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Question 1
Correct
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A 7-year-old boy comes to the clinic complaining of severe pain in his right testicle that started four hours ago. There was no history of injury or any other medical condition. Upon examination, the right testicle was found to be retracted and lying horizontally, but it was too tender to palpate completely. The left hemiscrotum appeared normal. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Torsion
Explanation:Torsion: A Serious Condition to Consider
A brief history of intense pain without any accompanying symptoms should be considered as torsion. It is crucial to be cautious not to disregard the possibility of torsion even if other symptoms are present, as there is only a small window of time for treatment. While a horizontal-lying testis is a typical indication of torsion, it may not always be visible.
Torsion is a severe condition that requires immediate medical attention. It occurs when the spermatic cord twists, cutting off the blood supply to the testicle. This can lead to tissue death and, in severe cases, the loss of the testicle. Therefore, it is essential to recognize the signs and symptoms of torsion and seek medical attention promptly. Remember, a short history of severe pain in the absence of other symptoms must be regarded as torsion, and a horizontal-lying testis is a classical finding, though not always seen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 2
Correct
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A new medication, called Lasarex, is being tested to increase the chances of survival for patients with pancreatic cancer. The pharmaceutical company conducting the study is currently determining the appropriate dosage.
As per their calculations, administering 900 mg of the drug orally results in only 540 mg reaching the systemic circulation, and just 180 mg reaching the cancer cells.
What is the bioavailability of this medication?Your Answer: 0.6
Explanation:Pharmacokinetics and Bioavailability
Pharmacokinetics refers to the study of how the body processes drugs. It involves four main processes: absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. Absorption is the process by which drugs enter the body and reach the circulation. The bioavailability of a drug is an important factor in absorption as it determines the proportion of the administered drug that reaches the systemic circulation. Bioavailability is calculated by dividing the dose reaching circulation by the total dose administered. For instance, if the bioavailability of a drug is 0.6, it means that 60% of the administered drug reaches the systemic circulation.
Distribution involves the spread of the drug throughout the body, while metabolism refers to the processes that the body uses to change the drug molecule, usually by deactivating it during reactions in the liver. Excretion, on the other hand, involves the removal of the drug from the body. pharmacokinetics and bioavailability is crucial in determining the appropriate dose of a drug for efficacy. By knowing the bioavailability of a drug, healthcare professionals can calculate the dose that is likely to be needed for the drug to be effective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Correct
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A patient who is known to be a cocaine user is discovered collapsed in the waiting area. He is blue around the lips, has a pulse of 60 / min, and is taking only occasional breaths. Oxygen is administered. What is the next best course of action?
Your Answer: Intravenous naloxone
Explanation:The cause of the patient’s respiratory depression is a heroin overdose.
Understanding Opioid Misuse and Management
Opioid misuse is a serious problem that can lead to various complications and health risks. Opioids are substances that bind to opioid receptors, including both natural and synthetic opioids. Signs of opioid misuse include rhinorrhoea, needle track marks, pinpoint pupils, drowsiness, watering eyes, and yawning. Complications of opioid misuse can range from viral and bacterial infections to venous thromboembolism and overdose, which can lead to respiratory depression and death.
In case of an opioid overdose, emergency management involves administering IV or IM naloxone, which has a rapid onset and relatively short duration of action. Harm reduction interventions such as needle exchange and testing for HIV, hepatitis B & C can also be helpful.
Patients with opioid dependence are usually managed by specialist drug dependence clinics or GPs with a specialist interest. Treatment options may include maintenance therapy or detoxification, with methadone or buprenorphine recommended as the first-line treatment by NICE. Compliance is monitored using urinalysis, and detoxification can last up to 4 weeks in an inpatient/residential setting and up to 12 weeks in the community. Understanding opioid misuse and management is crucial in addressing this growing public health concern.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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What leads to the constriction of skin arterioles?
Your Answer: Vasopressin
Correct Answer: Epinephrine
Explanation:Effects of Different Hormones on Blood Vessels
Epinephrine, also known as adrenaline, has different effects on blood vessels depending on their location. It causes vasoconstriction of skin arterioles, which reduces blood flow to the skin, and vasodilation of skeletal muscle, which increases blood flow to the muscles. This is why adrenaline is often used during local anaesthesia to reduce bleeding. On the other hand, vasopressin is a hormone that causes vasoconstriction of blood vessels, which increases blood pressure. It is often used as a pressor agent in medical emergencies.
In contrast, bradykinin and substance P are both vasodilators, which means they cause blood vessels to widen and increase blood flow. Bradykinin is involved in inflammation and pain, while substance P is a neuropeptide that plays a role in the transmission of pain signals. These hormones can be targeted with drugs to treat conditions such as hypertension or migraines. the effects of different hormones on blood vessels is important for developing effective treatments for various medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 67-year-old man presents with nausea, vomiting, epigastric discomfort and weight loss over the last 2 months. On questioning, he describes postprandial fullness and loss of appetite. He denies any dysphagia, melaena or haematemesis. He has a long-standing history of heartburn. He has no other relevant past medical history. Investigations reveal iron deficiency anaemia. Endoscopy confirms gastric cancer.
What is a risk factor for gastric cancer in this 67-year-old man?Your Answer: Helicobacter pylori
Explanation:Risk Factors and Protective Measures for Gastric Cancer
Gastric cancer is a prevalent form of cancer worldwide, but its incidence is decreasing. Several factors are associated with an increased risk of developing gastric cancer, including pernicious anaemia, blood group A, smoking, and a diet high in nitrate and salt. However, a diet rich in citrus fruits and leafy green vegetables can decrease the risk. Helicobacter pylori infection is a significant risk factor, with a relative risk of 5.9. However, this bacterium is not a risk factor for cancer of the gastric cardia, which is increasing and associated with long-term gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, smoking, and obesity. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) may have a protective effect in preventing gastric cancer. Blood group B and a higher education/social class are protective factors. A diet rich in fresh fruits and vegetables is also likely to be protective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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An elderly man aged 73 complains of a painful, red eye and seeks medical attention at the Emergency Department. Ophthalmology is consulted due to the severity of his symptoms and reduced visual acuity, and they diagnose him with acute glaucoma. What are the treatment goals that should be pursued?
Your Answer: Reducing aqueous secretion + inducing pupillary dilation
Correct Answer: Reducing aqueous secretion + inducing pupillary constriction
Explanation:Glaucoma is a group of disorders that cause optic neuropathy due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). However, not all patients with raised IOP have glaucoma, and vice versa. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in IOP due to impaired aqueous outflow. Factors that increase the risk of AACG include hypermetropia, pupillary dilation, and lens growth associated with age. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, halos around lights, and a hard, red-eye. Management of AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Emergency medical treatment is necessary to lower the IOP, followed by definitive surgical treatment once the acute attack has subsided.
There are no specific guidelines for the initial medical treatment of AACG, but a combination of eye drops may be used, including a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist. Intravenous acetazolamide may also be administered to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management of AACG involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a small hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humour to flow to the angle. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if symptoms of AACG are present to prevent permanent vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old mother had a natural birth at home. Ten days later, she brought her newborn to the Emergency Department, complaining of a musty odour of the skin and urine. Examination reveals hypopigmentation and eczema. Genetic testing revealed an autosomal recessive genetic disorder.
Which of the following is most likely linked to the condition of the newborn?Your Answer: Defect in the transporter for cysteine
Correct Answer: Defect in phenylalanine hydroxylase
Explanation:Inherited Metabolic Disorders: Defects and Their Characteristics
Phenylketonuria (PKU) is caused by a defect in phenylalanine hydroxylase, leading to an excess of phenylalanine and phenylketones in the urine. A musty odour of the skin and hair is a common symptom.
Maple syrup urine disease (MSUD) is characterized by decreased α-ketoacid dehydrogenase, which can cause brain damage and is often fatal in infants.
Cystinuria is caused by a defect in the transporter for cysteine, leading to persistent kidney stones.
Alkaptonuria is caused by a deficiency in homogentisic acid oxidase, which can cause brown or black coloration of urine upon exposure to air.
Albinism is caused by a defect in tyrosinase, resulting in a partial or complete absence of pigment in the skin, hair, and eyes, leading to a characteristic pale appearance.
These inherited metabolic disorders have distinct defects and characteristics that can aid in their diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man is brought to the doctors by his son. Three weeks ago his wife passed away from metastatic breast cancer. He reports feeling sad and tearful every day, but his son is worried because he keeps getting into arguments with him over small things and bringing up past family issues. The son also mentions that his father has mentioned hearing his wife's voice and even cooked a meal for her once. Despite this, he has started going for walks with his friends again and is determined to get his life back on track. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Depression with psychotic features
Correct Answer: Normal grief reaction
Explanation:Grief is a natural response to the death of a loved one and does not always require medical intervention. However, understanding the potential stages of grief can help determine if a patient is experiencing a normal reaction or a more significant problem. The most common model of grief divides it into five stages: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. It is important to note that not all patients will experience all five stages. Atypical grief reactions are more likely to occur in women, sudden and unexpected deaths, problematic relationships before death, and lack of social support. Delayed grief, which occurs when grieving does not begin for more than two weeks, and prolonged grief, which is difficult to define but may last beyond 12 months, are features of atypical grief reactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A patient admitted for treatment of PD peritonitis has had their cloudy PD fluid sent for culture and has been started on empirical antibiotics while awaiting results. What is the most probable pathogen responsible for the infection?
Your Answer: E. coli
Correct Answer: Coagulase negative staph
Explanation:Causes of PD Peritonitis
PD peritonitis is a common complication of peritoneal dialysis, with 50% of episodes caused by Gram positive organisms. The most frequent culprit is coagulase negative staph, which is often due to contamination from skin flora. While Staph. aureus is becoming more prevalent, it is still less common than coagulase negative staph. Gram negative organisms, such as E. coli, are responsible for only 15% of PD peritonitis cases. Pseudomonas is rare and challenging to treat. Fungal organisms cause peritonitis in less than 2% of patients. Overall, the causes of PD peritonitis is crucial for effective management and prevention of this complication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner (GP) for counselling. He describes being incredibly happy with his long-time girlfriend, describing how they have been together for 10 years. They go out shopping together, own a successful business together, frequently host parties and are very outgoing and popular. But when his partner brings up marriage, he convulses with fear. ‘I know it’s ridiculous, but I really think if we get married, everything will suddenly be terrible.’
Which of the following best describes this patient?Your Answer: Generalised anxiety disorder
Correct Answer: Gamophobia
Explanation:Different Types of Phobias and Anxiety Disorders
Phobias and anxiety disorders are common mental health conditions that affect many people. Here are some examples of different types of phobias and anxiety disorders:
Gamophobia: This is a specific phobia of getting married. It is commonly seen in patients in committed long-term relationships who are terrified of formalizing the relationship in marriage.
Agoraphobia: This is a fear of being out in public. It is a fear of being in situations where escape might be difficult or that help would not be available in case of any accident.
Algophobia: This is a fear of pain.
Acrophobia: This is a fear of heights.
Generalized Anxiety Disorder: This is a condition where a person experiences excessive and persistent worry and anxiety about everyday situations. However, this disorder is inconsistent with a patient who is outgoing and comfortable in public.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old male has been experiencing a rash on and off for the past two years. Upon examination, it is noted that the rash is symmetrical and located on the cheeks, nose, and chin. The patient has multiple papules and pustules. What is the recommended treatment for this individual?
Your Answer: Isotretinoin
Correct Answer: Oxytetracycline
Explanation:Acne Rosacea Treatment with Tetracycline
Acne rosacea is a skin condition that is characterized by the presence of redness, bumps, and pimples on the face. This condition is usually long-lasting and can be quite uncomfortable for those who suffer from it. Unlike other types of acne, acne rosacea does not typically present with blackheads or whiteheads. The distribution of the condition is usually limited to the face, particularly the cheeks, nose, and forehead.
The most effective treatment for acne rosacea is a medication called tetracycline. This medication is an antibiotic that works by reducing inflammation and killing the bacteria that cause acne. Tetracycline is usually taken orally, and it is important to follow the prescribed dosage and duration of treatment. In addition to tetracycline, there are other medications and topical treatments that can be used to manage the symptoms of acne rosacea. However, tetracycline is often the first line of treatment due to its effectiveness and low risk of side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 50-year-old runner experiences chest pain and collapses while jogging. He is brought to the Emergency department within an hour. Upon arrival, he is conscious and given a sublingual nitrate which provides some relief. His heart rate is 90 beats per minute and his blood pressure is 120/85 mmHg. An ECG reveals 3 mm of ST segment elevation in leads II, III, AVF, V5 and V6. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Admission for cardiac catheterisation and percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty
Explanation:Initial and Long-Term Treatment for Inferolateral ST-Elevation MI
The patient’s history and ECG findings suggest that they are experiencing an Inferolateral ST-elevation MI. The best initial treatment for this condition would be percutaneous coronary intervention. It is likely that the patient would have already received aspirin in the ambulance.
For long-term treatment, the patient will require dual antiplatelet therapy, such as aspirin and clopidogrel, a statin, a beta blocker, and an ACE-inhibitor. These medications will help manage the patient’s condition and prevent future cardiac events.
It is important to follow the NICE guideline for Acute Coronary Syndrome to ensure that the patient receives the appropriate treatment and care. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help improve the patient’s prognosis and quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 13
Correct
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A 4-year-old child is brought into the emergency department by ambulance after falling from a swing in the backyard. He landed on his head and his father saw that he hit his head. The child was initially crying but fell unconscious within a few minutes of the fall. On assessing the child's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score, it is noted that he only opens his eyes to pain, has abnormal flexion to pain and is moaning.
What is the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score for this patient?Your Answer: GCS 7
Explanation:Understanding the Paediatric Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)
The Paediatric Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in children. It differentiates between children younger than 5 and those older than 5 years of age. The GCS measures three components: eye opening, verbal response, and motor activity. Each component is scored on a scale of 1 to 5 or 6, depending on the age of the child.
For example, a child who opens their eyes to pain (E2), flexes to pain (M3), and is moaning (V2) would score a total of 7 on the GCS. This child would be classified as having a GCS score of 7, not 5, 6, 8, or 9.
It is important to note that the British Paediatric Neurology Association has its own GCS scoring system for children, which may differ slightly from other versions. Understanding the GCS and its scoring system can help healthcare professionals accurately assess a child’s level of consciousness and determine appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 14
Correct
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A father brings his 7-year-old daughter to the GP. The father reports that he has been struggling to manage his daughter's behaviour. He describes instances of her not following instructions, arguing frequently, and even getting into physical altercations. The GP refers the daughter to a paediatrician who may consider starting her on methylphenidate. What is a potential side effect of this medication?
Your Answer: Stunted growth
Explanation:Methylphenidate may cause stunted growth as a side effect.
A small percentage of patients taking methylphenidate may experience restricted growth, which is believed to be caused by a decrease in appetite. It is recommended that patients under the age of 10 have their weight and height monitored regularly. Other potential side effects of this medication include insomnia, weight loss, anxiety, nausea, and pain.
In March 2018, NICE released new guidelines for identifying and managing Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). This condition can have a significant impact on a child’s life and can continue into adulthood, making accurate diagnosis and treatment crucial. According to DSM-V, ADHD is characterized by persistent features of inattention and/or hyperactivity/impulsivity, with an element of developmental delay. Children up to the age of 16 must exhibit six of these features, while those aged 17 or over must exhibit five. ADHD has a UK prevalence of 2.4%, with a higher incidence in boys than girls, and there may be a genetic component.
NICE recommends a holistic approach to treating ADHD that is not solely reliant on medication. After presentation, a ten-week observation period should be implemented to determine if symptoms change or resolve. If symptoms persist, referral to secondary care is necessary, typically to a paediatrician with a special interest in behavioural disorders or to the local Child and Adolescent Mental Health Service (CAMHS). A tailored plan of action should be developed, taking into account the patient’s needs and wants, as well as how their condition affects their lives.
Drug therapy should be considered a last resort and is only available to those aged 5 years or older. Parents of children with mild/moderate symptoms can benefit from attending education and training programmes. For those who do not respond or have severe symptoms, pharmacotherapy may be considered. Methylphenidate is the first-line treatment for children and should be given on a six-week trial basis. It is a CNS stimulant that primarily acts as a dopamine/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. Side effects include abdominal pain, nausea, and dyspepsia. Weight and height should be monitored every six months in children. If there is an inadequate response, lisdexamfetamine should be considered, followed by dexamfetamine if necessary. In adults, methylphenidate or lisdexamfetamine are the first-line options, with switching between drugs if no benefit is seen after a trial of the other. All of these drugs are potentially cardiotoxic, so a baseline ECG should be performed before starting treatment, and referral to a cardiologist should be made if there is any significant past medical history or family history, or any doubt or ambiguity.
As with most psychiatric conditions, a thorough history and clinical examination are essential, particularly given the overlap of ADHD with many other psychiatric and
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents to the emergency department after a fall resulting in a fracture of his distal 1/3 right femur. The radiologist noted v-shaped osteolytic lesions on his femur. Due to his age and the stability of the fracture, conservative management is chosen. His blood test results are as follows: haemoglobin 142 g/L (135-180), calcium 2.6 mmol/L (2.2 - 2.6), phosphate 0.9 mmol/L (0.74 - 1.4), alkaline phosphatase 418 u/L (30 - 100), and parathyroid hormone 52 pg/mL (10-55). The patient has a medical history of chronic kidney disease and diabetes. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Myeloma
Correct Answer: Paget's disease
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for the patient’s condition is Paget’s disease of the bone, which commonly affects the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities. This is evidenced by the patient’s distal 2/3 femur fracture with osteolytic lesions and elevated ALP levels. Myeloma, osteomalacia, and osteoporosis are incorrect diagnoses as they do not match the patient’s symptoms and blood test results.
Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone
Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities. Predisposing factors include increasing age, male sex, northern latitude, and family history.
Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. The stereotypical presentation is an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Classical, untreated features include bowing of the tibia and bossing of the skull. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, which show raised ALP, and x-rays, which reveal osteolysis in early disease and mixed lytic/sclerotic lesions later.
Treatment is indicated for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fracture, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, either oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are the preferred treatment. Calcitonin is less commonly used now. Complications of Paget’s disease include deafness, bone sarcoma (1% if affected for > 10 years), fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.
Overall, understanding Paget’s disease of the bone is important for early diagnosis and management of symptoms and complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 16
Correct
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A young adult is concerned about her ability to take her upcoming final exams at university in three months. She experiences feelings of fluster, faintness, and dizziness specifically during written exams, but has no symptoms at any other time, including during physical activity. Her resting ECG is normal and clinical examination shows no abnormalities. What is the best course of action to take?
Your Answer: Arrange counselling, with relaxation training
Explanation:a Student’s Symptoms of Stress and Anxiety
The symptoms described by the student are typical of stress and anxiety, which are common experiences for many people. It is important to reassure the student that these symptoms do not necessarily indicate an underlying medical condition. However, if the student is concerned, a 24-hour ECG monitoring can be done to provide further reassurance.
It is important to note that prescribing diazepam may not be the best course of action as it can impair the student’s exam performance. Similarly, fluoxetine may not be the best option as it can increase feelings of anxiety. It is important to consider alternative treatments that can help the student manage their stress and anxiety in a way that does not negatively impact their academic performance. By the student’s symptoms and providing appropriate support, we can help them navigate this challenging time and achieve their academic goals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 17
Correct
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A 34-year-old male presents to the Emergency department with sudden onset pain in his left calf and inability to bear weight while cycling. He reports having cystic fibrosis, but it does not hinder his active lifestyle of going to the gym three times a week. The patient was hospitalized nine months ago for a chest infection, which was treated, but he still has residual Pseudomonas colonization that is managed with prophylactic azithromycin and ciprofloxacin. He also takes regular insulin and Creon for pancreatic insufficiency and supplements with Calcichew D3 and alendronic acid. Upon examination and radiography of his left leg, there is no evidence of a bone injury, but there is a palpable gap in the gastrocnemius muscle tendon. Which medication is likely contributing to this pathology?
Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:- Ciprofloxacin is a well-tolerated antibiotic with broad action, but it can reduce intestinal flora and increase the risk of tendon rupture.
- Azithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic used for respiratory conditions, with potential drug interactions.
- Alendronic acid is a bisphosphonate used for bone protection, but can cause gastrointestinal side effects and musculoskeletal symptoms.
- Calcium supplements are not directly linked to tendon damage, but may contribute to calcific tendonitis.
- Creon is a pancreatic enzyme preparation used for cystic fibrosis patients, without known musculoskeletal side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You see a 40-year-old office worker in General Practice who is concerned about gaining extra weight. He tells you that he is currently very mindful of his diet and avoids any ‘unhealthy foods’. He meticulously counts calories for all meals and snacks and refrains from consuming anything for which he cannot find calorie information. He would like to know the recommended daily calorie intake for an average man to prevent weight gain.
What is the recommended daily calorie intake for an average man?Your Answer: 2000 kcal
Correct Answer: 2500 kcal
Explanation:Understanding Daily Calorie Intake Recommendations
The daily recommended calorie intake for men is approximately 2500 kcal, while for women it is around 2000 kcal. However, these are just guidelines and can vary based on factors such as age, BMI, muscle mass, and activity levels. In addition to calorie intake, the government also recommends specific daily intake levels for macronutrients, including protein, fat, carbohydrates, and dietary fiber, as well as limits for saturated fat, free sugars, and salt.
For weight loss in an average male with a normal activity level, a daily intake of 1500 kcal is recommended. However, an intake of 1800 kcal may be too low to maintain weight in the same individual. For females aged 19-64, the daily recommended calorie intake is 2000 kcal. For maintenance of body weight in the average male, a daily intake of 2500 kcal is recommended, but this may vary for larger individuals, those with higher muscle mass, or those who are highly active. Understanding these recommendations can help individuals make informed choices about their daily diet and overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 25-year-old rugby player injured his shoulder after a heavy tackle during a match. He arrived at the Emergency Department in visible discomfort with a deformed right shoulder that appeared flattened and drooped lower than his left. An X-ray revealed an anterior dislocation.
What is the name of the nerve that passes around the surgical neck of the humerus?Your Answer: Anterior branch of the axillary nerve
Explanation:Nerve Branches and their Innervations in the Upper Limb
The upper limb is innervated by various nerves that originate from the brachial plexus. Each nerve has specific branches that innervate different muscles and areas of the arm. Here are some important nerve branches and their innervations in the upper limb:
1. Anterior branch of the axillary nerve: This nerve branch winds around the surgical neck of the humerus and innervates the teres minor, deltoid, glenohumeral joint, and skin over the inferior part of the deltoid.
2. Median nerve: This nerve passes through the carpal tunnel and innervates the muscles of the anterior forearm, as well as the skin over the palmar aspect of the hand.
3. Lateral cutaneous nerve: This nerve is a continuation of the posterior branch of the axillary nerve and sweeps around the posterior border of the deltoid, innervating the skin over the lateral aspect of the arm.
4. Posterior interosseous nerve: This nerve is a branch of the radial nerve and does not wind around the surgical neck of the humerus. It innervates the muscles of the posterior forearm.
5. Radial nerve: This nerve winds around the midshaft of the humerus and innervates the muscles of the posterior arm and forearm, as well as the skin over the posterior aspect of the arm and forearm.
Understanding the innervations of these nerve branches is important in diagnosing and treating upper limb injuries and conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 20
Correct
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An 80-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of worsening pain when walking. Upon examination of her right leg, her leg was cold to touch and her medial tibial pulse was difficult to palpate. She also complained of severe calf pain which was also present at rest. The patient underwent intra-arterial thrombolysis for peripheral arterial disease and is now ready to be discharged.
Considering her past medical history of aortic stenosis, blood pressure of 123/72 mmHg, and peptic ulcer disease, what regular medication should be offered to the patient in light of her new diagnosis?Your Answer: Atorvastatin and clopidogrel
Explanation:For patients with peripheral arterial disease, it is recommended that they undergo secondary prevention measures. This includes lifestyle modifications such as quitting smoking, improving diet, and exercising regularly. Additionally, all patients with established cardiovascular disease should be prescribed a statin, with the appropriate dose of atorvastatin being 80mg for secondary prevention and 20 mg for primary prevention. Aspirin may be used as an anti-platelet option, but it is not suitable for patients with a history of peptic ulcer disease. In such cases, clopidogrel is recommended as a first-line treatment. The use of phosphodiesterase III inhibitors is currently not advised by NICE. Blood pressure management is also important, with calcium channel blockers being the drug of choice for patients above the age of 55. However, in this patient’s case, amlodipine is not necessary as she does not have a history of high blood pressure and her current blood pressure is normal. GTN may be considered for its vasodilator effects, but it is contraindicated in certain conditions such as aortic stenosis, cardiac tamponade, and hypotensive conditions. Warfarin is not indicated for the secondary prevention of PAD.
Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is a condition that is strongly associated with smoking. Therefore, patients who still smoke should be provided with assistance to quit smoking. It is also important to treat any comorbidities that the patient may have, such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and obesity. All patients with established cardiovascular disease, including PAD, should be taking a statin, with Atorvastatin 80 mg being the recommended dosage. In 2010, NICE published guidance recommending the use of clopidogrel as the first-line treatment for PAD patients instead of aspirin. Exercise training has also been shown to have significant benefits, and NICE recommends a supervised exercise program for all PAD patients before other interventions.
For severe PAD or critical limb ischaemia, there are several treatment options available. Endovascular revascularization and percutaneous transluminal angioplasty with or without stent placement are typically used for short segment stenosis, aortic iliac disease, and high-risk patients. On the other hand, surgical revascularization, surgical bypass with an autologous vein or prosthetic material, and endarterectomy are typically used for long segment lesions, multifocal lesions, lesions of the common femoral artery, and purely infrapopliteal disease. Amputation should only be considered for patients with critical limb ischaemia who are not suitable for other interventions such as angioplasty or bypass surgery.
There are also drugs licensed for use in PAD, including naftidrofuryl oxalate, a vasodilator sometimes used for patients with a poor quality of life. Cilostazol, a phosphodiesterase III inhibitor with both antiplatelet and vasodilator effects, is not recommended by NICE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl arrives at the emergency department with severe wheezing and shortness of breath. She is struggling to speak in full sentences and her peak expiratory flow rate is 320 l/min (45% of normal). Her oxygen saturation levels are at 92%. Her pCO2 is 4.8 kPa.
What is the most concerning finding from the above information?Your Answer: Cannot complete sentences
Correct Answer: pCO2 (kPa)
Explanation:Assessing Acute Asthma Attacks in Children
When assessing the severity of asthma attacks in children, the 2016 BTS/SIGN guidelines recommend using specific criteria. These criteria can help determine whether the attack is severe or life-threatening. For a severe attack, the child may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level between 33-50% of their best or predicted, and may be too breathless to talk or feed. Additionally, their heart rate may be over 125 (for children over 5 years old) or over 140 (for children between 1-5 years old), and their respiratory rate may be over 30 breaths per minute (for children over 5 years old) or over 40 (for children between 1-5 years old). They may also be using accessory neck muscles to breathe.
For a life-threatening attack, the child may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level below 33% of their best or predicted, and may have a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, agitation, altered consciousness, or cyanosis. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these criteria and to take appropriate action to manage the child’s asthma attack. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help ensure that children with asthma receive the appropriate care and treatment they need during an acute attack.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 22
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with a complaint of a thick, cottage-cheese like vaginal discharge that has a yellowish hue. The patient reports that the discharge began two days ago. She denies any presence of blood in the discharge, but does experience pain while urinating. Upon physical examination, the patient does not exhibit any pain and there are no palpable masses.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Candida albicans
Explanation:Common Vaginal Infections and Their Symptoms
Vaginal infections can be caused by various organisms and can present with different symptoms. Here are some common vaginal infections and their symptoms:
1. Candida albicans: This fungal infection can cause candidiasis, which presents with a thick, cottage-cheese yellowish discharge and pain upon urination. Treatment involves antifungal medication.
2. Normal discharge: A normal vaginal discharge is clear and mucoid, without smell or other concerning symptoms.
3. gonorrhoeae: This sexually transmitted infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae can cause a thick green-yellow discharge, painful urination, and bleeding between periods.
4. Chlamydia: This common sexually transmitted infection is often asymptomatic but can eventually cause pain upon urination, vaginal/penile discharge, and bleeding between periods.
5. Bacterial vaginosis: This infection is caused by an overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina and presents with a grey, watery discharge with a fishy odor. Treatment involves antibiotics and topical gels or creams.
It is important to seek medical attention if you experience any concerning symptoms or suspect a vaginal infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 38-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of flu-like symptoms. He reports experiencing sharp central chest pain that worsens with coughing and improves when he sits forwards. Upon examination, he is found to be tachycardic and has a temperature of 39 °C. A third heart sound is heard upon auscultation. What is the most probable cause of this patient's chest pain?
Your Answer: Pericarditis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Chest Pain: Pericarditis, Aortic Dissection, Myocardial Ischaemia, Oesophageal Reflux, and Pneumonia
Chest pain is a common presenting symptom in clinical practice. It can be caused by a variety of conditions, including pericarditis, aortic dissection, myocardial ischaemia, oesophageal reflux, and pneumonia.
Pericarditis is an acute inflammation of the pericardial sac, which contains the heart. It typically presents with central or left-sided chest pain that is relieved by sitting forwards and worsened by coughing and lying flat. Other signs include tachycardia, raised temperature, and pericardial friction rub. Investigations include blood tests, electrocardiography, chest X-ray, and echocardiography. Treatment aims to address the underlying cause and manage symptoms, such as analgesia and bed rest.
Aortic dissection is characterized by central chest or epigastric pain radiating to the back. It is associated with Marfan syndrome, and symptoms of this condition should be sought when assessing patients.
Myocardial ischaemia is unlikely in a 35-year-old patient without risk factors such as illegal drug use or family history. Ischaemic pain is typically central and heavy/’crushing’ in character, with radiation to the jaw or arm.
Oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) typically presents with chest pain associated with reflux after eating. Patients do not typically have a fever or history of recent illness.
Pneumonia is a possible cause of chest pain, but it is unlikely in the absence of a productive cough. Pleuritic chest pain associated with pneumonia is also unlikely to be relieved by sitting forward, which is a classical sign of pericarditis.
In conclusion, a thorough history and examination, along with appropriate investigations, are necessary to differentiate between the various causes of chest pain and provide appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 6-week-old infant is experiencing projectile vomiting following feeds. The vomit is abundant but not bile-tinged and happens shortly after a feed. During examination, a small mass in the pylorus can be felt. What electrolyte abnormality is most likely to be observed in this baby?
Your Answer: Hypochloremic hypokalaemic metabolic acidosis
Correct Answer: Hypochloremic hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis
Explanation:The infant is suffering from pyloric stenosis, which leads to a typical imbalance of electrolytes and acid-base known as hypochloremic, hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis. The continuous vomiting results in a gradual loss of fluids that contain hydrochloric acid, causing the kidneys to retain hydrogen ions over potassium. If the illness is brief, there may not be any electrolyte abnormalities.
Understanding Pyloric Stenosis
Pyloric stenosis is a condition that usually occurs in infants between the second and fourth weeks of life. However, in rare cases, it may present later, up to four months. This condition is caused by the thickening of the circular muscles of the pylorus. Pyloric stenosis is more common in males, with an incidence of 4 per 1,000 live births. It is also more likely to affect first-borns and infants with a positive family history.
The most common symptom of pyloric stenosis is projectile vomiting, which usually occurs about 30 minutes after a feed. Other symptoms may include constipation, dehydration, and a palpable mass in the upper abdomen. Prolonged vomiting can lead to hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic alkalosis, which can be life-threatening.
Diagnosis of pyloric stenosis is typically made using ultrasound. Management of this condition involves a surgical procedure called Ramstedt pyloromyotomy. This procedure involves making a small incision in the pylorus to relieve the obstruction and allow for normal passage of food. With prompt diagnosis and treatment, infants with pyloric stenosis can make a full recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 25
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A 26-year-old man and his partner visit the GP with a complaint of left-sided testicular pain that has been bothering him for the past 5 days. Upon examination, the left testicle appears swollen and red, and the pain subsides when the testicle is elevated. There are no signs of penile discharge or palpable masses. The right testicle appears normal. What is the most probable causative organism responsible for this man's condition?
Your Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation:The most frequent cause of epididymo-orchitis in sexually active younger adults is Chlamydia trachomatis. This man’s condition is likely caused by this bacterium. On the other hand, Escherichia coli and Enterococcus faecalis are common culprits in men over 35 years old or those who engage in anal sex, making it improbable that they caused this man’s condition.
Epididymo-orchitis is a condition where the epididymis and/or testes become infected, leading to pain and swelling. It is commonly caused by infections spreading from the genital tract or bladder, with Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae being the usual culprits in sexually active young adults, while E. coli is more commonly seen in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Symptoms include unilateral testicular pain and swelling, with urethral discharge sometimes present. Testicular torsion, which can cause ischaemia of the testicle, is an important differential diagnosis and needs to be excluded urgently, especially in younger patients with severe pain and an acute onset.
Investigations are guided by the patient’s age, with sexually transmitted infections being assessed in younger adults and a mid-stream urine (MSU) being sent for microscopy and culture in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Management guidelines from the British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) recommend ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscularly as a single dose, plus doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 10-14 days if the organism causing the infection is unknown. Further investigations are recommended after treatment to rule out any underlying structural abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman has received her cervical screening report and wants to discuss it with you. Her last smear was 2 years ago and showed normal cytology and negative HPV. However, her latest report indicates normal cytology but positive HPV. What should be the next course of action?
Your Answer: Repeat smear in 3 years
Correct Answer: Repeat smear in 1 year
Explanation:To follow up on a positive hrHPV result with a cytologically normal sample, it is recommended to repeat the smear after 12 months as HPV can be naturally cleared by the immune system within this timeframe.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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At a routine occupational health check, a 30-year-old man is found to have mild hypercalcaemia. He is anxious because the problem failed to resolve in his father, despite neck surgery. 24-hour urinary calcium excretion levels are low.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Hypercalcaemia of malignancy
Correct Answer: Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia (FHH)
Explanation:Differentiating Hypercalcaemia Causes: A Comparison
Hypercalcaemia can be caused by various conditions, including familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia (FHH), primary hyperparathyroidism, sarcoidosis, secondary hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcaemia of malignancy. To differentiate these causes, 24-hour urinary calcium excretion levels are measured.
In FHH, urinary calcium excretion levels are low, while in primary hyperparathyroidism, they are elevated. Sarcoidosis can also cause hypercalcaemia, but with elevated urinary calcium excretion levels. On the other hand, secondary hyperparathyroidism is associated with hypocalcaemia. Lastly, hypercalcaemia of malignancy is characterized by elevated urinary calcium excretion levels.
Therefore, measuring 24-hour urinary calcium excretion levels is crucial in determining the underlying cause of hypercalcaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old cancer survivor visits the GP complaining of back pain that began after playing golf last week. The pain intensifies when lying flat on the back at night, and taking paracetamol has provided little relief. The patient denies experiencing any bowel or bladder issues. During the examination, the doctor notes that the back pain is most prominent in the thoracic area, but there are no signs of neurological impairment. What is the most appropriate course of action for this individual?
Your Answer: Prescribe NSAIDs
Correct Answer: Refer urgently to hospital for further investigation
Explanation:When a patient with a history of cancer complains of back pain, it is important to investigate further. Even if the pain seems to be caused by a simple musculoskeletal injury, there may be underlying issues related to the patient’s cancer history. In this case, the patient has three red flags that require urgent attention in a hospital setting: a history of cancer, thoracic back pain, and worsening pain when lying down (which could indicate pressure on a growth or tumor). The concern is that the back pain may be caused by spinal metastases, which can lead to cord compromise.
Performing a digital rectal exam (DRE) is not necessary in this case, as the patient does not exhibit symptoms of cauda equina syndrome or cord compromise. DRE is typically used to assess for reduced anal tone and saddle anesthesia, which are signs of cauda equina syndrome. This condition can cause sciatic-like lower back and leg pain.
While prescribing stronger pain medication may help alleviate the patient’s symptoms, the priority in managing this case is to rule out any serious underlying causes of the back pain. Physiotherapy may be helpful in managing musculoskeletal back pain, but it is important to first rule out the possibility of spinal metastases due to cancer recurrence.
An X-ray of the spine may not be sensitive enough to detect small lytic lesions or assess for canal compromise. It is typically only considered if there has been recent significant trauma or suspicion of osteoporotic vertebral collapse. In cases where metastases are suspected, an MRI or CT scan is preferred.
Lower back pain is a common issue that is often caused by muscular strain. However, it is important to be aware of potential underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Certain red flags should be considered, such as age under 20 or over 50, a history of cancer, night pain, trauma, or systemic illness. There are also specific causes of lower back pain that should be kept in mind. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, worse in the morning and on standing, and typically worsens with back extension. Spinal stenosis may cause leg pain, numbness, and weakness that is worse on walking and relieved by sitting or leaning forward. Ankylosing spondylitis is more common in young men and causes stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arterial disease may cause pain on walking and weak foot pulses. It is important to consider these potential causes and seek appropriate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 29
Incorrect
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After fertilisation, which part of the spermatozoon remains in the cytoplasm of the oocyte?
Your Answer: Acrosome
Correct Answer: Nucleus
Explanation:During fertilization, the nucleus of the sperm carries the genetic material needed to create the paternal pronucleus and subsequently the zygote. The acrosome discharges its hydrolytic enzymes to help the sperm penetrate through the corona radiata and the zona pellucida. The sperm nucleus enters the cytoplasm of the egg, along with the midpiece, mitochondria, centrosome, and kinocilium of the sperm. Fertilization triggers changes in the chemistry of the zona pellucida and the discharge of cortical granules in the egg cytoplasm, which prevent additional sperm from fertilizing the egg. The sperm nucleus decondenses to form the haploid male pronucleus, which fuses with the haploid female pronucleus to form a diploid zygote nucleus. The midpiece and kinocilium of the sperm are destroyed, while the plasma membrane covering the tail remains attached to the egg plasma membrane. Mitochondrial diseases are inherited exclusively along the maternal line because the male mitochondria are destroyed soon after fertilization.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of double vision that has been ongoing for eight hours. He has a medical history of hypertension, which is managed with amlodipine and atenolol, and type 2 diabetes that is controlled through diet. Upon examination, the patient displays watering of the right eye, a slight droop of the eyelid, and displacement of the eye to the right. The left eye appears to have a full range of movements, and the pupil size is the same as on the left. What is the probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Aneurysm
Correct Answer: Diabetes
Explanation:Causes of Painless Partial Third Nerve Palsy
A painless partial third nerve palsy with pupil sparing is most likely caused by diabetes mononeuropathy. This condition is thought to be due to a microangiopathy that leads to the occlusion of the vasa nervorum. On the other hand, an aneurysm of the posterior communicating artery is associated with a painful third nerve palsy, and pupillary dilation is typical. Cerebral infarction, on the other hand, does not usually cause pain. Hypertension, which is a common condition, would normally cause signs of CVA or TIA. Lastly, cerebral vasculitis can cause symptoms of CVA/TIA, but they usually cause more global neurological symptoms.
In summary, a painless partial third nerve palsy with pupil sparing is most likely caused by diabetes mononeuropathy. Other conditions such as aneurysm of the posterior communicating artery, cerebral infarction, hypertension, and cerebral vasculitis can also cause similar symptoms, but they have different characteristics and causes. It is important to identify the underlying cause of the condition to provide appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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