00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old accountant has approached you seeking assistance in quitting smoking. They have...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old accountant has approached you seeking assistance in quitting smoking. They have inquired about the effectiveness of various treatments. What is the correct statement regarding smoking cessation?

      Your Answer: Counselling alone is of little value

      Explanation:

      Aids for Smoking Cessation

      Smoking is linked to depression, and antidepressants are believed to help with smoking cessation. Bupropion is an antidepressant that doubles the odds of quitting, but its mode of action is unknown. Varenicline increases the odds of quitting by a factor of 3, while nicotine replacement therapy nearly doubles the odds. Cytisine, a low-cost aid used in Eastern Europe, may be effective but requires further evaluation. Genetic differences may affect response to NRT. Counselling is widely accepted as an aid, but its effectiveness varies. Overall, there are several aids available for those looking to quit smoking, and it may be helpful to try a combination of methods for the best chance of success.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      397.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - In a blinded, randomised controlled trial, two strains of bacillus Calmette–Guérin (BCG) for...

    Incorrect

    • In a blinded, randomised controlled trial, two strains of bacillus Calmette–Guérin (BCG) for intravesical use are compared for preventing recurrences of high-risk non-muscle-invasive bladder cancer. Review cystoscopies are conducted regularly, and at each cystoscopy, the group receiving strain A has 12% more recurrences than the group receiving strain B. The statistic being used is 1.12.

      Your Answer: Relative risk ratio

      Correct Answer: Hazard ratio

      Explanation:

      Understanding Statistical Measures in Clinical Trials

      Clinical trials often use statistical measures to analyze and compare the effectiveness of different treatments. Here are some common measures and their meanings:

      Hazard Ratio: Compares the rate of an event occurring in two groups. A ratio of 1.0 means no significant difference between the groups.

      Relative Risk Ratio: Measures the proportion of events occurring in one group compared to another. Calculated at the end of the study.

      Number Needed to Treat: The number of patients who need a specific treatment to prevent one additional bad outcome.

      Odds Ratio: Compares the odds of an event occurring in one group to another. Calculated at the end of the study.

      Probability: The likelihood of an event occurring, quantified as a number between 0 and 1. Not applicable to ratios.

      Understanding these measures can help in interpreting the results of clinical trials and making informed decisions about treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      569.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following would be the best reason for randomly assigning elderly...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following would be the best reason for randomly assigning elderly subjects to the various arms of the clinical trial assessing whether a new treatment is more effective than a placebo in reducing cholesterol levels?

      Your Answer: Subjects are representative of the general population

      Correct Answer: Subjects in each arm have comparable baseline characteristics

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Randomisation in Clinical Trials

      Randomisation is a crucial aspect of clinical trials, particularly in randomised controlled trials (RCTs). In an RCT, subjects are randomly assigned to different treatments being investigated. This helps to minimise allocation bias between groups, ensuring that subjects in each arm have comparable baseline characteristics.

      Double blinding is another important aspect of clinical trials, which means that observers are unaware of which intervention each subject is receiving. Blinding can be achieved without randomisation, but randomisation doesn’t influence blinding.

      To ensure that subjects are representative of the general population, random sampling from a population could be used. However, randomisation occurs after subjects are selected.

      Finally, randomisation doesn’t affect whether or not subjects adhere to an intervention. It is important to evenly allocate subjects with characteristics that may limit adherence between groups. Overall, randomisation is a critical component of clinical trials, helping to ensure unbiased and reliable results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      132.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You are asked to see a 25-year-old patient who has presented with a...

    Correct

    • You are asked to see a 25-year-old patient who has presented with a pigmented skin lesion on his back. He is concerned because his father was treated for a melanoma at the age of 38.

      The presence of which of the following risk factors confers the greatest risk of developing a melanoma?

      Your Answer: Family history of melanoma in a first degree relative

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Melanoma

      When evaluating a pigmented skin lesion, it is important to consider any risk factors for melanoma. There are several established risk factors, including having more than 100 common moles larger than 2 mm in size, which confers the greatest risk with an odds ratio of 7.6-7.7. Other risk factors include a family history of melanoma in a first degree relative (odds ratio of 1.8), the presence of actinic lentigines (odds ratio of 1.9-3.5), red or light-colored hair (odds ratio of 1.4-3.5), and skin that doesn’t tan easily (odds ratio of 1.98). It is important to consider these risk factors when assessing a pigmented skin lesion to determine the likelihood of melanoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      170.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the food item with the highest glycaemic index (GI)? ...

    Correct

    • What is the food item with the highest glycaemic index (GI)?

      Your Answer: Potatoes

      Explanation:

      The Importance of GI and Nutrition in Diabetes and Dieting

      The GI and nutrition are crucial factors to consider when it comes to managing diabetes and maintaining a healthy diet. In exams, questions related to these topics are common. Foods with a low GI are recommended for people with diabetes as they cause a smaller increase in blood glucose levels, resulting in better glycaemic control.

      For instance, potatoes have a high GI, which means they can cause a rapid spike in blood sugar levels. On the other hand, cucumber has the lowest GI, making it an excellent choice for people with diabetes. By understanding the GI and nutrition of different foods, individuals can make informed choices about what they eat, which can help them manage their diabetes and maintain a healthy weight.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 31-year-old patient presents to you seeking help with quitting smoking. He currently...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old patient presents to you seeking help with quitting smoking. He currently smokes 20-30 cigarettes per day. After counseling him on his options, you decide to prescribe bupropion. As per NICE guidelines, what is the recommended duration for the initial prescription of bupropion?

      Your Answer: 14 days

      Correct Answer: 84 days

      Explanation:

      Duration of Nicotine Replacement Therapy and Other Medications for Smoking Cessation

      The recommended duration for prescribing nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline, or bupropion is until two weeks after the target stop date. For NRT, this typically means two weeks of therapy, while varenicline and bupropion may require three to four weeks. It is important to adhere to this timeline to ensure the effectiveness of the medication and to avoid potential side effects from prolonged use. By following this guideline, individuals can increase their chances of successfully quitting smoking and improving their overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      298.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is meant by the term 'power of the study' in the design...

    Correct

    • What is meant by the term 'power of the study' in the design of a randomised controlled trial?

      Your Answer: The probability of a statistically significant treatment effect if the true treatment difference is at a prespecified level

      Explanation:

      Understanding Power Analysis in Statistical Studies

      Power analysis is a statistical tool used to determine the sample size required in a study to detect a significant difference at a predetermined level of significance and size of effect. It is an essential step in planning a study and helps researchers to avoid underpowered or overpowered studies.

      The predetermined level of significance is usually set at 0.05, which means that there is a 5% chance of obtaining a significant result by chance alone. The size of effect is the difference between the treatment and control groups that is considered clinically significant.

      It is important to note that the size of effect used in power analysis may not necessarily correspond to a clinically significant difference. Therefore, it is crucial to consult with experts in the field to determine an appropriate size of effect.

      In summary, power analysis is a crucial step in planning a study and helps researchers to determine the appropriate sample size needed to detect a significant difference at a predetermined level of significance and size of effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      93.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - From this description, which of the following principles of good research practice, as...

    Incorrect

    • From this description, which of the following principles of good research practice, as set out by the GMC, has been breached during the course of a trial researching a new medication for the treatment of late dementia?

      Your Answer: Ensuring economic viability

      Correct Answer: Consent to research

      Explanation:

      Adhering to GMC Guidance in Research: A Case Study

      In conducting research, it is important to follow the guidance provided by the General Medical Council (GMC) to ensure ethical and responsible practices. This case study highlights the importance of obtaining informed consent, avoiding conflicts of interest, protecting participants from harm, and respecting confidentiality.

      Consent to Research
      The GMC advises that informed consent must be obtained from all participants involved in research. In this case, the patients were not informed that they were receiving a trial drug, which means they were not given the opportunity to give or refuse consent. This is a violation of the GMC guidance.

      Avoiding Conflicts of Interest
      Researchers must be transparent about all financial and commercial matters related to the funding of research. In this case, the researchers disclosed that their research was funded by pharmaceutical companies, which is not necessarily a conflict of interest.

      Ensuring Economic Viability
      While ensuring economic viability is important, it is not one of the principles of good research practice outlined in the GMC guidance.

      Protecting Participants from Harm
      The GMC recommends that adverse findings must be reported to research participants, their treating practitioners, and other regulatory bodies. This was done in this case, demonstrating adherence to the GMC guidance.

      Respecting Confidentiality
      Data on research participants must be stored securely and in accordance with Data Protection law. This was carried out in this case, showing respect for confidentiality.

      In conclusion, following the GMC guidance is crucial in conducting ethical and responsible research. Adhering to the principles of obtaining informed consent, avoiding conflicts of interest, protecting participants from harm, and respecting confidentiality can ensure the integrity of research and the safety of participants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      343.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A group of elderly patients are being prescribed a newly licensed antidepressant, which...

    Incorrect

    • A group of elderly patients are being prescribed a newly licensed antidepressant, which has been reported in journals as having superior efficacy and tolerability to alternatives in its class. Nonetheless, after some months, the drug is withdrawn from the market because of an unexpected number of serious adverse reactions reported through drug surveillance schemes.
      Which of the following is the most likely reason for this?

      Your Answer: Misleading marketing by the pharmaceutical company

      Correct Answer: Small numbers of participants in the clinical trials

      Explanation:

      Explaining Possible Causes of Missed Side Effects in Drugs

      Clinical trials are conducted to test the safety and efficacy of drugs before they are released on the market. However, these trials involve a relatively small number of participants who may not represent the general population. This is where post-marketing surveillance comes in, to monitor the safety of drugs after they are used by a larger number of people. Inappropriate prescribing of drugs could lead to more side effects, but this should be addressed by tightening prescribing guidelines rather than withdrawing the drug. Misleading marketing by pharmaceutical companies is unlikely, but publication bias could lead to only positive results being reported, which could enhance the apparent efficacy of the drug. Overall, it is important to continue monitoring drugs for potential side effects even after they are approved for use.

      Understanding the Causes of Missed Side Effects in Drugs

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      176.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following is most likely to indicate bias in a meta-analysis...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is most likely to indicate bias in a meta-analysis of randomized controlled trials focused on elderly populations? The authors select papers from studies across the world and carry out various analyses, including funnel plots. They declare no conflicts of interest.

      Your Answer: Asymmetrical funnel plot

      Explanation:

      Common Biases in Meta-Analysis

      Meta-analysis is a powerful tool for synthesizing data from multiple studies. However, it is important to be aware of potential biases that can affect the validity of the conclusions drawn from a meta-analysis. One common bias is publication bias, which can be detected through an asymmetrical funnel plot. Clinical homogeneity and statistical homogeneity support a lack of bias, while clinical heterogeneity and statistical heterogeneity can render conclusions invalid. Additionally, incorporating papers published in only one language or having an agenda that would be supported by a positive result can introduce bias. It is important to consider these potential biases when conducting and interpreting a meta-analysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      326.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 15-year-old girl comes to see your practice nurse after getting an open...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl comes to see your practice nurse after getting an open wound on her right arm while playing basketball. Upon examination, the wound is found to be a 5 cm cut with dirt in it. What is the best course of action for tetanus vaccination for this patient?

      Your Answer: If his immunisation status is uncertain he should receive tetanus immunoglobulin and vaccine

      Correct Answer: If he has received three doses of tetanus toxoid and the last booster was more than 10 years ago he should receive a further three dose course tetanus vaccine

      Explanation:

      Tetanus Vaccination and TIG Administration

      With regards to tetanus vaccination, if an individual has completed the full five-course of tetanus vaccine and suffers a tetanus-prone wound, no further doses of the vaccine are recommended. However, there is some disagreement over whether to administer Tetanus Immune Globulin (TIG) to fully immunized individuals. Some sources recommend administering TIG for all high-risk wounds, while others suggest administering it only if five years have elapsed since the last dose. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action in each individual case. Proper vaccination and wound management are crucial in preventing tetanus infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      168
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - In the UK in 2010, there were five risk factors for disease that...

    Incorrect

    • In the UK in 2010, there were five risk factors for disease that caused the most disability-adjusted life years (DALYs). Which of these options had the greatest impact? Please

      Your Answer: High blood pressure

      Correct Answer: Tobacco smoking (including second-hand smoke)

      Explanation:

      Top Risk Factors for UK Health: Findings from the Global Burden of Disease Study 2010

      The Global Burden of Disease Study 2010 identified the top risk factors for UK health, based on disability-adjusted life years (DALYs). Tobacco smoking, including second-hand smoke, was found to be the greatest risk factor, accounting for 11.8% of DALYs. Diet and physical inactivity together accounted for 14.3% of DALYs, with a low intake of fruits and vegetables, high cholesterol and glucose levels, and drug use also contributing to the burden. High body-mass index was responsible for 8.6% of DALYs, while alcohol use accounted for only 4.9%. High blood pressure and physical inactivity/low activity were also significant risk factors, responsible for 9% and 5% of DALYs, respectively. These findings highlight the importance of addressing these risk factors to improve overall health in the UK.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      86.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Consider the summary of findings from a review comparing Symbicort SMART therapy to...

    Incorrect

    • Consider the summary of findings from a review comparing Symbicort SMART therapy to usual treatment. The data shows the odds ratios (OR) and confidence intervals (CI) for exacerbations of asthma requiring oral steroids and hospital admission for both comparisons: new inhaler versus inhaled steroid and long-acting beta agonist (LABA), and new inhaler versus inhaled steroid alone. Which of the following statements correctly interprets these findings?

      Your Answer: SMART therapy is more cost-effective than usual treatment

      Correct Answer: SMART therapy is superior to inhaled steroid and LABA in reducing exacerbations of asthma requiring oral steroids

      Explanation:

      Understanding Odds Ratios in a Study Comparing Exacerbation Treatments

      An odds ratio is a measure of the likelihood of an event occurring in one group compared to another. In a study comparing exacerbation treatments, the data showed a significant reduction in outcomes for exacerbations requiring oral steroids compared to inhaled corticosteroids only. The odds ratio was less than 1, indicating that the comparison treatment was more effective. However, the confidence intervals for other outcomes were wide and exceeded 1, suggesting that there may not be a significant effect. The results could potentially favor the comparison treatment, but without cost data, no economic conclusions can be drawn.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      8508
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What is the best description of a retrospective study from the following list...

    Correct

    • What is the best description of a retrospective study from the following list of statements?

      Your Answer: A study whereby patients who have had a myocardial infarction are interviewed to assess exposure to a variety of factors in the 10 years before their cardiac event

      Explanation:

      Understanding Retrospective Studies: Examining Risk Factors for Myocardial Infarction

      Retrospective studies are a type of research that looks back in time to examine exposure to suspected risk or protective factors in relation to a specific outcome. In the case of a study on myocardial infarction, the outcome is established at the beginning of the study, and subjects are compared with controls who are matched for age and sex but have not experienced a heart attack.

      However, retrospective studies are often criticized for introducing bias that can lead to errors in the results. This is because participants are asked to recall events from the past, which can be influenced by various factors such as memory lapses, social desirability bias, and other cognitive biases.

      Despite these limitations, retrospective studies can still provide valuable insights into the potential risk factors for myocardial infarction and other health outcomes. By carefully designing the study and minimizing sources of bias, researchers can obtain reliable data that can inform future prevention and treatment strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      712
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A randomised controlled trial was conducted to test a new treatment for preventing...

    Incorrect

    • A randomised controlled trial was conducted to test a new treatment for preventing recurrence of stroke. The trial involved 1000 patients who were randomly assigned to receive the new treatment and another 1000 patients who received standard therapy. During the trial, 66 patients who received the new treatment suffered a recurrent stroke, while 110 patients in the control group experienced the same outcome. What is the relative risk reduction in the treatment group?

      Your Answer: 11%

      Correct Answer: 40%

      Explanation:

      Calculating Relative and Absolute Risk Reduction in a Study on Stroke Prevention

      In a study on stroke prevention, various measures were used to determine the effectiveness of a treatment. These measures include the relative risk reduction (RRR), absolute risk reduction (ARR), absolute risk in the treatment and control groups, and the relative risk of having a recurrent stroke. By understanding how to calculate these measures, researchers and healthcare professionals can better interpret the results of the study and make informed decisions about treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      237.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which one of the following statement regarding the 2010 Mental Capacity Act is...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statement regarding the 2010 Mental Capacity Act is incorrect?

      Your Answer: The views of family members should be sought when assessing a patients best interests

      Correct Answer: Applies to patients of any age

      Explanation:

      The Mental Capacity Act is not applicable to minors. It is important to presume that all patients have the ability to make decisions, regardless of their condition, until it is demonstrated otherwise.

      The Mental Capacity Act was introduced in 2007 and applies to adults over the age of 16. It outlines who can make decisions on behalf of a patient who becomes incapacitated, such as after a stroke. Mental capacity includes the ability to make decisions about daily life, healthcare, and finances. The Act is based on five key principles, including assuming a person has capacity unless proven otherwise, taking all possible steps to help a person make decisions, and making decisions in the person’s best interests.

      To assess whether a person lacks capacity, the Act provides a clear test that is decision-specific and time-specific. A person can only be considered unable to make a particular decision if they have an impairment or disturbance in the functioning of the mind or brain and are unable to understand, retain, use, or communicate information relevant to the decision. The Act also emphasizes that no individual can be labeled incapable based on their age, appearance, or any medical condition.

      When assessing what is in someone’s best interests, the Act considers factors such as the likelihood of regaining capacity, the person’s wishes and beliefs, and the views of other relevant people. The Act also allows for the appointment of an attorney through a Lasting Power of Attorney (LPA) to act on behalf of a person who loses capacity. The LPA can cover property and financial affairs as well as health and welfare decisions, including life-sustaining treatment. Advance decisions can also be made by individuals with capacity to specify treatments they would not want if they lost capacity. These decisions must be written, signed, and witnessed if they refuse life-sustaining treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      403.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A researcher measures the height of 1000 6-year-old children. She finds that the...

    Correct

    • A researcher measures the height of 1000 6-year-old children. She finds that the mean height is 110 cm. She wants to calculate how dispersed the data is in relation to the mean.
      Which of the following measurements would provide this information?

      Your Answer: The standard deviation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Statistical Measures: Standard Deviation, Confidence Interval, Median, Mode, and Standard Error

      Statistical measures are essential tools in analyzing data. They provide insights into the distribution, dispersion, and uncertainty of a dataset. In this article, we will discuss five common statistical measures: standard deviation, confidence interval, median, mode, and standard error.

      Standard Deviation
      The standard deviation is a measure of how dispersed the data is in relation to the mean. It tells us whether the data is clustered around the mean or spread out over a wider range. A low standard deviation indicates that the data is tightly clustered around the mean, while a high standard deviation suggests that the values are more spread out.

      Confidence Interval
      The confidence interval measures the degree of uncertainty or certainty in a sampling method. It tells us the probability that a population parameter will fall between a set of values for a certain proportion of times. A wider confidence interval indicates greater uncertainty, while a narrower interval suggests greater certainty.

      Median
      The median is the middle number in a sorted list of numbers. It gives us an idea of the central tendency of the data and can indicate whether the distribution is skewed. However, the standard deviation provides more information about the dispersion of the data.

      Mode
      The mode is the value that occurs most frequently in a distribution. It can also indicate whether the distribution is skewed, but again, the standard deviation is a better measure of dispersion.

      Standard Error
      The standard error of the mean measures how much discrepancy there is likely to be in a sample’s mean compared with the population mean. It takes into account the sample size and the standard deviation. A smaller standard error indicates greater precision in the sample mean.

      In conclusion, understanding these statistical measures is crucial in analyzing data and drawing meaningful conclusions. Each measure provides unique insights into the data, and using them together can give a more comprehensive understanding of the dataset.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      43.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A study is designed to assess the safety of recombinant human erythropoietin (rhEPO)...

    Correct

    • A study is designed to assess the safety of recombinant human erythropoietin (rhEPO) when used in premature infants of less than 32 weeks gestation to reduce postnatal haemoglobin decline. Out of 29 infants given the treatment, none suffered serious side-effects.

      Your Answer: Nothing conclusive can be said, a larger study is needed

      Explanation:

      Importance of Further Study on Infant Drug Safety

      Although none of the 31 infants in the study experienced serious side-effects from the drug, it doesn’t necessarily mean that the drug is completely safe for all infants. If 3% of infants were to suffer from serious side-effects, it would only be expected to occur in 1 out of 30 infants, making it possible to have no occurrences in a small sample size. Therefore, a larger study is necessary to obtain a more accurate estimate of the percentage of infants who may experience serious side-effects. It is crucial to conduct further research to ensure the safety of infants who may be prescribed this drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      185.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A process that facilitates a collaborative communication structure between the teacher(s) and a...

    Incorrect

    • A process that facilitates a collaborative communication structure between the teacher(s) and a group of educators in a subject area to generate ideas, requirements, goals or projections about a subject.
      This describes which of the below options?

      Your Answer: Non-directive interview

      Correct Answer: Delphi method

      Explanation:

      Research Techniques: Delphi Method, Cross-Sectional Study, Focus Group, Non-Directive Interview, and Triangulation

      The Delphi method is a research technique that involves asking questions of experts and analyzing their responses. The information is then fed back to each expert, who has the opportunity to revise their answers in light of their colleagues’ replies. This iterative process continues until a consensus is reached, resulting in a synthesis of knowledge. The Delphi method is considered rigorous and valid due to the input of experts and the iterative nature of the process.

      A cross-sectional study involves observing a sample at a single point in time. This type of study is useful for examining the prevalence of a particular condition or behavior in a population.

      A focus group is a form of qualitative research in which a group of people is asked about their perceptions, opinions, beliefs, and attitudes on a particular topic. Participants are free to interact with each other, allowing for a deeper exploration of the topic.

      Non-directive interviews are the opposite of structured interviews. They allow for open-ended questions based on the interviewee’s responses, creating a more conversational and relaxed atmosphere.

      Triangulation is a method used by qualitative researchers to establish validity in their studies by analyzing a research question from multiple perspectives. This can include using different research methods, such as one-to-one interviews, focus groups, and engaging with different stakeholders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      855.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A preschool teacher arranges an educational session at the Preschool assembly where they...

    Correct

    • A preschool teacher arranges an educational session at the Preschool assembly where they talk about healthy eating. This could be best described as an example of which of the following concepts?

      Your Answer: Health promotion

      Explanation:

      The RCGP curriculum includes Public Health as part of the statement on ‘Healthy People: promoting health and preventing disease,’ which are commonly encountered in Primary Care.

      The nurse in this scenario is practicing health promotion, which is defined by the World Health Organisation as ‘the process of enabling people to increase control over, and to improve, their health.’

      Health surveillance, as defined by WHO, involves the continuous and systematic collection, analysis, and interpretation of health-related data for public health practice. An example of this is the National Child Measurement Program, which collects data on childhood obesity.

      Screening is the process of testing a population or selected subgroup for a disease in its early or pre-symptomatic stage to provide earlier treatment and improve outcomes. In the UK, examples of screening programs include breast screening, cervical screening, and bowel cancer screening. It is linked to the concept of secondary prevention, which aims to identify and treat a disease at an earlier stage to reduce morbidity and mortality.

      Understanding Health Promotion and Surveillance

      Health promotion refers to the process of empowering individuals to take control of their health and improve it. This is achieved through various means such as education, awareness campaigns, and access to healthcare services. The World Health Organisation defines health promotion as a continuous process that enables people to increase their control over their health.

      On the other hand, health surveillance is the systematic collection, analysis, and interpretation of health-related data. This data is used to plan, implement, and evaluate public health practices. Health surveillance is crucial in identifying health trends and patterns, which can help in the prevention and control of diseases. An example of health surveillance is the National Child Measurement Program, which collects data on childhood obesity.

      In summary, health promotion and surveillance are essential components of public health. Health promotion empowers individuals to take control of their health, while health surveillance provides valuable data that can be used to plan and implement effective public health interventions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 5 year-old child has a minor nosebleed. She received a vaccination the...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year-old child has a minor nosebleed. She received a vaccination the previous day. Which immunisation is most likely responsible for her epistaxis?

      Your Answer: MMR

      Correct Answer: influenza

      Explanation:

      Children are now being offered annual influenza vaccination, with the current rollout in winter 2015 targeting those aged 2, 3, and 4, as well as children in years 1 and 2 of school. It is expected that all children will receive the vaccine annually in the future. Unlike the inactivated injectable vaccine given to adults, the vaccine for children is a live attenuated vaccine administered through nasal spray. Common side effects include nasal congestion and rhinorrhea, and in some cases, epistaxis. However, it should be noted that the vaccine contains porcine gelatin, which may not be suitable for certain religious groups.

      influenza vaccination is recommended in the UK between September and early November, as the influenza season typically starts in the middle of November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B accounting for the majority of clinical disease. Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013, with the children’s vaccine given intranasally and annually after the first dose at 2-3 years. It is important to note that the type of vaccine given to children and the one given to the elderly and at-risk groups is different, which explains the different contraindications.

      For adults and at-risk groups, current vaccines are trivalent and consist of two subtypes of influenza A and one subtype of influenza B. The Department of Health recommends annual influenza vaccination for all people older than 65 years and those older than 6 months with chronic respiratory, heart, kidney, liver, neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, or a body mass index >= 40 kg/m². Other at-risk individuals include health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person whose welfare may be at risk if the carer becomes ill.

      The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine that cannot cause influenza, but a minority of patients may develop fever and malaise that lasts 1-2 days. It should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light, and contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. In adults, the vaccination is around 75% effective, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      40.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A school playground is inspected by a Public Health Officer. This is an...

    Correct

    • A school playground is inspected by a Public Health Officer. This is an example of which domain of Public Health?

      Your Answer: Health protection

      Explanation:

      The RCGP curriculum covers public health through its focus on promoting health and preventing disease among individuals and communities. One aspect of this is health protection, which involves protecting the public from health threats through measures such as legislation on air pollution and vaccination programs for infectious diseases. The Food Standards Agency (FSA) is an example of a health protection body, as it is a government agency responsible for ensuring the safety of food. FSA Environmental Health Officers inspect food premises to ensure that they meet hygiene and safety standards.

      The Importance of Health Protection

      Health protection is a crucial aspect of public health that aims to safeguard individuals and communities from potential health hazards. It involves implementing measures and policies that prevent or minimize the risks of diseases, injuries, and other health threats.

      Examples of health protection initiatives include laws and regulations that control air pollution, water quality, and food safety. These measures are designed to reduce exposure to harmful substances and prevent the spread of infectious diseases. Vaccination programs are also a key component of health protection, as they help to prevent the spread of diseases and protect individuals who may be vulnerable to infection.

      Health protection is essential for maintaining the health and well-being of individuals and communities. By implementing effective measures to prevent and control health threats, we can reduce the burden of disease and improve overall health outcomes. It is important for governments, healthcare providers, and individuals to work together to promote health protection and ensure that everyone has access to the resources and information they need to stay healthy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      57.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 65-year-old Caucasian smoker presents to you with a two month history of...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old Caucasian smoker presents to you with a two month history of a cough. The cough is non-productive, but he has coughed up spots of blood on occasion. He has also lost 10 pounds in weight, which he attributes to a reduced appetite since his wife started a healthy eating regime at home.

      Upon examination, he has lost weight, but he is afebrile and appears to be in good health. His 4-year-old grandson whom he sees twice a week has recently been diagnosed with whooping cough, and he wonders if he could have whooping cough as well.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Malignancy

      Explanation:

      Managing a Patient Who is a Contact of an Infectious Disease

      When managing a patient who is a contact of an infectious disease, it is crucial to consider the full differential diagnosis and take an overview of the clinical picture. In this case, the patient presented with haemoptysis, which could be a symptom of various conditions.

      Bronchopneumonia is a possible cause, but it typically presents with fever and general malaise. Chronic bronchitis is unlikely to result in haemoptysis, and tuberculosis is not probable in a Caucasian man with no history of travel or contact with the disease. Pertussis is also not a likely cause of haemoptysis.

      The most probable diagnosis, which needs to be ruled out, is malignancy. Therefore, a thorough evaluation and appropriate testing should be conducted to determine the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      30282
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What prophylaxis options are suitable for an adult at-risk population, including pregnant women,...

    Incorrect

    • What prophylaxis options are suitable for an adult at-risk population, including pregnant women, during an influenza A outbreak?

      Your Answer: Oseltamivir

      Correct Answer: Lamivudine

      Explanation:

      Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) for Prophylactic Treatment during Flu Epidemics

      During flu epidemics, oseltamivir (Tamiflu) may be used as a prophylactic treatment for at-risk patients, including pregnant women. However, long-term use of oseltamivir can lead to resistance. The current protocol recommends no antiviral treatment for previously healthy individuals, unless the physician deems the patient at serious risk of developing complications from the flu. In such cases, oseltamivir may be prescribed orally.

      For at-risk populations, including pregnant women (excluding the severely immunosuppressed), oseltamivir is recommended as a prophylactic treatment. Treatment should begin as soon as possible, ideally within 48 hours of onset. Evidence suggests that even if treatment is started up to 5 days after onset, it may reduce the risk of mortality. However, starting treatment more than 48 hours after onset is considered an off-label use of oseltamivir, and clinical judgement should be exercised.

      For the full protocol, please refer to the HM UK Government’s guidelines on influenza treatment and prophylaxis using antiviral agents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      150.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What measure can be taken to avoid the spread of the common cold?...

    Correct

    • What measure can be taken to avoid the spread of the common cold?

      Your Answer: Vaccination

      Explanation:

      Treatment and Prevention of Viral Infections

      There are several approaches to treating and preventing viral infections, but not all of them are effective. Antivirals, for example, have no evidence of efficacy. Antibiotics are also not appropriate for uncomplicated cases. However, frequent hand washing can reduce contamination from surfaces. Health food products like ginseng have no evidence of efficacy either. Topical interferon alpha can prevent symptoms if given before disease onset, but it cannot be used for long-term prophylaxis due to side effects and cost implications. Vaccination is not an option due to the numerous types of viruses. The role of vitamin C remains controversial, but some evidence suggests it may help during times of severe stress. The current consensus is that it doesn’t. By understanding the limitations and benefits of these approaches, individuals can take steps to protect themselves from viral infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A study compares suicide rates between two groups of patients taking antidepressants, the...

    Incorrect

    • A study compares suicide rates between two groups of patients taking antidepressants, the under-30 age group and over-50 age group, to see if one group has a higher suicide rate. The patients are selected by a search based on BNF section 4.3 (Antidepressant drugs). The following results are obtained, compared with patients not taking these drugs:
      Odds ratio in under-30s 1.53 (0.91 - 2.03)
      Odds ratio in over-50s 0.66 (0.54 - 0.95)
      Select from the list the single conclusion that can be drawn from the information provided.

      Your Answer: The results show a statistically significant increase in risk of suicide in under-18s

      Correct Answer: Both groups are prone to bias due to the class effect of different drugs

      Explanation:

      Potential Bias in Comparing Patient Groups Based on Antidepressant Use

      When comparing patient groups based on their use of antidepressants, there is a risk of bias due to the varying side-effects of different drugs and their different usage in different age groups. For instance, younger patients are typically prescribed selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, while tricyclics are more commonly used in elderly patients. These drugs have different modes of action and side-effect profiles, which can affect the results of the comparison.

      It is important to note that the statistical significance of the results may vary depending on the age group being studied. For example, the results for patients over 65 years old may be statistically significant, while those for patients under 18 years old may not be. Additionally, it is important to remember that odds ratios compare the risk in an intervention group with controls, not with another intervention group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      1256.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 16-year-old girl presented to A&E with malaise and fever. She was given...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl presented to A&E with malaise and fever. She was given advice about managing her symptoms and sent home. Unfortunately, the girl's condition deteriorated whilst at home and she had a cardiac arrest. Despite attempts by her family to resuscitate her, she sadly died.

      You later discover that she had pneumococcal meningitis. Her past medical history reveals that she should have been immunised against pneumococcus.

      As per the NHS vaccination programme, which of the following patient populations should receive the pneumococcus vaccine?

      Your Answer: Pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Vaccination Recommendations for Specific Patient Groups

      According to The Green Book, certain patient groups have specific vaccination recommendations. For example, individuals with coeliac disease and absent or dysfunctional spleens should be fully vaccinated according to the national schedule, with a particular emphasis on vaccination against pneumococcal infection and annual influenza vaccine. Patients with immune suppression due to infections such as HIV, those receiving chemotherapy or oral steroids, and those with cochlear implants may also have increased risks of contracting bacterial infections and should be vaccinated accordingly. However, patients with thyroid disease alone or those who have received a contraceptive implant are not listed on the NHS vaccination schedule. Pregnant patients are advised to wait until after giving birth to receive the pneumococcal vaccine, unless the benefits outweigh the risks. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these recommendations for routine immunisation and to consider them in the context of specific patient populations. This knowledge can also be useful for conducting audits in practice, such as assessing the pneumococcal vaccination rates among patients with coeliac disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      66.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 31-year-old woman attends with her partner. Unfortunately the couple suffered a cot...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman attends with her partner. Unfortunately the couple suffered a cot death. They would like to try for another child and would like to discuss some of the features of cot death with you. Both smoke heavily.

      Which one of the following is true with respect to the risk of cot death in future offspring?

      Your Answer: They should be encouraged to put children to sleep on their fronts

      Correct Answer: Risk is reduced if parents give up smoking

      Explanation:

      Sudden Unexpected Death in Infancy (SUDI)

      Sudden unexpected death in infancy (SUDI), commonly known as cot death, is a condition where infants die without any apparent cause found in their history, clinical examination, or post mortem investigations. This condition is most common in infants under six months of age, with the peak incidence occurring in the second month. SUDI is the leading cause of death in this age group, and premature and low birth weight babies, as well as twins, are at higher risk.

      Boys are more susceptible to SUDI than girls, and infants born to young mothers, in low socio-economic class, and households with smokers are also at higher risk. Smoking is a dose-related risk factor. A minor preceding illness in the previous day or so is often reported before the occurrence of SUDI.

      Sleeping on their fronts is another factor that increases the risk of SUDI, which is why the back to sleep campaign has significantly reduced the incidence of SUDI. Co-sleeping with parents, especially in families with a history of drug or alcohol misuse, is also a risk factor for SUDI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      93.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A new screening test is to be applied in a population of elderly...

    Incorrect

    • A new screening test is to be applied in a population of elderly individuals to detect abdominal aortic aneurysms. The test has a sensitivity of 99% and a specificity of 90%. The prevalence of the disease in the elderly population to be screened is 10 per 1000 population. What likelihood that an elderly individual with a positive test result truly has the disease to the nearest percentage point?

      Your Answer: 90%

      Correct Answer: 9%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Positive Predictive Value (PPV) in Medical Testing

      Positive predictive value (PPV) is a crucial concept in medical testing. It refers to the likelihood that an individual with a positive test result truly has the disease. To calculate PPV, we need to know the true positives and false positives. For example, if we test 10,000 people for a disease with a prevalence of 1%, we can calculate the PPV as follows:

      – 100 of the 10,000 people have the disease, and 99 of them test positive (sensitivity = 99%).
      – 9900 of the 10,000 people do not have the disease, and 990 of them test positive (specificity = 90%).
      – The PPV is calculated as true positives/(true positives + false positives), which in this case is 99/(99 + 990) = 1/11 or 9.1%.

      It’s important to note that PPV is not the same as sensitivity or specificity. Sensitivity refers to the proportion of true positives, while specificity refers to the proportion of true negatives. PPV takes into account both true positives and false positives to give an estimate of the probability that a positive test result truly indicates the presence of the disease.

      Understanding PPV is crucial for interpreting medical test results and making informed decisions about patient care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      2805.3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A Pediatrician wants to set up a clinic in his practice for the...

    Incorrect

    • A Pediatrician wants to set up a clinic in his practice for the management of chronic diseases in children. He wants to target resources in the clinic toward treating conditions that are most prevalent in the pediatric population. To do this, he reviews the National Health Service data to determine what long-term health conditions are most common in pediatric patients.
      Which of the following is the Pediatrician likely to find is the most common long-term health condition in pediatric patients presenting to General Practice?

      Your Answer: Autism spectrum disorder

      Correct Answer: Arthritis or ongoing problems with the back and joints

      Explanation:

      Prevalence of Long-Term Health Conditions in England: Insights from the General Practice Patient Survey

      The General Practice Patient Survey is a nationwide survey conducted by the National Health Service in England, which collects data from patients aged over 16 presenting to General Practitioners. The survey results indicate that over half of the patients surveyed in 2021 reported at least one long-term physical or mental health condition. Arthritis or ongoing problems with the back and joints were the most common conditions reported. Diabetes was the fifth most prevalent condition, reported by 7.4% of participants. Alzheimer’s disease or other causes of dementia and autism spectrum disorder were reported by 0.6% and 1.1% of participants, respectively. Cancer was the eighth most prevalent condition, reported by 3.1% of participants. While the survey was conducted in England, the results are likely generalizable to the rest of the United Kingdom.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      540.8
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A hierarchy of quality in evidence-based medicine exists, with study types ranked according...

    Incorrect

    • A hierarchy of quality in evidence-based medicine exists, with study types ranked according to the strength of their data. The study types are listed below.
      Case report (CR)
      Randomised, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial (RCT)
      Cohort study (CS)
      Systematic review (SR)
      Which of the following options correctly ranks these study types, with the most robust first and the least robust last?

      Your Answer: RCT, CC, MA, CR

      Correct Answer: MA, RCT, CC, CR

      Explanation:

      The most reliable type of study is a randomised, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial, as it minimises bias. A meta-analysis combines results from multiple randomised-controlled trials. Case reports are the least reliable as they do not test a hypothesis and may describe chance observations. Case-control studies match cases to controls, but may have some inclusion and recall bias. Cohort studies collect longitudinal data for later analysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      133.3
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A teenager asks you for dietary advice about foods rich in vitamin D.

    Which...

    Correct

    • A teenager asks you for dietary advice about foods rich in vitamin D.

      Which one of the following foods is the richest dietary source of vitamin D?

      Your Answer: Oily fish

      Explanation:

      Sources of Vitamin D

      Bread and vegetables are not reliable sources of vitamin D. While some breakfast cereals are fortified with vitamin D, not all of them are. Infant formula milk contains vitamin D, but ordinary cow’s milk is not a rich source.

      The best sources of dietary vitamin D are oily fish and eggs. Some margarine type spreads are also fortified with vitamin D. However, even a diet rich in vitamin D may not provide sufficient amounts. The main source of vitamin D is sunlight acting on the skin. Therefore, it is important to spend time outdoors and expose the skin to sunlight to maintain adequate levels of vitamin D.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A hospital Consultant is trying to quantify how many patients that attend his...

    Correct

    • A hospital Consultant is trying to quantify how many patients that attend his geriatric outpatient clinic suffer from dementia. They carry out a review of the charts of 200 randomly selected patients who regularly attend their geriatric outpatients’ clinic and determine that 42 have a diagnosis of dementia.
      Which of the following is it possible to estimate from this data?

      Your Answer: The prevalence of retinopathy in this population

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prevalence, Incidence, and Relative Risk in a Population with Retinopathy

      Prevalence, incidence, and relative risk are important measures used to understand the occurrence of a disease in a population. Prevalence refers to the number of cases of a disease present in a population at a specific point in time. To calculate prevalence, researchers randomly select a sample from the population and divide the number of people with the disease by the total number of people in the sample. Incidence, on the other hand, is the rate of new cases of a disease occurring in a specific population over a particular period of time. To calculate incidence, data on the number of new cases over time is needed. Finally, relative risk is the ratio of the probability of an event occurring with an exposure versus the probability of the event occurring without exposure. To calculate relative risk, two populations, one exposed to the risk factor and one not exposed, need to be studied. It is important to note that these measures can only be accurately calculated with a representative sample and that selection bias can affect the results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      922.2
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 29-year-old accountant tells you that she drinks a 30 ml shot of...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old accountant tells you that she drinks a 30 ml shot of spirits (35% ABV) followed by two 500 ml glasses of beer every Saturday night. The beer is 5% ABV.
      Approximately how many units does she consume on a Saturday night?

      Your Answer: 16

      Correct Answer: 10

      Explanation:

      Calculating Alcohol Units for Patient Counseling

      In order to provide appropriate lifestyle advice to patients regarding their alcohol consumption, it is important to be able to calculate the number of units consumed. The Royal College of General Practitioners (RCGP) has emphasized the importance of this knowledge in their feedback on previous assessments.

      To calculate the amount of alcohol units in a drink, multiply the alcohol by volume (ABV) percentage with the volume in milliliters (ml) and divide by 1000. For example, a shot of spirits containing 25 ml and 40% ABV would be 1 unit.

      For a 250 ml glass of alcohol with 12% ABV, the calculation would be 250 x 12 / 1000 = 3 units per glass. Three glasses would equal 9 units, which is equivalent to one bottle in this example.

      It is important to do a quick reality check on the answer to ensure accuracy in calculations. The RCGP has noted that candidates often fail on simple calculations due to a lack of reality check. By doing a quick guesstimate, it is possible to flag any errors in decimal points and ensure accurate calculations for patient counseling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      239
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - What is the correct information about oseltamivir? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct information about oseltamivir?

      Your Answer: It is a direct viral cytotoxic agent

      Correct Answer: It is administered via an inhaler

      Explanation:

      Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) as an Antiviral for influenza Treatment

      Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) is an antiviral medication that works by inhibiting the enzyme neuraminidase, which slows down viral replication instead of directly killing the virus particle. This mechanism is crucial in allowing the body’s immune system to combat the virus effectively. Unlike zanamivir (Relenza), which is inhaled, oseltamivir is administered orally. However, the drug must be given as early as possible after the development of flu symptoms, preferably within 48 hours, as viral replication is rapid.

      In summary, oseltamivir is an effective treatment for influenza, but it must be administered within 48 hours of symptom onset to be effective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      314
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - What is the purpose of a study that examines the knowledge and attitudes...

    Incorrect

    • What is the purpose of a study that examines the knowledge and attitudes of general practitioners in the north east of England (35 GPs from five practices) towards impaired glucose tolerance, as evidenced by quotes such as I think we all probably fight shy of diagnosing too many people with impaired glucose tolerance?

      Your Answer: There is a danger that selection bias will have influenced the results

      Correct Answer: Results of this sort of research are presented as themes

      Explanation:

      Understanding Attitudes: An Example of Qualitative Research

      Qualitative research is a valuable tool for exploring attitudes. Researchers conduct semi-structured interviews with individuals and focus groups to identify themes that emerge from the data. The number of participants needed is determined by the point at which no new themes arise. In this study, the researchers found 35 subjects to be sufficient. Selection bias is not a concern in qualitative research, as participants are chosen based on their interest in the topic. While generalizability may be limited, the north east of England is similar enough to the rest of the UK to draw meaningful conclusions. Unlike quantitative research, statistics are not used in qualitative research. However, the themes that emerge can be used to create variables for a formal survey, which can be used to further test the findings with numerical data. Overall, qualitative research provides a rich understanding of attitudes and can serve as a foundation for more quantitative studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      333.7
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - What is the meaning of the P value of less than 0.05 in...

    Incorrect

    • What is the meaning of the P value of less than 0.05 in a study comparing the effectiveness of drug A versus drug B in lowering blood pressure, where drug A was found to be more effective?

      Your Answer: The null hypothesis is true

      Correct Answer: The probability that the results could have occurred by chance is less than 0.05

      Explanation:

      Understanding Null and Alternative Hypotheses and the Significance of P Values

      In any scientific study, researchers formulate a null hypothesis that assumes there is no difference between two treatments. The alternative hypothesis, on the other hand, suggests that there is a difference. It is important to note that while the convention is to assume the null hypothesis is true, rejecting it doesn’t necessarily mean that the alternative hypothesis is true.

      The P value is a measure of the probability that the observed results in a study (or more extreme results) could have occurred by chance. Therefore, it is crucial to consider the possibility of chance occurrences when interpreting study results. Accepting the alternative hypothesis is not the same as saying it is true, but rather that it is more likely than the null hypothesis.

      A P value of 0.05 or below is conventionally considered statistically significant, but this still carries a risk of a chance occurrence of 1 in 20. To reduce this risk, a more stringent rule is to use a P value of 0.01. Understanding null and alternative hypotheses and the significance of P values is essential for accurate interpretation of study results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      142.7
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A general practitioner wants to audit dermatology care at her practice. She decides...

    Incorrect

    • A general practitioner wants to audit dermatology care at her practice. She decides to look at viral wart treatment in adults at the practice. At present, viral warts on hands or toes are initially treated in the practice using topical agents of various types. Patients are followed up at three months by some doctors. Others advise patients to return only if their warts have not resolved after three months of treatment.
      When carrying out her audit, which of the following is the most appropriate step to follow?

      Your Answer: Ensure that all other clinicians are unaware that an audit is taking place

      Correct Answer: Define ideal practice and compare this with current performance at her surgery

      Explanation:

      The Process of Conducting a Healthcare Audit

      To conduct a healthcare audit, the auditor must first choose a specific topic within the healthcare industry and establish criteria for ideal practice in that area. These criteria serve as standards that represent the best possible outcomes that can be achieved.

      Next, the actual performance of healthcare providers in the chosen topic area is measured and compared to the established standards. Any discrepancies between the measured performance and the set standards are reported.

      The goal is to identify areas where actual performance falls short of ideal practice and take steps to reduce or eliminate poor practice. This may involve implementing new policies or procedures, providing additional training to healthcare providers, or making changes to existing systems.

      Finally, the performance in the chosen topic area is re-audited at a later date to assess whether the changes made have resulted in improvements. This ongoing process of auditing and improving healthcare practices helps to ensure that patients receive the best possible care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      846
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - When investigating the impact of patients' attitudes, beliefs, and knowledge of health literature...

    Incorrect

    • When investigating the impact of patients' attitudes, beliefs, and knowledge of health literature on the management of chronic mechanical low back pain, researchers typically establish inclusion and exclusion criteria for their patient sample. Which of the following options is most likely to be an exclusion criterion?

      Your Answer: Age > 20 years and < 50 years

      Correct Answer: Leg pain and back pain

      Explanation:

      Criteria for Selecting Participants in a Study on Mechanical Low Back Pain

      The study aims to investigate attitudes and beliefs related to mechanical low back pain. To ensure the validity of the results, the researchers have established specific criteria for selecting participants. These criteria include a diagnosis of mechanical low back pain, the ability to communicate in English, age between 20 and 50 years, and being off work for three months or more due to low back pain.

      Mechanical low back pain is defined as pain that cannot be attributed to any particular pathology. However, patients with significant leg pain are more likely to have nerve root compression, which is commonly caused by intervertebral disc protrusion. Therefore, patients with leg pain are excluded from the study.

      The ability to communicate in English is important as the study involves interviewing participants. Excluding participants based on their language proficiency would be illogical.

      Restricting the age range to between 20 and 50 years avoids ages where other pathologies are more likely to occur. Patients who are younger than 20 or older than 50 are more likely to have alternative causes of back pain.

      Finally, the researchers require participants to have been off work for three months or more due to low back pain. This ensures that the participants are disabled by their back pain and satisfies the definition of chronic back pain.

      Overall, these criteria aim to select participants who are most likely to provide valuable insights into attitudes and beliefs related to mechanical low back pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      122
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - What parameter is the GP measuring by asking 100 randomly selected patients from...

    Incorrect

    • What parameter is the GP measuring by asking 100 randomly selected patients from his patient list if they are currently experiencing symptoms of eczema?

      Your Answer: Incidence rate

      Correct Answer: Point prevalence

      Explanation:

      Understanding Epidemiological Measures: Point Prevalence, Incidence Rate, Cumulative Incidence, Incidence Proportion, and Period Prevalence

      Epidemiological measures are essential in determining the prevalence and incidence of diseases in a population. Among the commonly used measures are point prevalence, incidence rate, cumulative incidence, incidence proportion, and period prevalence.

      Point prevalence refers to the proportion of people with a particular disease at a specific time point. For instance, a doctor may send a questionnaire to determine the number of people suffering from a disease at a particular time, and the data collected can be used to determine the point prevalence.

      Incidence rate, on the other hand, refers to the rate at which a new event occurs over a specified period. For example, the number of new cases of a disease in a population over a year.

      Cumulative incidence is another term for incidence proportion, which refers to the number of new cases in a population during a specified time period.

      Incidence proportion is similar to cumulative incidence, but it only considers new cases in a population during a specified time period.

      Period prevalence, on the other hand, refers to the proportion of people with a particular disease during a given time period.

      Understanding these epidemiological measures is crucial in determining the prevalence and incidence of diseases in a population, which can help in developing effective prevention and treatment strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      41.8
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - What proportion of the population in the United Kingdom has coeliac disease? ...

    Correct

    • What proportion of the population in the United Kingdom has coeliac disease?

      Your Answer: 1 in 1000

      Explanation:

      Coeliac Disease Prevalence and Risk Factors

      The prevalence of coeliac disease in the United Kingdom is approximately 1 in 100. However, this can vary significantly between different countries, with Finland and Northern European countries having higher rates.

      If a patient has a first degree relative with coeliac disease, their risk of having the condition increases to 1 in 10. In such cases, it is advisable to offer testing, even if the patient is not experiencing symptoms. This is because untreated coeliac disease can increase the risk of other diseases, including lymphoma and gut malignancy.

      It is important to be aware of these risk factors and prevalence rates in order to identify and diagnose coeliac disease early, and to prevent potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A comparison of 3 screening tests for cognitive decline in individuals over the...

    Correct

    • A comparison of 3 screening tests for cognitive decline in individuals over the age of 70 is shown below.
      Sensitivity Specificity
      Test A 94% 33%
      Test B 54% 89%
      Test C 76% 69%
      Select the single statement that is correct regarding this data. Select one only.

      Your Answer: Test A has a low number of false negatives

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sensitivity and Specificity in Dementia Testing

      When it comes to testing for dementia, it’s important to consider both sensitivity and specificity. Sensitivity refers to the proportion of cases that are detected, while specificity refers to the proportion of negative test results that are true negatives. Test A has a high sensitivity, meaning it detects most cases of dementia with few false negatives. However, its specificity is only 33%, meaning that a significant proportion of those testing negative may actually have dementia. Test B has a low sensitivity but few false positives, while Test C is average for both. Cost effectiveness cannot be determined without information on the cost of the tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      185.7
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 32-year-old patient presents to you seeking pre-pregnancy advice and inquiring about folic...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old patient presents to you seeking pre-pregnancy advice and inquiring about folic acid intake. The patient has a medical history of insulin-treated type 1 diabetes. What recommendations would you make regarding the duration and dosage of folic acid supplementation?

      Your Answer: 400 micrograms daily, to be taken before conception and until week 12 of pregnancy

      Correct Answer: 400 micrograms daily, to be taken after conception and until week 12 of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Folic Acid Requirements for Women During Pregnancy

      Most women are advised to take 400 mcg of folic acid daily from before conception until week 12 of pregnancy. However, there are exceptions to this rule. Women who are at a higher risk of neural tube defects, such as those with a history of bearing children with NTDs, or women with diabetes or taking anticonvulsants, should take a higher dose of 5 mg daily from before conception until week 12 of pregnancy.

      Another group of women who require a higher dose of folic acid are those with sickle cell disease. They need to take 5 mg of folic acid daily throughout pregnancy, and even when not pregnant, they’ll usually be taking folic acid 5mg every 1 to 7 days, depending on the severity of their disease. It’s important for women to consult with their healthcare provider to determine the appropriate dose of folic acid for their individual needs during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      1086.6
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Out of 15 individual trials included in a meta-analysis examining the impact of...

    Incorrect

    • Out of 15 individual trials included in a meta-analysis examining the impact of beta-blockers on survival following a heart attack, two demonstrated enhanced survival while 13 did not show any advantage. However, the combined outcomes of all the trials indicated a significant decrease in mortality with beta-blockers. What is the most probable explanation for the lack of benefit observed in some trials?

      Your Answer: Only very sick patients were chosen

      Correct Answer: The studies were too small

      Explanation:

      Common Reasons for Trials Failing to Show Benefit in Meta-Analyses

      Meta-analyses are used to combine the results of multiple studies to provide a more comprehensive understanding of a particular treatment or intervention. However, sometimes trials fail to show any benefit, even when there may be a difference between the study groups. Here are some common reasons for this:

      1. The studies were too small: Small studies may not have enough statistical power to detect a difference between treatment and control groups.

      2. Only very sick patients were chosen: Selection bias can occur if only a specific group of patients are chosen, which may not be representative of the general population.

      3. Patients were not randomly allocated between treatment and control groups: Lack of randomisation can lead to biased results and poor study design.

      4. Study dropouts: If patients who dropped out of the trials were not adequately dealt with, this can lead to a poorly designed trial and biased results.

      5. The null hypothesis is true: If the null hypothesis is true, then there is no beneficial effect from the treatment or intervention being studied. However, if a meta-analysis shows a significant reduction in mortality, then it is unlikely that the null hypothesis is true.

      In conclusion, it is important to consider these factors when interpreting the results of a meta-analysis. Well-designed studies with adequate sample sizes and randomisation are more likely to provide reliable and accurate results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      1459.1
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - At what age will children be eligible for the intranasal influenza vaccine once...

    Correct

    • At what age will children be eligible for the intranasal influenza vaccine once the NHS has implemented the vaccination programme?

      Your Answer: 2 years

      Explanation:

      Children under the age of 2 are not eligible to receive the intranasal flu vaccine.

      influenza vaccination is recommended in the UK between September and early November, as the influenza season typically starts in the middle of November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B accounting for the majority of clinical disease. Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013, with the children’s vaccine given intranasally and annually after the first dose at 2-3 years. It is important to note that the type of vaccine given to children and the one given to the elderly and at-risk groups is different, which explains the different contraindications.

      For adults and at-risk groups, current vaccines are trivalent and consist of two subtypes of influenza A and one subtype of influenza B. The Department of Health recommends annual influenza vaccination for all people older than 65 years and those older than 6 months with chronic respiratory, heart, kidney, liver, neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, or a body mass index >= 40 kg/m². Other at-risk individuals include health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person whose welfare may be at risk if the carer becomes ill.

      The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine that cannot cause influenza, but a minority of patients may develop fever and malaise that lasts 1-2 days. It should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light, and contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. In adults, the vaccination is around 75% effective, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      49.5
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - What food has the highest glycaemic index rating among the options provided? ...

    Incorrect

    • What food has the highest glycaemic index rating among the options provided?

      Your Answer: Mashed potato

      Correct Answer: Chick peas

      Explanation:

      Understanding Diabetic Diets: The Glycaemic Index

      Feedback from previous MRCGP examinations has highlighted a lack of knowledge regarding diabetic diets. One important factor to consider is the glycaemic index (GI), which refers to the rate at which carbohydrates are absorbed. Foods with a low GI, such as oranges, natural muesli, chickpeas, and sweetcorn, are recommended for people with diabetes. Combining carbohydrates with fat can also lower the GI, as seen in chocolate, which has a medium GI.

      Contrary to popular belief, people with diabetes can consume any type of fruit, regardless of its sugar content. However, it is recommended that no more than one glass of fruit juice is consumed per day. Spreading fruit intake throughout the day can help prevent sudden spikes in blood glucose levels. It is important to note that while low GI foods may help regulate glucose levels, they may not necessarily be healthy in other ways. Understanding the glycaemic index is an important aspect of managing a diabetic diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - In a certain population, the occurrence of Rett syndrome is one per 10...

    Correct

    • In a certain population, the occurrence of Rett syndrome is one per 10 000. A diagnostic test is being created for use in infancy, with a sensitivity of 90% and a specificity of 99.99%. What is the anticipated positive predictive value (PPV)?

      Your Answer: The PPV is 47.9%; negative predictive value (NPV) is greater than 99.99%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Positive and Negative Predictive Values in Diagnostic Testing

      When interpreting the results of a diagnostic test, it is important to understand the concepts of positive predictive value (PPV) and negative predictive value (NPV). PPV refers to the proportion of true positives among all positive test results, while NPV refers to the proportion of true negatives among all negative test results.

      To illustrate this, let’s consider a hypothetical example of a test for Rett syndrome. Out of a population of 1 million, 100 individuals have Rett syndrome. If the test has a sensitivity of 90% and a specificity of 99.99%, we can calculate the expected numbers of true positives, false positives, true negatives, and false negatives.

      Based on these calculations, we can determine that the PPV is 47.9%, meaning that less than half of all positive test results will be true positives. On the other hand, the NPV is greater than 99.99%, indicating that almost all negative test results will be true negatives.

      It is important to note that sensitivity and specificity are not the same as PPV and NPV. While sensitivity and specificity describe the accuracy of the test itself, PPV and NPV take into account the prevalence of the condition in the population being tested.

      In summary, understanding PPV and NPV can help clinicians and patients interpret the results of diagnostic tests and make informed decisions about further testing or treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      486.3
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 28-year-old woman presents to your clinic seeking advice on quitting smoking. You...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to your clinic seeking advice on quitting smoking. You plan to initiate bupropion therapy for her, but a few days later, you receive a call from the local emergency consultant informing you that she was admitted in status epilepticus. It turns out that you were not aware of her other medications. Which of the following drugs, when taken concomitantly with bupropion, may increase the risk of seizures?

      Your Answer: Valproate

      Explanation:

      Interactions and Contraindications of Bupropion

      The metabolism of bupropion is complex, with the main active metabolite being hydroxybupropion. However, the levels of hydroxybupropion are affected by CYP2D6 activity. It is important to note that bupropion lowers the seizure threshold and affects the metabolism of sodium valproate, making concomitant use not recommended. In fact, bupropion is contraindicated in patients with a history of epilepsy.

      There are also other drugs that interact with bupropion, including certain antidepressants, antiepileptics, antivirals, dopaminergics, and hormone antagonists. Neuropsychiatric effects have been reported in patients using Antipsychotic medications, anti-parkinsonian medications, and in younger patients taking malaria prophylaxis.

      The Committee of Safety of Medicines has issued a reminder that bupropion is contraindicated in patients with a history of seizures, eating disorders, CNS tumor, or acute alcohol withdrawal. Other factors that can increase the risk of seizures include alcohol abuse, history of head trauma, diabetes, and the use of stimulants and anoretics. It is important to consider these interactions and contraindications when prescribing bupropion to patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      55.6
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A retrospective study looked at data from the General Practice Research Database comparing...

    Correct

    • A retrospective study looked at data from the General Practice Research Database comparing the incidence of myocardial infarction in patients who were prescribed a new inhaler licensed for Chronic Obstructive Airways Disease with the incidence of myocardial infarction in patients who were matched for age and sex only and of course were not prescribed this medication. They found a relative risk of 1.35 (confidence intervals 1.12 to 1.51) for patients taking the drug.
      Select from the list the single valid conclusion from the study.

      Input: rewrite this question keeping the same paragraph structure and changing the medical condition slightly
      Output: A retrospective study looked at data from the General Practice Research Database comparing the incidence of myocardial infarction in patients who were prescribed a new inhaler licensed for Asthma with the incidence of myocardial infarction in patients who were matched for age and sex only and of course were not prescribed this medication. They found a relative risk of 1.35 (confidence intervals 1.12 to 1.51) for patients taking the drug.
      Select from the list the single valid conclusion from the study.

      Your Answer: Further studies are indicated comparing patients taking the inhaler with matched COAD patients not taking the inhaler

      Explanation:

      Proper Use of Anonymised Patient Record Data from Primary Care

      The General Practice Research Database (GPRD) is a valuable resource for conducting epidemiological studies. However, it is important to use the dataset properly to avoid biased results. For instance, comparing patients taking a drug with those not taking the drug may lead to biased conclusions, as patients with certain conditions may be more likely to take the drug. In the case of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COAD), which is associated with smoking and increased cardiovascular mortality, an appropriate strategy would be to compare matched controls with COAD who do not use inhalers with those who do. This approach can help reduce inclusion bias, which is a common issue in observational studies that use patient record data. By using the GPRD appropriately, researchers can obtain reliable and informative insights into various health conditions and treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      220.4
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - In a study comparing a drug aimed at reducing the risk of cardiovascular...

    Correct

    • In a study comparing a drug aimed at reducing the risk of cardiovascular events with a placebo, data was collected from two groups of 1000 individuals each. The placebo group had 150 cardiovascular events while the drug treatment group had 100. What is the correct percentage absolute risk reduction based on these results?

      Your Answer: 5%

      Explanation:

      Calculation of Absolute Risk Reduction

      Absolute risk reduction (ARR) is a statistical measure used to determine the effectiveness of a drug or treatment. It is calculated by subtracting the percentage of events that occurred in the placebo group from the percentage of events that occurred in the group receiving the drug or treatment. For example, if the event rate in the placebo group is 15% and the event rate in the drug group is 10%, the ARR would be 5%. This measure provides valuable information about the actual benefit of a drug or treatment in reducing the risk of a particular event.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      120.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Population Health (21/50) 42%
Passmed