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  • Question 1 - You assess a patient who is currently undergoing systemic anticancer treatment. She has...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a patient who is currently undergoing systemic anticancer treatment. She has been experiencing chills and feeling unwell and is worried about the potential of having an infection. She informs you that she is currently prescribed a medication to prevent neutropenic sepsis.
      Which of the following medications is she most likely taking for this purpose?

      Your Answer: Tazocin

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      According to the latest guidelines from NICE, it is recommended that adult patients who are undergoing treatment for acute leukaemia, stem cell transplants, or solid tumours and are expected to experience significant neutropenia as a result of chemotherapy, should be offered prophylaxis with a fluoroquinolone such as ciprofloxacin (500 mg taken orally twice daily) during the period when neutropenia is expected. This is to help prevent the occurrence of neutropenic sepsis, a serious infection that can occur in cancer patients with low levels of neutrophils.

      Reference:
      NICE guidance: ‘Neutropenic sepsis: prevention and management of neutropenic sepsis in cancer patients’

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncological Emergencies
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old woman is brought into the emergency department after being hit by...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is brought into the emergency department after being hit by a car while riding her bike. The patient was not wearing a helmet and suffered a head injury from hitting the pavement. She has a significant scalp contusion and appears drowsy. There is a suspicion of increased intracranial pressure. How does intracranial pressure affect cerebral perfusion pressure?

      Your Answer: Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) = mean arterial pressure (MAP) + intracranial pressure (ICP)

      Correct Answer: Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) = mean arterial pressure (MAP) - intracranial pressure (ICP)

      Explanation:

      Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) is calculated by adding the intracranial pressure (ICP) to the diastolic blood pressure (DBP).

      Further Reading:

      Intracranial pressure (ICP) refers to the pressure within the craniospinal compartment, which includes neural tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Normal ICP for a supine adult is 5-15 mmHg. The body maintains ICP within a narrow range through shifts in CSF production and absorption. If ICP rises, it can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion pressure, resulting in cerebral hypoperfusion, ischemia, and potentially brain herniation.

      The cranium, which houses the brain, is a closed rigid box in adults and cannot expand. It is made up of 8 bones and contains three main components: brain tissue, cerebral blood, and CSF. Brain tissue accounts for about 80% of the intracranial volume, while CSF and blood each account for about 10%. The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the sum of intracranial volumes is constant, so an increase in one component must be offset by a decrease in the others.

      There are various causes of raised ICP, including hematomas, neoplasms, brain abscesses, edema, CSF circulation disorders, venous sinus obstruction, and accelerated hypertension. Symptoms of raised ICP include headache, vomiting, pupillary changes, reduced cognition and consciousness, neurological signs, abnormal fundoscopy, cranial nerve palsy, hemiparesis, bradycardia, high blood pressure, irregular breathing, focal neurological deficits, seizures, stupor, coma, and death.

      Measuring ICP typically requires invasive procedures, such as inserting a sensor through the skull. Management of raised ICP involves a multi-faceted approach, including antipyretics to maintain normothermia, seizure control, positioning the patient with a 30º head up tilt, maintaining normal blood pressure, providing analgesia, using drugs to lower ICP (such as mannitol or saline), and inducing hypocapnoeic vasoconstriction through hyperventilation. If these measures are ineffective, second-line therapies like barbiturate coma, optimised hyperventilation, controlled hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia describes a sensation in which...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia describes a sensation in which her thoughts are heard as if they are being spoken aloud. She states that it feels almost as though her thoughts are ‘being echoed by a voice in her mind’. She hears the voice at the exact same time as thinking the thoughts.
      Which ONE of the following thought disorders is she displaying?

      Your Answer: Echo de la pensée

      Correct Answer: Gedankenlautwerden

      Explanation:

      Thought echo is a phenomenon where a patient perceives their own thoughts as if they are being spoken out loud. When there is a slight delay in this perception, it is referred to as echo de la pensée. On the other hand, when the thoughts are heard simultaneously, it is known as Gedankenlautwerden.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      41
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old individual comes in with a fever and symptoms resembling the flu....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old individual comes in with a fever and symptoms resembling the flu. They also complain of muscle pain, diarrhea, and a dry cough. During the examination, their temperature is measured at 38.3°C and they exhibit tenderness in the upper right quadrant of their abdomen. Upon further inquiry, it is revealed that they recently returned from a backpacking trip to Malawi, where they recall developing blisters on their ankles after swimming in a lake. Blood tests indicate a significant increase in eosinophils.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Schistosomiasis

      Explanation:

      Schistosomiasis, also known as bilharzia, is a tropical disease caused by parasitic trematodes (flukes) of the Schistosoma type. The transmission of this disease occurs when water becomes contaminated with faeces or urine containing eggs, and a specific freshwater snail serves as the intermediate host. Human contact with water inhabited by the intermediate host snail is necessary for transmission to occur.

      There are five species of Schistosoma that can cause human disease, namely S. japonicum, S. mansoni, S. haematobium, S. intercalatum, and S. mekongi. Schistosomiasis is the second most impactful tropical disease in terms of public health, following malaria, with over 200 million people worldwide being infected. It is prevalent in the Middle East, Africa, and parts of South America and the Caribbean. Infection can manifest as either acute or chronic.

      Acute schistosomiasis is characterized by the early clinical sign of swimmers itch, which involves the development of blisters and an urticarial response at the site where the Schistosoma parasite enters the skin. This typically occurs a few days after the parasite has penetrated the skin. While most acute infections are asymptomatic, some individuals may experience an acute syndrome.

      The most common acute syndrome is known as Katayama fever, which primarily affects children or young adults with no previous exposure to the disease. It is caused by an allergic reaction to the sudden release of highly antigenic eggs and usually occurs a few weeks after initial exposure to S. japonicum. Symptoms of Katayama fever include fever, flu-like illness, arthralgia, myalgia, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and cough. Patients may also exhibit right upper quadrant tenderness and hepatosplenomegaly. An extremely high eosinophil count is often present.

      Chronic schistosomiasis can manifest in two major forms: intestinal and urogenital. Intestinal schistosomiasis is primarily caused by S. japonicum and S. mansoni, while S. haematobium is the main cause of urogenital schistosomiasis. In intestinal schistosomiasis, adult worms migrate from the liver to the mesenteric venules, where female worms continuously lay eggs. Common symptoms include abdominal pain and bloody diarrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      59.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old woman is stabbed in the chest during a fight outside a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is stabbed in the chest during a fight outside a bar. A FAST scan is conducted, revealing the presence of free fluid in the chest cavity.

      Which of the following organs is most likely to be damaged in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Diaphragm

      Correct Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      Stab wounds to the abdomen result in tissue damage through laceration and cutting. When patients experience penetrating abdominal trauma due to stab wounds, the organs that are most commonly affected include the liver (40% of cases), small bowel (30% of cases), diaphragm (20% of cases), and colon (15% of cases). These statistics are derived from the latest edition of the ATLS manual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      100.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 68 year old female visits the emergency department with complaints of lower...

    Correct

    • A 68 year old female visits the emergency department with complaints of lower abdominal pain and a strong urge to urinate but an inability to do so. Upon examination, the patient's bladder is easily palpable and a diagnosis of acute urinary retention is made. To determine if any medications may be contributing to the condition, you inquire about the patient's drug history. Which of the following drug classes is NOT known to cause urinary retention?

      Your Answer: 5α-reductase inhibitors

      Explanation:

      Urinary retention can be caused by various drug classes. One such class is 5α-reductase inhibitors like finasteride, which are prescribed to alleviate obstructive symptoms caused by an enlarged prostate. Some commonly known drugs that can lead to urinary retention include alcohol, anticholinergics, decongestants (such as phenylephrine and pseudoephedrine), disopyramide, antihistamines (like diphenhydramine and phenergan), and amphetamines.

      Further Reading:

      Urinary retention is the inability to completely or partially empty the bladder. It is commonly seen in elderly males with prostate enlargement and acute retention. Symptoms of acute urinary retention include the inability to void, inability to empty the bladder, overflow incontinence, and suprapubic discomfort. Chronic urinary retention, on the other hand, is typically painless but can lead to complications such as hydronephrosis and renal impairment.

      There are various causes of urinary retention, including anatomical factors such as urethral stricture, bladder neck contracture, and prostate enlargement. Functional causes can include neurogenic bladder, neurological diseases like multiple sclerosis and Parkinson’s, and spinal cord injury. Certain drugs can also contribute to urinary retention, such as anticholinergics, opioids, and tricyclic antidepressants. In female patients, specific causes like organ prolapse, pelvic mass, and gravid uterus should be considered.

      The pathophysiology of acute urinary retention can involve factors like increased resistance to flow, detrusor muscle dysfunction, bladder overdistension, and drugs that affect bladder tone. The primary management intervention for acute urinary retention is the insertion of a urinary catheter. If a catheter cannot be passed through the urethra, a suprapubic catheter can be inserted. Post-catheterization residual volume should be measured, and renal function should be assessed through U&Es and urine culture. Further evaluation and follow-up with a urologist are typically arranged, and additional tests like ultrasound may be performed if necessary. It is important to note that PSA testing is often deferred for at least two weeks after catheter insertion and female patients with retention should also be referred to urology for investigation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      60.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You evaluate a 42-year-old woman with a long-standing history of alcohol abuse. She...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 42-year-old woman with a long-standing history of alcohol abuse. She is determined to quit drinking and has the complete backing of her family. Currently, she consumes 20-30 units of alcohol daily. You opt to utilize a screening questionnaire to evaluate the extent of her dependency before referring her to specialized alcohol services.
      Which of the subsequent screening tests is endorsed by the current NICE guidance for this situation?

      Your Answer: APQ

      Correct Answer: SADQ

      Explanation:

      The Severity of Alcohol Dependence Questionnaire (SADQ) is a brief, self-administered questionnaire consisting of 20 items. It was developed by the World Health Organisation with the aim of assessing the severity of alcohol dependence. Another assessment tool recommended by NICE is the Leeds Dependence Questionnaire (LDQ), which is a self-completion questionnaire comprising of 10 items. The LDQ is designed to measure dependence on various substances. Both the SADQ and LDQ are considered useful in evaluating the severity of alcohol misuse.

      NICE suggests the use of specific assessment tools to effectively evaluate the nature and severity of alcohol misuse. The AUDIT is recommended for identification purposes and as a routine outcome measure. For assessing the severity of dependence, the SADQ or LDQ are recommended. To evaluate the severity of withdrawal symptoms, the Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale, revised (CIWA-Ar) is recommended. Lastly, the APQ is recommended for assessing the nature and extent of problems arising from alcohol misuse.

      to the NICE guidance on the diagnosis, assessment, and management of harmful drinking and alcohol dependence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      146
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old man is brought in by ambulance following a car crash. A...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man is brought in by ambulance following a car crash. A FAST scan is conducted to evaluate for a haemoperitoneum.
      Which of the subsequent anatomical regions is evaluated as part of a typical 4 view FAST scan?

      Your Answer: Right iliac fossa

      Correct Answer: Left upper quadrant

      Explanation:

      A Focussed Assessment with Sonography for Trauma (FAST) scan is a point-of-care ultrasound examination conducted when a trauma patient arrives. Its primary purpose is to identify the presence of intra-abdominal free fluid, which is typically assumed to be haemoperitoneum in the context of trauma. This information helps healthcare providers make decisions regarding further management of the patient.

      The sensitivity of FAST scanning for detecting intraperitoneal fluid is approximately 90%, while its specificity is around 95%. However, its sensitivity for detecting solid organ injuries is much lower. As a result, FAST scanning has largely replaced diagnostic peritoneal lavage as the preferred initial method for assessing haemoperitoneum.

      During a standard FAST scan, four regions are assessed. The first is the subxiphoid transverse view, which is used to check for pericardial effusion and left lobe liver injuries. The second is the longitudinal view of the right upper quadrant, which helps identify right liver injuries, right kidney injuries, and fluid in the hepatorenal recess (Morison’s pouch). The third is the longitudinal view of the left upper quadrant, which is used to assess for splenic injury and left kidney injury. Lastly, the transverse and longitudinal views of the suprapubic region are examined to assess the bladder and fluid in the pouch of Douglas.

      In addition to the standard FAST scan, an extended FAST or eFAST may also be performed. This involves examining the left and right thoracic regions to assess for the presence of pneumothorax and haemothorax.

      The hepatorenal recess is the deepest part of the peritoneal cavity when a patient is lying flat. Therefore, it is the most likely area for fluid to accumulate in a supine position.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      42
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You admit a 65-year-old woman to the clinical decision unit (CDU) following a...

    Correct

    • You admit a 65-year-old woman to the clinical decision unit (CDU) following a fall at her assisted living facility. You can see from her notes that she has advanced Alzheimer’s disease. While writing up her drug chart, you note that there are some medications you are not familiar with.
      Which ONE of the following medications is recommended by NICE for use in the treatment of advanced Alzheimer’s disease?

      Your Answer: Memantine

      Explanation:

      According to NICE, one of the recommended treatments for mild-to-moderate Alzheimer’s disease is the use of acetylcholinesterase (AChE) inhibitors. These inhibitors include Donepezil (Aricept), Galantamine, and Rivastigmine. They work by inhibiting the enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter involved in memory and cognitive function.

      On the other hand, Memantine is a different type of medication that acts by blocking NMDA-type glutamate receptors. It is recommended for patients with moderate Alzheimer’s disease who cannot tolerate or have a contraindication to AChE inhibitors, or for those with severe Alzheimer’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
      32.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with swollen lips and a...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with swollen lips and a rash all over her body. According to her friend, she had recently consumed a sandwich. Anaphylaxis is suspected. You inquire about her medication use, and she presents a packet of propranolol. In addition to the usual treatment, which drug should be taken into consideration for this patient?

      Your Answer: Glucagon

      Explanation:

      Glucagon may be an option for individuals experiencing anaphylaxis while taking beta blockers. However, it should not be chosen over Adrenaline as the primary treatment. Glucagon stimulates the production of cyclic AMP, which helps to increase heart contractility and heart rate, both of which are necessary during anaphylaxis. It is important to note that rapid administration of glucagon may lead to adverse effects such as nausea and vomiting.

      Further Reading:

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction that can have sudden onset and progression. It is characterized by skin or mucosal changes and can lead to life-threatening airway, breathing, or circulatory problems. Anaphylaxis can be allergic or non-allergic in nature.

      In allergic anaphylaxis, there is an immediate hypersensitivity reaction where an antigen stimulates the production of IgE antibodies. These antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils. Upon re-exposure to the antigen, the IgE-covered cells release histamine and other inflammatory mediators, causing smooth muscle contraction and vasodilation.

      Non-allergic anaphylaxis occurs when mast cells degrade due to a non-immune mediator. The clinical outcome is the same as in allergic anaphylaxis.

      The management of anaphylaxis is the same regardless of the cause. Adrenaline is the most important drug and should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses for adrenaline vary based on age. Other treatments include high flow oxygen and an IV fluid challenge. Corticosteroids and chlorpheniramine are no longer recommended, while non-sedating antihistamines may be considered as third-line treatment after initial stabilization of airway, breathing, and circulation.

      Common causes of anaphylaxis include food (such as nuts, which is the most common cause in children), drugs, and venom (such as wasp stings). Sometimes it can be challenging to determine if a patient had a true episode of anaphylaxis. In such cases, serum tryptase levels may be measured, as they remain elevated for up to 12 hours following an acute episode of anaphylaxis.

      The Resuscitation Council (UK) provides guidelines for the management of anaphylaxis, including a visual algorithm that outlines the recommended steps for treatment.
      https://www.resus.org.uk/sites/default/files/2021-05/Emergency%20Treatment%20of%20Anaphylaxis%20May%202021_0.pdf

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      46.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Oncological Emergencies (0/1) 0%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Mental Health (0/2) 0%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Trauma (0/2) 0%
Urology (1/1) 100%
Elderly Care / Frailty (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology & Poisoning (1/1) 100%
Passmed