-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 50-year-old man who is on antipsychotic medication for schizophrenia complains of extreme restlessness. Which side-effect of the medication could be causing this?
Your Answer: Akathisia
Explanation:Severe restlessness may be caused by antipsychotics, known as akathisia.
Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.
Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 10-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her parents due to ongoing disobedience towards her parents and other authority figures for the past three years. At school, she has frequently been involved in physical altercations with her peers and was recently reprimanded for damaging school property.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Conduct disorder
Explanation:Understanding Conduct Disorder and Differential Diagnoses
Conduct disorder is a psychiatric condition characterized by persistent and severe antisocial behaviors that violate social norms and the rights of others. These behaviors may include excessive fighting, cruelty to people or animals, destruction of property, persistent disobedience, and repeated lying. However, conduct disorder can be easily confused with other psychiatric conditions that present with similar symptoms. Here are some differential diagnoses to consider:
Depression: While depressive disorders can present with oppositional symptoms, they are usually accompanied by disturbances to appetite, sleep, and anhedonia, which are not seen in conduct disorder. However, depression can coexist with conduct disorder.
Adjustment reaction: Conduct disturbance can also be a reaction to an external stressor, such as divorce, bereavement, abuse, or trauma. However, these symptoms usually occur within three months of the stressor and can last up to six months. If there is no mention of an external stressor, conduct disorder is more likely.
Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD): Children with ADHD exhibit symptoms of inattention associated with hyperactivity and impulsiveness, which can affect social and academic functioning. However, unlike conduct disorder, these behaviors do not usually violate societal norms or the rights of others. ADHD can also coexist with conduct disorder.
Autism spectrum disorder: Children with autism spectrum disorder may present with emotional lability, aggressive outbursts, and destructive behavior, usually in response to an unexpected change in routine or sensory overload. However, there are typical features of autism, such as sensory hypersensitivity, that are not mentioned in conduct disorder. Autism can also coexist with conduct disorder.
In conclusion, conduct disorder is a serious psychiatric condition that requires early identification and intervention. However, it is important to consider other differential diagnoses to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
As a side-effect, which antidepressants cause the cheese effect (a hypertensive reaction)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis: Jaundice and Abdominal Symptoms
Gilbert Syndrome:
Gilbert syndrome is an inherited condition that can manifest as jaundice on clinical examination. Patients may also experience non-specific symptoms such as abdominal cramps, fatigue, and malaise. Fasting, febrile illness, alcohol, or exercise can exacerbate jaundice in patients with Gilbert syndrome. Diagnosis is based on a thorough history and physical examination, as well as blood tests that show unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia.Haemolytic Anaemia:
Haemolysis is the premature destruction of erythrocytes, which can lead to anaemia if bone marrow activity cannot compensate for erythrocyte loss. Mild haemolysis can be asymptomatic, while severe haemolysis can cause life-threatening symptoms such as angina and cardiopulmonary decompensation. Changes in lactate dehydrogenase and serum haptoglobin levels are the most sensitive general tests for haemolytic anaemia.Hepatitis A:
Hepatitis A is a viral infection that results almost exclusively from ingestion, typically through faecal-oral transmission. Symptoms include fatigue, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. LFT abnormalities are common, and diagnosis is based on serologic testing for immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibody to HAV.Hepatitis B:
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that is transmitted haematogenously and sexually. Symptoms include fatigue, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. LFT abnormalities are common, and diagnosis is based on serologic testing for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg).Cholecystitis:
Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gall bladder that occurs most commonly because of an obstruction of the cystic duct by gallstones arising from the gall bladder. Symptoms include upper abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and fever. Signs of peritoneal irritation may also be present.Conclusion:
In summary, the differential diagnosis of jaundice and abdominal symptoms includes Gilbert syndrome, haemolytic anaemia, hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and cholecystitis. Diagnosis is based on a thorough history and physical examination, as well as blood tests and serologic testing as appropriate. Treatment -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old man visits his GP and insists on getting a CT scan of his abdomen, claiming that he is certain he has cancer despite previous negative test results. What type of disorder does this behavior exemplify?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypochondrial disorder
Explanation:Somatisation refers to the manifestation of physical symptoms that cannot be explained by any underlying medical condition. On the other hand, hypochondria is a condition where a person constantly worries about having a serious illness, often believing that minor symptoms are signs of a life-threatening disease such as cancer.
Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms
There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.
Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.
Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old man visits his general practice surgery, explaining that his depression has been cured after four months taking sertraline. He says he is ready to stop taking the medication immediately and is looking forward to being 'normal again'.
What is the most appropriate management advice you can give this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He should be treated for at least six months
Explanation:Duration of Antidepressant Treatment for Depression
It is recommended that a single episode of depression should be treated for at least six months after recovery to prevent relapse. Recurrent episodes warrant at least 12 months of treatment after recovery. Stopping antidepressant treatment immediately on recovery puts patients at a high risk of relapse, with 50% of patients experiencing a relapse of their depressive symptoms. During the recovery phase, adults should receive the same dose used for the treatment of the acute phase. The medication should then be tapered off over a few weeks, according to the type of antidepressant used.
Stopping medication prematurely, such as after one month or six weeks, would put the patient at a high risk of relapse. If the patient has been using antidepressants over a very short term and has found it maximally effective, they may be able to come off medication sooner than six months. However, this should be managed with caution and only recommended if there are other extenuating factors which would cause them to want to stop, such as side-effects or poor compliance. In this case, the patient has been using sertraline for four months already, has not indicated poor compliance, and there is no indication of issues with side-effects.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man with chronic schizophrenia complains of nausea and vomiting. He is given metoclopramide to alleviate his symptoms. However, after twenty minutes, he becomes restless and experiences severe oculogyric crises and oromandibular dystonia. What medication should be prescribed in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Procyclidine
Explanation:Procyclidine is the usual treatment for acute dystonia caused by antipsychotics. This patient’s acute dystonic reaction can be reversed with procyclidine, which is an anticholinergic medication that blocks acetylcholine. This medication can alleviate muscle stiffness, sweating, and excessive saliva production, and can also improve walking ability in individuals with Parkinson’s disease. The patient most likely developed this reaction due to long-term use of antipsychotics and subsequent administration of metoclopramide. While midazolam and lorazepam can relieve anxiety, they are not effective in treating dystonia.
Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.
Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of feeling down. He reports experiencing anhedonia, fatigue, weight loss, insomnia, and agitation. His PHQ-9 score is 20. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start citalopram and refer for CBT
Explanation:Based on the man’s PHQ-9 score and varied symptoms, it appears that he is suffering from severe depression. According to NICE guidelines, a combination of an antidepressant and psychological intervention is recommended for this level of depression, with an SSRI being the first choice antidepressant. Therefore, citalopram with CBT would be the appropriate treatment in this case. Referral to psychiatry is not necessary at this time. Venlafaxine would be considered as a later option if other antidepressants were ineffective. While fluoxetine is a good first-line antidepressant, it should be combined with a psychological intervention for severe depression. CBT alone is suitable for mild to moderate depression, but for severe depression, an antidepressant in combination with psychological intervention is recommended.
In 2022, NICE updated its guidelines on managing depression and now classifies it as either less severe or more severe based on a patient’s PHQ-9 score. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient’s preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy, group behavioral activation, individual CBT or BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy, SSRIs, counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy. For more severe depression, NICE recommends a shared decision-making approach and suggests a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant as the preferred treatment option. Other treatment options for more severe depression include individual CBT or BA, antidepressant medication, individual problem-solving, counseling, short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy, interpersonal psychotherapy, guided self-help, and group exercise.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old woman comes to see her GP due to feeling down and lonely. She reports being a naturally shy person and experiencing intense anxiety about being judged or rejected by others for her perceived inadequacies. This has led her to avoid forming close relationships and she has even stopped seeing the few friends she had. Her social anxiety affects all aspects of her life, including her choice of a solitary job, solo hobbies, and never having been in a romantic relationship. She finds it challenging to deviate from her limited daily routine, although she feels unfulfilled by it. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Avoidant personality disorder
Explanation:The patient’s description of feeling lonely and avoiding social situations due to fear of negative evaluation and criticism suggests a diagnosis of avoidant personality disorder. This disorder is characterized by chronic patterns of interpersonal inhibition, fear of rejection, and social inhibition. The patient’s symptoms are pervasive and have been present since childhood or adolescence, indicating a personality disorder rather than a transient condition. While other disorders such as autism spectrum disorder, generalized anxiety disorder, and schizoid personality disorder may also involve social difficulties, they do not have the same fear of rejection and feelings of inadequacy that are characteristic of avoidant personality disorder.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspirational beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old male with a history of ischaemic heart disease is experiencing depression after a recent heart attack. Which antidepressant would be the most suitable to initiate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
You are assessing a 55-year-old man who has been admitted with pneumonia. His medical history indicates that he consumes approximately 70-80 units of alcohol per week. Which medication would be the most suitable to administer to prevent the onset of alcohol withdrawal symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chlordiazepoxide
Explanation:Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. Chronic alcohol consumption enhances the inhibitory effects of GABA in the central nervous system, similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. However, alcohol withdrawal leads to the opposite effect, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start at 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which includes coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, peak at 48-72 hours.
Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said to be less effective in treating alcohol withdrawal seizures.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
Which of the following side-effects is more prevalent with atypical rather than conventional antipsychotics?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Weight gain
Explanation:Weight gain is a common side effect of atypical antipsychotics.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.
Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following is not a first-rank symptom of schizophrenia for individuals?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Catatonia
Explanation:Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that is characterized by various symptoms. Schneider’s first rank symptoms are divided into four categories: auditory hallucinations, thought disorders, passivity phenomena, and delusional perceptions. Auditory hallucinations can include hearing two or more voices discussing the patient in the third person, thought echo, or voices commenting on the patient’s behavior. Thought disorders can involve thought insertion, thought withdrawal, or thought broadcasting. Passivity phenomena can include bodily sensations being controlled by external influence or actions/impulses/feelings that are imposed on the individual or influenced by others. Delusional perceptions involve a two-stage process where a normal object is perceived, and then there is a sudden intense delusional insight into the object’s meaning for the patient.
Other features of schizophrenia include impaired insight, incongruity/blunting of affect (inappropriate emotion for circumstances), decreased speech, neologisms (made-up words), catatonia, and negative symptoms such as incongruity/blunting of affect, anhedonia (inability to derive pleasure), alogia (poverty of speech), and avolition (poor motivation). It is important to note that schizophrenia can manifest differently in each individual, and not all symptoms may be present.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old man visits his doctor's office with complaints of difficulty sleeping. Upon further inquiry, he reveals that he avoids social situations due to a fear of being judged, and experienced a panic attack with rapid heart rate and shortness of breath while at a movie theater a few weeks ago.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Social phobia
Explanation:Differentiating Social Phobia from Other Anxiety Disorders
Social phobia, also known as social anxiety disorder, is a type of anxiety disorder characterized by intense fear and anxiety in social situations, particularly when being scrutinized. It typically starts in adolescence and affects both men and women equally. Some individuals may have a specific fear of certain situations, while others may experience anxiety in most social situations outside of close family and friends. Low self-esteem is often associated with social phobia, and avoidance of feared situations is common. Treatment typically involves psychological interventions such as cognitive-behavioral therapy.
It is important to differentiate social phobia from other anxiety disorders. Panic disorder is characterized by recurrent episodes of severe anxiety that occur unpredictably and without an objective danger. Agoraphobia involves a fear of situations where escape to a safe place is difficult or impossible. Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by non-specific and persistent anxiety, often accompanied by autonomic and motor overactivity. Depression may also be associated with anxiety, but typically involves early morning waking rather than difficulty falling asleep.
By understanding the specific features of social phobia and how it differs from other anxiety disorders, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate diagnosis and treatment for their patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old man presents for follow-up. He was prescribed paroxetine for depression six months ago, but stopped taking it five days ago due to perceived lack of efficacy. He has a history of asthma but no other significant medical history. Over the past two days, he has been experiencing heightened anxiety, sweating, headaches, and a sensation of needles in his head. During the appointment, he is restless and pacing. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor`discontinuation syndrome
Explanation:Compared to other selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, paroxetine has a greater likelihood of causing discontinuation symptoms.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old man has had > 15 very short relationships in the past year, all of which he thought were the love of his life. He is prone to impulsive behaviour such as excessive spending and binge drinking, and he has experimented with drugs. He also engages in self-harm.
Which of the following personality disorders most accurately describes him?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Explanation:Understanding Personality Disorders: Clusters and Traits
Personality disorders can be categorized into three main clusters based on their characteristics. Cluster A includes odd or eccentric personalities such as schizoid and paranoid personality disorder. Schizoid individuals tend to be emotionally detached and struggle with forming close relationships, while paranoid individuals are suspicious and distrustful of others.
Cluster B includes dramatic, erratic, or emotional personalities such as borderline and histrionic personality disorder. Borderline individuals often have intense and unstable relationships, exhibit impulsive behavior, and may have a history of self-harm or suicide attempts. Histrionic individuals are attention-seeking, manipulative, and tend to be overly dramatic.
Cluster C includes anxious personalities such as obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. These individuals tend to be perfectionists, controlling, and overly cautious.
Understanding the different clusters and traits associated with personality disorders can help individuals recognize and seek appropriate treatment for themselves or loved ones.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman with mild learning disability lives with her sister who has recently undergone surgery. Her sister reports that, since her surgery, the woman has stopped attending her weekly art class, has lost weight and has become withdrawn, refusing to engage in conversation.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Depression
Explanation:Differentiating between Mental Health Disorders in Patients with Learning Disabilities
When diagnosing mental health disorders in patients with learning disabilities, it can be challenging to differentiate between different conditions. In cases of major depression, patients may present with loss of interests, social withdrawal, and biological symptoms such as loss of appetite and weight. However, individuals with learning disabilities may be less likely to express depressive ideas, making diagnosis more reliant on changes in behavior and physical symptoms. Treatment for depression in patients with learning disabilities is similar to that of the general population, but special care must be taken in selecting antidepressants due to the higher incidence of physical health problems.
In cases of dementia, cognitive decline is typically present, whereas the patient in this scenario is experiencing depression following a traumatic event. Anxiety can also accompany depression, but the presence of biological symptoms and loss of interests suggest major depression. Social withdrawal in this scenario is more likely caused by depression rather than psychosis, and symptoms of mania would be the opposite of those listed. Overall, careful observation and consideration of individual patient history and symptoms are necessary for accurate diagnosis and treatment of mental health disorders in patients with learning disabilities.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 39-year-old man with a psychiatric history visits his doctor with a complaint of tremors. During the examination, the doctor observes a fine bilateral tremor in his hands that does not improve with intention. The patient's neurological examination is otherwise normal. Which of the medications he takes regularly is the probable cause of this side effect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Lithium is known to cause tremors, particularly a fine non-distractible rest tremor. This side effect is more common at higher doses and in cases of toxicity, but can still occur at treatment levels. Diazepam, a medication commonly used to manage acute anxiety and tremors, is unlikely to produce any motor effects from typical use. Mirtazapine, an antidepressant, can cause tremors but it is much less common than in other antidepressants. Olanzapine, an antipsychotic medication, can also cause tremors but they are usually coarse and affect the mouth and face. Based on the description of the tremor, it is more likely that lithium is the cause.
Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in treatment-resistant depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate and cAMP formation. Adverse effects may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, nephrotoxicity, thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcemia.
Monitoring of patients taking lithium is crucial to prevent adverse effects and ensure therapeutic levels. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until levels are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every three months. Thyroid and renal function should be monitored every six months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book to ensure proper management of their medication. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 52-year-old man is on a flupentixol depot for schizophrenia. The patient presents to his General Practitioner with severe restlessness.
Which of the following side-effects of antipsychotic medication is present?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Akathisia
Explanation:Understanding Extrapyramidal Side-Effects of Antipsychotic Medications
One common extrapyramidal side-effect of antipsychotic medications is akathisia, which is characterized by a subjective feeling of restlessness and an inability to sit still. This is often seen in the legs and can be caused by first-generation typical antipsychotics like flupentixol. Treatment involves reducing or switching the medication dose.
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is another potential side-effect that occurs within days of starting antipsychotic medication. It presents with symptoms such as pyrexia, muscle rigidity, autonomic lability, and confusion. Rapid diagnosis and treatment with fluids, cooling, benzodiazepines, and dantrolene are necessary.
Acute dystonic reactions, such as torticollis, oculogyric crises, and trismus, can occur within hours to days of taking antipsychotic medications. These extrapyramidal side-effects are more common in first-generation typical antipsychotics due to their increased anti-dopaminergic activity. Treatment may involve anticholinergic drugs like procyclidine.
Parkinsonism refers to features associated with antipsychotic medication that are essentially the same as iatrogenic Parkinsonism, including joint rigidity, bradykinesia, and tremor. These symptoms are more common in first-generation typical antipsychotics.
Finally, tardive dyskinesia is a late-onset movement disorder that can occur after long-term use of antipsychotics. It presents with involuntary movements such as lip-smacking and grimacing. While this patient may have been on flupentixol for a long time, they do not present with these symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
You are on a GP placement and seeing a 44-year-old woman with a history of depression. She has recently gone through a divorce and admits to having thoughts of taking an overdose. She has never attempted suicide before, but feels like she has no other options. She has the pills at home and is considering taking them. She denies any substance abuse. What is the appropriate course of action in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Speak to the CRISIS team
Explanation:This scenario requires you to demonstrate your ability to evaluate and handle a patient who is contemplating suicide. The patient in question has several risk factors, including being male, having a history of depression, recently going through a separation, and expressing a desire to end his life in the future. It is crucial to respond appropriately in this situation. The most suitable team to evaluate and manage this patient is the CRISIS team, who can provide urgent assessment and care.
The other options are not as effective. Transferring the patient to the Emergency Department would only delay the referral to the crisis team. CAMH, which stands for child and adolescent mental health, is not the appropriate team to handle this case. It is not within your professional scope to initiate relationship counseling. Given the patient’s numerous risk factors, it would not be safe to discharge him without a psychiatric evaluation.
In 2022, NICE updated its guidelines on managing depression and now classifies it as either less severe or more severe based on a patient’s PHQ-9 score. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient’s preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy, group behavioral activation, individual CBT or BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy, SSRIs, counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy. For more severe depression, NICE recommends a shared decision-making approach and suggests a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant as the preferred treatment option. Other treatment options for more severe depression include individual CBT or BA, antidepressant medication, individual problem-solving, counseling, short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy, interpersonal psychotherapy, guided self-help, and group exercise.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A young adult woman complains that her mother interferes in every aspect of her life and tries to control her. The woman no longer speaks to her parents or eats meals with them. The mother has increased her efforts to maintain control.
Which of the following conditions could arise from this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Explanation:Psychological Disorders and Family Dynamics
Family dynamics can play a role in the development of certain psychological disorders. Anorexia nervosa, for example, may be linked to attempts to regain control and self-esteem through food restriction and weight loss. Dissociative identity disorder, on the other hand, is associated with severe childhood trauma, particularly sexual abuse. Narcissistic personality disorder is characterised by exaggerated feelings of self-importance and a strong need for approval from others. Schizophrenia may be influenced by highly expressed emotions within the family. Separation anxiety disorder, however, does not seem to be present in the given vignette. Understanding the relationship between family dynamics and psychological disorders can aid in diagnosis and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has cautioned that which category of medication may be linked to a higher incidence of venous thromboembolism in older individuals?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atypical antipsychotics
Explanation:Elderly individuals taking antipsychotics are at a higher risk of experiencing stroke and VTE.
Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.
Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A young librarian seeks therapy as he is lonely and unhappy. He describes a solitary life cataloguing books all day and then remaining alone all night and on weekends. He declines invitations for dinners, as he feels anxious when other people are around.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Social phobia
Explanation:Differentiating Anxiety Disorders: A Vignette Analysis
The following vignette describes a patient with symptoms of anxiety in a social situation. To properly diagnose the patient, it is important to differentiate between various anxiety disorders.
Social Phobia: This disorder is characterized by anxiety in public, particularly when feeling scrutinized. It typically starts in adolescence and is equally prevalent in men and women. Some patients have a specific social phobia, while others have a more diffuse type. Treatment is mainly with psychological interventions.
Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD): GAD is characterized by non-specific and persistent anxiety. Patients feel anxious most days for periods of at least several weeks, and may experience a variety of worries that are not objectively warranted by their circumstances. Autonomic and motor overactivity are also common.
Panic Disorder: Panic attacks are recurrent episodes of severe anxiety that occur unpredictably and under unrestricted circumstances. A diagnosis of panic disorder can be given only if several panic attacks have occurred in about 1 month in situations that do not pose an objective danger, in unrestricted circumstances and with relative freedom from symptoms of anxiety between attacks.
Separation Anxiety Disorder: This disorder is mainly diagnosed in children, although an adult form has been increasingly recognized. Symptoms include anxiety and fear when separated from emotionally attached individuals, and avoidance of being alone.
Conduct Disorder: This disorder is a precursor to dissocial personality disorder and presents as a persistent and repetitive pattern of dissocial behavior beyond the expected mischief and rebelliousness of childhood and adolescence.
In the vignette, the patient’s anxiety is specific to certain situations and therefore predictable, which excludes the diagnosis of panic disorder. The patient’s symptoms do not fit the criteria for GAD or separation anxiety disorder. The most likely diagnosis is social phobia, which is characterized by anxiety in public situations.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
As a junior doctor in the Emergency Department, you encounter a 40-year-old woman who has been brought in by the police under a section 135. The police had to obtain a warrant as part of the process. The patient is currently agitated and speaking incoherently about religious phrases. She has a documented history of severe depression.
What powers does section 135 grant to the police in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: To bring a person with suspected mental health issues in from their property
Explanation:If the police believe that someone requires a mental health assessment or treatment, they can request a section 135 to remove the individual from their property. The procedure involves an Approved Mental Health Practitioner (AMHP) presenting evidence at a Magistrate’s Court to obtain a warrant. This warrant permits the Police, an AMHP, and a registered medical practitioner to enter the premises and conduct an assessment or take the person to a safe location for evaluation.
Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.
Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.
Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.
Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.
Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
As a young physician working in a psychiatric ward, you encounter a situation where a teenage patient has become uncontrollable and tried to assault a staff member. The patient is currently being restrained in the prone position on the floor, but is still struggling and attempting to break free. The restraint has been in place for approximately 10 minutes. What steps should you take in this scenario?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give him rapid tranquillisation
Explanation:To avoid prolonged manual restraint, it is recommended to consider rapid tranquillisation or seclusion as alternatives. Prolonged physical restraint poses both physical and emotional risks for both patients and staff. Handcuffs and other mechanical restraints should only be used in exceptional circumstances in high-secure settings. It is important to avoid releasing an agitated patient from restraint as it could be dangerous for staff and other patients. Patients should not be carried during any kind of restraint.
Understanding Psychosis
Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in various ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. Associated features may include agitation/aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm. Psychotic symptoms can occur in a range of conditions, such as schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions, and drug use. The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is a side-effect of lithium therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Understanding the Side-Effects of Lithium Maintenance Therapy
Lithium maintenance therapy is a common treatment for bipolar disorder, but it can also cause a range of side-effects. One of the most common is hypothyroidism, which affects up to 5% of patients on lithium and requires regular thyroid function tests. Weight gain, acne, tremors, and polydipsia are also common, as well as ankle edema and a metallic taste in the mouth. Lithium can also cause renal toxicity, so regular urea and electrolyte tests are necessary. However, lithium does not cause abnormal liver function or fever, and actually causes leukocytosis rather than leucopenia. Cystitis is also not a typical side-effect of lithium. Overall, understanding the potential side-effects of lithium maintenance therapy is crucial for managing bipolar disorder effectively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man is prescribed amitriptyline for his neuropathic pain. After ten days, he reports experiencing frequent urinary leakage. Which type of urinary incontinence is most commonly associated with amitriptyline use?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Overflow incontinence
Explanation:Overflow incontinence can be caused by tricyclic antidepressants due to their anticholinergic effects.
The drug class of tricyclic antidepressants, which includes Amitriptyline, can lead to urinary retention and frequent leaking due to their anticholinergic effects. Antimuscarinic drugs can be used to treat urge incontinence, which is caused by detrusor over-activity, while stress incontinence, which occurs when the bladder is under pressure, can result in urine leakage when coughing or laughing.
Tricyclic Antidepressants for Neuropathic Pain
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) were once commonly used for depression, but their side-effects and toxicity in overdose have led to a decrease in their use. However, they are still widely used in the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required. TCAs such as low-dose amitriptyline are commonly used for the management of neuropathic pain and the prophylaxis of headache, while lofepramine has a lower incidence of toxicity in overdose. It is important to note that some TCAs, such as amitriptyline and dosulepin, are considered more dangerous in overdose than others.
Common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, and lengthening of the QT interval. When choosing a TCA for neuropathic pain, the level of sedation may also be a consideration. Amitriptyline, clomipramine, dosulepin, and trazodone are more sedative, while imipramine, lofepramine, and nortriptyline are less sedative. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the appropriate TCA and dosage for the individual’s specific needs.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman returns home from hospital after the birth of her first child. Over the next week, she becomes increasingly irritable, feels low in mood and is very anxious that she is not taking good care of her baby.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Postpartum blues
Explanation:Understanding Postpartum Blues: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis
Postpartum blues, also known as baby blues, is a common condition that affects many new mothers. It typically occurs within the first week after delivery and is characterized by short-lived episodes of irritability, crying, emotional lability, and mildly low mood. Unlike postpartum psychosis or major depression, postpartum blues does not involve confusion, delusional beliefs, or frank major depressive symptoms.
While anxiety is a common feature of many affective disorders, it is not sufficient to warrant a diagnosis of a specific anxiety disorder in the case of postpartum blues. However, it is important to consider depression as a possible diagnosis when a patient presents with low mood, anxiety, and irritability.
It is essential to follow up with patients experiencing postpartum blues to ensure that their symptoms resolve within a few days. If symptoms persist or worsen, further evaluation may be necessary to rule out other conditions such as postpartum depression. By understanding the symptoms and differential diagnosis of postpartum blues, healthcare providers can provide appropriate reassurance and support to new mothers during this challenging time.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old police officer presents following a recent traumatic incident where a colleague was killed in the line of duty. She reports experiencing recurrent nightmares and flashbacks for the past 4 months. A diagnosis of post-traumatic stress disorder is suspected. What is the most suitable initial treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy or eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing therapy
Explanation:Trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy or EMDR are both effective methods for managing PTSD.
Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include experiences such as natural disasters, accidents, or even childhood abuse. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of situations or people associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and even substance abuse.
Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, depending on the severity of the symptoms. Single-session interventions are not recommended, and watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than four weeks. Military personnel have access to treatment provided by the armed forces, while trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases.
It is important to note that drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults. If drug treatment is used, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, should be tried. In severe cases, NICE recommends that risperidone may be used. Overall, understanding the symptoms and effective management of PTSD is crucial in supporting individuals who have experienced traumatic events.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old man presents to the clinic with persistent beliefs that his coworkers are plotting against him and trying to sabotage his work, despite reassurance and evidence to the contrary. He has had multiple heated arguments with his colleagues and after each one, he becomes aggressive and blames them for his outbursts. He sometimes feels like he cannot function without them, but also sometimes feels that they are out to get him. He has a history of a recent suicide attempt and has difficulties trusting his family as he feels they are part of the conspiracy. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Explanation:The young man in question is likely suffering from borderline personality disorder (BPD), also known as emotionally unstable personality disorder (EUPD). This condition is characterized by unstable relationships, alternating between idealization and devaluation of others, recurrent self-harm, unstable self-image and self-esteem, suicidal behavior, difficulty controlling anger, and efforts to avoid abandonment. All of these traits are present in this patient, making BPD the most likely diagnosis.
Narcissistic personality disorder is not a likely diagnosis for this patient, as it is characterized by a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and a sense of entitlement. These traits are not present in this patient, and his periods of devaluing her partner are temporary and not pervasive.
Dependent personality disorder is also an unlikely diagnosis, as this condition is characterized by a pervasive need for others to make decisions for the patient and constant reassurance. While the patient has felt that he cannot live without his partner in the past, his labile mood and alternating view of his partner make this diagnosis less likely.
Paranoid personality disorder is also an unlikely diagnosis, as patients with this condition tend to be reluctant to confide in others and have an unforgiving attitude when insulted or questioned. The patient in question does not exhibit these traits, and his difficulty with trusting friends is likely due to his belief that he is undeserving of them.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspirational beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
At her routine check-up, a 75 year old woman is discovered to have a serum sodium level of 128 mmol/L. Despite feeling fine and having no symptoms, which of the following medications could be responsible for her hyponatraemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Hyponatraemia, a condition where there is low sodium levels in the blood, can be caused by various drugs that either increase the production or enhance the effects of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Among these drugs, diuretics (especially thiazides), SSRIs, antipsychotics like haloperidol, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories, and carbamazepine are the most commonly implicated. SSRIs, in particular, can trigger the release of ADH, leading to hyponatraemia within the first few weeks of treatment. However, this condition usually resolves within two weeks of discontinuing the drug. The risk of developing hyponatraemia is higher in older patients and those taking diuretics concomitantly with SSRIs.
Understanding the Side-Effects and Interactions of SSRIs
SSRIs, or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, are commonly prescribed antidepressants that can have various side-effects and interactions with other medications. The most common side-effect of SSRIs is gastrointestinal symptoms, and patients taking these medications are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. To mitigate this risk, a proton pump inhibitor should be prescribed if the patient is also taking a NSAID. Hyponatraemia, or low sodium levels, can also occur with SSRIs, and patients should be vigilant for increased anxiety and agitation after starting treatment.
Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and citalopram has been associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has advised that citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram has been reduced for certain patient populations.
SSRIs can also interact with other medications, such as NSAIDs, warfarin/heparin, aspirin, and triptans. It is important to review patients after starting antidepressant therapy and to gradually reduce the dose when stopping treatment to avoid discontinuation symptoms. These symptoms can include mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
In summary, understanding the potential side-effects and interactions of SSRIs is crucial for safe and effective treatment of depression and other mental health conditions. Patients should be closely monitored and counseled on the risks and benefits of these medications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)