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Question 1
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of a painful sore inside her mouth that has been bothering her for the past week. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and takes metformin for it.
During the mouth examination, the GP observes an oval-shaped, shallow ulcer with a red rim around it. The ulcer is sensitive to touch, and no other lesions are visible. The patient does not have swollen lymph nodes and is in good health otherwise.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: Topical steroids
Explanation:Management of Aphthous Ulcers: Topical Steroids and Pain Control
Aphthous ulcers are a common benign oral lesion that can be triggered by local trauma or certain foods. The first-line management for this condition typically involves topical steroids and topical lidocaine for pain control. Biopsy of the lesion is not indicated unless the ulcer is not healing after three weeks and malignancy needs to be excluded. Epstein-Barr virus testing is only necessary if there are signs of oral hairy leucoplakia. Immediate specialist referral is necessary if there are signs of malignancy. Oral steroids can be considered in refractory cases, but should be used cautiously in patients with diabetes mellitus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man with advanced adenocarcinoma of the colon and extensive pulmonary metastases reports experiencing breathlessness recently. He notices this when he takes just a few steps away from his bed. Despite trying controlled breathing techniques, he finds no relief from his breathing difficulties.
What is the next appropriate course of action for managing dyspnoea in this patient?Your Answer: Continuous non-invasive ventilatory support
Correct Answer: Systemic opioids (oral/subcutaneous/intravenous)
Explanation:Management Options for Dyspnoea in Palliative Care Patients
Dyspnoea is a common complaint in palliative care patients and requires appropriate management. Short-acting systemic opioids have been shown to be effective in alleviating dyspnoea in terminally ill patients, but caution should be exercised in patients with certain conditions. Heliox® and benzodiazepines may also be used in certain cases, but require expertise and careful consideration. Continuous non-invasive ventilatory support may be considered if other options fail, but requires adequate support. Nebulised opioids may also be a viable option depending on the underlying cause of dyspnoea. Treatment should be tailored to the individual patient’s needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man has undergone the following investigations by his General Practitioner (GP).
Plasma:
Investigations Results Normal Value
Total Ca2+ 1.85 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
Albumin 42 g/l 35–55 g/l
PO43- 1.8 mmol/l 0.70–1.40 mmol/l
Alkaline phosphatase 160 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
Parathyroid hormone (PTH) 80 ng/l 10–65 ng/l
What is the most probable underlying condition?Your Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Correct Answer: Chronic renal failure
Explanation:Understanding Hyperparathyroidism and Related Conditions
Hyperparathyroidism is a condition characterized by high levels of parathyroid hormone (PTH) in the blood, which can lead to imbalances in calcium and phosphate levels. There are several different types of hyperparathyroidism, as well as related conditions that can affect the parathyroid gland and its function.
Chronic renal failure is one such condition, in which impaired 1α-hydroxylation of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol leads to reduced calcium and phosphate excretion due to renal impairment. This results in secondary hyperparathyroidism, with elevated PTH levels in response to low plasma ionized calcium. Alkaline phosphatase is also elevated due to renal osteodystrophy.
As chronic renal failure progresses, the parathyroid glands may become hyperplastic or adenomatous, leading to tertiary hyperparathyroidism. In this condition, PTH secretion is substantially increased, causing elevated calcium levels that are not limited by feedback control.
Malignant hyperparathyroidism is another condition that can mimic hyperparathyroidism, but is caused by the production of PTH-related protein (PTHrP) by cancer cells. In this case, PTH levels are low, but calcium levels are high and phosphate levels are low.
Primary hyperparathyroidism is characterized by high PTH levels, leading to high calcium and low phosphate levels. Primary hypoparathyroidism, on the other hand, is caused by gland failure and results in low PTH production, leading to low calcium and high phosphate levels. Secondary hypoparathyroidism occurs when PTH production is suppressed by hypercalcemia, but this is not the correct answer in a patient with low calcium levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A patient in their 60s was diagnosed with disease of a heart valve located between the left ventricle and the ascending aorta. Which of the following is most likely to describe the cusps that comprise this heart valve?
Your Answer: Anterior and septal cusps
Correct Answer: Right, left and posterior cusps
Explanation:Different Cusps of Heart Valves
The heart has four valves that regulate blood flow through the chambers. Each valve is composed of cusps, which are flaps that open and close to allow blood to pass through. Here are the different cusps of each heart valve:
Aortic Valve: The aortic valve is made up of a right, left, and posterior cusp. It is located at the junction between the left ventricle and the ascending aorta.
Mitral Valve: The mitral valve is usually the only bicuspid valve and is composed of anterior and posterior cusps. It is located between the left atrium and the left ventricle.
Tricuspid Valve: The tricuspid valve has three cusps – anterior, posterior, and septal. It is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle.
Pulmonary Valve: The pulmonary valve is made up of right, left, and anterior cusps. It is located at the junction between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery.
Understanding the different cusps of heart valves is important in diagnosing and treating heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which of the following haemodynamic changes is not observed in hypovolaemic shock?
Your Answer: Decreased cardiac output
Correct Answer: Reduced systemic vascular resistance
Explanation:Cardiogenic shock is caused by conditions such as MI or valve abnormalities, leading to decreased cardiac output and blood pressure, with increased SVR and HR. Hypovolaemic shock is caused by blood volume depletion from sources such as haemorrhage or dehydration, also resulting in decreased cardiac output and blood pressure, with increased SVR and HR. Septic shock, as well as anaphylactic and neurogenic shock, is characterized by reduced SVR and increased HR, with normal or increased cardiac output and decreased blood pressure due to peripheral vascular dilation.
Understanding Shock: Aetiology and Management
Shock is a condition that occurs when there is inadequate tissue perfusion. It can be caused by various factors, including sepsis, haemorrhage, neurogenic injury, cardiogenic events, and anaphylaxis. Septic shock is a major concern, with a mortality rate of over 40% in patients with severe sepsis. Haemorrhagic shock is often seen in trauma patients, and the severity is classified based on the amount of blood loss and associated physiological changes. Neurogenic shock occurs following spinal cord injury, leading to decreased peripheral vascular resistance and cardiac output. Cardiogenic shock is commonly caused by ischaemic heart disease or direct myocardial trauma. Anaphylactic shock is a severe hypersensitivity reaction that can be life-threatening.
The management of shock depends on the underlying cause. In septic shock, prompt administration of antibiotics and haemodynamic stabilisation are crucial. In haemorrhagic shock, controlling bleeding and maintaining circulating volume are essential. In neurogenic shock, peripheral vasoconstrictors are used to restore vascular tone. In cardiogenic shock, supportive treatment and surgery may be required. In anaphylactic shock, adrenaline is the most important drug and should be given as soon as possible.
Understanding the aetiology and management of shock is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide timely and appropriate interventions to improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man is brought by ambulance to Accident and Emergency. He presents with central crushing chest pain and has ST-segment elevation present on an electrocardiogram (ECG). You are at a District General Hospital without access to percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), and you will not be able to transfer the patient across for PCI in time.
Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to thrombolysis?Your Answer: Advanced liver disease
Correct Answer: Brain neoplasm
Explanation:Relative and Absolute Contraindications to Thrombolysis
Thrombolysis is a treatment option for patients with ongoing cardiac ischemia and presentation within 12 hours of onset of pain. However, it is important to consider both relative and absolute contraindications before administering thrombolysis.
Cerebral neoplasm is the only absolute contraindication, while advanced liver disease, severe hypertension (not meeting absolute contraindication values), active peptic ulceration, and pregnancy or recent delivery are all relative contraindications.
Primary PCI is the preferred treatment option if available, but thrombolysis can be used as an alternative if necessary. The benefit of thrombolysis decreases over time, and a target time of less than 30 minutes from admission is recommended. Thrombolysis should not be given if the onset of pain is more than 24 hours after presentation.
It is important to carefully consider contraindications before administering thrombolysis to ensure patient safety and optimal treatment outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 16-year-old female arrives at the emergency department with her friend. The friend reports that they had an argument and the patient took 'lots of tablets'. The patient denies this but agrees to further investigations. Her ABG results show:
Normal range
pH: 7.47 (7.35 - 7.45)
pO2: 12 (10 - 14)kPa
pCO2: 3.6 (4.5 - 6.0)kPa
HCO3: 22 (22 - 26)mmol/l
BE: +1 (-2 to +2)mmol/l
After two hours, the patient complains of feeling very unwell and experiencing ringing in her ears. A repeat ABG is performed and shows:
Normal range
pH: 7.16 (7.35 - 7.45)
pO2: 11 (10 - 14)kPa
pCO2: 3.1 (4.5 - 6.0)kPa
HCO3: 8 (22 - 26)mmol/l
BE: -19 (-2 to +2)mmol/l
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Aspirin overdose
Explanation:The typical image of an aspirin overdose is characterized by an initial respiratory alkalosis caused by heightened respiratory effort due to stimulation of the central respiratory center. Subsequently, a metabolic acidosis develops in conjunction with the respiratory alkalosis, which is attributed to the direct impact of the salicylic acid metabolite.
Salicylate overdose can result in a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. The initial effect of salicylates is to stimulate the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the overdose progresses, the direct acid effects of salicylates, combined with acute renal failure, can cause metabolic acidosis. In children, metabolic acidosis tends to be more prominent. Other symptoms of salicylate overdose include tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia, nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.
The treatment for salicylate overdose involves general measures such as airway, breathing, and circulation support, as well as administering activated charcoal. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can help eliminate aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary. Indications for hemodialysis include a serum concentration of salicylates greater than 700 mg/L, metabolic acidosis that is resistant to treatment, acute renal failure, pulmonary edema, seizures, and coma.
It is important to note that salicylates can cause the uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation, which leads to decreased adenosine triphosphate production, increased oxygen consumption, and increased carbon dioxide and heat production. Therefore, prompt and appropriate treatment is crucial in managing salicylate overdose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 65-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of a persistent cough with yellow sputum, mild breathlessness, and fever for the past three days. He had a heart attack nine months ago and received treatment with a bare metal stent during angioplasty. Due to his penicillin allergy, the doctor prescribed oral clarithromycin 500 mg twice daily for a week to treat his chest infection. However, after five days, the patient returns to the doctor with severe muscle pains in his thighs and shoulders, weakness, lethargy, nausea, and dark urine. Which medication has interacted with clarithromycin to cause these symptoms?
Your Answer: Simvastatin
Explanation:Clarithromycin and its Drug Interactions
Clarithromycin is an antibiotic used to treat various bacterial infections. It is effective against many Gram positive and some Gram negative bacteria that cause community acquired pneumonias, atypical pneumonias, upper respiratory tract infections, and skin infections. Unlike other macrolide antibiotics, clarithromycin is highly stable in acidic environments and has fewer gastric side effects. It is also safe to use in patients with penicillin allergies.
However, clarithromycin can interact with other drugs by inhibiting the hepatic cytochrome P450 enzyme system. This can lead to increased levels of other drugs that are metabolized via this route, such as warfarin, aminophylline, and statin drugs. When taken with statins, clarithromycin can cause muscle breakdown and rhabdomyolysis, which can lead to renal failure. Elderly patients who take both drugs may experience reduced mobility and require prolonged rehabilitation physiotherapy.
To avoid these interactions, it is recommended that patients taking simvastatin or another statin drug discontinue its use during the course of clarithromycin treatment and for one week after. Clarithromycin can also potentially interact with clopidogrel, a drug used to prevent stent thrombosis, by reducing its efficacy. However, clarithromycin does not have any recognized interactions with bisoprolol, lisinopril, or aspirin.
In summary, while clarithromycin is an effective antibiotic, it is important to be aware of its potential drug interactions, particularly with statin drugs and clopidogrel. Patients should always inform their healthcare provider of all medications they are taking to avoid any adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man, with a history of chronic alcohol abuse, presents to the Emergency Department with pain in the right and left upper quadrants. He has had bouts of abdominal pain in the past year. For the past month, he has had more frequent and worsening abdominal pain. Physical examination reveals right upper and left upper quadrant pain with guarding. An abdominal plain film radiograph reveals no free air, but there is an extensive peritoneal fluid collection, along with dilated loops of the small bowel. An abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan reveals a 6- to 7-cm cystic mass in the tail of the pancreas.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pancreatic pseudocyst
Explanation:Differentiating Pancreatic Conditions: Pseudocysts, Adenocarcinoma, Islet Cell Adenoma, Acute Pancreatitis, and Metastatic Carcinoma
Pancreatic pseudocysts are collections of necrotic-haemorrhagic material that lack an epithelial lining and account for 75% of cysts in the pancreas. They often occur after an episode of acute pancreatitis or traumatic injury to the abdomen.
Pancreatic adenocarcinoma, on the other hand, is a solid mass that is not related to alcoholism. It usually develops in the head of the gland and is characterised by hard, stellate, poorly defined masses.
Islet cell adenomas, which are often non-functional, are not cystic and can be difficult to image due to their small size. However, some may secrete hormones such as insulin or gastrin.
Acute pancreatitis is a reversible inflammation of the pancreas that ranges in severity from oedema and fat necrosis to severe haemorrhage and parenchymal necrosis. It is a medical emergency characterised by sudden severe pain in the abdomen.
Finally, metastatic carcinoma is characterised by multiple solid masses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman complains of a painful lump in her left breast. She has been breastfeeding her baby for two weeks without any issues until four days ago when she noticed the swelling. Upon examination, there is a warm, tender, erythematosus, and fluctuant mass in her left breast. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abscess
Explanation:Lactational Breast Abscesses: Causes and Treatment
Lactational breast abscesses are a common occurrence during the first month of breastfeeding. These abscesses are typically caused by staphylococcal bacteria and can be treated with antibiotics and aspiration under ultrasound control. In some cases, multiple aspirations may be necessary to fully resolve the abscess. However, if the abscess does not respond to treatment or recurs, formal incision and drainage may be required. It is important for new mothers to be aware of the signs and symptoms of lactational breast abscesses, such as breast pain, redness, and swelling, and to seek medical attention promptly if they suspect an abscess. With proper treatment, lactational breast abscesses can be effectively managed, allowing mothers to continue breastfeeding their infants without interruption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman visits her doctor with a complaint of skin wheals. These wheels are often linked to migraines that she experiences occasionally before her menstrual cycle. She has a clean medical history, takes the progesterone-only pill, an over-the-counter multivitamin, and aspirin for pain relief as needed. She has no known allergies. What is the probable reason for her urticaria?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin-induced urticaria
Explanation:Urticaria, a skin reaction characterized by red patches and oedema caused by the release of vasoactive substances like histamine from mast cells, can be triggered by aspirin. This is a common cause of drug-induced urticaria, which is likely the case for the patient who experiences episodes alongside her migraines, for which she takes aspirin as an analgesic. Although aspirin is not as commonly used as an analgesic, it is still popularly used as an over-the-counter medication. While exercise-induced urticaria is a known phenomenon, it does not seem to be the case for this patient. Hormonal changes due to menstruation may cause migraines, but they are not typically associated with urticaria. Contraceptives can cause chronic urticaria, but it would not occur in a limited time frame once a month. The patient’s daily multivitamin intake is unlikely to be the cause of her sporadic urticaria episodes.
Urticaria, also known as hives, can be caused by various drugs. Some of the most common drugs that cause urticaria include aspirin, penicillins, NSAIDs, and opiates. These drugs can trigger an allergic reaction in the body, leading to the development of hives. It is important to note that not everyone who takes these drugs will experience urticaria, and the severity of the reaction can vary from person to person.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of painful eye movements and swelling in his left eye. He has a history of chronic sinusitis but is otherwise healthy. Upon examination, his left eye is completely swollen shut with significant eyelid swelling and redness that extends from his cheekbone to his eyebrow. When the eye is opened manually, there is chemosis. What is the best initial treatment for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous antibiotics
Explanation:Hospital admission for IV antibiotics is necessary for patients with orbital cellulitis due to the risk of intracranial spread and cavernous sinus thrombosis. This patient’s condition requires urgent treatment with IV antibiotics to prevent further complications and preserve their vision. Orbital cellulitis is classified according to Chandler’s classification, with preseptal cellulitis being the mildest form and cavernous sinus thrombosis being the most severe. Signs of orbital cellulitis include painful and restricted eye movements, reduced visual acuity and fields, abnormal pupillary responses, and the presence of chemosis and proptosis. IV antibiotics are the primary treatment for orbital cellulitis, and if there is evidence of intracranial spread or abscess, external drainage or neurosurgical intervention may be necessary. While a CT head is important to assess the extent of spread, treatment with antibiotics should not be delayed. Ophthalmology review is also crucial in managing orbital cellulitis, and patients are typically managed jointly by ENT and ophthalmology. Oral antibiotics are not appropriate for this infection, and IV administration is recommended.
Understanding Orbital Cellulitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Orbital cellulitis is a serious infection that affects the fat and muscles behind the orbital septum within the orbit, but not the globe. It is commonly caused by upper respiratory tract infections that spread from the sinuses and can lead to a high mortality rate. On the other hand, periorbital cellulitis is a less severe infection that occurs in the superficial tissues anterior to the orbital septum. However, it can progress to orbital cellulitis if left untreated.
Risk factors for orbital cellulitis include childhood, previous sinus infections, lack of Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccination, recent eyelid infections or insect bites, and ear or facial infections. Symptoms of orbital cellulitis include redness and swelling around the eye, severe ocular pain, visual disturbance, proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, eyelid edema, and ptosis. In rare cases, meningeal involvement can cause drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting.
To differentiate between orbital and preseptal cellulitis, doctors look for reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and ophthalmoplegia, which are not consistent with preseptal cellulitis. Full blood count and clinical examination involving complete ophthalmological assessment are necessary to determine the severity of the infection. CT with contrast can also help identify inflammation of the orbital tissues deep to the septum and sinusitis. Blood culture and microbiological swab are also necessary to determine the organism causing the infection.
Management of orbital cellulitis requires hospital admission for IV antibiotics. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent senior review. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and reduce the risk of mortality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old factory worker is recommended low molecular weight heparin after a left hemicolectomy for colorectal cancer, due to the likelihood of immobility post-surgery.
What is the most precise statement about heparin?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is reversible with protamine
Explanation:Facts about Heparin Therapy
Heparin therapy is a common treatment for preventing and treating blood clots. Here are some important facts to know about heparin therapy:
– Reversible with protamine: Heparin’s effects can be reversed with protamine, although the effect on low-molecular-weight heparin is limited.
– May cause osteoporosis: Long-term heparin therapy can cause osteoporosis, not osteomalacia.
– Given subcutaneously for prophylaxis: Intermittent subcutaneous injection is given for prophylaxis of venous thrombosis, while intravenous therapy is given for the treatment of DVT.
– Short half-life: Heparin has a relatively short half-life of about 60 to 90 minutes and must be given frequently or as a continuous infusion for lasting effects.
– Monitored by APTT: The best test for monitoring heparin therapy is the activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), not the international normalized ratio (INR).Important Facts to Know About Heparin Therapy
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 90-year-old man is referred to the memory clinic for evaluation due to his family's concerns about his increasing forgetfulness in recent months. He scores 14/30 on the Mini Mental State Examination (MMSE). The consultant requests that you initiate treatment with an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor.
Which of the following drugs would you prescribe?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Donepezil
Explanation:Donepezil is classified as an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor and is considered a first-line treatment option for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s dementia, along with galantamine and rivastigmine. Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist and is typically used as a second-line or adjunctive treatment for mild to moderate Alzheimer’s dementia, although it may be used as a first-line option for severe cases. Oxybutynin and tolterodine are anti-muscarinic medications that are commonly prescribed for urge incontinence, but immediate release oxybutynin should be avoided in frail older women, according to NICE guidelines. Finally, rotigotine is a dopamine agonist that is used to treat Parkinson’s disease and restless legs syndrome.
Managing Alzheimer’s Disease: Non-Pharmacological and Pharmacological Approaches
Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that progressively affects the brain and is the most common form of dementia in the UK. To manage this condition, there are both non-pharmacological and pharmacological approaches available.
Non-pharmacological management involves offering a range of activities that promote wellbeing and are tailored to the patient’s preferences. Group cognitive stimulation therapy is recommended for patients with mild to moderate dementia, while group reminiscence therapy and cognitive rehabilitation are also options to consider.
Pharmacological management involves the use of medications. The three acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine) are options for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease. Memantine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, is considered a second-line treatment and is recommended for patients with moderate Alzheimer’s who are intolerant of or have a contraindication to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. It can also be used as an add-on drug to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors for patients with moderate or severe Alzheimer’s or as monotherapy in severe Alzheimer’s.
When managing non-cognitive symptoms, NICE does not recommend antidepressants for mild to moderate depression in patients with dementia. Antipsychotics should only be used for patients at risk of harming themselves or others or when the agitation, hallucinations, or delusions are causing them severe distress.
It is important to note that donepezil is relatively contraindicated in patients with bradycardia, and adverse effects may include insomnia. By utilizing both non-pharmacological and pharmacological approaches, patients with Alzheimer’s disease can receive comprehensive care and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old retired teacher is prescribed donepezil for mild Alzheimer's dementia. What side-effects should she be warned about before starting the medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hallucination
Explanation:Understanding the Side Effects of Donepezil: A Guide for Patients
Donepezil is a medication commonly used to treat symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease. However, like all medications, it can cause side effects. It is important for patients to understand these potential side effects in order to make informed decisions about their treatment.
Gastrointestinal side effects are the most common with donepezil, including nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and dyspepsia. In rare cases, it may even cause peptic ulcer disease. Genitourinary side effects such as urinary incontinence may also occur.
Central nervous system side effects are also possible, including hallucinations, agitation, seizures, and insomnia. While cardiac side effects are rare, donepezil may increase the risk of stroke and myocardial infarction and may rarely cause sinoatrial node and atrioventricular node block.
It is important to note that anticholinesterase medications like donepezil should be started at a low dose and gradually increased over weeks to months to avoid side effects.
Hypertension, constipation, and atrial fibrillation are not recognized side effects of donepezil. Drowsiness and sedation are also not commonly associated with donepezil, but agitation and insomnia may occur.
In summary, patients taking donepezil should be aware of the potential side effects and discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider. With proper monitoring and management, the benefits of donepezil may outweigh the risks for many patients with Alzheimer’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A pharmaceutical company is attempting to create a new medication for Parkinson's disease. They evaluate numerous potential molecules to determine the most encouraging chemicals for further research.
What is the name of this procedure?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Screening
Explanation:The Challenging Process of Drug Development
Drug development is a complex and challenging process that involves various approaches to finding an effective agent. In the past, medications were discovered by chance, such as the antimalarial properties of cinchona bark that led to the development of quinine-based drugs. However, modern drug development processes involve identifying key receptors and carefully engineering molecules that can target them directly.
One of the common approaches in drug development is identifying key receptors and screening thousands of candidate molecules that are theoretically likely to bind to them based on their chemical structure. These candidate molecules undergo a screening process to test their effectiveness and potency in interacting with the target receptor. Only those molecules that show promising characteristics will be taken forward into the drug development process. However, despite showing promise at this stage, the vast majority of candidate molecules that pass the screening test will never become pharmaceuticals.
Biological agents are also used in drug development, which involves engineering antibodies that can target specific proteins involved in the pathological process. This approach has shown promising results in treating various diseases, including cancer and autoimmune disorders.
In conclusion, drug development is a challenging process that requires a combination of scientific knowledge, creativity, and perseverance. The identification of key receptors and the screening of candidate molecules are just some of the approaches used in this process. Despite the challenges, the development of new drugs is essential in improving the quality of life for patients and advancing medical science.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old patient with autoimmune hepatitis presents with worsening dyspnea and a dry cough. He has experienced weight loss and has observed changes in his hands. During the physical examination, you observe clubbing, mild cyanosis, and fine bibasal crepitations. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
Explanation:Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis and its Association with Chronic Hepatitis and Autoimmune Hepatitis
The presence of chronic hepatitis in a patient’s medical history, coupled with the emergence of symptoms and signs indicative of pulmonary fibrosis, may point to a diagnosis of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF). It is worth noting that autoimmune hepatitis can also occur in 5-10% of IPF cases. While there is no indication of an infectious cause or evidence of cardiac failure, distinguishing between the two diagnoses can be challenging.
In summary, the development of pulmonary fibrosis in a patient with a history of chronic hepatitis may suggest a diagnosis of IPF, which can also be associated with autoimmune hepatitis. Accurately differentiating between IPF and other potential causes of pulmonary fibrosis can be difficult, but is crucial for effective treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old patient presents with complaints of recurrent bloody diarrhoea and symptoms of iritis. On examination, there is a painful nodular erythematosus eruption on the shin and anal tags are observed. What diagnostic test would you recommend to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Colonoscopy
Explanation:Inflammatory Bowel Disease with Crohn’s Disease Suggestion
The patient’s symptoms and physical examination suggest inflammatory bowel disease, with anal skin tags indicating a possible diagnosis of Crohn’s disease. Other symptoms consistent with this diagnosis include iritis and a skin rash that may be erythema nodosum. To confirm the diagnosis, a colonoscopy with biopsies would be the initial investigation. While serum ACE levels can aid in diagnosis, they are often elevated in conditions other than sarcoidosis.
Overall, the patient’s symptoms and physical examination point towards inflammatory bowel disease, with Crohn’s disease as a possible subtype. Further testing is necessary to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl is brought in by ambulance. Her parents explain that she has had cold symptoms for the last 24 hours but is generally well. They describe her walking towards them in the park when she suddenly went floppy and all four limbs started shaking. This lasted for around 1 minute, during which time she did not respond to her name and her eyes were rolled back. She remained drowsy for the next 30 minutes or so in the ambulance but is now well, alert and active, moving all limbs normally.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Febrile convulsion
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of a seizure in a young child
Febrile convulsion, reflex anoxic seizure, meningitis, epilepsy, and hypoglycaemia are among the possible causes of a seizure in a young child. Febrile convulsions are the most common type of seizure in this age group, occurring during a febrile illness and lasting less than 15 minutes. They are usually benign and do not require long-term treatment, but there is a risk of recurrence and a small risk of developing epilepsy later in life. Reflex anoxic seizures are syncopal episodes triggered by a minor head injury, resulting in a brief loss of consciousness and some convulsive activity. Meningitis is a serious infection of the central nervous system that presents with fever, headache, neck stiffness, and a non-blanching rash. Epilepsy is a chronic neurological disorder characterized by recurrent seizures, but it cannot be diagnosed based on a single episode. Hypoglycaemia is a metabolic condition that can cause seizures in diabetic patients, typically accompanied by symptoms like sweating, shakiness, tachycardia, nausea, and vomiting. A careful history, physical examination, and laboratory tests can help differentiate these conditions and guide appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old man is tackled during a rugby game and lands on his outstretched arm, resulting in a heavy fall. The team doctor examines him and notices a loss of contour in his right shoulder. Additionally, the man experiences numbness in the C5 dermatome of his right shoulder, which is commonly referred to as the regimental badge area. Which nerve is the most likely to have been affected?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Axillary nerve
Explanation:Common Nerve Injuries in Upper Limb Trauma
The upper limb is susceptible to various nerve injuries following trauma. Here are some of the most common nerve injuries that can occur in the upper limb:
Axillary nerve: Shoulder dislocation can cause injury to the axillary nerve, which innervates the deltoid muscle. Sensation in the skin innervated by the superior lateral cutaneous nerve can be tested as an alternative.
Radial nerve: Mid-humeral shaft fractures can damage the radial nerve, which provides sensation to the dorsum of the hand and innervates the extensor compartment of the forearm.
Ulnar nerve: Cubital tunnel syndrome and fracture of the medial epicondyle can cause ulnar nerve injury, leading to weakness in wrist flexion and a claw hand deformity.
Median nerve: Supracondylar humerus fractures, wearing a tight forearm case, wrist laceration, or carpal tunnel syndrome can injure the median nerve, causing sensory loss and motor deficits such as loss of pronation in the forearm, weakness in wrist flexion, and loss of thumb opposition.
Musculocutaneous nerve: The musculocutaneous nerve gives rise to the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm, while the cutaneous distribution of the median and ulnar nerves is located more distally to the hand.
In conclusion, understanding the common nerve injuries that can occur in upper limb trauma is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man felt dizzy at work and later had a rhythm strip (lead II) performed in the Emergency Department. It reveals one P wave for every QRS complex and a PR interval of 240 ms.
What does this rhythm strip reveal?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: First-degree heart block
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Heart Block
Heart block is a condition where the electrical signals that control the heartbeat are disrupted, leading to an abnormal heart rhythm. There are different types of heart block, each with its own characteristic features.
First-degree heart block is characterized by a prolonged PR interval, but with a 1:1 ratio of P waves to QRS complexes. This type of heart block is usually asymptomatic and does not require treatment.
Second-degree heart block can be further divided into two types: Mobitz type 1 and Mobitz type 2. Mobitz type 1, also known as Wenckebach’s phenomenon, is characterized by a progressive lengthening of the PR interval until a QRS complex is dropped. Mobitz type 2, on the other hand, is characterized by intermittent P waves that fail to conduct to the ventricles, leading to intermittent dropped QRS complexes. This type of heart block often progresses to complete heart block.
Complete heart block, also known as third-degree heart block, occurs when there is no association between P waves and QRS complexes. The ventricular rate is often slow, reflecting a ventricular escape rhythm as the ventricles are no longer controlled by the sinoatrial node pacemaker. This type of heart block requires immediate medical attention.
Understanding the different types of heart block is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. If you experience any symptoms of heart block, such as dizziness, fainting, or chest pain, seek medical attention right away.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with a history of depression and non-paroxysmal atrial fibrillation is brought to the emergency department by her daughter after being found unconscious with an empty bottle of medication. She is disoriented and complains of feeling nauseous. Shortly after arriving at the hospital, she experiences visual hallucinations and yellowing of her vision.
The patient denies smoking or substance abuse and leads a sedentary lifestyle. On examination, her pulse is irregular with a rate of 70 beats per minute, blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 18 breaths per minute. An ECG shows frequent premature ventricular contractions and ventricular bigeminy.
What is the most likely diagnosis, and what management should be implemented for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Administer digoxin-specific antibody fab fragments (Digibind) intravenously
Explanation:In cases of non-paroxysmal atrial fibrillation with a sedentary lifestyle, digoxin monotherapy is recommended as the first line treatment according to NICE guidelines from 2014. However, if a patient experiences severe digoxin toxicity due to an overdose with suicidal intention, Digibind, which contains digoxin-specific antibody fab fragments, is the recognized antidote. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include gastrointestinal issues, visual disturbances, cardiovascular problems, and central nervous system complications. N-acetylcysteine is used as an antidote for paracetamol overdose, while naloxone and diazepam are used for opioid overdose and alcohol withdrawal, respectively. Cardioversion should be avoided if possible due to the risk of asystole, and if necessary, the lowest energy possible should be used.
Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity
Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and requires monitoring for toxicity.
Toxicity may occur even when the digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range. Symptoms of toxicity include lethargy, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor, as it allows digoxin to more easily bind to the ATPase pump and increase its inhibitory effects. Other factors that may contribute to toxicity include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, and verapamil.
Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of Digibind, correction of arrhythmias, and monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to recognize the potential for toxicity and monitor patients accordingly to prevent adverse outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man undergoes a right middle lobectomy of his lung for lung cancer. A chest drain is inserted at the time of surgery to allow full lung reinflation. Three days after the operation, you notice that air bubbles escape through the chest drain into the water seal whenever the patient coughs.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Air leak from the area of resected lung
Explanation:Causes of Air Leak from the Area of Resected Lung
Following a lung resection, air may escape through the chest drain due to an air leak from the edge of the resected lung. This can be worsened by talking or coughing, which increases airway pressure. If the chest drain is removed, the patient is at risk of developing a pneumothorax. Conservative management is the first-line approach, which involves leaving the existing chest drain in place and on suction. If significant air leakage occurs, a second drain may be inserted. If the air leak persists, a second operation may be necessary to repair the defect.
Other potential causes of bubbling in the chest drain when the patient coughs include a blocked chest drain, empyema with gas-forming organisms, and recurrent lung cancer. However, these conditions would present differently and have additional symptoms that are absent in cases of air leak from the area of resected lung.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiothoracic
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 9-month history of rectal bleeding and pain. Her physician decides to perform a proctoscopy. The results show an erythematous ulcerated plaque near the pectinate line, and biopsy results suggest squamous cell carcinoma. What is the most significant risk factor for this diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HPV infection
Explanation:The strongest risk factor for anal cancer is HPV infection, specifically the HPV16 or HPV18 subtypes that cause SCCs of the anus. While HIV infection, immunosuppressant drugs, and a past medical history of cervical cancer are also risk factors, HPV infection is the most significant.
Understanding Anal Cancer: Definition, Epidemiology, and Risk Factors
Anal cancer is a type of malignancy that occurs exclusively in the anal canal, which is bordered by the anorectal junction and the anal margin. The majority of anal cancers are squamous cell carcinomas, but other types include melanomas, lymphomas, and adenocarcinomas. The incidence of anal cancer is relatively rare, with an annual rate of about 1.5 in 100,000 in the UK. However, the incidence is increasing, particularly among men who have sex with men, due to widespread infection by human papillomavirus (HPV).
There are several risk factors associated with anal cancer, including HPV infection, anal intercourse, a high lifetime number of sexual partners, HIV infection, immunosuppressive medication, a history of cervical cancer or cervical intraepithelial neoplasia, and smoking. Patients typically present with symptoms such as perianal pain, perianal bleeding, a palpable lesion, and faecal incontinence.
To diagnose anal cancer, T stage assessment is conducted, which includes a digital rectal examination, anoscopic examination with biopsy, and palpation of the inguinal nodes. Imaging modalities such as CT, MRI, endo-anal ultrasound, and PET are also used. The T stage system for anal cancer is described by the American Joint Committee on Cancer and the International Union Against Cancer. It includes TX primary tumour cannot be assessed, T0 no evidence of primary tumour, Tis carcinoma in situ, T1 tumour 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, T2 tumour more than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension, T3 tumour more than 5 cm in greatest dimension, and T4 tumour of any size that invades adjacent organ(s).
In conclusion, understanding anal cancer is crucial in identifying the risk factors and symptoms associated with this type of malignancy. Early diagnosis and treatment can significantly improve the prognosis and quality of life for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Sophie, a 22-year-old student, presents to her GP with a history of low mood lasting several months. She is struggling with her university studies due to poor concentration and constant fatigue. Despite waking up early every morning, she finds it difficult to fall back asleep. Sophie no longer enjoys spending time with her loved ones and feels hopeless about her future. She has sought medical attention as her symptoms are significantly impacting her academic performance.
Sophie denies having any suicidal thoughts, and there is no evidence of psychotic features during the examination. She is in good health and denies any alcohol or drug use. Sophie is eager to begin treatment for her symptoms. What would be the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A trial of fluoxetine
Explanation:Lucy is exhibiting symptoms typical of moderate/severe depression, including low mood, fatigue, anhedonia, difficulty concentrating, poor sleep, and feelings of hopelessness. According to NICE guidelines, the recommended first-line treatment for this level of depression is a combination of antidepressants and high-intensity psychological therapy, such as cognitive behavioural therapy or interpersonal therapy. As such, starting fluoxetine (an SSRI) would be the most appropriate course of action. Tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline are not recommended due to their potential side effects and overdose risk. Low-intensity psychological interventions like individual guided self-help are also not suitable for moderate/severe depression. While Lucy is not currently a risk to herself or others and is willing to try treatment in the community, urgent mental health review is not necessary. Given the severity of her symptoms and her desire for active treatment, watchful waiting is not recommended.
In 2022, NICE updated its guidelines on managing depression and now classifies it as either less severe or more severe based on a patient’s PHQ-9 score. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient’s preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy, group behavioral activation, individual CBT or BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy, SSRIs, counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy. For more severe depression, NICE recommends a shared decision-making approach and suggests a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant as the preferred treatment option. Other treatment options for more severe depression include individual CBT or BA, antidepressant medication, individual problem-solving, counseling, short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy, interpersonal psychotherapy, guided self-help, and group exercise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which of these options does NOT contribute to abdominal swelling?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperkalaemia
Explanation:Hyperkalaemia and Hirschsprung’s Disease
Severe hyperkalaemia can be dangerous and may lead to sudden death from asystolic cardiac arrest. However, it may not always present with symptoms, except for muscle weakness. In some cases, hyperkalaemia may be associated with metabolic acidosis, which can cause Kussmaul respiration. On the other hand, Hirschsprung’s disease is a condition that results from the absence of colonic enteric ganglion cells. This absence causes paralysis of a distal segment of the colon and rectum, leading to proximal colon dilation. In contrast, other conditions cause distension through a paralytic ileus or large bowel pseudo-obstruction. these conditions is crucial in managing and treating them effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old welder comes to the Emergency Department with a metal splinter in his eye. What is the most effective course of action that can be provided in this setting?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immediate ophthalmology referral
Explanation:Immediate Referral and Management of Corneal Foreign Body
If a patient presents with a suspected corneal foreign body, immediate referral to the emergency eye service is necessary. High-velocity injuries or injuries caused by sharp objects should be treated as penetrating injuries until proven otherwise. Once referred, the foreign body can be removed under magnification with a slit lamp and a blunted needle, using a topical anaesthetic to the cornea. Topical antibiotics are given, and the eye is covered with an eye pad. Chemical injuries require eye wash, but this will not remove a corneal foreign body. Retinoscopy is not relevant to this scenario. While topical antibiotics may play a role in management, the most important first step is to remove the foreign body to prevent corneal ulceration, secondary infection, and inflammation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male is admitted to the emergency department following a rugby game collision that resulted in an awkward landing on his arm. He cannot recall the exact details of the fall due to its suddenness. An x-ray is conducted, revealing a transverse fracture of the radius 1.5 cm proximal to the radiocarpal joint, with posterior displacement of the distal fragment. No significant signs are observed during examination of the elbow joint. What is the type of fracture sustained by this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Colles' fracture
Explanation:The correct answer is Colles’ fracture, which is characterized by a distal radius fracture with dorsal displacement of the most distal fragment, resulting in a dinner-fork type deformity. This type of fracture typically occurs after a fall onto an outstretched hand. On the x-ray, we would expect to see a transverse fracture of the radius, 1 inch proximal to the radiocarpal joint, with dorsal displacement and angulation.
Bennett’s fracture, Galeazzi fracture, Pott’s fracture, and scaphoid fracture are all incorrect answers. Bennett’s fracture is an intra-articular fracture at the base of the thumb metacarpal, Galeazzi fracture is a radial shaft fracture associated with dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint, Pott’s fracture is a bimalleolar ankle fracture, and scaphoid fracture is a fracture of the scaphoid bone in the wrist. None of these conditions match the x-ray findings described in the question.
Understanding Colles’ Fracture
Colles’ fracture is a type of distal radius fracture that typically occurs when an individual falls onto an outstretched hand, also known as a FOOSH. This type of fracture is characterized by the dorsal displacement of fragments, resulting in a dinner fork type deformity. The classic features of a Colles’ fracture include a transverse fracture of the radius, located approximately one inch proximal to the radiocarpal joint, and dorsal displacement and angulation.
In simpler terms, Colles’ fracture is a type of wrist fracture that occurs when an individual falls and lands on their hand, causing the bones in the wrist to break and shift out of place. This results in a deformity that resembles a dinner fork. The fracture typically occurs in the distal radius, which is the bone located near the wrist joint.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after attempting to end her life by jumping from a height. On examination, she is conscious and has significant bruising over the occiput region. She reports that her parents are recently divorced and it has caused significant strain on her current relationship and as a result, is failing to do well at work. She has no significant medical history, apart from an incident when she was 17 where she was admitted to the hospital after intentionally taking too many paracetamol.
Which of the following from the patient’s history is most associated with an increased risk of repeated attempts of self-harm/suicide?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Previous attempted suicide
Explanation:Risk Factors for Repeated Self-Harm and Suicide Attempts
Previous suicide attempts or episodes of self-harm are the biggest predictor of future attempts, with 15% of people attempting again within a year and 1% succeeding in committing suicide. Strained relationships with partners or dissatisfaction with work alone have not been linked to repeated attempts. However, significant life events such as parental divorce, bereavement, abuse, or family breakdown may increase the risk. Age alone, particularly for adults in their twenties, has not been associated with repeated self-harm or suicide attempts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 30
Incorrect
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An 8-year-old girl visits her GP complaining of an itchy scalp. Upon detection combing, head lice are found. What is a recognized treatment for head lice?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dimeticone 4% gel
Explanation:Treatment Options for Head Lice
Head lice infestations are a common problem, especially among children. There are several treatment options available, but not all of them are effective or recommended. Here are some of the commonly used treatments and their effectiveness:
Dimeticone 4% gel: This gel works by suffocating and coating the lice, making it a well-recognized treatment for head lice.
Ketoconazole shampoo: While this medicated shampoo is used to treat suspected fungal infections in the scalp, it is not a recognized treatment for head lice.
Permethrin 5% cream: Although permethrin is an insecticide used to treat scabies, it is not recommended for head lice treatment as the 10-minute contact time may not be enough for it to be effective.
Topical antibiotics: These are not recommended for head lice treatment.
Topical antifungal: Topical antifungals have no role in the management of head lice.
In conclusion, dimeticone 4% gel is a well-recognized treatment for head lice, while other treatments such as ketoconazole shampoo, permethrin 5% cream, topical antibiotics, and topical antifungal are not recommended. It is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment of head lice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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