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Question 1
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman with a long history of rheumatoid arthritis presents to her general practitioner complaining of a chronic cough, weight loss and haemoptysis. She smokes ten cigarettes a day. You understand that she has begun anti-tumour necrosis factor (TNF) antibody treatment around 9 months earlier. On examination, her rheumatoid appears quiescent at present.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Chest X-ray Calcified hilar lymph nodes,
possible left upper lobe fibrosis
Haemoglobin 109 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 11.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 295 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 61 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
C-reactive protein (CRP) 55 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 100 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?Your Answer: Active pulmonary tuberculosis
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of calcified lymph nodes and upper lobe fibrosis in a patient with rheumatoid arthritis
A patient with rheumatoid arthritis presents with calcified lymph nodes and upper lobe fibrosis on a chest X-ray. Several possible causes need to be considered, including active pulmonary tuberculosis, lymphoma, rheumatoid lung disease, bronchial carcinoma, and invasive aspergillosis. While anti-TNF antibody medication for rheumatoid arthritis may increase the risk of tuberculosis and aspergillosis, it is important to rule out other potential etiologies based on clinical examination, imaging studies, and laboratory tests. The presence of soft, fluffy, and ill-defined lesions on chest X-ray may suggest active tuberculosis, while the absence of upper lobe fibrosis may argue against lymphoma or radiotherapy-induced fibrosis. Pulmonary nodules and lung fibrosis at the lung bases are more typical of rheumatoid lung disease, but calcified nodes with upper lobe fibrosis are unusual. Bronchial carcinoma may be a concern given the patient’s age and smoking history, but typically lymph nodes are not calcified. Invasive aspergillosis is more likely in immunosuppressed patients and can be detected by a CT scan and a serum galactomannan test. A comprehensive differential diagnosis can guide further evaluation and management of this complex case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 2
Correct
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Which blood test is the most sensitive for diagnosing acute pancreatitis?
Your Answer: Lipase
Explanation:If the clinical presentation does not match the amylase level, it is important to consider that the serum amylase can fluctuate rapidly and produce an inaccurate negative result. In such cases, it is recommended to conduct a serum lipase test or a CT scan.
Understanding Acute Pancreatitis
Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is commonly caused by alcohol or gallstones. It occurs when the pancreatic enzymes start to digest the pancreatic tissue, leading to necrosis. The main symptom of acute pancreatitis is severe epigastric pain that may radiate through to the back. Vomiting is also common, and examination may reveal epigastric tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever. In rare cases, periumbilical discolouration (Cullen’s sign) and flank discolouration (Grey-Turner’s sign) may be present.
To diagnose acute pancreatitis, doctors typically measure the levels of serum amylase and lipase in the blood. While amylase is raised in 75% of patients, it does not correlate with disease severity. Lipase, on the other hand, is more sensitive and specific than amylase and has a longer half-life. Imaging tests, such as ultrasound and contrast-enhanced CT, may also be used to assess the aetiology of the condition.
Scoring systems, such as the Ranson score, Glasgow score, and APACHE II, are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that may require intensive care management. Factors that indicate severe pancreatitis include age over 55 years, hypocalcaemia, hyperglycaemia, hypoxia, neutrophilia, and elevated LDH and AST. It is important to note that the actual amylase level is not of prognostic value.
In summary, acute pancreatitis is a condition that can cause severe pain and discomfort. It is typically caused by alcohol or gallstones and can be diagnosed through blood tests and imaging. Scoring systems are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that require intensive care management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 3
Incorrect
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After catheterisation for acute urinary retention due to a lower urinary tract infection, what is the maximum acceptable residual urine volume in patients aged 65 years or older?
Your Answer: 20ml
Correct Answer: 50ml
Explanation:For patients under the age of 65, post-void volumes of less than 50 ml are considered normal. For patients over the age of 65, post-void volumes of less than 100 ml are considered normal. Chronic urinary retention is diagnosed when there is more than 500 ml of urine remaining in the bladder after voiding. An acute-on-chronic urinary retention is suggested by a post-catheterization urine volume of more than 800 ml.
Acute urinary retention is a condition where a person suddenly becomes unable to pass urine voluntarily, typically over a period of hours or less. It is a common urological emergency that requires investigation to determine the underlying cause. While it is more common in men, it rarely occurs in women, with an incidence ratio of 13:1. Acute urinary retention is most frequently seen in men over 60 years of age, and the incidence increases with age. It has been estimated that around a third of men in their 80s will develop acute urinary retention over a five-year period.
The most common cause of acute urinary retention in men is benign prostatic hyperplasia, a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland that presses on the urethra, making it difficult for the bladder to empty. Other causes include urethral obstructions, such as strictures, calculi, cystocele, constipation, or masses, as well as certain medications that affect nerve signals to the bladder. In some cases, there may be a neurological cause for the condition. Acute urinary retention can also occur postoperatively and in women postpartum, typically due to a combination of risk factors.
Patients with acute urinary retention typically experience an inability to pass urine, lower abdominal discomfort, and considerable pain or distress. Elderly patients may also present with an acute confusional state. Unlike chronic urinary retention, which is typically painless, acute urinary retention is associated with pain and discomfort. A palpable distended urinary bladder may be detected on abdominal or rectal examination, and lower abdominal tenderness may also be present. All patients should undergo a rectal and neurological examination, and women should also have a pelvic examination.
To confirm the diagnosis of acute urinary retention, a bladder ultrasound should be performed. The bladder volume should be greater than 300 cc to confirm the diagnosis, but if the history and examination are consistent with acute urinary retention, an inconsistent bladder scan does not rule out the condition. Acute urinary retention is managed by decompressing the bladder via catheterisation. Further investigation should be targeted by the likely cause, and patients may require IV fluids to correct any temporary over-diuresis that may occur as a complication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 4
Correct
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A 68-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of progressive reduction in sensation in his lower limbs over the past 3 months. He reports feeling increasingly unsteady on his feet but is otherwise in good health. On examination, there is symmetrical reduction in vibration and pinprick sensation, and he has a wide-based ataxic gait. His ankle reflexes are absent, but his knee reflexes are brisk. The patient has a medical history of hypertension managed with ramipril and underwent Subtotal gastrectomy for gastric cancer 4 years ago. He has a body mass index of 29.2kg/m² and drinks 10 units of alcohol per week. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord
Explanation:Subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, characterized by loss of vibration sense, ataxia, and absent ankle reflexes, may be caused by vitamin B12 deficiency. This deficiency is a known complication of total and Subtotal gastrectomy, which involves the removal of cells that secrete intrinsic factor in the stomach fundus and body. Although the patient is overweight, there are no indications that diabetes mellitus or malignancy is responsible for his symptoms. Additionally, multiple sclerosis would be uncommon in an older male. The patient’s alcohol intake is moderate.
Complications of Gastrectomy
Gastrectomy is a surgical procedure that involves the removal of all or part of the stomach. While it can be an effective treatment for certain conditions, it can also lead to a number of complications. One of the most common complications is dumping syndrome, which occurs when food of high osmotic potential moves into the small intestine, causing a fluid shift. This can result in early satiety and weight loss.
Another complication of gastrectomy is rebound hypoglycemia, which occurs when a surge of insulin follows food of high glucose value in the small intestine. This can cause hypoglycemia 2-3 hours later due to an insulin overshoot. Other complications include iron-deficiency anemia, osteoporosis/osteomalacia, and vitamin B12 deficiency.
In addition to these complications, gastrectomy also increases the risk of gallstones and gastric cancer. It is important for patients who undergo this procedure to be aware of these potential complications and to work closely with their healthcare team to manage them effectively. Proper nutrition and vitamin supplementation may be necessary to prevent or treat some of these complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Under what circumstances would the bone age match the chronological age?
Your Answer: Precocious puberty
Correct Answer: Familial short stature
Explanation:Factors Affecting Bone Age
Bone age is affected by various factors such as hypothyroidism, constitutional delay of growth and puberty, growth hormone deficiency, precocious puberty, and familial short stature. In hypothyroidism, bone age is delayed due to the underproduction of thyroid hormones. On the other hand, constitutional delay of growth and puberty causes delayed physiological maturation, including secondary sexual characteristics and bone age. Growth hormone deficiency also results in delayed skeletal maturation. In contrast, precocious puberty causes advanced bone age. Lastly, in familial short stature, bone age is equal to chronological age, but linear growth is poor, resulting in a short stature. these factors is crucial in diagnosing and managing growth and development issues in children. Proper evaluation and treatment can help ensure optimal growth and development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 6
Correct
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Sophie is a 6-year-old overweight girl brought in by anxious parents who are worried about her loud snoring and frequent interruptions in breathing which have been getting progressively worse. Although she has difficulty getting up from sleep, she does not have any daytime somnolence. However, her parents have been receiving complaints from the school teachers about her disruptive and inattentive behaviour in class. They have done a lot of research on the Internet and are demanding that Sophie has her tonsils removed. On examination, Sophie has a short, thick neck and grade III tonsils, but no other abnormalities.
Which of the following is the next best step in management?Your Answer: Order an overnight polysomnographic study
Explanation:Childhood Obstructive Sleep Apnoea: Diagnosis and Treatment Options
Childhood obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is a pathological condition that requires proper diagnosis and treatment. A polysomnographic study should be performed before any intervention is undertaken, even though adenotonsillectomy is the treatment of choice for childhood OSA. Childhood OSA is characterised by disordered breathing during sleep, which includes both apnoea and hypopnoea. Symptoms such as mouth breathing, abnormal breathing during sleep, poor sleep with frequent awakening or restlessness, nocturnal enuresis, nightmares, difficulty awakening, excessive daytime sleepiness or hyperactivity and behavioural problems are typically observed.
It is important to reassure parents that snoring loudly is normal in children of this age, and their child’s behaviour pattern will improve as they mature. Elective adenotonsillectomy as a day procedure is an option, but a polysomnographic study should be performed first to confirm the diagnosis.
While dental splints have a small role to play in OSA, they are not the ideal treatment option. Intranasal budesonide is an option for mild to moderate OSA, but it is only a temporising measure and not a proven effective long-term treatment. Therefore, it is important to consider all available treatment options and choose the most appropriate one for each individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 7
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman is admitted to hospital with fever, dyspnoea and consolidation at the left lower base. She is commenced on antibiotics. A few days later, she deteriorates and a chest X-ray reveals a large pleural effusion, with consolidation on the left side.
What is the most important investigation to perform next?Your Answer: Pleural aspiration
Explanation:Appropriate Investigations for a Unilateral Pleural Effusion
When a patient presents with a unilateral pleural effusion, the recommended first investigation is pleural aspiration. This procedure allows for the analysis of the fluid, including cytology, biochemical analysis, Gram staining, and culture and sensitivity. By classifying the effusion as a transudate or an exudate, further management can be guided.
While a blood culture may be helpful if the patient has a fever, pleural aspiration is still the more appropriate next investigation. A CT scan may be useful at some point to outline the extent of the consolidation and effusion, but it would not change management at this stage.
Bronchoscopy may be necessary if a tumour is suspected, but it is not required based on the information provided. Thoracoscopy may be used if pleural aspiration is inconclusive, but it is a more invasive procedure. Therefore, pleural aspiration should be performed first.
In summary, pleural aspiration is the recommended first investigation for a unilateral pleural effusion, as it provides valuable information for further management. Other investigations may be necessary depending on the specific case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man with a history of alcohol abuse is admitted to the hospital with alcohol intoxication. During his admission, it was noted that he has mild hypomagnesemia. The hospital's protocol suggests oral magnesium replacement for patients with mild hypomagnesemia. What is the typical adverse effect of using this type of replacement therapy?
Your Answer: Constipation
Correct Answer: Diarrhoea
Explanation:Magnesium salts are known to cause diarrhoea, which is a major side effect that limits the dosage. ACE inhibitors like ramipril can cause angioedema, which is rapid swelling of the skin or mucosa, typically affecting the face and throat. Constipation is a possible side effect of certain medications, including anticholinergics, opiates, and iron tablets. Beta-blockers like bisoprolol can lead to erectile dysfunction. The primary cause of oedema induced by calcium channel blockers is the increased capillary hydrostatic pressure resulting from greater dilation of precapillary vessels compared to post-capillary vessels.
Understanding Hypomagnesaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Hypomagnesaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of magnesium in the blood. There are several causes of this condition, including the use of certain drugs such as diuretics and proton pump inhibitors, total parenteral nutrition, and chronic or acute diarrhoea. Alcohol consumption, hypokalaemia, hypercalcaemia, and metabolic disorders like Gitelman’s and Bartter’s can also lead to hypomagnesaemia. The symptoms of this condition may be similar to those of hypocalcaemia, including paraesthesia, tetany, seizures, and arrhythmias.
When the magnesium level drops below 0.4 mmol/L or when there are symptoms of tetany, arrhythmias, or seizures, intravenous magnesium replacement is commonly given. An example regime would be 40 mmol of magnesium sulphate over 24 hours. For magnesium levels above 0.4 mmol/L, oral magnesium salts are prescribed in divided doses of 10-20 mmol per day. However, diarrhoea can occur with oral magnesium salts. It is important to note that hypomagnesaemia can exacerbate digoxin toxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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What is the usual anatomical structure affected in Klippel-Feil syndrome?
Your Answer: Sacrum and coccyx
Correct Answer: Cervical vertebra
Explanation:Klippel-Feil Syndrome
Klippel-Feil syndrome is a rare condition that occurs when two of the seven cervical vertebrae in the neck are fused together during fetal development. This abnormality can cause a range of symptoms, including a short neck, a low hairline at the back of the head, and limited mobility in the upper spine. In addition to these common signs, individuals with Klippel-Feil syndrome may also experience other abnormalities such as scoliosis, spina bifida, kidney and rib anomalies, cleft palate, respiratory problems, and heart malformations.
This disorder can also affect other parts of the body, including the head and face, skeleton, sex organs, muscles, brain and spinal cord, arms, legs, and fingers. While the exact cause of Klippel-Feil syndrome is not fully understood, it is believed to be the result of a failure in the normal segmentation or division of the cervical vertebrae during early fetal development. the symptoms and associated abnormalities of Klippel-Feil syndrome can help individuals and their healthcare providers better manage this rare condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 10
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman with a history of multiple sclerosis visits her GP complaining of issues with her right eye and right shoulder pain. Upon examination, the GP notes ptosis on the right side, a small pupil, and narrowing of the palpebral fissure with right lid lag. The left eye appears normal, and fundoscopy reveals no abnormalities. The patient has a 30-year history of smoking 30 cigarettes daily and consuming 12 units of alcohol per week. She has also been taking paracetamol and ibuprofen for her shoulder pain. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Horner's syndrome
Explanation:The patient is exhibiting symptoms consistent with Horner’s syndrome, including miosis (constricted pupil), ptosis (drooping eyelid), and enophthalmos (sunken eye). There may also be anhydrosis (lack of sweating) present. This could be indicative of a Pancoast tumor on the lung, which can infiltrate the brachial plexus and cause shoulder pain. It is important to note the patient’s smoking history in this case. Multiple sclerosis is not likely to be the cause of these symptoms. Argyll-Robertson pupil, Holmes-Adie pupil, and oculomotor nerve palsy are not applicable to this case.
Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.
Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.
There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 67-year-old woman was admitted to the hospital after collapsing while shopping. During her inpatient investigations, she underwent cardiac catheterisation. The results of the procedure are listed below, including oxygen saturation levels, pressure measurements, and end systolic/end diastolic readings at various anatomical sites.
- Superior vena cava: 75% oxygen saturation, no pressure measurement available
- Right atrium: 73% oxygen saturation, 6 mmHg pressure
- Right ventricle: 74% oxygen saturation, 30/8 mmHg pressure (end systolic/end diastolic)
- Pulmonary artery: 74% oxygen saturation, 30/12 mmHg pressure (end systolic/end diastolic)
- Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure: 18 mmHg
- Left ventricle: 98% oxygen saturation, 219/18 mmHg pressure (end systolic/end diastolic)
- Aorta: 99% oxygen saturation, 138/80 mmHg pressure
Based on these results, what is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Aortic stenosis
Explanation:Diagnosis of Aortic Stenosis
There is a significant difference in pressure (81 mmHg) between the left ventricle and the aortic valve, indicating a critical case of aortic stenosis. Although hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) can also cause similar pressure differences, the patient’s age and clinical information suggest that aortic stenosis is more likely.
To determine the severity of aortic stenosis, the valve area and mean gradient are measured. A valve area greater than 1.5 cm2 and a mean gradient less than 25 mmHg indicate mild aortic stenosis. A valve area between 1.0-1.5 cm2 and a mean gradient between 25-50 mmHg indicate moderate aortic stenosis. A valve area less than 1.0 cm2 and a mean gradient greater than 50 mmHg indicate severe aortic stenosis. A valve area less than 0.7 cm2 and a mean gradient greater than 80 mmHg indicate critical aortic stenosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 50-year-old man is worried about pain control during his upcoming radical prostatectomy. The consultant goes over various options, including general and regional anesthesia. What is a definite reason to avoid using regional anesthesia, such as spinal, epidural, or plexus block?
Your Answer: Concurrent administration of therapeutic dose of warfarin
Explanation:The use of regional anesthesia is not recommended for patients undergoing therapeutic anticoagulation due to the potential risk of bleeding and the severity of hematoma formation within the central nervous system. To prepare for surgery, warfarin is typically discontinued five days prior and replaced with a Low Molecular Weight Heparin, with the dosage determined by the individual’s thrombosis risk stratification (such as CHADs score or time from pulmonary embolism). Additionally, the patient’s INR should be monitored and ideally kept below 1.4, while also ensuring there are no other coagulation abnormalities present.
Pain management can be achieved through various methods, including the use of analgesic drugs and local anesthetics. The World Health Organisation (WHO) recommends a stepwise approach to pain management, starting with peripherally acting drugs such as paracetamol or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). If pain control is not achieved, weak opioid drugs such as codeine or dextropropoxyphene can be introduced, followed by strong opioids such as morphine as a final option. Local anesthetics can also be used to provide pain relief, either through infiltration of a wound or blockade of plexuses or peripheral nerves.
For acute pain management, the World Federation of Societies of Anaesthesiologists (WFSA) recommends a similar approach, starting with strong analgesics in combination with local anesthetic blocks and peripherally acting drugs. The use of strong opioids may no longer be required once the oral route can be used to deliver analgesia, and peripherally acting agents and weak opioids can be used instead. The final step is when pain can be controlled by peripherally acting agents alone.
Local anesthetics can be administered through infiltration of a wound with a long-acting agent such as Bupivacaine, providing several hours of pain relief. Blockade of plexuses or peripheral nerves can also provide selective analgesia, either for surgery or postoperative pain relief. Spinal and epidural anesthesia are other options, with spinal anesthesia providing excellent analgesia for lower body surgery and epidural anesthesia providing continuous infusion of analgesic agents. Transversus Abdominal Plane block (TAP) is a technique that uses ultrasound to identify the correct muscle plane and injects local anesthetic to block spinal nerves, providing a wide field of blockade without the need for indwelling devices.
Patient Controlled Analgesia (PCA) allows patients to administer their own intravenous analgesia and titrate the dose to their own end-point of pain relief using a microprocessor-controlled pump. Opioids such as morphine and pethidine are commonly used, but caution is advised due to potential side effects and toxicity. Non-opioid analgesics such as paracetamol and NSAIDs can also be used, with NSAIDs being more useful for superficial pain and having relative contraindications for certain medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fatigue, breast tenderness, and bloating in the week leading up to her period. She also experiences mild difficulty concentrating and occasional mood swings during this time, but not at any other point in the month. The patient has a medical history of migraines with aura and takes sumatriptan as needed, without known allergies. Although her symptoms do not significantly impact her daily life, she finds them bothersome and wishes to find a way to alleviate them. What is the most appropriate approach to managing these symptoms?
Your Answer: Prescribe sertraline to take during the luteal phase
Correct Answer: Advise regular exercise and small, regular meals rich in complex carbohydrates
Explanation:To manage premenstrual syndrome, it is recommended to make specific lifestyle changes such as regular exercise and consuming small, balanced meals rich in complex carbohydrates every 2-3 hours. These changes are advised by the Royal College of Obstetrics and Gynaecology as a first-line management approach. It is also suggested to quit smoking, reduce alcohol intake, maintain regular sleep patterns, and manage stress levels. Contrary to popular belief, reducing dietary fats and carbohydrates is not recommended. Additionally, prescribing diazepam is not a routine management approach and is only used in select cases where anxiety is a significant symptom. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors like sertraline can be used for severe premenstrual syndrome, but lifestyle changes are usually sufficient for mild symptoms that do not interfere with daily life.
Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)
Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and does not occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.
Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.
Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.
Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as Yasmin® (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this common condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 76-year-old man presents to Accident and Emergency confused, dehydrated and constipated. He is complaining of significant pain down his left flank. He was diagnosed with multiple myeloma 6 months ago and is currently undergoing treatment. He is treated with aggressive fluid resuscitation and recovers promptly.
Elevated levels of which biochemical parameter would has caused this presentation?Your Answer: Calcium
Explanation:Electrolyte Imbalances and their Symptoms
Calcium: Hypercalcaemia of malignancy is a common cause of lytic bone lesions in multiple myeloma patients. Symptoms include dehydration, which can be prevented with aggressive fluid resuscitation. Treatment involves intravenous bisphosphonate or denosumab and calcitonin to inhibit osteoclastic bone resorption.
Vitamin D: Over-medication with vitamin D can lead to hypervitaminosis D, which presents similar symptoms to hypercalcaemia. However, hypercalcaemia of malignancy is more likely in patients with lytic bone lesions.
Phosphate: Hyperphosphataemia can be caused by impaired renal excretion or massive extracellular phosphate loadings. Symptoms are similar to hypercalcaemia, but hypercalcaemia of malignancy is more likely in patients with multiple myeloma.
Sodium: Hypernatraemia presents with symptoms of thirst, lethargy, weakness, and irritability.
Potassium: Hyperkalaemia can present with symptoms of chest pain, palpitations, and weakness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman has undergone an artificial rupture of membranes to speed up a labor that is progressing slowly. While her partner is assisting her in changing positions for comfort, she suddenly becomes breathless and collapses from the bed. She is now unresponsive and unconscious, with a blood pressure of 82/50 mmHg and a heart rate of 134 beats per minute. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Amniotic fluid embolism
Explanation:The sudden collapse that occurred shortly after the rupture of membranes suggests the possibility of amniotic fluid embolism. The patient’s condition is too severe to be attributed to a simple vasovagal event. While amniotic fluid emboli can indirectly cause myocardial infarctions, it is difficult to diagnose a primary myocardial infarction without any mention of preceding chest pain. Typically, occult bleeding and hypovolemic shock would develop gradually. Although postural orthostatic tachycardia syndrome is more prevalent in women of reproductive age, it would not cause the significant hypotension observed in this case.
Amniotic fluid embolism is a rare but serious complication of pregnancy that can result in a high mortality rate. It occurs when fetal cells or amniotic fluid enter the mother’s bloodstream, triggering a reaction that leads to various signs and symptoms. While several risk factors have been associated with this condition, such as maternal age and induction of labor, the exact cause remains unclear. It is believed that exposure of maternal circulation to fetal cells or amniotic fluid is necessary for the development of an amniotic fluid embolism, but the underlying pathology is not well understood.
The majority of cases of amniotic fluid embolism occur during labor, but they can also occur during a cesarean section or in the immediate postpartum period. Symptoms of this condition include chills, shivering, sweating, anxiety, and coughing, while signs may include cyanosis, hypotension, bronchospasms, tachycardia, arrhythmia, and myocardial infarction. Diagnosis is primarily clinical and based on exclusion, as there are no definitive diagnostic tests available.
Management of amniotic fluid embolism requires a multidisciplinary team and critical care unit. Treatment is mainly supportive, focusing on addressing the patient’s symptoms and stabilizing their condition. Given the high mortality rate associated with this condition, prompt recognition and management are crucial for improving outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male comes to the Emergency Department complaining of abdominal pain that radiates from his right costal margin to his groin in waves. A urine dipstick reveals the presence of blood. What imaging modality is most likely to provide a definitive diagnosis for this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Contrast CT KUB
Correct Answer: Non-contrast CT KUB
Explanation:When renal colic is suspected, the preferred imaging method is non-contrast CT-KUB.
According to both NICE and the European Association of Urology, non-contrast CT-KUB is the most reliable test for detecting renal stones. While ultrasound can be used to check for hydronephrosis or hydroureter, it is not the primary option for identifying renal stones.
The management of renal stones involves initial medication and investigations, including an NSAID for analgesia and a non-contrast CT KUB for imaging. Stones less than 5mm may pass spontaneously, but more intensive treatment is needed for ureteric obstruction or renal abnormalities. Treatment options include shockwave lithotripsy, ureteroscopy, and percutaneous nephrolithotomy. Prevention strategies include high fluid intake, low animal protein and salt diet, and medication such as thiazides diuretics for hypercalciuria and allopurinol for uric acid stones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 17
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman has been suffering from Paget's disease of bone for over a decade. Lately, she has been experiencing increased pain in her lower back and hip region even when at rest. Upon conducting an X-ray, a destructive mass is observed in her bony pelvis. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Multiple myeloma
Correct Answer: Osteosarcoma
Explanation:Paget’s Disease of Bone
Paget’s disease of bone is a condition that typically affects individuals in their later years. It is characterized by a disruption in the normal process of bone repair, resulting in the formation of weak bones that are prone to fractures. Specifically, the repair process ends at the stage of vascular osteoid bone, which is not as strong as fully mineralized bone.
Unfortunately, Paget’s disease of bone can also lead to complications such as osteogenic sarcoma, which occurs in approximately 5% of cases. As such, it is important for individuals with this condition to receive appropriate medical care and monitoring to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 75-year-old man was admitted to a medical ward in Scotland a week ago, after a fall. This is his second admission due to a fall in the last 3 months. He is known to have mild dementia, hypertension and osteoporosis with previous hip fracture.
He lives alone in his own home, with the bathroom and bedroom upstairs. He has poor balance, but refuses to use a walking aid as he doesn't want people to think that he is an ‘old man’. His Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) was 23/30.
The team recommend a move into sheltered housing, which he declines. After a week in hospital, you are called to see the patient, who insists on going home. A discharge plan of ‘meals-on-wheels’ and a package of care including a community alarm and twice-daily visits have been arranged, but he firmly declines these offers as well.Your Answer: Make every effort to get her to stay in hospital at least until the morning, and then arrange discharge in an orderly way
Explanation:Ethical Approaches to a Patient Refusing Help
When a patient refuses help, it can be a difficult situation for healthcare professionals to navigate. In this scenario, a patient is refusing a package of help and wants to leave the hospital. Here are some possible approaches and their ethical implications:
1. Make every effort to get her to stay in hospital at least until the morning, and then arrange discharge in an orderly way. This approach respects the patient’s autonomy while also ensuring a safe and orderly discharge.
2. Detain her under the Mental Health (Care and Treatment) (Scotland) Act 2003, since she is clearly a danger to herself. This approach is not appropriate as there is no evidence that the patient is a danger to herself.
3. Ignore her wishes since, by making these demands, she clearly has no understanding of the seriousness of the situation. This approach disregards the patient’s autonomy and is not ethical.
4. Ignore her demands because of the potential for bad publicity if anything happens to her following discharge. This approach prioritizes the hospital’s reputation over the patient’s well-being and is not ethical.
5. Conceal a sedative in a cup of tea and wait for the morning when someone else can make the decision. This approach is unethical and unprofessional, and delaying a difficult decision is not appropriate.
In conclusion, the best approach is to respect the patient’s autonomy while also ensuring a safe and orderly discharge. It is important to document all discussions and decisions made with the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ethics And Legal
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old female is admitted for an elective total hip replacement of the left hip. Upon admission, she is provided with thigh-length anti-embolism stockings to wear before surgery and until she regains mobility. The hospital follows a policy of administering low molecular weight heparin for postoperative thromboprophylaxis. As per NICE guidelines, at what point should this be initiated?
Your Answer: Immediately after surgery
Correct Answer: 6-12 hours after surgery
Explanation:NICE suggests starting a low molecular weight heparin within 6-12 hours after elective total hip replacement surgery.
Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a serious condition that can lead to severe health complications and even death. However, it is preventable. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines for 2018 to provide recommendations for the assessment and management of patients at risk of VTE in hospital. All patients admitted to the hospital should be assessed individually to identify risk factors for VTE development and bleeding risk. The department of health’s VTE risk assessment tool is recommended for medical and surgical patients. Patients with certain risk factors, such as reduced mobility, surgery, cancer, and comorbidities, are at increased risk of developing VTE. After assessing a patient’s VTE risk, healthcare professionals should compare it to their risk of bleeding to decide whether VTE prophylaxis should be offered. If indicated, VTE prophylaxis should be started as soon as possible.
There are two types of VTE prophylaxis: mechanical and pharmacological. Mechanical prophylaxis includes anti-embolism stockings and intermittent pneumatic compression devices. Pharmacological prophylaxis includes fondaparinux sodium, low molecular weight heparin (LMWH), and unfractionated heparin (UFH). The choice of prophylaxis depends on the patient’s individual risk factors and bleeding risk.
In general, medical patients deemed at risk of VTE after individual assessment are started on pharmacological VTE prophylaxis, provided that the risk of VTE outweighs the risk of bleeding and there are no contraindications. Surgical patients at low risk of VTE are treated with anti-embolism stockings, while those at high risk are treated with a combination of stockings and pharmacological prophylaxis.
Patients undergoing certain surgical procedures, such as hip and knee replacements, are recommended to receive pharmacological VTE prophylaxis to reduce the risk of VTE developing post-surgery. For fragility fractures of the pelvis, hip, and proximal femur, LMWH or fondaparinux sodium is recommended for a month if the risk of VTE outweighs the risk of bleeding.
Healthcare professionals should advise patients to stop taking their combined oral contraceptive pill or hormone replacement therapy four weeks before surgery and mobilize them as soon as possible after surgery. Patients should also ensure they are hydrated. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help prevent VTE and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man is suspected of having bone disease.
The following results are obtained:
Plasma
Investigation Result Normal range
Corrected Ca2+ 1.85 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
Albumin 42 g/l 35–55 g/l
PO43− 0.7 mmol/l 0.70–1.40 mmol/l
Alkaline phosphatase 180 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
Which of the following diagnoses is consistent with these results?Your Answer: Paget’s disease
Correct Answer: Osteomalacia
Explanation:Bone Disorders: Osteomalacia, Osteoporosis, Paget’s Disease, Myeloma, and Bone Metastases
Osteomalacia is a condition where there is insufficient mineralization of bone, resulting in softening of the bone. This is caused by a decrease in plasma PO43− and Ca2+ levels, and an increase in alkaline phosphatase due to increased bone turnover. It can be caused by various factors such as vitamin D deficiency, renal failure, medications, tumors, or liver disease.
Osteoporosis, on the other hand, is associated with normal plasma PO43−, Ca2+, and alkaline phosphatase levels. Paget’s disease is caused by increased bone turnover, resulting in elevated alkaline phosphatase levels, but normal plasma PO43− and Ca2+ levels.
Myeloma and bone metastases both cause raised plasma Ca2+ levels, but the distinguishing feature is the alkaline phosphatase level. Myeloma has normal alkaline phosphatase levels, while bone metastases have elevated levels.
It is important to note that in interpreting calcium levels, only the total calcium concentration is given, not corrected calcium. Alterations in serum protein concentration directly affect the total blood calcium concentration, even if the ionized calcium concentration remains normal. An algorithm to correct for protein changes is to adjust the total serum calcium upward by 0.8 times the deficit in serum albumin or by 0.5 times the deficit in serum immunoglobulins. However, in this question, the serum albumin value is within normal limits, hence no correction for total calcium is required.
Overall, understanding the differences between these bone disorders and their associated laboratory findings is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Biochemistry
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with excruciating pain in his right loin that has been occurring in waves for the past 2 hours. The physician decides to prescribe analgesia to alleviate his discomfort. What would be the most suitable medication to administer at this point?
Your Answer: Paracetamol 1g oral
Correct Answer: Diclofenac 75 mg IM
Explanation:NICE guidelines still advise the utilization of IM diclofenac as the primary treatment for acute renal colic due to its superior analgesic properties. While other analgesic options are also effective, they are not recommended as the first line of treatment for this condition.
The management of renal stones involves initial medication and investigations, including an NSAID for analgesia and a non-contrast CT KUB for imaging. Stones less than 5mm may pass spontaneously, but more intensive treatment is needed for ureteric obstruction or renal abnormalities. Treatment options include shockwave lithotripsy, ureteroscopy, and percutaneous nephrolithotomy. Prevention strategies include high fluid intake, low animal protein and salt diet, and medication such as thiazides diuretics for hypercalciuria and allopurinol for uric acid stones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents with complaints of irregular and unpredictable uterine bleeding over the past 6 months. The bleeding varies in amount, duration, and timing. She reports recent weight gain despite a low appetite and generalized weakness. Her work performance has suffered due to fatigue and poor concentration. She has no significant past medical history and takes bulk-forming laxatives for constipation. She is married, lives with her husband, and has one child. On pelvic examination, the vagina and cervix appear normal, and there is no adnexal mass or tenderness. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Submucosal leiomyoma
Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of abnormal uterine bleeding in a young woman
Abnormal uterine bleeding is a common gynecological complaint that can have various causes. In a young woman presenting with this symptom, the differential diagnosis includes hypothyroidism, submucosal leiomyoma, endometrial hyperplasia and cancer, cervical cancer, and endometrial polyps.
Hypothyroidism is a likely diagnosis if the patient also complains of weight gain, constipation, fatigue, poor concentration, and muscle weakness. Hypothyroidism can affect reproductive functioning and cause irregular and unpredictable uterine bleeding.
Submucosal leiomyoma, although rare in young women, can cause metrorrhagia or menorrhagia. However, it does not explain systemic symptoms.
Endometrial hyperplasia and cancer are more common in postmenopausal women, but can also occur in young women with risk factors such as obesity, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, nulliparity, tamoxifen use, late menopause, and chronic anovulation. Endometrial hyperplasia can lead to abnormal uterine bleeding and uterine enlargement.
Cervical cancer is associated with human papillomavirus infection and other risk factors such as smoking, early intercourse, multiple sexual partners, use of oral contraceptives, and immunosuppression. Early cervical cancer may not cause symptoms, but can present with vaginal spotting, post-coital bleeding, dyspareunia, and vaginal discharge.
Endometrial polyps are more common around the menopausal age and can cause menorrhagia, metrorrhagia, and menometrorrhagia. Although most polyps are benign, some may contain neoplastic foci.
In summary, a thorough evaluation of a young woman with abnormal uterine bleeding should include a thyroid function test and consideration of other potential causes such as leiomyoma, endometrial hyperplasia and cancer, cervical cancer, and endometrial polyps. Treatment depends on the underlying diagnosis and may include hormonal therapy, surgery, or other interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old patient has been diagnosed with chronic hepatitis B through blood tests. The doctor explains that the patient is highly contagious and at a greater risk of long-term disease. Which of the following blood results is most likely to be seen in this patient?
HbSAg Anti-HBs IgM anti-HBc IgG anti-HBc HBeAg Anti-HBe
A + - + + + -
B - + - + - +
C + - - + + -
D + - - + - +
E - + - - - -Your Answer: A
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:Hepatitis B Infection and Immunity
The presence of hepatitis B surface antigen indicates the presence of the hepatitis B virus in the host cells, whether it is a chronic or acute infection. All patients infected with hepatitis B will produce antibodies to the core antigen. IgM antibodies are markers of acute infection and disappear in chronic infection, while IgG antibodies to the core antigen remain present even after the infection has been cleared. Vaccinated individuals develop antibodies to the surface antigen, which confers natural immunity after the infection has cleared.
If HBsAg persists for more than six months, the patient is a chronic carrier. HBeAg is a marker of virus replication, and HBeAg-positive carriers are highly infectious. However, over time, the HBeAg can be lost from the blood, and anti-HBe can be detected. These carriers are much less infectious.
In summary, acute HBV infection is indicated by the presence of IgM antibodies, while cleared HBV infection is indicated by the presence of IgG antibodies. Chronic HBV infection can be high or low in infectivity, depending on the presence of HBeAg or anti-HBe. Finally, individuals who respond to the HBV vaccine develop immunity to the virus. these markers and their implications can aid in the diagnosis and management of hepatitis B infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 24
Correct
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An 18-year-old girl visits her GP with worries about not having started her menstrual cycle yet. Apart from that, she feels healthy. During the examination, she appears to be of average height and has developed breasts, but has minimal pubic hair growth. The doctor can feel two lumps in her groin area upon examination of her abdomen. Her external genitalia seem normal. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Androgen insensitivity syndrome
Explanation:The patient’s presentation is consistent with androgen insensitivity, which is a genetic condition where individuals with XY chromosomes have female physical characteristics due to a lack of testosterone receptors in their tissues. This disorder is X-linked and often results in undescended testes. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is unlikely as it typically causes early puberty and virilization, while Kallmann syndrome does not explain the presence of groin masses. Polycystic ovarian syndrome usually results in secondary amenorrhea or oligomenorrhea and is accompanied by other symptoms such as acne and hirsutism. Turner’s syndrome, which causes primary amenorrhea, is characterized by short stature, webbed neck, heart defects, and abnormal breast development, and does not involve undescended testes.
Disorders of sex hormones can have various effects on the body, as shown in the table below. Primary hypogonadism, also known as Klinefelter’s syndrome, is characterized by high levels of LH and low levels of testosterone. Patients with this disorder often have small, firm testes, lack secondary sexual characteristics, and are infertile. They may also experience gynaecomastia and have an increased risk of breast cancer. Diagnosis is made through chromosomal analysis.
Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, or Kallmann syndrome, is another cause of delayed puberty. It is typically inherited as an X-linked recessive trait and is caused by the failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus. Patients with Kallmann syndrome may have hypogonadism, cryptorchidism, and anosmia. Sex hormone levels are low, and LH and FSH levels are inappropriately low or normal. Cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects may also be present.
Androgen insensitivity syndrome is an X-linked recessive condition that causes end-organ resistance to testosterone, resulting in genotypically male children (46XY) having a female phenotype. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome is the new term for testicular feminisation syndrome. Patients with this disorder may experience primary amenorrhoea, undescended testes causing groin swellings, and breast development due to the conversion of testosterone to oestradiol. Diagnosis is made through a buccal smear or chromosomal analysis to reveal a 46XY genotype. Management includes counseling to raise the child as female, bilateral orchidectomy due to an increased risk of testicular cancer from undescended testes, and oestrogen therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 25
Correct
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What condition is typically linked to obstructive sleep apnea?
Your Answer: Hypersomnolence
Explanation:Symptoms and Associations of Obstructive Sleep Apnoea
Obstructive sleep apnoea is a condition characterized by hypersomnolence or excessive sleepiness. Other common symptoms include personality changes, witnessed apnoeas, and true nocturnal polyuria. Reduced libido is a less frequent symptom. The condition may be associated with acromegaly, myxoedema, obesity, and micrognathia/retrognathia. Sleep apnoea is a serious condition that can lead to complications such as hypertension, cardiovascular disease, and stroke.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of experiencing pain on the lateral side of her left thigh for the past two weeks. The pain has been gradually worsening and extends downwards to just above her left knee. She reports that the pain is more intense when she sleeps on her left side and sometimes wakes her up at night. Upon examination, the doctor observes point tenderness on palpation of the lateral aspect of the left hip, which triggers the radiation of the pain down the thigh. The pain is exacerbated when the hip is passively externally rotated. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Iliopsoas tendonitis
Correct Answer: Trochanteric bursitis
Explanation:Understanding Greater Trochanteric Pain Syndrome
Greater trochanteric pain syndrome, also known as trochanteric bursitis, is a condition that results from the repetitive movement of the fibroelastic iliotibial band. This condition is most commonly observed in women aged between 50 and 70 years. The primary symptom of this condition is pain experienced over the lateral side of the hip and thigh. Additionally, tenderness is observed upon palpation of the greater trochanter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 27
Correct
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A 48-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of pelvic pain that has been present for 4 months and worsens during her menstrual cycle. She has never experienced painful periods before. Additionally, she has lost 7 kg in weight over the past 5 months but feels that her abdomen has become unusually distended. She denies any changes in bowel movements.
What blood tests should be ordered in primary care for this patient?Your Answer: CA125
Explanation:Tumour Markers: An Overview
Tumour markers are substances produced by cancer cells or normal cells in response to cancer. They can be used to aid in the diagnosis, monitoring, and treatment of cancer. Here are some commonly used tumour markers and their applications:
CA125: This marker is used to detect ovarian cancer. It should be tested if a woman has persistent abdominal bloating, early satiety, pelvic or abdominal pain, increased urinary urgency or frequency, or symptoms consistent with irritable bowel syndrome. If CA125 is raised, the patient should be referred for a pelvic/abdominal ultrasound scan.
AFP: Elevated AFP levels are associated with hepatocellular carcinoma, liver metastases, and non-seminomatous germ-cell tumours. It is also measured in pregnant women to screen for neural-tube defects or genetic disorders.
CA15-3: This marker is used to monitor the response to treatment in breast cancer. It should not be used for screening as it is not necessarily raised in early breast cancer. Other causes of raised CA15-3 include liver cirrhosis, hepatitis, autoimmune conditions, and benign disorders of the ovary or breast.
CA19-9: This marker is commonly associated with pancreatic cancer. It may also be seen in other hepatobiliary and gastric malignancies.
CEA: CEA is commonly used as a tumour marker for colorectal cancer. It is not particularly sensitive or specific, so it is usually used to monitor response to treatment or detect disease recurrence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman visits her doctor with a complaint of skin wheals. These wheels are often linked to migraines that she experiences occasionally before her menstrual cycle. She has a clean medical history, takes the progesterone-only pill, an over-the-counter multivitamin, and aspirin for pain relief as needed. She has no known allergies. What is the probable reason for her urticaria?
Your Answer: Hormonal changes secondary to menstruation
Correct Answer: Aspirin-induced urticaria
Explanation:Urticaria, a skin reaction characterized by red patches and oedema caused by the release of vasoactive substances like histamine from mast cells, can be triggered by aspirin. This is a common cause of drug-induced urticaria, which is likely the case for the patient who experiences episodes alongside her migraines, for which she takes aspirin as an analgesic. Although aspirin is not as commonly used as an analgesic, it is still popularly used as an over-the-counter medication. While exercise-induced urticaria is a known phenomenon, it does not seem to be the case for this patient. Hormonal changes due to menstruation may cause migraines, but they are not typically associated with urticaria. Contraceptives can cause chronic urticaria, but it would not occur in a limited time frame once a month. The patient’s daily multivitamin intake is unlikely to be the cause of her sporadic urticaria episodes.
Urticaria, also known as hives, can be caused by various drugs. Some of the most common drugs that cause urticaria include aspirin, penicillins, NSAIDs, and opiates. These drugs can trigger an allergic reaction in the body, leading to the development of hives. It is important to note that not everyone who takes these drugs will experience urticaria, and the severity of the reaction can vary from person to person.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 63-year-old man presented with fever, body ache and pedal oedema for three months. He was taking oral diclofenac frequently for the aches. He had no other drug history and had not travelled recently.
On examination, there was sternal tenderness. His blood report revealed:
Investigation Result Normal range
Haemoglobin 76 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 9 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 134 mm/hr 0–10mm in the 1st hour
Platelets 280 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Urea 13 mmol/l 2.5–6.0 mmol/l
Calcium 2.8 mmol/l 2.2–2.6 mmol/l
What is the most likely cause of renal failure in this case?Your Answer: Light chain deposition
Explanation:Understanding the Causes of Renal Failure in Multiple Myeloma
Multiple myeloma is a rare but possible diagnosis in young adults, with a higher incidence in black populations and men. Renal failure is a common complication of this disease, with various possible causes. While NSAID use, hypercalcaemia, hyperuricaemia, and infiltration of the kidney by myeloma cells are all potential factors, the most common cause of renal failure in multiple myeloma is light chain deposition. This can lead to tubular toxicity and subsequent renal damage. Therefore, understanding the underlying causes of renal failure in multiple myeloma is crucial for effective management and treatment of this disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 30
Correct
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Emily is a 6-year-old overweight girl brought in by concerned parents who are worried about her loud snoring and frequent interruptions in breathing which have been getting progressively worse. Her parents have been receiving complaints from the school teachers about her disruptive and inattentive behaviour in class. On examination, Emily has a short, thick neck and mildly enlarged tonsils but no other abnormalities.
What is the next best step in management?Your Answer: Order an overnight polysomnographic study
Explanation:Childhood Obstructive Sleep Apnoea: Diagnosis and Treatment Options
Childhood obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is a pathological condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. A polysomnographic study should be performed before booking for an operation, as adenotonsillectomy is the treatment of choice for childhood OSA.
The clinical presentation of childhood OSA is non-specific but typically includes symptoms such as mouth breathing, abnormal breathing during sleep, poor sleep with frequent awakening or restlessness, nocturnal enuresis, nightmares, difficulty awakening, excessive daytime sleepiness or hyperactivity, and behavioural problems. However, parents should be reassured that snoring loudly is very normal in children his age and that his behaviour pattern will improve as he matures.
Before any intervention is undertaken, the patient should be first worked up for OSA with a polysomnographic study. While dental splints may have a small role to play in OSA, they are not the ideal treatment option. Intranasal budesonide is an option for mild to moderate OSA, but it is only a temporising measure and not a proven effective long-term treatment.
In conclusion, childhood OSA requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Adenotonsillectomy is the treatment of choice, but a polysomnographic study should be performed before any intervention is undertaken. Parents should be reassured that snoring loudly is normal in children his age, and other treatment options such as dental splints and intranasal budesonide should be considered only after a thorough evaluation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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