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  • Question 1 - A 65-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department with multiple facial lesions that...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department with multiple facial lesions that appeared suddenly 24 hours ago and are painful to the touch. She experienced burning pain on her forehead a week ago. Upon examination, she has tenderness on the left side of her forehead and several 4-6mm vesicles on the left side. Hutchinson's sign is positive. What aspect of her condition necessitates an immediate evaluation by an ophthalmologist?

      Your Answer: Lesions on the top eyelid

      Correct Answer: Lesions on the tip of the nose

      Explanation:

      Hutchinson’s sign is a strong indicator of ocular involvement in shingles, characterized by vesicles extending to the tip of the nose. This patient is presenting with herpes zoster ophthalmicus, which is caused by the reactivation of herpes zoster affecting the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve. Urgent ophthalmological review is necessary due to the presence of lesions on the tip of the nose. Management involves oral antivirals and, if there is secondary inflammation of the eye, topical steroids may be given. Lesions above the eyebrow can also occur if the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve is affected, but this has no association with ocular involvement. Pain over the affected area is a common symptom preceding the eruption of the vesicles, but it is not indicative of ocular involvement. Lesions on the top eyelid can also occur if the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve is affected.

      Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications

      Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is a condition that occurs when the varicella-zoster virus reactivates in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It is responsible for approximately 10% of shingles cases. The main symptom of HZO is a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the eye itself. Hutchinson’s sign, a rash on the tip or side of the nose, is a strong indicator of nasociliary involvement and increases the risk of ocular involvement.

      Treatment for HZO involves oral antiviral medication for 7-10 days, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset. Intravenous antivirals may be necessary for severe infections or immunocompromised patients. Topical antiviral treatment is not recommended for HZO, but topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye. Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review to prevent complications such as conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

      In summary, HZO is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It presents with a vesicular rash around the eye and may involve the eye itself. Treatment involves oral antiviral medication and urgent ophthalmology review is necessary for ocular involvement. Complications of HZO include various eye conditions, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      23.6
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  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old woman came to her GP with a complaint of painless blurring...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman came to her GP with a complaint of painless blurring and distortion of central vision and difficulty with night vision that has been going on for 2 years. She reports that her vision is sometimes poor and sometimes better. During the examination using a direct ophthalmoscope, yellow deposits were observed at the macula. What is the initial treatment for this patient's eye condition?

      Your Answer: Anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) intravitreal injection

      Correct Answer: Vitamin supplementation

      Explanation:

      Vitamin supplementation containing vitamins C and E, beta-carotene, and zinc can delay the progression of dry age-related macular degeneration (AMD) from intermediate to advanced stages. However, there is no other treatment available for dry AMD, and management is mainly supportive. Pan-retinal photocoagulation is not used for either dry or wet AMD. Anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) intravitreal injection is reserved for wet AMD, where there is choroidal neovascularization. This treatment stops abnormal blood vessels from leaking, growing, and bleeding under the retina. Focal laser photocoagulation is sometimes used in wet AMD, but anti-VEGF injections are now the preferred treatment. Photodynamic therapy can be used in wet AMD when anti-VEGF is not an option or for those who do not want repeated intravitreal injections. The patient in question has dry AMD, with metamorphopsia as a symptom and yellow deposits at the macula known as drusen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An older man comes in with a severe headache, nausea, vomiting and a...

    Incorrect

    • An older man comes in with a severe headache, nausea, vomiting and a painful, red right eye. He has reduced visual acuity in the right eye and normal visual acuity in the left eye. During the examination, he had a stony hard eye with marked pericorneal reddening and a hazy corneal reflex. Tonometry revealed a raised intraocular pressure. The patient reports that he has recently been prescribed a new medication by his general practitioner.
      What medication could be responsible for this sudden onset of symptoms?

      Your Answer: Topical pilocarpine

      Correct Answer: Ipratropium nebuliser

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acute Closed Angle Glaucoma and its Treatment Options

      Acute closed angle glaucoma is a serious eye condition that can cause sudden vision loss, severe eye pain, and nausea. It occurs when the angle between the iris and cornea is reduced, leading to a blockage of the aqueous humour flow and increased intraocular pressure. Risk factors include female sex, Asian ethnicity, and hypermetropia.

      Certain drugs, such as nebulised ipratropium and tricyclic antidepressants, can induce angle closure due to their antimuscarinic effects. Other antimuscarinic drug side-effects include dry eyes, xerostomia, bronchodilation, decreased gut motility, urinary outflow obstruction, and hallucinations.

      Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that is given intravenously to treat acute closed angle glaucoma. It helps to reduce intraocular pressure and prevent damage to the optic nerve. Bisoprolol is a β-blocker that does not precipitate an episode of acute closed angle glaucoma, while montelukast is used in the long-term management of asthma and does not increase the risk of acute closed angle glaucoma.

      Topical pilocarpine is a miotic that is used to treat acute angle closure glaucoma by constricting the pupil and promoting aqueous humour flow. It is important to understand the causes and treatment options for acute closed angle glaucoma to prevent vision loss and other serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      29.2
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  • Question 4 - A 54-year-old man visits his optician for a check-up after being diagnosed with...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man visits his optician for a check-up after being diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. During the examination, the doctor examines the back of his eye using a slit lamp and observes the presence of cotton wool spots. What is the probable underlying pathology responsible for this finding?

      Your Answer: Retinal infarction

      Explanation:

      Retinal detachment is a condition where the retina becomes separated from the normal structure of the eye, resulting in a large bullous separation in rhegmatogenous cases. On the other hand, retinal necrosis is an acute condition that causes an abrupt, one-sided, painful loss of vision. During a slit-lamp examination, multiple areas of retinal whitening and opacification with scalloped edges that merge together can be observed.

      Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.

      Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.

      Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for nonproliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      14
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  • Question 5 - After an uncomplicated pregnancy, a 20-year-old woman gives birth to a baby boy...

    Incorrect

    • After an uncomplicated pregnancy, a 20-year-old woman gives birth to a baby boy through vaginal delivery. During the one-week check-up, the infant is observed to have crusting and purulent discharge in the eyes. What should be the next course of action for the baby's care?

      Your Answer: Advise that this is normal in infants

      Correct Answer: Take urgent swabs of the discharge for microbiological investigation

      Explanation:

      While minor conjunctivitis with encrusting of the eyelids is usually harmless, a purulent discharge could be a sign of a severe infection such as chlamydia or gonococcus. In infants with a purulent eye discharge, it is crucial to take swab samples immediately for microbiological testing that can detect chlamydia and gonococcus. Although it is recommended to begin systemic antibiotic treatment for potential gonococcal infection while waiting for the swab results, the swabs must be taken first.

      Conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes with a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.

      In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves without treatment within one to two weeks. However, topical antibiotic therapy is often offered to patients, such as Chloramphenicol drops given every two to three hours initially or Chloramphenicol ointment given four times a day initially. Alternatively, topical fusidic acid can be used, especially for pregnant women, and treatment is twice daily.

      For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn, and patients should be advised not to share towels. School exclusion is not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      18
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  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old welder comes to the Emergency Department with a metal splinter in...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old welder comes to the Emergency Department with a metal splinter in his eye. What is the most effective course of action that can be provided in this setting?

      Your Answer: Removal of the foreign body under a slit lamp

      Correct Answer: Immediate ophthalmology referral

      Explanation:

      Immediate Referral and Management of Corneal Foreign Body

      If a patient presents with a suspected corneal foreign body, immediate referral to the emergency eye service is necessary. High-velocity injuries or injuries caused by sharp objects should be treated as penetrating injuries until proven otherwise. Once referred, the foreign body can be removed under magnification with a slit lamp and a blunted needle, using a topical anaesthetic to the cornea. Topical antibiotics are given, and the eye is covered with an eye pad. Chemical injuries require eye wash, but this will not remove a corneal foreign body. Retinoscopy is not relevant to this scenario. While topical antibiotics may play a role in management, the most important first step is to remove the foreign body to prevent corneal ulceration, secondary infection, and inflammation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      20.2
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  • Question 7 - A 10-year-old boy with Down syndrome visits his General Practitioner, accompanied by his...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy with Down syndrome visits his General Practitioner, accompanied by his father. He has been experiencing blurred vision for the past few months, along with headaches and eye fatigue. The blurred vision is more noticeable when looking at distant objects but can also be a problem when looking at closer objects.
      What is the most suitable initial investigation to perform?

      Your Answer: Retinoscopy

      Explanation:

      Investigating Astigmatism: Different Techniques and Their Uses

      When a young girl with Down syndrome presents with symptoms of blurred vision and eye strain, the first investigation that should be done is retinoscopy. This simple procedure can determine refractive errors such as astigmatism, which is a risk factor in this case. Any irregularities in the width of the retinal reflex can indicate astigmatism.

      Other techniques that can be used to investigate astigmatism include anterior segment optical coherence tomography, corneal topography, keratometry, and wavefront analysis technology. Anterior segment optical coherence tomography produces images of the cornea using optical light reflection and is useful for astigmatism caused by eye surgery. Corneal topography uses software to gather data about the dimensions of the cornea to develop colored maps that can display the axes of the cornea. Keratometry may be used to assess astigmatism, but it is less useful in cases of irregular astigmatism or when the corneal powers are too small or too big. Wavefront analysis technology is an emerging technology that can graphically present astigmatism on a map, but it is not widely used at present.

      In conclusion, the choice of investigation for astigmatism depends on the individual case and the specific needs of the patient. Retinoscopy is usually the first-line investigation, but other techniques may be used depending on the circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old woman, a known type 1 diabetic, was asked to attend the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman, a known type 1 diabetic, was asked to attend the General Practice (GP) Surgery for her results in the diabetic retinopathy screening.
      You asked your GP supervisor if you can examine her eyes so that you can get signed off for using a direct ophthalmoscope. You found out that she had some dot-and-blot haemorrhages in her right eye with some venous looping and beading in the peripheral retina.
      What is the next step in management for this patient's eye condition?

      Your Answer: Fast-track referral to ophthalmology

      Correct Answer: Routine referral to ophthalmology

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Management Plan for Pre-Proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy

      Pre-proliferative diabetic retinopathy requires routine referral to ophthalmology as the appropriate management plan. The waiting time for this referral is usually less than 13 weeks. Observation every 4-6 months is the usual management plan, and pan-retinal photocoagulation is only necessary in selected cases, such as in the only eye where the first eye was lost to proliferative diabetic retinopathy or prior to cataract surgery. Referring to an optometrist for a regular eye test is not appropriate for any type of diabetic retinopathy. Annual screening is only appropriate if there is none or background retinopathy. Fast-track referral to ophthalmology is only necessary if there are signs of proliferative retinopathy. Pan-retinal laser photocoagulation is not necessary in pre-proliferative retinopathy and is not the immediate next step in management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      14.9
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  • Question 9 - A 14-year-old boy with a family history of short-sightedness visits his General Practice...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old boy with a family history of short-sightedness visits his General Practice Clinic, reporting difficulty seeing distant objects. He is interested in the underlying pathophysiology of his condition as he is passionate about science. What is the most appropriate explanation for the pathophysiology of his myopia?

      Your Answer: Increased axial length of the eye, meaning the focal point is anterior to the retina

      Explanation:

      Understanding Refractive Errors: Causes and Effects

      Refractive errors are common vision problems that occur when the shape of the eye prevents light from focusing properly on the retina. This can result in blurry vision at various distances. Here are some common types of refractive errors and their effects:

      Myopia: This occurs when the axial length of the eye is increased, causing the focal point to be anterior to the retina. Myopia gives clear close vision but blurry far vision.

      Hyperopia: This occurs when the axial length of the eye is reduced, causing the focal point to be posterior to the retina. Hyperopia results in blurry close vision but clear far vision.

      Astigmatism: This occurs when the cornea has an abnormal curvature, resulting in two or more focal points that can be anterior and/or posterior to the retina. Astigmatism hinders refraction and leads to blurred vision at all distances.

      Understanding the causes and effects of refractive errors can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and improve their vision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      21.9
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  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old man presents to the Ophthalmology Clinic with a painful red right...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents to the Ophthalmology Clinic with a painful red right eye and reduced visual acuity. He complains of watery eyes and photophobia. Upon examination, inflammatory cells are found in the anterior chamber. The patient is typically healthy, but has been receiving treatment from the Physiotherapy Team for back pain. What investigation would be most useful in identifying the underlying cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid factor

      Correct Answer: MRI pelvis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Workup of Anterior Uveitis with Back Pain

      Anterior uveitis is a condition characterized by an acutely red painful eye with blurred vision, eye watering, and photophobia. In young men, it is strongly associated with ankylosing spondylitis, which presents with lower back pain. Definitive diagnosis requires evidence of sacroiliitis, which can take years to show up on plain X-rays. However, changes can be seen earlier on MRI of the sacroiliac joints. Patients may also have raised ESR, normochromic anemia, and mildly raised alkaline phosphatase. HLA-B27 may also be raised.

      An ESR test may be useful as part of the workup, but it would not help determine the specific underlying cause of the symptoms. Increased intraocular pressure is seen in patients with glaucoma, which may present with an acutely painful red eye, but it would not explain the presence of inflammatory cells or back pain. An MRI brain may be used in the workup of optic neuritis, which is commonly associated with multiple sclerosis. However, multiple sclerosis does not explain the back pain. Positive rheumatoid factor would indicate an underlying diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis, which can be associated with scleritis but not uveitis. Back pain is also less likely in rheumatoid arthritis, as it typically affects the smaller joints first and would be less common in someone of this age.

      Therefore, an MRI of the pelvis is the most appropriate diagnostic test for this patient with anterior uveitis and back pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      29.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 75-year-old female comes to her doctor complaining of sudden left shoulder and...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old female comes to her doctor complaining of sudden left shoulder and arm pain that has been getting worse over the past week. The pain is now unbearable even with regular co-codamol. During the examination, the doctor observes that the patient's left pupil is smaller than the other and the eyelid is slightly drooping. What question would be most helpful in determining the diagnosis for this woman?

      Your Answer: Exposure to pathogens

      Correct Answer: Smoking history

      Explanation:

      Smoking is responsible for the majority of cases of cancer that lead to Pancoast’s syndrome. The patient’s condition is not influenced by factors such as alcohol consumption, physical activity, or exposure to pathogens.

      Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.

      Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.

      There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      17.5
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  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner, reporting crusting of both eyelids that...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner, reporting crusting of both eyelids that is more severe in the morning and accompanied by an itchy feeling. She states that she has not experienced any changes in her vision. Upon examining her eyelids, the doctor observes crusting at the eyelid edges that are inflamed and red. The conjunctivae seem normal, and the pupils react equally to light. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Blepharitis

      Explanation:

      Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms

      Blepharitis: This condition presents with crusting of both eyelids, redness, swelling, and itching. It can be treated with eyelid hygiene and warm compress. If these measures are not effective, chloramphenicol ointment can be used.

      Chalazion: A painless swelling or lump on the eyelid caused by a blocked gland. Patients report a red, swollen, and painful area on the eyelid, which settles within a few days but leaves behind a firm, painless swelling. Warm compresses and gentle massaging can encourage drainage.

      Conjunctivitis: Patients with conjunctivitis present with conjunctival erythema, watery/discharging eye, and a gritty sensation. Most cases are self-limiting, but some patients will require topical antibiotics if symptoms have not resolved.

      Entropion: This condition is when the margin of the eyelid turns inwards towards the surface of the eye, causing irritation. It is more common in elderly patients and requires surgical treatment.

      Hordeolum: An acute-onset localised swelling of the eyelid margin that is painful. It is usually localised around an eyelash follicle, in which case plucking the affected eyelash can aid drainage. Styes are usually self-limiting, but eyelid hygiene and warm compress can help with resolution.

      Understanding Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      16.4
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  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old man presents with an acutely red right eye. He also has...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents with an acutely red right eye. He also has dull aching pain affecting the eye, and he is photosensitive, with light severely worsening the pain in the eye. There is no mucopurulent discharge and he has mild blurring of vision. The left eye is not affected. Other past history of note includes intermittent diarrhoea, which he says looked bloody on a couple of occasions, but he put this down to food poisoning. On examination, his blood pressure is 125/72 mmHg; he looks thin, with a body mass index of 19.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 119 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 8.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 204 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 35 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 130 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Intraocular pressure: reduced in the affected eye, with numerous cells seen within the aqueous.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute glaucoma

      Correct Answer: Anterior uveitis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Red, Painful Eye with Photophobia: Anterior Uveitis

      Anterior uveitis is a possible diagnosis for a patient presenting with a red, painful eye and photophobia. The condition can be idiopathic or associated with systemic inflammatory diseases, such as ulcerative colitis. The presence of inflammatory cells in the aqueous is a hallmark of anterior uveitis. Treatment typically involves cyclopentolate for ocular pain relief and corticosteroids to reduce inflammation. Tapering of corticosteroid therapy is guided by the degree of clinical response.

      Other potential diagnoses, such as conjunctivitis and herpetic ulcer, can be ruled out based on the absence of certain symptoms and risk factors. Acute glaucoma is also unlikely as intraocular pressures are low in anterior uveitis, whereas they would be expected to be raised in acute glaucoma. Anterior scleritis is another possibility, but it is less likely in this case as the examination findings do not mention intense redness of the anterior sclera.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      46.8
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  • Question 14 - A 36-year-old swim instructor arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of severe pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old swim instructor arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of severe pain in his right eye and feeling like there is something foreign in it, even though he has already removed his contact lenses. Upon examination, the right eye shows conjunctival injection, and the patient experiences photophobia, tearing, and discharge. His visual acuity is 6/6 in the left eye and 6/12 in the right eye, with intact ocular reflexes. A slit lamp inspection reveals mild, regular ulceration in the right eye. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Herpes simplex virus keratitis

      Correct Answer: Acanthamoeba keratitis

      Explanation:

      Wearing contact lenses increases the risk of acanthamoeba infection, which can cause keratitis. This is especially true for individuals who are frequently exposed to bodies of water, such as swimmers and lifeguards. Symptoms of acanthamoeba keratitis include eye pain, reduced visual acuity, redness, photophobia, and discharge. Treatment typically involves a combination of antiamoebic medications such as biguanides and diamidines. Anterior uveitis, conjunctivitis, and herpes simplex virus keratitis are less likely causes of the patient’s symptoms, given the history of contact lens use and occupation as a lifeguard.

      Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea

      Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.

      Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.

      Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      22.5
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  • Question 15 - A 55-year-old man comes in with redness in his eye, accompanied by mild...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man comes in with redness in his eye, accompanied by mild sensitivity to light and slight tearing. He denies any discomfort or soreness, and his vision remains unaffected. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Episcleritis

      Explanation:

      Episcleritis is the only cause of red eye that is typically not accompanied by pain. Other causes listed are associated with pain, as well as blurred or decreased vision. While episcleritis may cause mild tenderness, it is generally not painful and can be treated with non-steroidal anti-inflammatories or steroids if necessary.

      Understanding Episcleritis

      Episcleritis is a condition that involves the sudden onset of inflammation in the episclera of one or both eyes. While the majority of cases are idiopathic, there are some associated conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease and rheumatoid arthritis. Symptoms of episcleritis include a red eye, mild pain or irritation, watering, and mild photophobia. However, unlike scleritis, episcleritis is typically not painful.

      One way to differentiate between the two conditions is by applying gentle pressure on the sclera. If the injected vessels are mobile, it is likely episcleritis. In contrast, scleritis involves deeper vessels that do not move. Phenylephrine drops may also be used to distinguish between the two conditions. If the eye redness improves after phenylephrine, a diagnosis of episcleritis can be made.

      Approximately 50% of cases of episcleritis are bilateral. Treatment for episcleritis is typically conservative, with artificial tears sometimes being used. Understanding the symptoms and differences between episcleritis and scleritis can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management for their eye condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      16.6
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  • Question 16 - All can cause a mydriatic pupil, except? ...

    Incorrect

    • All can cause a mydriatic pupil, except?

      Your Answer: Third nerve palsy

      Correct Answer: Argyll-Robertson pupil

      Explanation:

      The Argyll-Robertson pupil is a well-known pupillary syndrome that can be observed in cases of neurosyphilis. This condition is characterized by pupils that are able to accommodate, but do not react to light. A helpful mnemonic for remembering this syndrome is Accommodation Reflex Present (ARP) but Pupillary Reflex Absent (PRA). Other features of the Argyll-Robertson pupil include small and irregular pupils. The condition can be caused by various factors, including diabetes mellitus and syphilis.

      Mydriasis, which is the enlargement of the pupil, can be caused by various factors. These include third nerve palsy, Holmes-Adie pupil, traumatic iridoplegia, pheochromocytoma, and congenital conditions. Additionally, certain drugs can also cause mydriasis, such as topical mydriatics like tropicamide and atropine, sympathomimetic drugs like amphetamines and cocaine, and anticholinergic drugs like tricyclic antidepressants. It’s important to note that anisocoria, which is when one pupil is larger than the other, can also result in the appearance of mydriasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      15.2
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  • Question 17 - A 75-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner (GP) complaining of painless sudden...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner (GP) complaining of painless sudden vision loss in his eyes. Upon examination, the GP observes a right homonymous superior quadrantanopia. Where is the lesion located that is responsible for this visual field defect?

      Your Answer: Optic chiasm

      Correct Answer: Left temporal lobe optic radiation

      Explanation:

      Lesions and their corresponding visual field defects

      Visual field defects can be caused by lesions in various parts of the visual pathway. Here are some examples:

      Left temporal lobe optic radiation
      Lesion in this area can cause a left superior quadrantanopia.

      Optic chiasm
      A lesion in the optic chiasm can cause a bitemporal hemianopia.

      Left occipital visual cortex
      A lesion in the left occipital visual cortex can cause a right homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing.

      Right optic tract
      A lesion in the right optic tract can cause a left homonymous hemianopia.

      Right parietal lobe optic radiation
      A lesion in the right parietal lobe optic radiation can cause a left inferior quadrantanopia.

      Understanding the location of the lesion and its corresponding visual field defect can aid in diagnosis and treatment of visual impairments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of itchy, red, and...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of itchy, red, and watery eyes. She reports that the symptoms started in her left eye four days ago and have since spread to her right eye. Upon examination, bilateral redness and watery discharge are observed in both eyes. The patient has a history of using reusable contact lenses and reports that her 4-year-old son had similar symptoms a week ago. What management advice should the GP provide for this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Do not wear contact lenses until symptoms have resolved. Clean the eyelids with a wet cloth and apply a cold compress as needed to relieve symptoms

      Explanation:

      It is not recommended to wear contact lenses during an episode of conjunctivitis. The patient should refrain from using contact lenses until their symptoms have completely resolved. They can clean their eyelids with a wet cloth and use a cold compress as needed to alleviate discomfort. This is likely a case of viral conjunctivitis, which can be managed conservatively with good eye hygiene and cold compresses. Wearing contact lenses during this time can worsen symptoms as they may act as an irritant or carry infections. Administering chloramphenicol eye drops every 3 hours and using a cold compress is not appropriate for viral conjunctivitis. Continuing to wear contact lenses while using a cold compress is also not recommended. The patient should discard their current lenses, wait until their symptoms have resolved, and start using new lenses again.

      Conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes with a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.

      In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves without treatment within one to two weeks. However, topical antibiotic therapy is often offered to patients, such as Chloramphenicol drops given every two to three hours initially or Chloramphenicol ointment given four times a day initially. Alternatively, topical fusidic acid can be used, especially for pregnant women, and treatment is twice daily.

      For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn, and patients should be advised not to share towels. School exclusion is not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      35.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 57-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden visual loss....

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden visual loss. He reports no eye redness, ocular trauma, or headaches. The loss of vision began from the outside and progressed inward, accompanied by flashes and floaters. He wears corrective glasses and sometimes contact lenses, but he cannot recall his prescription. What characteristic raises the likelihood of this patient developing this condition?

      Your Answer: Astigmatism

      Correct Answer: Myopia

      Explanation:

      Myopia increases the likelihood of retinal detachment, which should be suspected if a patient experiences gradual vision loss starting from the periphery and moving towards the centre. This may be accompanied by the sensation of a curtain or veil descending over their vision, preceded by flashes and floaters caused by the vitreous humour tugging at the retina. Myopia elongates the eyeball, stretching the retina and making it more susceptible to tearing and detachment. Astigmatism, a refractive error caused by an irregularly shaped eyeball, does not increase the risk of RD. Contact lens use is not associated with RD but may increase the risk of infection. Hypermetropia, or farsightedness, does not increase the risk of RD but is associated with acute angle-closure glaucoma, which presents with severe ocular pain, visual blurring, a hard and red eye, and systemic symptoms such as nausea and vomiting.

      Retinal detachment is a condition where the tissue at the back of the eye separates from the underlying pigment epithelium. This can cause vision loss, but if detected and treated early, it can be reversible. Risk factors for retinal detachment include diabetes, myopia, age, previous cataract surgery, and eye trauma. Symptoms may include new onset floaters or flashes, sudden painless visual field loss, and reduced peripheral and central vision. If the macula is involved, visual outcomes can be much worse. Diagnosis is made through fundoscopy, which may show retinal folds or a lost red reflex. Urgent referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary for assessment and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      33.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 70-year-old man, with a history of atrial fibrillation, hypertension and type 2...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man, with a history of atrial fibrillation, hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, presents to the Emergency Department with a sudden painless loss of vision in his left eye that lasted for a few minutes. He describes the loss of vision as a curtain coming into his vision, and he could not see anything out of it for a few minutes before his vision returned to normal.
      Upon examination, his acuity is 6/9 in both eyes. On dilated fundoscopy, there is a small embolus in one of the vessels in the left eye. The rest of the fundus is normal in both eyes.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO)

      Correct Answer: Amaurosis fugax

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Vision Loss: Amaurosis Fugax, Anterior Ischaemic Optic Neuropathy, CRAO, CRVO, and Retinal Detachment

      When a patient presents with vision loss, it is important to differentiate between various causes. In the case of a transient and painless loss of vision, a typical diagnosis is amaurosis fugax. This is often seen in patients with atrial fibrillation and other vascular risk factors, and a small embolus may be present on fundoscopy. Treatment involves addressing the underlying cause and treating it as an eye transischaemic attack (TIA).

      Anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy, on the other hand, is caused by giant-cell arthritis and presents with a sudden, painless loss of vision. However, there is no evidence of this in the patient’s history.

      Central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO) is another potential cause of vision loss, but it does not present as a transient loss of vision. Instead, it causes long-lasting damage and may be identified by a cherry-red spot at the macula. The small embolus seen on fundoscopy is not causing a CRAO.

      Similarly, central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) presents with multiple flame haemorrhages, which are not present in this case.

      While the patient did mention a curtain-like loss of vision, this does not necessarily indicate retinal detachment. Retinal detachment typically presents with flashes and floaters, and vision is worse if the detachment is a macula-off detachment.

      In summary, careful consideration of the patient’s history and fundoscopic findings can help differentiate between various causes of vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      18.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Ophthalmology (6/20) 30%
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