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  • Question 1 - At what age is precocious puberty in females defined as the development of...

    Incorrect

    • At what age is precocious puberty in females defined as the development of secondary sexual characteristics occurring before?

      Your Answer: 11 years of age

      Correct Answer: 8 years of age

      Explanation:

      Understanding Precocious Puberty

      Precocious puberty is a condition where secondary sexual characteristics develop earlier than expected, before the age of 8 in females and 9 in males. It is more common in females and can be classified into two types: gonadotrophin dependent and gonadotrophin independent. The former is caused by premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, resulting in raised levels of FSH and LH. The latter is caused by excess sex hormones, with low levels of FSH and LH. In males, precocious puberty is uncommon and usually has an organic cause, such as gonadotrophin release from an intracranial lesion, gonadal tumour, or adrenal cause. In females, it is usually idiopathic or familial and follows the normal sequence of puberty. Organic causes are rare and associated with rapid onset, neurological symptoms and signs, and dissonance, such as in McCune Albright syndrome. Understanding precocious puberty is important for early detection and management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      4.6
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  • Question 2 - What is the initial indication of puberty in males? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the initial indication of puberty in males?

      Your Answer: Development of pubic hair

      Correct Answer: Increase in testicular volume

      Explanation:

      Puberty: Normal Changes in Males and Females

      Puberty is a natural process that marks the transition from childhood to adulthood. In males, the first sign of puberty is testicular growth, which typically occurs around the age of 12. A testicular volume greater than 4 ml indicates the onset of puberty. The maximum height spurt for males occurs at the age of 14.

      For females, the first sign of puberty is breast development, which typically occurs around the age of 11.5. The height spurt for females reaches its maximum early in puberty, at the age of 12, before menarche. Menarche, the onset of menstruation, typically occurs at the age of 13.

      Following menarche, there is only a small increase of about 4% in height. It is important to note that normal changes in puberty may include gynaecomastia in boys, asymmetrical breast growth in girls, and diffuse enlargement of the thyroid gland. These changes are a natural part of the process and should not cause alarm. Understanding the normal changes that occur during puberty can help individuals navigate this important stage of development with confidence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 3 - A 4-week-old girl is brought to the paediatric emergency department with a fever,...

    Correct

    • A 4-week-old girl is brought to the paediatric emergency department with a fever, vomiting and reduced appetite for the past 48 hours. The baby's growth and development have been normal so far. During the examination, the baby appears lethargic and fussy, with a respiratory rate that is faster than normal and a temperature of 39ºC. Blood pressure and pulse rate are within the normal range, and there are no signs of raised intracranial pressure. The medical team suspects bacterial meningitis and performs a lumbar puncture. What should be done while waiting for the lumbar puncture results?

      Your Answer: Start empirical antibiotics only

      Explanation:

      It is not recommended to use corticosteroids in children under 3 months of age who have suspected or confirmed bacterial meningitis. The most common organisms causing bacterial meningitis vary depending on the age of the child. For neonates up to 3 months old, Group B streptococcus, E.coli, and Listeria monocytogenes are the most common. For children between 1 month and 6 years old, Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Haemophilus influenzae are the most common. For children over 6 years old, Neisseria meningitidis and Streptococcus pneumoniae are the most common. In older children with bacterial meningitis, dexamethasone may reduce the risk of hearing loss, particularly in those with Hib meningitis. However, it should be avoided in children under 3 months old with suspected or confirmed bacterial meningitis, as well as those with certain central nervous system abnormalities or nonbacterial meningitis. Activated protein C and recombinant bacterial permeability-increasing protein should not be used in children and young people with meningococcal septicaemia. Treatment should not be delayed for a CT scan, as bacterial meningitis is a medical emergency. Intravenous immunoglobulins are not currently recommended for the management of meningitis.

      Investigation and Management of Meningitis in Children

      Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children. When investigating meningitis, it is important to note any contraindications to lumbar puncture, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, focal neurological signs, papilloedema, significant bulging of the fontanelle, disseminated intravascular coagulation, or signs of cerebral herniation. For patients with meningococcal septicaemia, a lumbar puncture is contraindicated, and blood cultures and PCR for meningococcal should be obtained instead.

      The management of meningitis in children involves administering antibiotics, such as IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin) and IV cefotaxime for children under three months, and IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) for children over three months. Steroids should be considered if the lumbar puncture reveals certain findings, such as purulent cerebrospinal fluid, a high white blood cell count, or bacteria on Gram stain. Fluids should be administered to treat shock, and cerebral monitoring should be conducted, including mechanical ventilation if necessary.

      It is also important to notify public health authorities and administer antibiotic prophylaxis to contacts. Ciprofloxacin is now preferred over rifampicin for this purpose. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of meningitis in children is crucial for ensuring the best possible outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 4 - A 6-year-old girl has been referred to the enuresis clinic by her pediatrician...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl has been referred to the enuresis clinic by her pediatrician due to ongoing bedwetting. Her mother has expressed concern as the girl has never had a dry night. The pediatrician has provided advice on diet, fluid intake, and toileting habits, but the bedwetting persists despite the use of a reward system. The mother has contacted the enuresis clinic for further intervention. What is the likely intervention that will be provided?

      Your Answer: Enuresis alarm

      Explanation:

      When a child experiences nocturnal enuresis, an enuresis alarm is typically the first option if general advice has not been effective. According to NICE guidelines, this is the primary approach. It may be worthwhile to consider a more appealing reward system to motivate the child, as they may not be incentivized if the prize is not deemed valuable. However, it is assumed that the mother can adequately motivate their child, so this may not be the chosen route for the clinic. If the initial intervention is unsuccessful, it is unlikely that repeating it will yield different results. If the enuresis alarm is not effective, pharmacological interventions such as desmopressin, oxybutynin, and unlicensed tolterodine may be considered, with desmopressin being the usual choice.

      Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.

      When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.

      The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 5 - A 16-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department after overdosing on alcohol...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department after overdosing on alcohol and paracetamol. She was discovered by her friend, unconscious in a local park, after sending a concerning text message. Her parents were both at work at the time. Upon regaining consciousness, she expresses embarrassment and explains that she had an argument with her boyfriend, now regrets her actions, and wishes to return home. All of her blood tests come back normal and she is deemed medically stable.
      What is the best course of immediate action for her management?

      Your Answer: Admit onto the paediatric ward to await an urgent Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services (CAMHS) assessment prior to discharge

      Explanation:

      Options for Discharging a Child with Suicidal Ideation

      When a child presents with suicidal ideation, it is important to carefully consider the best course of action for their safety and well-being. Here are some options for discharging a child with suicidal ideation:

      1. Admit onto the paediatric ward to await an urgent Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services (CAMHS) assessment prior to discharge.

      2. Start fluoxetine 10 mg and discharge home. However, antidepressants should only be considered following full assessment and recommendation by a child and adolescent psychiatrist.

      3. Discharge home with outpatient CAMHS follow up within a week. This option is only appropriate if the child is not at high risk of deliberate self-harm/attempted suicide.

      4. Discharge home with advice to book an urgent appointment to see their GP the same day. This option is only appropriate if the child is not at high risk of deliberate self-harm/attempted suicide.

      5. Start citalopram 10 mg and discharge home. However, antidepressants should only be considered following full assessment and recommendation by a child and adolescent psychiatrist.

      It is important to prioritize the safety and well-being of the child and consult with mental health professionals before making any decisions about discharge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 6 - What hand abnormalities are typical in children with achondroplasia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What hand abnormalities are typical in children with achondroplasia?

      Your Answer: Achondroplasia

      Correct Answer: Trident hand

      Explanation:

      Achondroplasia

      Achondroplasia is a genetic disorder that results in disproportionate short stature. This condition is characterized by an enlarged head and short arms and legs when compared to the trunk length. Individuals with achondroplasia typically reach an adult height of about 4 feet, which is significantly shorter than the average height for adults. In addition to short stature, people with achondroplasia may have other physical features, such as short hands with stubby fingers and a trident hand, which is a separation between the middle and ring fingers.

      In summary, achondroplasia is a genetic disorder that affects bone growth and development, resulting in disproportionate short stature and other physical features. While there is no cure for achondroplasia, early intervention and management can help individuals with this condition lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 7 - A mother arrives with her 3-year-old son who was diagnosed with cow's milk...

    Correct

    • A mother arrives with her 3-year-old son who was diagnosed with cow's milk protein allergy (CMPA) at 6 months old. He has been on a dairy-free diet and fed hydrolysed milk until he turned 1. Recently, he successfully completed the milk ladder and has been drinking raw milk for the past month without any reactions or diarrhoea. The mother is curious if this is typical or if her son was misdiagnosed earlier. IgE testing was conducted and came back normal. What advice would you give to the mother regarding her son's situation?

      Your Answer: Milk tolerance is common by 3 years

      Explanation:

      By the age of 3, most children with non-IgE-mediated cow’s milk protein allergy will become tolerant to milk. The milk ladder is designed to gradually expose children like Gabriel, who has normal IgE levels, to increasing levels of milk protein through their diet. Diagnosis of CMPA is based on clinical symptoms such as growth faltering, constipation, and irritability, and confirmed by withdrawal of cow’s milk protein-containing substances followed by re-exposure. Lactose intolerance is rare in children under 3 years old. Milk tolerance is not unusual in non-IgE mediated cow’s milk protein allergy by the age of 3.

      Understanding Cow’s Milk Protein Intolerance/Allergy

      Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects around 3-6% of children, typically presenting in the first 3 months of life in formula-fed infants. Both immediate and delayed reactions can occur, with CMPA used for immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms include regurgitation, vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms, wheeze, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis. Diagnosis is often clinical, with investigations including skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein.

      Management for formula-fed infants includes using extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk as the first-line replacement formula for mild-moderate symptoms and amino acid-based formula (AAF) for severe CMPA or if no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants are also intolerant to soya milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should eliminate cow’s milk protein from their diet and consider prescribing calcium supplements to prevent deficiency. eHF milk can be used when breastfeeding stops until at least 6 months and up to 12 months of age.

      The prognosis for CMPI is usually good, with most children becoming milk tolerant by the age of 3-5 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur. It is important to refer infants with severe symptoms to a pediatrician for management. Understanding CMPI/CMPA and its management can help parents and healthcare providers provide appropriate care for affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 8 - You are a junior doctor in paediatrica and have been asked to perform...

    Incorrect

    • You are a junior doctor in paediatrica and have been asked to perform a newborn exam. Which statement is true regarding the Barlow and Ortolani manoeuvres?

      Your Answer: It is performed by adducting the hip while applying pressure on the knee

      Correct Answer: It relocates a dislocation of the hip joint if this has been elicited during the Barlow manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Barlow and Ortolani Manoeuvres for Hip Dislocation Screening

      Hip dislocation is a common problem in infants, and early detection is crucial for successful treatment. Two screening tests commonly used are the Barlow and Ortolani manoeuvres. The Barlow manoeuvre involves adducting the hip while applying pressure on the knee, while the Ortolani manoeuvre flexes the hips and knees to 90 degrees, with pressure applied to the greater trochanters and thumbs to abduct the legs. A positive test confirms hip dislocation, and further investigation is necessary if risk factors are present, such as breech delivery or a family history of hip problems. However, a negative test does not exclude all hip problems, and parents should seek medical advice if they notice any asymmetry or walking difficulties in their child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 9 - A 6-day-old baby boy is brought into the Emergency Department by his parents...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-day-old baby boy is brought into the Emergency Department by his parents due to his projectile vomiting and failure to thrive. You arrange a blood gas reading.
      What is the metabolic disorder likely to develop in this patient?

      Your Answer: Hyperchloraemic alkalosis

      Correct Answer: Hypochloreamic metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      Acid-Base Imbalance in Infantile Pyloric Stenosis

      Infantile pyloric stenosis is a condition that causes projectile vomiting on feeding in newborns. This condition leads to a specific type of acid-base imbalance known as hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis. The loss of hydrochloric acid due to persistent vomiting results in a high pH and bicarbonate level, and a low chloride level.

      The initial treatment for this condition involves resuscitation with sodium chloride, followed by surgical management once the chloride level has reached a near-normal level. It is important to note that persistent vomiting would not cause metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation, hypochloremic acidosis, hyperchloremic acidosis, or hyperchloremic alkalosis. Therefore, prompt diagnosis and appropriate management are crucial in preventing complications associated with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 10 - At what age should the oral rotavirus vaccine be administered as part of...

    Incorrect

    • At what age should the oral rotavirus vaccine be administered as part of the NHS immunisation schedule?

      Your Answer: 4 months + 12-13 months

      Correct Answer: 2 months + 3 months

      Explanation:

      The Rotavirus Vaccine: A Vital Tool in Preventing Childhood Illness and Mortality

      Rotavirus is a significant public health concern, causing high rates of morbidity and hospitalization in developed countries and childhood mortality in developing nations. To combat this, a vaccine was introduced into the NHS immunization program in 2013. This vaccine is an oral, live attenuated vaccine that requires two doses, the first at two months and the second at three months. It is important to note that the first dose should not be given after 14 weeks and six days, and the second dose cannot be given after 23 weeks and six days due to the theoretical risk of intussusception.

      The rotavirus vaccine is highly effective, with an estimated efficacy rate of 85-90%. It is predicted to reduce hospitalization rates by 70% and provides long-term protection against rotavirus. This vaccine is a vital tool in preventing childhood illness and mortality, particularly in developing countries where access to healthcare may be limited. By ensuring that children receive the rotavirus vaccine, we can help to protect them from this dangerous and potentially deadly virus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 11 - You are on duty in the paediatric acute admissions unit during winter when...

    Incorrect

    • You are on duty in the paediatric acute admissions unit during winter when you are called to assess a 16-month-old toddler presenting with a runny nose, dry cough, increased respiratory effort, and an elevated respiratory rate. Upon examination, you note a mild generalised wheeze, along with fever and feeding difficulties. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Viral upper respiratory tract infection (URTI)

      Correct Answer: Bronchiolitis

      Explanation:

      Respiratory Conditions in Children: Understanding the Differences

      Bronchiolitis, Pneumonia, Asthma, Viral Upper Respiratory Tract Infection (URTI), and Croup are all respiratory conditions that can affect children. However, it is important to understand the differences between them in order to provide appropriate treatment.

      Bronchiolitis is a common respiratory condition caused by the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) that mostly affects children under 18 months old. It presents with coryzal symptoms before progressing to dyspnoea, cough, and fever. Difficulty feeding may occur due to dyspnoea, but most cases do not require admission.

      Pneumonia, on the other hand, is likely to present with a toxic child due to the bacteraemia. Localising signs such as dullness to percussion over the affected lobe may also be present.

      Asthma, which causes wheezing, would not cause fever. It is also important to note that the diagnosis of asthma should be avoided in patients below the age of 5.

      A viral URTI confined to the upper respiratory tract would not cause wheezing or significant respiratory compromise as described in the case history.

      Croup, which typically affects older children between the ages of 2-6 years, presents with a barking cough and, in severe cases, stridor.

      Understanding the differences between these respiratory conditions is crucial in providing appropriate treatment and care for children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 12 - A 6-year-old boy visits his GP with a productive cough and wheeze. During...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old boy visits his GP with a productive cough and wheeze. During the examination, a 1/6 intensity systolic murmur is detected in the second intercostal space lateral to the left sternal edge. The murmur is not audible when the child lies flat. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Innocent murmur

      Explanation:

      The innocent murmur is the correct answer. It is characterized by being soft, systolic, short, symptomless, and varying with position when standing or sitting. In contrast, coarctation of the aorta produces an ejection systolic murmur that can be heard through to the back and does not change with position. This condition is also associated with hypertension in the upper extremities and a difference in blood pressure between the arms and legs. Ventricular septal defect presents as a pansystolic murmur, while atrial septal defect is an ejection systolic murmur that is often accompanied by fixed splitting of the 2nd heart sound.

      Innocent murmurs are common in children and are usually harmless. There are different types of innocent murmurs, including ejection murmurs, venous hums, and Still’s murmur. Ejection murmurs are caused by turbulent blood flow at the outflow tract of the heart, while venous hums are due to turbulent blood flow in the great veins returning to the heart. Still’s murmur is a low-pitched sound heard at the lower left sternal edge.

      An innocent ejection murmur is characterized by a soft-blowing murmur in the pulmonary area or a short buzzing murmur in the aortic area. It may vary with posture and is localized without radiation. There is no diastolic component, no thrill, and no added sounds such as clicks. The child is usually asymptomatic, and there are no other abnormalities.

      Overall, innocent murmurs are not a cause for concern and do not require treatment. However, if a child has symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, or fainting, further evaluation may be necessary to rule out any underlying heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 13 - A newborn baby, delivered via C-section at term, has been diagnosed with a...

    Correct

    • A newborn baby, delivered via C-section at term, has been diagnosed with a ventricular septal defect (VSD) and is being reviewed by cardiology. The mother is feeling anxious and wants to know what risks her son may face. What is the high-risk factor associated with VSD in newborns?

      Your Answer: Endocarditis

      Explanation:

      Patients with VSD may require surgical intervention if their defect causes haemodynamic instability, while those with small shunts may not require treatment. However, all patients with VSD are at an increased risk of developing endocarditis, with a rate of 2.4 cases per 1000 patients per year. While pulmonary hypertension is common in patients with VSD, they are not at a higher risk of developing essential hypertension. Although VSD is associated with aneurysms of the ventricular septum, there is no known link to aortic aneurysms, carotid dissection, or papillary muscle atrophy.

      Congenital heart disease can be categorized into two types: acyanotic and cyanotic. Acyanotic heart diseases are more common and include ventricular septal defects (VSD), atrial septal defect (ASD), patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), coarctation of the aorta, and aortic valve stenosis. VSD is the most common acyanotic heart disease, accounting for 30% of cases. ASDs are less common than VSDs, but they are more frequently diagnosed in adult patients as they tend to present later. On the other hand, cyanotic heart diseases are less common and include tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries (TGA), and tricuspid atresia. Fallot’s is more common than TGA, but TGA is the more common lesion at birth as patients with Fallot’s generally present at around 1-2 months. The presence of cyanosis in pulmonary valve stenosis depends on the severity and any other coexistent defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 14 - A newborn delivered 12 hours ago without any complications is showing signs of...

    Incorrect

    • A newborn delivered 12 hours ago without any complications is showing signs of jaundice. The mother gave birth at home and has been breastfeeding, but is concerned about the baby's skin color. The baby was born at 38 weeks gestation. What is the recommended course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Continue Breastfeeding as normal

      Correct Answer: Referral for paediatric assessment

      Explanation:

      Since the infant is just 15 hours old, the jaundice is considered pathological. This implies that it is not related to breastfeeding, and the appropriate course of action would be to promptly seek a paediatric evaluation.

      Jaundice in newborns can occur within the first 24 hours of life and is always considered pathological. The causes of jaundice during this period include rhesus and ABO haemolytic diseases, hereditary spherocytosis, and glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase deficiency. On the other hand, jaundice in neonates from 2-14 days is common and usually physiological, affecting up to 40% of babies. This type of jaundice is due to a combination of factors such as more red blood cells, fragile red blood cells, and less developed liver function. Breastfed babies are more likely to develop this type of jaundice.

      If jaundice persists after 14 days (21 days for premature babies), a prolonged jaundice screen is performed. This includes tests for conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin, direct antiglobulin test, thyroid function tests, full blood count and blood film, urine for MC&S and reducing sugars, and urea and electrolytes. Prolonged jaundice can be caused by biliary atresia, hypothyroidism, galactosaemia, urinary tract infection, breast milk jaundice, prematurity, and congenital infections such as CMV and toxoplasmosis. Breast milk jaundice is more common in breastfed babies and is thought to be due to high concentrations of beta-glucuronidase, which increases the intestinal absorption of unconjugated bilirubin. Prematurity also increases the risk of kernicterus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 15 - A 4-month-old infant presents with jaundice and difficulty feeding. The baby was born...

    Correct

    • A 4-month-old infant presents with jaundice and difficulty feeding. The baby was born via caesarean section at 38 weeks with an APGAR score of 8 and 9 at 1 and 5 minutes, respectively. There are no dysmorphic features or rashes on examination, and vital signs are within normal limits. The family history is significant for the father and older sibling having a condition that causes transient, asymptomatic episodes of jaundice. Laboratory results show a conjugated bilirubin level of 72 µmol/L (normal range: 3-17), unconjugated bilirubin level of 10 µmol/L (normal range: 3-17), ALP level of 134 u/L (normal range: 30-100), ALT level of 58 u/L (normal range: 3-40), and γGT level of 197 u/L (normal range: 8-60). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Biliary atresia

      Explanation:

      The onset of biliary atresia is usually observed within the first few weeks of a newborn’s life, characterized by symptoms such as jaundice, poor appetite, and growth issues. This condition occurs when fibrous blockages obstruct the biliary ducts outside the liver, which can eventually lead to liver failure. Patients typically exhibit high levels of conjugated bilirubin, hepatomegaly, and elevated liver transaminases (with GGT being the most elevated). Alagille syndrome is a genetic disorder that primarily affects the liver and heart, and is characterized by distinct facial features such as a broad forehead and pointed chin. Diagnosis is confirmed through genetic testing for mutations in the JAG1 gene. Dubin-Johnson syndrome and… (sentence incomplete)

      Understanding Biliary Atresia in Neonatal Children

      Biliary atresia is a condition that affects the extrahepatic biliary system in neonatal children, resulting in an obstruction in the flow of bile. This condition is more common in females than males and occurs in 1 in every 10,000-15,000 live births. There are three types of biliary atresia, with type 3 being the most common. Patients typically present with jaundice, dark urine, pale stools, and abnormal growth.

      To diagnose biliary atresia, doctors may perform various tests, including serum bilirubin, liver function tests, serum alpha 1-antitrypsin, sweat chloride test, and ultrasound of the biliary tree and liver. Surgical intervention is the only definitive treatment for biliary atresia, and medical intervention includes antibiotic coverage and bile acid enhancers following surgery.

      Complications of biliary atresia include unsuccessful anastomosis formation, progressive liver disease, cirrhosis, and eventual hepatocellular carcinoma. However, the prognosis is good if surgery is successful. In cases where surgery fails, liver transplantation may be required in the first two years of life. Overall, understanding biliary atresia is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management in neonatal children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 16 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department with a rash. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department with a rash. Her parents deny any trauma and have no history with social services. She recently had a cold which resolved on its own.
      The child has no medical history and was born at term through vaginal delivery. She has met all developmental milestones and is up-to-date with her vaccinations.
      During examination, a petechial rash is observed on the child's legs. She appears healthy without other signs of bleeding.
      Her blood tests show:
      Hb 140 g/L Female: (120-160)
      Platelets 25 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 8.0 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      What is the recommended course of action?

      Your Answer: IV immunoglobulin

      Correct Answer: None

      Explanation:

      It is important to advise patients to avoid any trauma as it can impact the resolution of ITP, whether or not treatment is administered. Administering oral corticosteroids is not recommended as it is not necessary for a child who is not actively bleeding and the platelet count will typically recover on its own. Similarly, IV corticosteroids should not be used as they pose unnecessary risks for a child who will likely recover without the need for non-specific immunosuppressants. IV immunoglobulin is also not a suitable option as the child is not exhibiting any signs of active or previous bleeding and their platelet count is sufficient.

      Understanding Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) in Children

      Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a condition where the immune system attacks the platelets, leading to a decrease in their count. This condition is more common in children and is usually acute, often following an infection or vaccination. The antibodies produced by the immune system target the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib-V-IX complex, causing a type II hypersensitivity reaction.

      The symptoms of ITP in children include bruising, a petechial or purpuric rash, and less commonly, bleeding from the nose or gums. A full blood count is usually sufficient to diagnose ITP, and a bone marrow examination is only necessary if there are atypical features.

      In most cases, ITP resolves on its own within six months, without any treatment. However, if the platelet count is very low or there is significant bleeding, treatment options such as oral or IV corticosteroids, IV immunoglobulins, or platelet transfusions may be necessary. It is also advisable to avoid activities that may result in trauma, such as team sports. Understanding ITP in children is crucial for prompt diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 17 - An infant born with trisomy 21 begins to vomit shortly after his first...

    Incorrect

    • An infant born with trisomy 21 begins to vomit shortly after his first feed. The emesis is green and occurs after each subsequent feeding. His abdomen is also distended, most noticeably in the epigastrum. A baby-gram demonstrates a ‘double bubble’ in the abdomen.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Duodenal atresia

      Explanation:

      Neonatal Bilious Vomiting: Differential Diagnosis

      Neonates with bilious vomiting present a diagnostic challenge, as there are several potential causes. In the case of a neonate with trisomy 21, the following conditions should be considered:

      1. Duodenal atresia: This condition is characterized by narrowing of the duodenum, leading to bilious vomiting after feeding. Abdominal X-rays show a double bubble sign, indicating normal gastric bubble and duodenal dilation proximal to the obstruction.

      2. Biliary atresia: This condition involves a blind-ended biliary tree and can cause indigestion, impaired fat absorption, and jaundice due to bile retention.

      3. Pyloric stenosis: This condition is characterized by thickening of the gastric smooth muscle at the pylorus, leading to forceful, non-bilious vomiting within the first month of life. An olive-shaped mass may be felt on abdominal examination.

      4. Tracheoesophageal fistula: This condition involves a communication between the trachea and esophagus, leading to pulmonary infection due to aspiration and abdominal distension due to air entering the stomach.

      5. Imperforate anus: This condition is suggested when the neonate does not pass meconium within the first few days of life.

      A thorough evaluation, including imaging studies and surgical consultation, is necessary to determine the underlying cause of neonatal bilious vomiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 18 - A 4-month-old is brought to the emergency department with a suspected UTI and...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-month-old is brought to the emergency department with a suspected UTI and responds well to antibiotics within 48 hours. An ultrasound may be necessary to determine if this is a typical or atypical UTI. What is the most common indicator of an atypical UTI?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Poor urine flow

      Explanation:

      If an infant under 6 months shows signs of an atypical UTI, it is important to schedule an ultrasound scan during their acute admission. Atypical UTI may be indicated by symptoms such as poor urine flow, an abdominal or bladder mass, raised creatinine, septicaemia, failure to respond to appropriate antibiotics within 48 hours, or infection with non-E. coli organisms. However, raised white blood cells alone do not necessarily indicate septicaemia, and abdominal pain is a common symptom of UTI but does not necessarily indicate an atypical UTI.

      Urinary tract infections (UTI) are more common in boys until 3 months of age, after which the incidence is substantially higher in girls. Presentation in childhood depends on age, with infants showing poor feeding, vomiting, and irritability, younger children showing abdominal pain, fever, and dysuria, and older children showing dysuria, frequency, and haematuria. NICE guidelines recommend checking urine samples in children with symptoms or signs suggestive of a UTI, unexplained fever of 38°C or higher, or an alternative site of infection but who remain unwell. Urine collection should be done through clean catch or urine collection pads, and invasive methods should only be used if non-invasive methods are not possible. Management includes referral to a paediatrician for infants less than 3 months old, admission to hospital for children aged more than 3 months old with an upper UTI, and oral antibiotics for 3-10 days for children aged more than 3 months old with a lower UTI. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not given after the first UTI but should be considered with recurrent UTIs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 19 - Which feature is not associated with Down's syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which feature is not associated with Down's syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ataxic gait

      Explanation:

      Down’s Syndrome and Cognitive Decline

      Cerebellar dysfunction is not a characteristic of Down’s syndrome. However, individuals with this condition may experience a decline in memory and cognitive abilities similar to Alzheimer’s disease as they approach their mid-thirties. This syndrome is characterized by a gradual loss of cognitive function, including memory, attention, and problem-solving skills. It is important to note that this decline is not universal and may vary in severity among individuals with Down’s syndrome. Despite this, it is crucial to monitor cognitive function in individuals with Down’s syndrome to ensure early detection and intervention if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 20 - A premature infant is born at 30 weeks gestation through a spontaneous vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A premature infant is born at 30 weeks gestation through a spontaneous vaginal delivery. The amniotic fluid did not show any signs of meconium staining. However, the baby develops sternal recession, tachypnea, grunting, and cyanosis shortly after birth. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS)

      Explanation:

      When answering questions about respiratory issues in newborns, it is important to consider the risk factors involved. Prematurity is the primary risk factor for neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS), while caesarean section increases the risk of tachypnea of the newborn (TTN). Meconium staining is a significant risk factor for aspiration pneumonia.

      Symptoms of NRDS typically include respiratory distress that worsens over the first few days after birth. TTN, on the other hand, is characterized by rapid breathing shortly after birth, which often resolves within the first day of life. A chest X-ray can be helpful in diagnosing these conditions. NRDS is typically indicated by a diffuse ground glass appearance in the lungs, low lung volumes, and a bell-shaped thorax. TTN, on the other hand, may show a pattern similar to heart failure on the X-ray, with interstitial edema and pleural effusions, but with a normal heart size and rapid resolution of the pattern within a few days.

      Surfactant Deficient Lung Disease in Premature Infants

      Surfactant deficient lung disease (SDLD), previously known as hyaline membrane disease, is a condition that affects premature infants. It occurs due to the underproduction of surfactant and the immaturity of the lungs’ structure. The risk of SDLD decreases with gestation, with 50% of infants born at 26-28 weeks and 25% of infants born at 30-31 weeks being affected. Other risk factors include male sex, diabetic mothers, Caesarean section, and being the second born of premature twins.

      The clinical features of SDLD are similar to those of respiratory distress in newborns, including tachypnea, intercostal recession, expiratory grunting, and cyanosis. Chest x-rays typically show a ground-glass appearance with an indistinct heart border.

      Prevention during pregnancy involves administering maternal corticosteroids to induce fetal lung maturation. Management of SDLD includes oxygen therapy, assisted ventilation, and exogenous surfactant given via an endotracheal tube. With proper management, the prognosis for infants with SDLD is generally good.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 21 - A 7-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of shortness of breath. Her parents report that she had a cold for a few days but today her breathing has become more difficult. She has a history of viral-induced wheeze and was recently diagnosed with asthma by her GP.

      Upon examination, her respiratory rate is 28/min, heart rate is 120/min, saturations are 95%, and temperature is 37.5ºC. She has intercostal and subcostal recession and a global expiratory wheeze, but responds well to salbutamol.

      What medications should be prescribed for her acute symptoms upon discharge?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Salbutamol inhaler + 3 days prednisolone PO

      Explanation:

      It is recommended that all children who experience an acute exacerbation of asthma receive a short course of oral steroids, such as 3-5 days of prednisolone, along with a salbutamol inhaler. This approach should be taken regardless of whether the child is typically on an inhaled corticosteroid. It is important to ensure that patients have an adequate supply of their salbutamol inhaler and understand how to use it. Prescribing antibiotics is not necessary unless there is an indication of an underlying bacterial chest infection. Beclomethasone may be useful for long-term prophylactic management of asthma, but it is not typically used in short courses after acute exacerbations. A course of 10 days of prednisolone is longer than recommended and may not be warranted in all cases. A salbutamol inhaler alone would not meet the recommended treatment guidelines for acute asthma.

      Managing Acute Asthma Attacks in Children

      When it comes to managing acute asthma attacks in children, it is important to assess the severity of the attack and take appropriate action. For children between the ages of 2 and 5, those with severe or life-threatening asthma should be immediately transferred to the hospital. For moderate attacks, children should have a SpO2 level above 92% and no clinical features of severe asthma. However, for severe attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, be too breathless to talk or feed, have a heart rate above 140/min, and use accessory neck muscles. For life-threatening attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, agitation, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.

      For children over the age of 5, it is recommended to attempt to measure PEF in all cases. For moderate attacks, children should have a SpO2 level above 92%, a PEF level above 50% best or predicted, and no clinical features of severe asthma. For severe attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level between 33-50% best or predicted, and be unable to complete sentences in one breath or too breathless to talk or feed. For life-threatening attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level below 33% best or predicted, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.

      For children with mild to moderate acute asthma, bronchodilator therapy should be given via a beta-2 agonist and spacer (or close-fitting mask for children under 3 years old). One puff should be given every 30-60 seconds up to a maximum of 10 puffs. If symptoms are not controlled, the beta-2 agonist should be repeated and the child should be referred to the hospital. Steroid therapy should also be given to all children with an asthma exacerbation for 3-5 days, with the usual prednisolone dose varying based on age and weight.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 22 - Which condition is commonly associated with neonatal cyanosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which condition is commonly associated with neonatal cyanosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Total anomalous pulmonary venous drainage

      Explanation:

      Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Connection

      Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) is a condition that causes cyanosis in newborns. It is characterized by an abnormality in blood flow where all four pulmonary veins drain into systemic veins or the right atrium, with or without pulmonary venous obstruction. This results in the mixing of systemic and pulmonary venous blood in the right atrium.

      In contrast, conditions such as patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), atrial septal defect (ASD), and ventricular septal defect (VSD) are left to right shunts. Tricuspid atresia is another condition that is typically associated with cyanosis, but mitral regurgitation is not.

      It is important to understand the differences between these conditions and their effects on blood flow in order to properly diagnose and treat them. Further reading on TAPVC can be found on Medscape.

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  • Question 23 - A 35-year-old woman delivers a male infant who presents with low muscle tone...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman delivers a male infant who presents with low muscle tone and is later diagnosed with Down's syndrome. Which of the following features is the least probable in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rocker-bottom feet

      Explanation:

      Understanding the features of Down’s syndrome is crucial for clinical practice and final examinations. The correct answer to this question is option 4. While rocker-bottom feet are a characteristic of trisomy 18 or Edward’s syndrome, they are not typically observed in individuals with Down’s syndrome.

      Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is characterized by various clinical features. These features include an upslanting of the palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in the iris, a protruding tongue, small low-set ears, and a round or flat face. Additionally, individuals with Down’s syndrome may have a flat occiput, a single palmar crease, and a pronounced sandal gap between their big and first toe. Hypotonia, congenital heart defects, duodenal atresia, and Hirschsprung’s disease are also common in individuals with Down’s syndrome.

      Cardiac complications are also prevalent in individuals with Down’s syndrome, with multiple cardiac problems potentially present. The most common cardiac defect is the endocardial cushion defect, also known as atrioventricular septal canal defects, which affects 40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Other cardiac defects include ventricular septal defect, secundum atrial septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, and isolated patent ductus arteriosus.

      Later complications of Down’s syndrome include subfertility, learning difficulties, short stature, repeated respiratory infections, hearing impairment from glue ear, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, and atlantoaxial instability. Males with Down’s syndrome are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis, while females are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 24 - A 14-year-old girl comes to see her GP as she has not yet...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl comes to see her GP as she has not yet started her periods. She is 150 cm tall and has a BMI of 20 kg/m². Her mother and older sister both started menarche at 13, so she is concerned about the delay. A hormone profile is performed with the following results:

      Oestrogen 25 pmol/L (45 - 854)
      LH (follicular phase) 50 IU/L (1-12)
      FSH (follicular phase) 45 IU/L (1-9)
      Antimullerian hormone (AMH) 0.2 ng/mL (0.7-3.5)
      17-hydroxyprogesterone 2.0 nmol/L (1.0 – 4.5)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Turner’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Turner’s Syndrome

      Turner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is denoted as 45,XO or 45,X.

      The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (15%), coarctation of the aorta (5-10%), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is much more common in Turner’s syndrome, and there is also an increased incidence of autoimmune disease (especially autoimmune thyroiditis) and Crohn’s disease.

      In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and can cause a range of physical features and health issues. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 25 - A 6-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by his mother due...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by his mother due to increasing lethargy over the past few days. The child has a temperature of 38.6ºC and appears more pale than usual. Upon physical examination, petechiae and bruising are noted on the lower extremities. The following blood results are obtained: Hb 94 g/L (135-180), Platelets 86 * 109/L (150 - 400), WBC 26 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0), Neutrophils 1.0 * 109/L (2.0 - 7.0).

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      The most common childhood cancer is ALL, which is characterized by anaemia, neutropaenia, and thrombocytopaenia. Symptoms include pallor, lethargy, splenomegaly, and petechiae. In contrast, aplastic anaemia is characterized by pancytopenia and hypoplastic bone marrow, which would result in leukopenia instead of leukocytosis. Thalassaemia, a genetic condition that causes anaemia, does not match the patient’s blood film or clinical presentation. ITP, an immune-mediated reduction in platelet count, would not explain the leukocytosis and neutropaenia seen in the patient. Meningitis, which can cause fever and purpura, is unlikely to be bacterial meningitis as it would result in neutrophilia instead of neutropaenia.

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that commonly affects children and accounts for 80% of childhood leukaemias. It is most prevalent in children between the ages of 2-5 years, with boys being slightly more affected than girls. Symptoms of ALL can be divided into those caused by bone marrow failure, such as anaemia, neutropaenia, and thrombocytopenia, and other features like bone pain, splenomegaly, and hepatomegaly. Fever is also present in up to 50% of new cases, which may indicate an infection or a constitutional symptom. Testicular swelling may also occur.

      There are three types of ALL: common ALL, T-cell ALL, and B-cell ALL. Common ALL is the most common type, accounting for 75% of cases, and is characterized by the presence of CD10 and a pre-B phenotype. Poor prognostic factors for ALL include age less than 2 years or greater than 10 years, a white blood cell count greater than 20 * 109/l at diagnosis, T or B cell surface markers, non-Caucasian ethnicity, and male sex.

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  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old woman who is 39 weeks pregnant ingests an excessive amount of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 39 weeks pregnant ingests an excessive amount of lithium. After being stabilised, her baby is delivered without complications. However, during routine neonatal examinations, a pansystolic murmur is detected. Further evaluation through cardiac echocardiogram shows tricuspid incompetence with a large right atrium, a small right ventricle, and a low insertion of the tricuspid valve. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ebstein's anomaly

      Explanation:

      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital heart defect that results in the ‘atrialisation’ of the right ventricle. This condition is characterized by a low insertion of the tricuspid valve, which causes a large right atrium and a small right ventricle, leading to tricuspid incompetence. It is important to note that Ebstein’s anomaly is not the same as Fallot’s tetralogy, coarctation of the aorta, or transposition of the great arteries.

      Understanding Ebstein’s Anomaly

      Ebstein’s anomaly is a type of congenital heart defect that is characterized by the tricuspid valve being inserted too low, resulting in a large atrium and a small ventricle. This condition is also known as the atrialization of the right ventricle. It is believed that exposure to lithium during pregnancy may cause this condition.

      Ebstein’s anomaly is often associated with a patent foramen ovale (PFO) or atrial septal defect (ASD), which causes a shunt between the right and left atria. Additionally, patients with this condition may also have Wolff-Parkinson White syndrome.

      The clinical features of Ebstein’s anomaly include cyanosis, a prominent a wave in the distended jugular venous pulse, hepatomegaly, tricuspid regurgitation, and a pansystolic murmur that is worse on inspiration. Patients may also have a right bundle branch block, which can lead to widely split S1 and S2 heart sounds.

      In summary, Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital heart defect that affects the tricuspid valve and can cause a range of symptoms. It is often associated with other conditions such as PFO or ASD and can be diagnosed through clinical examination and imaging tests.

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  • Question 27 - A 10-year-old boy with Down's syndrome, asthma, reflux, and hyperthyroidism is brought to...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy with Down's syndrome, asthma, reflux, and hyperthyroidism is brought to the GP by his mother due to concerns about his chronic snoring. What could be the potential cause of his snoring based on his medical history?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Down's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Children who have Down’s syndrome are susceptible to snoring due to their low muscle tone in the upper airways, large tongue/adenoids, and increased risk of obesity. On the other hand, gastroesophageal reflux disease is not connected to snoring, but it can worsen at night and cause coughing. Tonsillectomy is a common treatment for snoring as it eliminates enlarged tonsils that can obstruct the upper airway. Hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism, is linked to snoring.

      Snoring in Children: Possible Causes

      Snoring in children can be caused by various factors. One of the common causes is obesity, which can lead to the narrowing of the airways and difficulty in breathing during sleep. Another possible cause is nasal problems such as polyps, deviated septum, and hypertrophic nasal turbinates, which can also obstruct the airways and cause snoring. Recurrent tonsillitis can also contribute to snoring, as the inflamed tonsils can block the air passages.

      In some cases, snoring in children may be associated with certain medical conditions such as Down’s syndrome and hypothyroidism. These conditions can affect the structure and function of the respiratory system, leading to snoring and other breathing difficulties.

      It is important to identify the underlying cause of snoring in children and seek appropriate treatment to prevent potential health complications. Parents should consult a healthcare professional if their child snores regularly or experiences other symptoms such as daytime sleepiness, difficulty concentrating, or behavioral problems.

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  • Question 28 - A 36 hour old neonate is presented to the GP by the parents...

    Incorrect

    • A 36 hour old neonate is presented to the GP by the parents due to the absence of bowel movement since birth at home and vomiting of yellow/green liquid after feeding. During the examination, the child's stomach appears significantly distended, but no palpable masses are detected. What is the gold standard diagnostic test for the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rectal biopsy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hirschsprung’s Disease

      Hirschsprung’s disease is a rare condition that affects 1 in 5,000 births. It is caused by a developmental failure of the parasympathetic Auerbach and Meissner plexuses, resulting in an aganglionic segment of bowel. This leads to uncoordinated peristalsis and functional obstruction, which can present as constipation and abdominal distension in older children or failure to pass meconium in the neonatal period.

      Hirschsprung’s disease is three times more common in males and is associated with Down’s syndrome. Diagnosis is made through a rectal biopsy, which is considered the gold standard. Treatment involves initial rectal washouts or bowel irrigation, followed by surgery to remove the affected segment of the colon.

      In summary, Hirschsprung’s disease is a rare condition that can cause significant gastrointestinal symptoms. It is important to consider this condition as a differential diagnosis in childhood constipation, especially in male patients or those with Down’s syndrome. Early diagnosis and treatment can improve outcomes and prevent complications.

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  • Question 29 - A toddler with macrosomia has had a difficult delivery, owing to shoulder dystocia....

    Incorrect

    • A toddler with macrosomia has had a difficult delivery, owing to shoulder dystocia. The obstetrician pulled the child’s head downwards towards the floor to disengage the anterior shoulder from below the pubic bones. When the child is having a check-up prior to discharge, the paediatrician notes that the left upper limb is adducted and medially rotated, with extension at the elbow joint. When questioned, the mother admits that the child has not been moving it.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erb–Duchenne palsy due to trauma to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Brachial Plexus Injuries: Causes and Symptoms

      The brachial plexus is a network of nerves that originates from the spinal cord and supplies the upper limb. Trauma to this network can result in various types of injuries, each with its own set of symptoms. Here are some of the common types of brachial plexus injuries and their distinguishing features:

      Erb-Duchenne Palsy: This injury occurs due to trauma to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus, typically during obstructed labor or delivery. The affected muscles include those supplied by the musculocutaneous, radial, and axillary nerves, resulting in adduction and medial rotation of the arm, wrist drop, and sensory loss along the posterolateral aspect of the limb.

      Isolated Radial Nerve Injury: This type of injury is associated with paralysis of the wrist and digital extensors, as well as the triceps. However, medial rotation of the humerus is not affected.

      Klumpke’s Palsy: This injury is caused by trauma to the lower trunk of the brachial plexus, often during difficult delivery or sudden upward stretching of the upper limb. It results in claw hand due to damage to T1, causing paralysis of the short muscles of the hand.

      Isolated Axillary Nerve Injury: With this type of injury, the wrist extensors function normally.

      Isolated Musculocutaneous Nerve Injury: This injury is not associated with wrist drop.

      In summary, understanding the specific symptoms associated with each type of brachial plexus injury can aid in accurate diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 30 - A 1-year-old child is brought to the emergency room with poor muscle tone,...

    Incorrect

    • A 1-year-old child is brought to the emergency room with poor muscle tone, gasping respirations, cyanosis, and a heart rate of 80 bpm. The child's APGAR score is 3 and is placed in the sniffing position for airway maintenance. However, there are no changes noted on reassessment. After positive pressure ventilation for 30 seconds, the child is now showing shallow respirations and a heart rate of 50 bpm. Chest compressions are initiated. What is the recommended compression: ventilation ratio for this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3:01

      Explanation:

      If a newborn is healthy, they will have good tone, be pink in color, and cry immediately after delivery. A healthy newborn’s heart rate should be between 120-150 bpm. However, if the infant has poor tone, is struggling to breathe, and has a low heart rate that is not improving, compressions are necessary. According to newborn resuscitation guidelines, compressions and ventilations should be administered at a 3:1 ratio. Therefore, the correct course of action in this scenario is to perform compressions.

      Newborn resuscitation involves a series of steps to ensure the baby’s survival. The first step is to dry the baby and maintain their body temperature. The next step is to assess the baby’s tone, respiratory rate, and heart rate. If the baby is gasping or not breathing, five inflation breaths should be given to open the lungs. After this, the baby’s chest movements should be reassessed. If the heart rate is not improving and is less than 60 beats per minute, compressions and ventilation breaths should be administered at a rate of 3:1.

      It is important to note that inflation breaths are different from ventilation breaths. The aim of inflation breaths is to sustain pressure to open the lungs, while ventilation breaths are used to provide oxygen to the baby’s body. By following these steps, healthcare professionals can increase the chances of a newborn’s survival and ensure that they receive the necessary care to thrive. Proper newborn resuscitation can make all the difference in a baby’s life, and it is crucial that healthcare professionals are trained in these techniques.

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