying treatment to see if the condition resolves spontaneously within 7 days.
If a patient presents with an acute red eye and normal visual acuity without any red flag features, immediate eye casualty referral is not necessary. Management in primary care is the most appropriate approach at this stage. However, if the patient experiences reduced visual acuity, immediate referral for further specialist assessment is warranted. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure appropriate management of acute infective conjunctivitis while promoting antibiotic stewardship.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man is diagnosed with coeliac disease. You need to refer him to a dietician. You have the dietitian email address and so decide to email the referral.
Which one of the following is correct?Your Answer: You should send the referral by fax as well
Correct Answer: You should ensure that both your email account and that of the dietician are encrypted and secure
Explanation:Importance of Secure Information Transmission
It is crucial to ensure that information is transmitted securely, regardless of the method used. This means that sending information via email is acceptable as long as it is secure. When answering questions related to this topic, it is essential to consider the broader principles involved rather than specific referral patterns. It is possible that different regions may have different referral methods, so it is important not to become confused or overwhelmed if the scenario presented doesn’t match your own practice. For example, just because you send referrals by letter doesn’t mean you should choose the option to send the referral by post as well. The key principle is that the method used should be secure. The NHS Code of Practice on Confidentiality provides further guidance on this topic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Leadership And Management
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman presents with complaints of dysuria and increased frequency of micturition. She has been experiencing these symptoms on and off for several months. Upon urinalysis, microscopic haematuria and 2-3 white cells per high power field are detected, but the urine culture is sterile. What is the most suitable treatment for her?
Your Answer: Alkalinisation of the urine
Correct Answer: Topical oestrogen cream
Explanation:Atrophic Urethritis/Vaginitis in Postmenopausal Women: Symptoms and Treatment
Postmenopausal women often experience symptoms of atrophic urethritis/vaginitis due to dryness and atrophy of the urethral tissue. This condition can cause discomfort, pain during intercourse, and urinary incontinence. However, topical oestrogen cream can have a dramatic response in improving or curing these symptoms.
It is important to note that atrophic urethritis/vaginitis is not caused by an infection, so antibiotic therapy or alkalinisation of the urine will not be effective. Corticosteroids are also not helpful in treating this condition.
In addition to improving urinary incontinence, topical oestrogen may also reduce the risk of recurrent urinary tract infections in postmenopausal women. However, it is important to rule out other underlying pathology before using oestrogen for this indication.
Overall, atrophic urethritis/vaginitis is a common condition in postmenopausal women, but it can be effectively treated with topical oestrogen cream.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 58-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with complaints of diarrhoea without any associated bleeding. She has also experienced weight loss and has abdominal pain with malaise and fever. During the examination, she has oral ulcers, sore red eyes and tender nodules on her shins. There is tenderness in the right iliac fossa and a vague right iliac fossa mass. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Crohn's disease
Explanation:Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Gastrointestinal Symptoms and Other Complications
Crohn’s Disease, Appendicular Abscess, Ileocaecal Tuberculosis, Ovarian Cyst, and Ulcerative Colitis are possible diagnoses for a patient presenting with gastrointestinal symptoms and other complications. In women over 60 years of age, Crohn’s disease may even be the most likely diagnosis. This condition can cause episcleritis, uveitis, erythema nodosum, pyoderma gangrenosum, vasculitis, gallstones, kidney stones, or abnormal liver function tests. The predominantly right-sided symptoms suggest terminal ileitis, which is more common in Crohn’s disease than ulcerative colitis. Fever can occur in Crohn’s disease due to the inflammatory process, ranging from high fever during acute flare-ups to persistent low-grade fever. Appendicular abscess is a complication of acute appendicitis, causing a palpable mass in the right iliac fossa and fever. Ileocaecal tuberculosis can present with a palpable mass in the right lower quadrant and complications of obstruction, perforation, or malabsorption, especially in the presence of stricture. A large ovarian cyst may be palpable on abdominal examination, but it is unlikely to cause oral ulcers, sore eyes, or erythema nodosum. Ulcerative colitis, which has similar clinical features to Crohn’s disease, is usually diagnosed from the biopsy result following a sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy. However, rectal bleeding is more common in ulcerative colitis, while fever is more common in Crohn’s disease. A right lower quadrant mass may be seen in Crohn’s disease but not in ulcerative colitis unless complicated by bowel cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 32-year-old man needs to take naproxen to relieve the symptoms of ankylosing spondylitis.
Select from the list the single most important item that should be regularly monitored.Your Answer: Renal function
Explanation:Renal Adverse Drug Reactions Associated with NSAIDs
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are commonly used for pain relief, but they come with a relatively high incidence of renal adverse drug reactions. These reactions are caused by changes in renal haemodynamics, which are usually mediated by prostaglandins that are affected by NSAIDs. Patients with renal impairment should avoid these drugs if possible, or use them with caution. It is important to use the lowest effective dose for the shortest possible duration and monitor renal function. NSAIDs may cause sodium and water retention, leading to deterioration of renal function and possibly renal failure. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of the potential renal adverse drug reactions associated with NSAIDs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 16
Correct
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Sophie is a 65-year-old woman who presents to you with a sore throat, cough and muscle pain that has been going on for 3 days. She has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and hypertension and is currently on a twice daily insulin regimen.
After conducting a thorough assessment, you inform Sophie that she is likely suffering from the flu and recommend that she rest, take regular paracetamol and increase her fluid intake.
Given her condition, what is the most appropriate advice to provide Sophie regarding her insulin management during her illness?Your Answer: Continue his normal insulin regime and check blood sugars frequently
Explanation:When a patient with insulin-dependent diabetes falls ill, they should not stop taking their insulin as it could lead to diabetic ketoacidosis. Instead, they should continue with their regular insulin regimen and monitor their blood sugar levels frequently, at least every four hours during the day.
It is not advisable for the patient to check their blood sugar levels before each insulin dose as it would require careful titration and depend on their food intake, which may not be practical or safe in this situation.
Doubling the patient’s insulin dose is not recommended as it could increase the risk of hypoglycemia, especially if they have reduced oral intake due to feeling unwell.
Managing Diabetes Mellitus during Illness: Sick Day Rules
When a patient with diabetes mellitus becomes unwell, it is important to provide them with key messages to manage their condition. Increasing the frequency of blood glucose monitoring to at least four hourly is crucial, as well as encouraging fluid intake of at least 3 litres in 24 hours. If the patient is struggling to eat, sugary drinks may be necessary to maintain carbohydrate intake. Educating patients to have a box of sick day supplies can also be helpful. Access to a mobile phone has been shown to reduce the progression of ketosis to diabetic ketoacidosis.
Patients taking oral hypoglycemic medication should continue taking their medication even if they are not eating much. However, metformin should be stopped if the patient is becoming dehydrated due to its potential impact on renal function. Patients on insulin must not stop taking it, as this can lead to diabetic ketoacidosis. They should continue their normal insulin regime and check their blood sugars frequently. If ketone levels are raised and blood sugars are also raised, corrective doses of insulin may be necessary. The corrective dose varies by patient, but a rule of thumb is the total daily insulin dose divided by 6 (maximum 15 units).
Possible indications for hospital admission include suspicion of underlying illness requiring hospital treatment, inability to keep fluids down for more than a few hours, persistent diarrhea, significant ketosis in an insulin-dependent diabetic despite additional insulin, blood glucose persistently >20mmol/l despite additional insulin, patient unable to manage adjustments to usual diabetes management, and lack of support at home (e.g., a patient who lives alone and is at risk of becoming unconscious). By following these sick day rules, patients with diabetes mellitus can better manage their condition during illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 65-year-old man presents with a 72-hour history of lower abdominal pain, dysuria, and frequent urination. He has no prior history of urinary issues and no significant medical history. Upon urine dipstick testing, leucocytes and nitrites are positive while blood and protein are negative. What is the next best course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer: Prescribe oral antibiotics
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, men with symptoms of a lower UTI should receive oral antibiotics such as trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, based on local microbiology protocols. This patient’s dipstick test is positive for nitrites, indicating a UTI, and he should be treated accordingly.
Intravenous antibiotics are not typically necessary for UTI treatment unless the patient experiences rigors, chills, vomiting, or confusion. Therefore, this option is not appropriate for this patient.
Men with UTIs should not be routinely referred to urology unless the infection is recurrent. The two-week rule pathway should be followed for patients aged 45 and over with unexplained visible haematuria or aged 60 and over with unexplained non-visible haematuria and either dysuria or a raised white cell count on a blood test.
While it may be important to rule out a sexually transmitted infection, this patient’s symptoms suggest a UTI, and there is no indication of an STI in his medical history. Therefore, empirical antibiotics should be administered initially.
Although it is important to perform a urinary MC+S test to assess for resistant bacteria, antibiotic treatment should not be delayed while waiting for the results. In this case, prompt treatment is necessary to prevent the infection from spreading or causing sepsis.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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As part of a community health initiative, you are tasked with developing a program to enhance the well-being of infants in the area. What is the leading cause of mortality among infants aged over one month but under 12 months?
Your Answer: Congenital disorders
Correct Answer: Sudden infant death syndrome
Explanation:Accidents become the leading cause of death in children after they turn one year old.
Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is the leading cause of death in infants during their first year of life, with the highest incidence occurring at three months of age. There are several major risk factors associated with SIDS, including placing the baby to sleep on their stomach, parental smoking, prematurity, bed sharing, and hyperthermia or head covering. These risk factors are additive, meaning that the more risk factors present, the higher the likelihood of SIDS. Other risk factors include male sex, multiple births, lower social classes, and maternal drug use. SIDS incidence also tends to increase during the winter months. However, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of SIDS, such as breastfeeding, room sharing (but not bed sharing), and the use of pacifiers. In the event of a SIDS case, it is important to screen siblings for potential sepsis and inborn errors of metabolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A rapid urine screening test is developed to detect Chlamydia in individuals over the age of 50. A trial involving 200 men and women in this age group is performed comparing the new test to the existing NAAT techniques:
Chlamydia present Chlamydia absent
New test positive 20 3
New test negative 5 172
What is the negative predictive value of the new test?Your Answer: 20/25
Correct Answer: 172/177
Explanation:Negative predictive value = 172 / 177
Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which infection is most strongly linked to the development of Guillain-Barre syndrome?
Your Answer: Salmonella
Correct Answer: Campylobacter jejuni
Explanation:Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome and Miller Fisher Syndrome
Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is often triggered by an infection, particularly Campylobacter jejuni. The immune system attacks the myelin sheath that surrounds nerve fibers, leading to demyelination. This results in symptoms such as muscle weakness, tingling sensations, and paralysis.
The pathogenesis of Guillain-Barre syndrome involves the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides in the peripheral nervous system. Studies have shown a correlation between the presence of anti-ganglioside antibodies, particularly anti-GM1 antibodies, and the clinical features of the syndrome. In fact, anti-GM1 antibodies are present in 25% of patients with Guillain-Barre syndrome.
Miller Fisher syndrome is a variant of Guillain-Barre syndrome that is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia. This syndrome typically presents as a descending paralysis, unlike other forms of Guillain-Barre syndrome that present as an ascending paralysis. The eye muscles are usually affected first in Miller Fisher syndrome. Studies have shown that anti-GQ1b antibodies are present in 90% of cases of Miller Fisher syndrome.
In summary, Guillain-Barre syndrome and Miller Fisher syndrome are conditions that affect the peripheral nervous system and are often triggered by infections. The pathogenesis of these syndromes involves the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides in the peripheral nervous system. While Guillain-Barre syndrome is characterized by muscle weakness and paralysis, Miller Fisher syndrome is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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You are called to do a house visit for an elderly gentleman with an advanced brain tumour. You review his notes and see that he received radiotherapy and chemotherapy but these failed to have a significant impact. He is being treated palliatively.
He complains of persistent nausea and has vomited on a couple of occasions over the last few days. He also complains of bouts of vertigo.
Which of the following antiemetics is most appropriate to prescribe?Your Answer: Cyclizine
Correct Answer: Levomepromazine
Explanation:Antiemetics in Palliative Care
A variety of antiemetics are used in palliative care to treat nausea and vomiting. However, the underlying cause of the symptoms should be identified to guide which particular treatment is most appropriate. For instance, a patient with cerebral disease and co-existent vertigo may benefit from an antiemetic with antihistamine properties such as cyclizine, which has actions against vertigo, motion sickness, and labyrinthine disorders.
Nausea and vomiting due to drugs or toxins and metabolic causes, such as hypercalcemia, may respond best to haloperidol. Levomepromazine is a broad-spectrum antiemetic usually used as a second-line agent when other first-line antiemetics have not been effective. Metoclopramide is a prokinetic and can be useful in treating symptoms due to gastric stasis. Ondansetron is a 5-HT3 antagonist and acts at the chemoreceptor trigger zone in the brain. It is used as a treatment for emetogenic chemotherapy.
In summary, the appropriate antiemetic for a patient in palliative care depends on the underlying cause of their nausea and vomiting. Healthcare professionals should consider the patient’s individual needs and medical history when selecting an antiemetic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old lady comes back to the clinic four weeks after starting treatment with fluoxetine for moderate depressive symptoms. She has no prior experience with antidepressant medication and has no other medical conditions.
During the assessment, she reports no suicidal thoughts and has a supportive partner at home. Despite taking fluoxetine regularly, she has not noticed any improvement in her symptoms and is considering switching to a different medication. She has not experienced any adverse effects with fluoxetine but has heard positive things about St John's wort from a friend.
What would be the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Continue the current dose of fluoxetine
Correct Answer: Stop the fluoxetine and refer for cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)
Explanation:Treatment Options for Patients with Minimal Response to SSRIs
When a patient has been taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for four weeks without benefit, it is important to consider alternative treatment options. Continuing at the current dose is not a satisfactory plan.
After three to four weeks of minimal or absent response, there are essentially two options in addition to increasing the level of support: increasing the dose of the current antidepressant or changing to an alternative agent if there are side effects or the patient prefers. However, caution is needed when switching from fluoxetine to tricyclics because it inhibits the metabolism. Therefore, after appropriate discontinuation of fluoxetine, a lower than usual starting dose of tricyclic would be required.
It is not recommended to prescribe or advocate for St John’s wort due to lack of clarity regarding doses, duration of effect, and variation in the nature of preparations. Additionally, there are serious drug interactions, particularly with oral contraceptives and anti-epileptics.
According to NICE CG90, cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is recommended in addition to medication for moderate depression. If response is absent or minimal after 3 to 4 weeks of treatment with a therapeutic dose of an antidepressant, increase the level of support (for example, by weekly face-to-face or telephone contact) and consider increasing the dose in line with the SPC if there are no significant side effects or switching to another antidepressant as described in section 1.8 if there are side effects or if the person prefers.
In summary, it is important to closely monitor patients who are not responding to SSRIs and consider alternative treatment options in consultation with a healthcare professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 23
Correct
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You are helping a 29-year-old woman quit smoking. She has multiple medical conditions and takes various medications for them. Which of the following health issues would not prevent the prescription of bupropion (Zyban)?
Your Answer: Stable angina
Explanation:Although there is no concrete evidence to support this, it is recommended to avoid using bupropion during pregnancy. The BNF states that bupropion should not be used in cases of acute alcohol or benzodiazepine withdrawal, severe hepatic cirrhosis, CNS tumor, history of seizures, eating disorders, or bipolar disorder.
Smoking cessation is the process of quitting smoking. In 2008, NICE released guidance on how to manage smoking cessation. The guidance recommends that patients should be offered nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline or bupropion, and that clinicians should not favour one medication over another. These medications should be prescribed as part of a commitment to stop smoking on or before a particular date, and the prescription should only last until 2 weeks after the target stop date. If unsuccessful, a repeat prescription should not be offered within 6 months unless special circumstances have intervened. NRT can cause adverse effects such as nausea and vomiting, headaches, and flu-like symptoms. NICE recommends offering a combination of nicotine patches and another form of NRT to people who show a high level of dependence on nicotine or who have found single forms of NRT inadequate in the past.
Varenicline is a nicotinic receptor partial agonist that should be started 1 week before the patient’s target date to stop. The recommended course of treatment is 12 weeks, but patients should be monitored regularly and treatment only continued if not smoking. Varenicline has been shown in studies to be more effective than bupropion, but it should be used with caution in patients with a history of depression or self-harm. Nausea is the most common adverse effect, and varenicline is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding.
Bupropion is a norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist that should be started 1 to 2 weeks before the patient’s target date to stop. There is a small risk of seizures, and bupropion is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Having an eating disorder is a relative contraindication.
In 2010, NICE recommended that all pregnant women should be tested for smoking using carbon monoxide detectors. All women who smoke, or have stopped smoking within the last 2 weeks, or those with a CO reading of 7 ppm or above should be referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services. The first-line interventions in pregnancy should be cognitive behaviour therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support from NHS Stop Smoking Services. The evidence for the use of NRT in pregnancy is mixed, but it is often used if the above measures fail. There is no evidence that it affects the child’s birthweight. Pregnant women
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 24
Correct
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A 7-year-old boy complains of abdominal pain that has been causing him to miss school for the past two months. What factor suggests an organic cause rather than a functional one?
Your Answer: Frequent diarrhoea
Explanation:Understanding Recurrent Abdominal Pain in Children
Recurrent abdominal pain is a common issue among children that can disrupt their daily activities. It is often not accompanied by any organic pathology and tends to occur frequently, with at least three episodes in three months. The pain is usually located in the central abdomen and can be severe enough to affect the child’s activities.
While there are many possible organic causes for recurrent abdominal pain, diagnostic investigations are only recommended for children with alarm symptoms or signs. These include involuntary weight loss, slowing of linear growth, gastrointestinal blood loss, significant vomiting, chronic severe diarrhea or constipation, unexplained fever, pain localized away from the central abdomen, or a family history of inflammatory bowel disease.
It is important to note that persistent right-upper or right-lower-quadrant pain should raise more concern. Headache is more likely to occur in children with non-organic recurrent abdominal pain, and pain relieved by defecation is usually a feature of irritable bowel syndrome and doesn’t match the features in this scenario.
Recurrent abdominal pain can lead to increased functional impairment in everyday life, such as school absences. Therefore, it is crucial to understand the distinction between organic disease, functional disorders, and emotional factors to provide appropriate care for children experiencing this issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A study found that of 100 people over the age of 60 treated with a certain medication, 80 had improvement in their symptoms, whereas of 100 people over the age of 60 not treated, only 50 had improvement. What is the number needed to treat (NNT)?
Your Answer: 7
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:Calculating the Number Needed to Treat (NNT) for Vertigo Treatment
To determine the effectiveness of a vertigo treatment, we can calculate the Number Needed to Treat (NNT). This is done by first calculating the Absolute Risk Reduction (ARR), which is the difference between the Control Event Rate (CER) and the Experimental Event Rate (EER). For example, if 55 out of 100 control patients failed to have a resolution of vertigo, and 30 out of 100 treatment patients failed to improve, the ARR would be 0.55 – 0.30 = 0.25. To find the NNT, we simply take the reciprocal of the ARR, which in this case would be 1/0.25 = 4. This means that for every 4 patients treated with the vertigo treatment, one patient will have a resolution of their vertigo.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy with Down syndrome is brought in by his parents for his yearly check-up. He has recently visited the optometrist. What is the most common ophthalmological abnormality that is likely to be detected in a child with Down syndrome? Choose ONE answer.
Your Answer: Cataract
Correct Answer: Refractive error
Explanation:Common Ophthalmological Abnormalities in Children with Down Syndrome
Children with Down syndrome are more likely to experience refractive errors, with up to 80% of them affected. However, it can be challenging to identify signs of this condition in children who may have difficulty expressing themselves. Cataracts are not common in childhood Down syndrome, but glaucoma is slightly more prevalent than in the general population. Nystagmus occurs in 10% of cases, while squint affects 20% of children with Down syndrome. While these conditions are relatively common, it is essential to monitor and manage them to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a painful skin rash that started as circular lesions on his trunk and limbs and has now spread to his face, lips, and mouth. He also reports flu-like symptoms and headache. On examination, he has marked facial and lip swelling with crusty sores, blistering, and ulceration in the oral cavity, as well as an erythematous rash on the trunk with small vesicles and bullae. What medication is linked to this condition?
Your Answer: Cyclosporin
Correct Answer: Lamotrigine
Explanation:Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a rare but known negative effect of lamotrigine treatment. This skin condition typically manifests within a few days of starting the medication and can cause flu-like symptoms such as fever, malaise, myalgia, and arthralgia. Painful erythema with blisters or ulcers is a hallmark of the syndrome, which can progress to areas of confluent erythema with skin loss. Mucosal involvement is also common, affecting the eyes, lips, mouth, oesophagus, upper respiratory tract (causing cough and respiratory distress), genitalia, and gastrointestinal tract (resulting in diarrhoea).
Other drugs, such as aspirin, macrolides, opiates, and cyclosporin, can also cause drug rashes. Exanthematous eruptions are a common type of drug rash, characterised by pink-to-red macules that blanch on pressure.
Urticaria and erythema multiforme are other types of drug-related rashes. Aspirin and anticonvulsants are associated with erythema multiforme, which typically presents as spot or target lesions and doesn’t involve mucosal tissues.
Lamotrigine is a medication that is primarily used as an antiepileptic drug. It is typically prescribed as a second-line treatment for a range of generalised and partial seizures. The drug works by blocking sodium channels in the body, which helps to reduce the occurrence of seizures.
Despite its effectiveness in treating seizures, lamotrigine can also cause a number of adverse effects. One of the most serious of these is Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a rare but potentially life-threatening skin condition. Other possible side effects of the drug include dizziness, headache, nausea, and blurred vision. It is important for patients taking lamotrigine to be aware of these potential risks and to report any unusual symptoms to their healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl has not been attending school.
Select from the list of options the single feature that would suggest school refusal rather than truancy.Your Answer: Antisocial behaviour
Correct Answer: Abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting on the way to school
Explanation:Understanding School Refusal: Symptoms, Causes, and Consequences
School refusal is a common problem affecting 1-5% of school-aged children, with similar rates in both boys and girls. It typically occurs in children aged 5, 6, 10, and 11, and may be triggered by stressful events at home or school, or after a holiday or illness. Symptoms include fear, panic, crying, temper tantrums, threats of self-harm, and somatic complaints such as dizziness, headaches, and nausea.
Short-term consequences of school refusal include poor academic performance, family difficulties, and problems with peer relationships. Long-term consequences may include academic underachievement, employment difficulties, and increased risk for psychiatric illness. Children with school refusal may suffer from significant emotional distress, particularly anxiety and depression.
School avoidance may serve different functions depending on the child, such as avoidance of specific fears, escape from aversive social situations, separation anxiety, or attention-seeking behaviors. It is important to address school refusal early on, as the longer the child stays out of school, the more difficult it is to return.
Overall, understanding the symptoms, causes, and consequences of school refusal can help parents and caregivers provide appropriate support and intervention for their child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 29
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman in her first pregnancy visits you at 30 weeks gestation complaining of itchiness. Upon examination, there is no rash present. After being referred to an obstetrician, she is diagnosed with intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy and prescribed ursodeoxycholic acid. During her visit, the patient mentions that her obstetrician mentioned something about her labor, but she is unsure.
What plans need to be made for this patient's labor?Your Answer: Induction of labour at 37-38 weeks gestation
Explanation:Due to the increased risk of stillbirth associated with intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, induction of labour is typically recommended at 37-38 weeks gestation. Therefore, a normal labour is not appropriate for this patient. Ursodeoxycholic acid is used to treat the intense pruritus associated with this condition. While a caesarean section may be necessary on an emergency basis, it is not currently indicated at 37-38 weeks. Similarly, a caesarean section at 40 weeks is not currently necessary. Induction of labour at 40 weeks is later than the recommended timeline and may increase the risk of stillbirth.
Understanding Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy
Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis, is a condition that affects approximately 1% of pregnancies in the UK. It is characterized by intense itching, particularly on the palms, soles, and abdomen, and may also result in clinically detectable jaundice in around 20% of patients. Raised bilirubin levels are seen in over 90% of cases.
The management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy typically involves induction of labor at 37-38 weeks, although this practice may not be evidence-based. Ursodeoxycholic acid is also widely used, although the evidence base for its effectiveness is not clear. Additionally, vitamin K supplementation may be recommended.
It is important to note that the recurrence rate of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy in subsequent pregnancies is high, ranging from 45-90%. Therefore, early diagnosis and management of this condition is crucial for the health and well-being of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 30
Correct
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A 58-year-old male presents with left-sided pain. He reports the pain as radiating from his left flank down to his groin. The pain is severe, comes in waves and the patient looks visibly restless. He has not taken any analgesia.
He has a past medical history of hypertension and stage 4 chronic kidney disease.
Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate initial analgesia to prescribe in this case?
Your Answer: IV paracetamol
Explanation:Choosing the Appropriate Analgesia for a Patient with Renal/Ureteric Colic
When treating a patient with renal or ureteric colic, it is important to consider their medical history and current condition before prescribing analgesia. In this case, the patient has severe kidney disease, which rules out the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) as they can cause further harm to the kidneys.
The most appropriate initial analgesia for this patient is IV paracetamol. While opioids such as IV morphine can be considered, they should be reserved as a third-line option. Oral codeine may also be used, but only after NSAIDs and IV paracetamol have been ruled out.
It is important to note that NSAIDs such as oral naproxen and per rectal diclofenac are typically the first-line analgesics for renal/ureteric colic. However, they are contraindicated in this patient due to their severe kidney disease.
In summary, when choosing the appropriate analgesia for a patient with renal/ureteric colic, it is crucial to consider their medical history and current condition. In this case, IV paracetamol is the most appropriate initial option due to the patient’s severe kidney disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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