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  • Question 1 - Regarding ectopic pregnancy, where is the most common site of implantation? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding ectopic pregnancy, where is the most common site of implantation?

      Your Answer: Ampullary tubal

      Explanation:

      Ectopic pregnancies can quickly become a gynaecological emergency if left untreated. The majority of ectopic pregnancies (95-97%) are tubal occurring in the fallopian tube as opposed to the abdomen, ovary or cervix. In tubal ectopics, the most common site of occurrence is in the ampulla (70%), followed by the isthmus, fimbria, and the cornua.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You are asked to assess a patients perineal tear following labour by vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to assess a patients perineal tear following labour by vaginal delivery. You note a laceration that extends through the vaginal mucosa into the perineal muscle and fascia. The external anal sphincter appears to be in tact. How would you classify this tear?

      Your Answer: 3rd type B

      Correct Answer: 2nd

      Explanation:

      If the external anal sphincter is in tact then this is a 1st or 2nd degree tear. As the perineal muscles are involved this is 2nd degree tear.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - In the earliest phase of wound healing platelets are held together by what?...

    Correct

    • In the earliest phase of wound healing platelets are held together by what?

      Your Answer: Fibrin

      Explanation:

      The 1st stage of wound healing is haemostasis. Even in incised wounds a small haematoma forms. Here the clotting cascade is activated by tissue factor and endothelial cells resulting in activation of platelets. This results in platelet aggregation and the laying down of a fibrin mesh that is cross linked and holds the platelets in place.
      Wound healing is typically divided into phases:
      1. Haemostasis Phase
      2. Inflammatory phase
      3. Proliferation phase
      4. Remodelling phase

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      32.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Rubella belongs to which of the following family of viruses? ...

    Incorrect

    • Rubella belongs to which of the following family of viruses?

      Your Answer: Retroviruses

      Correct Answer: Togaviruses

      Explanation:

      The Rubella virus, also known as German measles, is found in the Togavirus family and is a single-stranded RNA virus. The virus, which is acquired through contact with respiratory secretions, primarily replicates in the nasopharynx and lymph nodes, and produces a mild and self-limiting illness. Congenital infection, however, is associated with several anomalies including sensorineural deafness, cataracts and cardiac abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 21-year old female, gravida 1 para 0, term pregnancy, comes in due...

    Correct

    • A 21-year old female, gravida 1 para 0, term pregnancy, comes in due to labour for eight hours. Two hours prior to onset of contractions, her membranes have allegedly ruptured. Fetal heart rate is at 144/min. Contractions are of good quality, noted every 2-3 minutes, with a duration of 45 seconds. On examination, her cervix is fully dilated and the patient has been pushing all throughout. Vertex is palpated in the occipito-anterior (OA) position and has descended to station 2 cm below the ischial spines in the previous hour. Which of the following most likely depicts the current condition of the patient?

      Your Answer: Normal progress.

      Explanation:

      The patient’s condition can be described as a normal progress of labour. The scenario shows a normal descent of the head in the pelvic cavity, with a favourable position, and occurring within an hour of the second stage of labour. A normal second stage of labour in a nulliparous individual occurs at a maximum of two hours, which is consistent with this patient. Hence, there is no delay in the second stage.

      There is evident progress of labour in this patient, hence, obstructed labour or cephalopelvic disproportion is ruled out.

      No signs of maternal distress such as tachycardia or pyrexia is described in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      58.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the most common Type II congenital thrombophilia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common Type II congenital thrombophilia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Factor V Leiden mutation

      Explanation:

      The most common congenital thrombophilia is Factor V Leiden mutation. Other congenital causes are JAK-2 mutations and the Prothrombin G20210A mutation. Protein C and S deficiencies are type 1 and antiphospholipid syndrome is not congenital it is an acquired thrombophilia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - In early pregnancy at what gestation does the Gestational sac become visible on...

    Incorrect

    • In early pregnancy at what gestation does the Gestational sac become visible on transvaginal ultrasound?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4 weeks + 3 days

      Explanation:

      The gestational sac is typically visible from 31 days gestation by transvaginal ultrasound and a week later (38 days) on transabdominal ultrasound.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - In threatened abortion, which one of the following items is TRUE? ...

    Incorrect

    • In threatened abortion, which one of the following items is TRUE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: More than 50% will abort

      Explanation:

      Threatened abortion:
      – Vaginal bleeding with closed cervical os during the first 20 weeks of pregnancy
      – Occurs in 25% of 1st-trimester pregnancies
      – 50% survival
      More than half of threatened abortions will abort. The risk of spontaneous abortion, in a patient with a threatened abortion, is less if fetal cardiac activity is present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Urinary incontinence has brought a 69-year-old woman to your clinic. When she laughs,...

    Incorrect

    • Urinary incontinence has brought a 69-year-old woman to your clinic. When she laughs, sneezes, or coughs, as well as during activity, she experiences minor quantities of urine incontinence. Which of the following is the most appropriate management next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pelvic floor muscles exercise

      Explanation:

      Pelvic floor muscle exercises are the mainstay of behavioural therapy for stress incontinence. Up to 38 percent of patients with stress incontinence alone who follow a pelvic floor muscle exercise regimen for at least three months experience a cure.

      Weighted cones or topical steroids can be used as adjuvants but are not sufficient when used alone.

      Tension free vaginal tape and Burch’s colposuspension are considered for patients who fail to respond to conservative management strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Androgen insensitivity syndrome is characterised by which one of the following karyotypes? ...

    Incorrect

    • Androgen insensitivity syndrome is characterised by which one of the following karyotypes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 46XY

      Explanation:

      Genetically, patients suffering from androgen insensitivity syndrome are 46XY. They are males but insensitive to male hormones i.e. androgens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following inhibit Glucagon? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following inhibit Glucagon?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Uraemia

      Explanation:

      Glucagon release is inhibited by increased blood glucose, ketones, free fatty
      acids, insulin, raised urea levels and somatostatin. Glucagon is produced by alpha cells of the pancreas and increases the plasma glucose level by stimulating glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is the anterior boundary of the pelvic outlet? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the anterior boundary of the pelvic outlet?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: pubic arch

      Explanation:

      Pelvic Outlet Boundaries Anteriorly: Pubic arch Laterally: Ischial tuberosities Posterolaterally: Inferior margin of the sacrotuberous ligament Posteriorly: Tip of the coccyx Note: The pelvis outlet is also called the inferior aperture. The pelvic brim is the superior aperture

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 32-year-old woman, who is 18 weeks pregnant, is diagnosed with antiphospholipid syndrome...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman, who is 18 weeks pregnant, is diagnosed with antiphospholipid syndrome and positive anticardiolipin antibodies. She has a history of three miscarriages, each one during the first trimester. What would be the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin & heparin

      Explanation:

      The syndrome with which the woman was diagnosed is an autoimmune, hypercoagulable state which most possibly was the reason of her previous miscarriages. This is the reason why she should be on aspirin and heparin in order to prevent any future miscarriage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A patient undergoes oophorectomy and the ovarian veins are ligated. Which vein does...

    Incorrect

    • A patient undergoes oophorectomy and the ovarian veins are ligated. Which vein does the right ovary drain into?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava

      Explanation:

      The right ovarian vein travels through the suspensory ligament of the ovary and generally joins the inferior vena cava whereas the left ovarian vein drains into the left renal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is the maximum normal diameter of the yolk sac on transvaginal ultrasound?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the maximum normal diameter of the yolk sac on transvaginal ultrasound?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 6mm

      Explanation:

      The yolk sac increases in size up until the 10th week reaching a maximum diameter of 6mm in normal pregnancy. After the 10th week the yolk sac will gradually disappear. It is usually sonographically undetectable by 20 weeks. A yolk sac greater than 6mm diameter is suspicious of failed pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 32-year-old woman who is multigravida and with breech presentation presented to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who is multigravida and with breech presentation presented to the emergency department for vaginal delivery. Upon spontaneous rupture of the membranes, bradycardia and variable deceleration was noted on the fetal heart rate monitoring. Vaginal examination was performed and revealed cord prolapse that is still pulsating. Which of the following is considered the most appropriate next step in managing the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange for emergency caesarean delivery

      Explanation:

      Umbilical cord prolapse (UCP) occurs when the umbilical cord exits the cervical opening before the fetal presenting part. It is a rare obstetric emergency that carries a high rate of potential fetal morbidity and mortality. Resultant compression of the cord by the descending foetus during delivery leads to fetal hypoxia and bradycardia, which can result in fetal death or permanent disability.

      Certain features of pregnancy increase the risk for the development of umbilical cord prolapse by preventing appropriate engagement of the presenting part with the pelvis. These include fetal malpresentation, multiple gestations, polyhydramnios, preterm rupture of membranes, intrauterine growth restriction, preterm delivery, and fetal and cord abnormalities.

      The occurrence of fetal bradycardia in the setting of ruptured membranes should prompt immediate evaluation for potential cord prolapse.

      In overt prolapse, the cord is palpable as a pulsating structure in the vaginal vault. In occult prolapse, the cord is not visible or palpable ahead of the fetal presenting part. The definitive management of umbilical cord prolapse is expedient delivery; this is usually by caesarean section.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What is the inferior border of the deep perineal pouch? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the inferior border of the deep perineal pouch?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perineal membrane

      Explanation:

      The perineal membrane (also known as the inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm) separates the deep and superficial perineal pouches i.e. it is the inferior border of the deep pouch and superior border of the superficial pouch. The deep perineal pouch is the space therefore between superior and inferior layers of the urogenital diaphragm The superior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm is the superior border

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - The third pharyngeal arch gives rise to which of the following structures? ...

    Incorrect

    • The third pharyngeal arch gives rise to which of the following structures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The 3rd arch gives rise to the Glossopharyngeal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 50-year-old woman presents with moderately severe pain in her left groin and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with moderately severe pain in her left groin and thigh. She had recently travelled by airplane from overseas and is at 18 weeks of gestation of her second pregnancy. The only incidence of trauma she can think of is when she hit her left knee on a table yesterday. On physical examination, it is found that she has some swelling of her left ankle that is not present on the right side. Her first pregnancy was unremarkable except for development of some symptoms that were believed to be related to pelvic symphyseal separation around 28 weeks of gestation. Which one of the following is the mostly cause for this patient's pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: deep venous Thrombosis (DVT) in her left leg

      Explanation:

      For this pregnant patient who recently travelled overseas most likely has a deep venous thrombosis (DVT). It would also be expected that the patient would have oedema in the symptomatic leg and account for the swelling described.

      Though they could cause unilateral leg pain, neither symphyseal separation nor sciatica due to a prolapsed intervertebral disc usually occur as early as 18 weeks of gestation. This patient’s symptoms also do not suggest either diagnosis.

      Pain due to trauma would usually be maximal at the site where the trauma took place, which would be in the knee for this patient. Traumatic pain and house cleaning also would not cause the pain described or result in ankle swelling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 27-year-old female reports to the emergency department due to severe right lower...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female reports to the emergency department due to severe right lower quadrant pain. Complaints started yesterday, as the patient noticed intermittent right lower abdominal pain associated with increased activity. She rested for remainder of the day, but the pain still continued to increase. An hour ago, the pain suddenly became constant and severe, associated with nausea and vomiting.The patient does not complaint of any radiation of pain. On examination patient's temperature is noted to be 37.2 C (99 F), blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, and pulse rate is 98/min.On palpation of the right lower quadrant there is tenderness without rebounding or guarding.Urine pregnancy test conducted came to be negative. Considering the following additional informations, which would be most appropriate in establishing the diagnosis of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: History of ovarian cysts

      Explanation:

      Common Risk factors for Ovarian torsion are presence of an ovarian mass, women who are in their reproductive age and history of infertility treatment with ovulation induction.
      Common clinical presentations include sudden onset of unilateral pelvic pain along with nausea & vomiting and presence of a palpable adnexal mass. An adnexal mass with absent Doppler flow to ovary can be noted in ultrasound.
      Laparoscopy with detorsion, ovarian cystectomy and oophorectomy if necrosis or malignancy is found are the common treatment options.

      Acute lower abdominal pain in a nonpregnant women can have various causes including pathologies of the gastrointestinal, gynecologic, or urologic systems due to the close proximity of these structures. All of these cases have classic presentations which help to characterize the disease process and thereby to differentiate the diagnosis.

      In the given case, patient presents with right lower quadrant pain which is classic for ovarian torsion, occurring due to rotation of the ovary around the infundibulopelvic ligament, causing ovarian vessel occlusion.  Although ovarian torsion can occur in any women in their reproductive-age, is seen more commonly in those with a history of ovarian cysts (eg, hemorrhagic cyst) or masses (eg, mature cystic teratoma) because of the greater size and density of the ovary which makes it prone to rotation and subsequent torsion. Patients will initially have intermittent pain associated with activity, as in this patient, due to partial ovarian torsion, this initial pain resolves when the adnexa spontaneously untwists and blood flow returns. When this progresses to complete ovarian torsion, patients typically develop sudden-onset, severe, nonradiating pain due to persistent ischemia, which is often associated with nausea and vomiting.

      Ovarian torsion can be clinically diagnosed, but a Doppler ultrasound is performed to evaluate ovarian blood flow and also to confirm the diagnosis. Surgical detorsion to prevent ovarian necrosis and cystectomy/oophorectomy are the usual treatment options.

      Any association of urinary symptoms will help to establish a urologic cause of acute right lower quadrant pain like pyelonephritis, nephrolithiasis, etc.  However, patients with urologic conditions typically presents with suprapubic or flank pain which radiates to the right lower quadrant, making this diagnosis less likely in the given case.

      A family history of malignancy usually does not aid in the diagnosis of acute lower abdominal pain. Although some ovarian cancers are inherited, patients with ovarian cancer typically have a chronic, indolent course with associated weight loss, early satiety, and abdominal distension.

      Having multiple sexual partners is considered a risk factor for sexually transmitted infections and pelvic inflammatory disease, which can be a cause for lower abdominal pain. However, patients will typically have fever, constant and diffused pelvic pain along with rebound and guarding.

      Recent sick contacts are a risk factor for gastroenteritis, which can present with nausea, vomiting and abdominal pain. However, in this case patient will typically have diffuse, cramping abdominal pain which will worsen gradually; along with persistent vomiting and diarrhea.

      Ovarian torsion typically causes intermittent lower abdominal pain followed by sudden-onset of severe, nonradiating unilateral pain with associated nausea and vomiting. Ovarian torsion can occur in women in their reproductive-age, particularly those with a history of ovarian cysts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A mother brought her 3-year-old daughter to the doctor with a complaint of...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brought her 3-year-old daughter to the doctor with a complaint of vulval pruritus. On examination, the vulval region has a well-defined white plaque with a wrinkled surface and scattered telangiectasia. The diagnosis of lichen sclerosis was confirmed by histopathology. Which of the following treatments is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Potent topical steroids

      Explanation:

      Lichen sclerosis (LS) is a benign, chronic, progressive dermatologic condition characterized by marked inflammation, epithelial thinning, and distinctive dermal changes accompanied by symptoms of pruritus and pain.

      Topical corticosteroids are the mainstay of therapy. Intralesional corticosteroid therapy is an additional option that is useful for the treatment of thick hypertrophic plaques that topical corticosteroids may not penetrate adequately.

      Antibiotics or antifungals have no role in the treatment of LS since it’s not an infection.
      Since histological diagnosis has already been made, there is no need to refer to dermatologist.
      Surgical intervention is indicated for treatment of complications like adhesion and scarring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Management of a patient with threatened abortion includes all of the following, EXCEPT:...

    Incorrect

    • Management of a patient with threatened abortion includes all of the following, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dilatation and curettage

      Explanation:

      Patients with a threatened abortion should be managed expectantly until their symptoms resolve. Patients should be monitored for progression to an inevitable, incomplete, or complete abortion. Analgesia will help relieve pain from cramping. Bed rest has not been shown to improve outcomes but commonly is recommended. Physical activity precautions and abstinence from sexual intercourse are also commonly advised. Repeat pelvic ultrasound weekly until a viable pregnancy is confirmed or excluded. A miscarriage cannot be avoided or prevented, and the patients should be educated as such. Intercourse and tampons should be avoided to decrease the chance of infection. A warning should be given to the patient to return to the emergency department if there is heavy bleeding or if the patient is experiencing light-headedness or dizziness. Heavy bleeding is defined as more than one pad per hour for six hours. The patient should also be given instructions to return if they experience increased pain or fever. All patients with vaginal bleeding who are Rh-negative should be treated with Rhogam. Because the total fetal blood volume in less than 4.2 mL at 12 weeks, the likelihood of fetal blood mixture is small in the first trimester. A smaller RhoGAM dose can be considered in the first trimester. A dose of 50 micrograms to 150 micrograms has been recommended. A full dose can also be used. Rhogam should ideally be administered before discharge. However, it can also be administered by the patient’s obstetrician within 72 hours if the vaginal bleeding has been present for several days or weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What is the incubation period for CMV? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the incubation period for CMV?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3-12 weeks

      Explanation:

      The incubation period of CMV is 3-12 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - You are asked to consult on a young woman with a pre-existing cardiac...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to consult on a young woman with a pre-existing cardiac defect. She wants to become pregnant in the near future and seeks advice about what risks to her health that this will create. You tell that the highest maternal mortality rates are associated with which of the following cardiac defects:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Eisenmenger syndrome

      Explanation:

      Eisenmenger’s syndrome is one where there is communication between the systemic and pulmonary system, along with increased pulmonary vascular resistance, either to systemic level or above systemic level (right to left shunt). A would-be mother must be informed that to become pregnant would incur a 50% risk of dying. Even if she survives, fetal mortality approaches 50% as well.

      – Severe symptomatic aortic stenosis has a mortality in pregnancy of about 20%. Prevention of reduction in preload is necessary in all obstructive cardiac lesions. Balloon valvuloplasty can be done in pregnancy.
      – Due to the increased blood volume and cardiac output in pregnancy, mitral stenosis can lead to severe pulmonary oedema. Balloon valvuloplasty can be done in pregnancy.
      – Ebstein anomaly is a malformation of the tricuspid valve- It is usually not associated with maternal mortality.
      – Atrial-septal defects rarely cause complications in pregnancy, labour, or delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 25-year-old pregnant woman presented to your clinic complaining of urinary symptoms at...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old pregnant woman presented to your clinic complaining of urinary symptoms at 19 weeks of gestation. She is allergic to penicillin, with non-anaphylactic presentation. Urine microscopy confirmed the diagnosis of urinary tract infection and culture result is pending. From the options below, which is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cephalexin

      Explanation:

      According to the laboratory reports, patient has developed urinary tract infection and should be treated with one week course of oral antibiotics.
      As the patient is pregnant, antibiotics like cephalexin, co-amoxiclav and nitrofurantoin must be considered as these are safe during pregnancy.

      Due to this Patient’s allergic history to penicillin, cephalexin can be considered as the best option. Risk of cross allergy would have been higher if the patient had any history of anaphylactic reactions to penicillin.

      In Australia, Amoxicillin is not recommended to treat UTI due to resistance.Tetracyclines also should be avoided during pregnancy due to its teratogenic property.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - If a hyalinised mass is formed from an involuted corpus leuteum, it is...

    Incorrect

    • If a hyalinised mass is formed from an involuted corpus leuteum, it is known as:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Corpus albicans

      Explanation:

      Corpus albicans is the regressed form of the corpus leuteum. It is formed when the corpus leuteum is engulfed by macrophages and a scar or fibrous tissue is formed, called the corpus albicans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is the normal range for variability in cardiotocography (CTG) analysis? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the normal range for variability in cardiotocography (CTG) analysis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5-25 bpm

      Explanation:

      Cardiotocography, also known as the non-stress test is used to monitor fetal heartbeat and uterine contractions of the uterus. An abnormal CTG may indicate fetal distress and prompt an early intervention. Variability refers to the variation in the fetal heartbeat form one beat to another. Normal variability is between 5-25 beats per minute while an abnormal variability is less than 5 bpm for more than 50 minutes, or more than 25 bpm for more than 25 minutes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 23-year-old lady comes to you for hirsutism therapy. She is overweight, with...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old lady comes to you for hirsutism therapy. She is overweight, with hirsutism and facial pimples on her face and peri areolar areas, as well as a masculine escutcheon. Serum LH levels range from 1.9 to 12.5 IU/L, whereas FSH levels range from 4.5 to 21.5 IU/L. The levels of androstenedione and testosterone are somewhat higher, while the serum DHAS is normal. The patient does not want to start a family right now. Which of the single medications listed below is the best therapy for her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral contraceptives

      Explanation:

      The clinical picture, unusually high LH-to-FSH ratio (which should ordinarily be around 1:1), and higher androgens but normal DHAS all point to polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). DHAS is an indicator of adrenal androgen production; when normal, it rules out adrenal hyperandrogenism. Several drugs have been used to treat PCOS-related hirsutism. Contraceptives were the most often used medications for many years; they can decrease hair growth in up to two-thirds of individuals. They work by decreasing ovarian steroid production and increasing hepatic-binding globulin production, which binds circulating hormones and lowers metabolically active (unbound) androgen concentrations. Clinical improvement, on the other hand, can take up to 6 months to show.
      Medroxyprogesterone acetate, spironolactone, cimetidine, and GnRH agonists, all of which decrease ovarian steroid synthesis, have also shown potential. GnRH analogues, on the other hand, are costly and have been linked to severe bone demineralization in some patients after only 6 months of treatment. Given the efficacy of pharmacologic medications and the ovarian adhesions that were usually linked with this surgery, surgical wedge resection is no longer regarded as an appropriate therapy for PCOS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following is the primary stimulator of uterine involution following child...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the primary stimulator of uterine involution following child birth?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin is the primary stimulus for uterine involution following childbirth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - In which of the following situations are mini-pills unsafe to use? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which of the following situations are mini-pills unsafe to use?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ovarian cysts

      Explanation:

      Progestin only pills increase the risk of developing follicular cysts. Sonographic studies have observed that follicular cysts are more common in POP users than women not using hormones. The follicular changes tend to increase and regress over time. No intervention is required in asymptomatic women, other than reassurance. POP users who have persistent concerns about ovarian follicular changes should be offered another method of contraception.

      All other options are not contraindications to the use of mini-pills.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Epidemiology (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (0/1) 0%
Physiology (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics (1/1) 100%
Passmed