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Question 1
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A 3-month-old girl is brought to the morning clinic by her father. Since yesterday she has been taking reduced feeds and has been 'not her usual self'. On examination the baby appears well but has a low-grade temperature of 38.2ºC. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Admit to hospital
Explanation:If a child is under 3 months old and has a temperature above 38ºC, it is considered a ‘red’ characteristic in the updated NICE guidelines, necessitating immediate referral to a pediatrician.
The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013 to provide a ‘traffic light’ system for assessing the risk of febrile illness in children under 5 years old. The guidelines recommend recording the child’s temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time, as well as looking for signs of dehydration. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla for children under 4 weeks or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infra-red tympanic thermometer. The risk stratification table categorizes children as green (low risk), amber (intermediate risk), or red (high risk) based on their symptoms. Management recommendations vary depending on the risk level, with green children managed at home, amber children provided with a safety net or referred to a specialist, and red children urgently referred to a specialist. The guidelines also advise against prescribing oral antibiotics without an apparent source of fever and note that a chest x-ray is not necessary if a child with suspected pneumonia is not being referred to the hospital.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 2
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Samantha, a 50-year-old woman, visits her doctor complaining of feeling fatigued, experiencing a low mood, and losing interest in activities she typically enjoys for the past two weeks. As per ICD-10 guidelines, how long must Samantha's symptoms persist to be diagnosed with a depressive episode?
Your Answer: 2 weeks
Explanation:The criteria for diagnosing depressive illness according to ICD-10 include a depressed mood, loss of interest in activities that were once enjoyable, and decreased energy levels. Other common symptoms include reduced concentration, low self-esteem, feelings of guilt, pessimistic views of the future, and thoughts or actions of self-harm or suicide. Disturbed sleep, diminished appetite, psychomotor agitation or retardation, and loss of libido are also common.
To diagnose a mild depressive episode, at least two of the main three symptoms and two of the other symptoms should be present, but none of the symptoms should be intense. The episode should last for a minimum of two weeks, and individuals should still be able to function socially and at work, despite being distressed by the symptoms.
For a moderate depressive episode, at least two of the main three symptoms and three or four of the other symptoms should be present for a minimum of two weeks. Individuals will likely have difficulty continuing with normal work and social functioning.
A severe depressive episode is diagnosed when all three typical symptoms are present, along with at least four other symptoms, some of which should be severe. The episode should last for a minimum of two weeks, but an early diagnosis may be appropriate if the symptoms are particularly severe. Individuals may also experience psychotic symptoms and show severe distress or agitation.
Screening and Assessment of Depression
Depression is a common mental health condition that affects many people worldwide. Screening and assessment are important steps in identifying and managing depression. The screening process involves asking two simple questions to determine if a person is experiencing symptoms of depression. If the answer is yes to either question, a more in-depth assessment is necessary.
Assessment tools such as the Hospital Anxiety and Depression (HAD) scale and the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9) are commonly used to assess the severity of depression. The HAD scale consists of 14 questions, seven for anxiety and seven for depression. Each item is scored from 0-3, producing a score out of 21 for both anxiety and depression. The PHQ-9 asks patients about nine different problems they may have experienced in the last two weeks, which can then be scored from 0-3. This tool also includes questions about thoughts of self-harm.
The DSM-IV criteria are used by NICE to grade depression. This criteria includes nine different symptoms, such as depressed mood, diminished interest or pleasure in activities, and feelings of worthlessness or guilt. The severity of depression can range from subthreshold depressive symptoms to severe depression with or without psychotic symptoms.
In conclusion, screening and assessment are crucial steps in identifying and managing depression. By using tools such as the HAD scale and PHQ-9, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the severity of depression and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 3
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A 20-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of breakthrough bleeding while taking her combined oral contraceptive pill containing 30 mcg ethinylestradiol with levonorgestrel. She started the pill two cycles ago and takes 21 active pills with a seven day pill-free interval. Although she is not currently sexually active, she plans to be in the near future. She reports no missed pills, recent illnesses, or other medication use. What is the probable cause of her breakthrough bleeding?
Your Answer: Chlamydia infection
Explanation:Breakthrough Bleeding and the Combined Pill
Breakthrough bleeding is a common issue that can occur when taking the combined pill. It is important to first check compliance with pill usage, as missed pills or erratic usage can lead to bleeding problems. Other factors such as intercurrent illness or the use of other medications should also be considered. Pregnancy should be ruled out with a test, especially if any pills have been missed or pill efficacy has been compromised. Additionally, sexually transmitted infections should be considered and appropriate tests performed.
For women who have recently started using the combined pill, breakthrough bleeding is a common occurrence in the first few months of use. It is important to discuss this with a healthcare provider and be reassured that it usually settles with time. If breakthrough bleeding persists, a change in approach may be necessary. Lower dose pills (20 mcg ethinyloestradiol) are more likely to cause breakthrough bleeding, and switching to a higher dose pill (30 mcg) may be an option. Overall, it is important to address breakthrough bleeding promptly to ensure the effectiveness and safety of the combined pill.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 4
Incorrect
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What is the target blood pressure for a 55-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus and no end-organ damage, based on a clinic blood pressure reading?
Your Answer: < 130/75 mmHg
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus should aim for the same blood pressure targets as those without diabetes, as long as they are under 80 years old. This means keeping clinic readings below 140/90 and ABPM/HBPM readings below 135/85. It is important to note that these targets apply regardless of whether the patient has any end-organ damage.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 5
Correct
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What is the ethnic group with the highest incidence of prostate cancer?
Your Answer: Asian
Explanation:Factors to Consider in Prostate Cancer
Ethnicity is a significant factor to consider when discussing prostate cancer. The incidence of prostate cancer varies geographically, with the highest rates found in men of black ethnic group and the lowest rates in Chinese men. Age is another important factor, as prostate cancer is rare in men under 50 years old, with the majority of diagnoses made in patients over 65. Family history is also a risk factor, particularly in younger men. Prostate cancer can cluster within families, and having a first-degree relative under 70 with prostate cancer can double a patient’s relative risk of developing the disease. Finally, diet is another factor to consider, as a diet rich in red meat and dairy products has been linked to an increased risk of prostate cancer. By taking these factors into account, healthcare professionals can better assess a patient’s risk of developing prostate cancer and provide appropriate screening and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 55-year-old man with liver failure underwent successful transplantation 3 months ago. He has now developed progressive renal failure.
Select the single most likely cause.Your Answer: Ciclosporin
Explanation:Immunosuppressive Therapy for Liver Transplant Rejection: Drugs and Potential Side Effects
Liver transplant rejection can be prevented through a combination of drugs, including a calcineurin inhibitor, steroids, and azathioprine. Subsequent immunosuppression may involve tacrolimus or ciclosporin alone, or dual therapy with either azathioprine or mycophenolate. However, these drugs can also cause various side effects.
Ciclosporin toxicity, for instance, can lead to chronic renal failure in patients who have received different types of allografts. It may also cause a dose-dependent increase in serum creatinine and urea, which may require dose reduction or discontinuation. Azathioprine can cause blood dyscrasias and liver impairment, while mycophenolate mofetil can cause hypogammaglobulinaemia, bronchiectasis, and pulmonary fibrosis. Prednisolone, on the other hand, doesn’t affect renal function.
It is important to monitor patients for potential side effects and adjust the dosage or switch to alternative drugs as needed. Additionally, it is unlikely that perioperative causes of renal dysfunction will be significant three months after surgery. About 10-20% of patients taking tacrolimus may develop calcineurin inhibitor-related renal impairment five years after transplant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman is discharged home after undergoing a loop ileostomy following an anterior resection of a rectal carcinoma. She has recovered well over the last week. She is not taking anticoagulants and is being careful to drink at least one litre of extra water a day.
What is the most likely early complication she may experience following this procedure?
Your Answer: Irritant dermatitis
Explanation:Complications of Ileostomy: Understanding the Risks
Ileostomy is a surgical procedure that involves creating an opening in the abdomen to allow waste to pass out of the body. While the procedure can be life-changing for patients with certain medical conditions, it is not without its risks. Here are some of the potential complications of ileostomy:
Irritant Dermatitis: The skin around the stoma can become irritated and inflamed, either due to contact with stoma equipment or leakage of feces. Hypoallergenic products and corticosteroid lotions can help manage this condition.
Parastomal Hernia: This occurs when a bulge or protrusion develops around the stoma site. While conservative management is often possible, surgery may be necessary in some cases.
Dehydration: High output from the ileostomy can lead to dehydration, making it important for patients to maintain a good fluid intake.
Pernicious Anemia: As vitamin B12 is absorbed in the terminal ileum, patients may develop pernicious anemia over time. Supplements can help manage this condition.
Severe Stomal Hemorrhage: While some bleeding is common after bag changes, severe bleeding is more likely in patients taking antiplatelet drugs.
Understanding these potential complications can help patients and healthcare providers monitor for early signs and manage them effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 8
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In an emergency surgery one morning you see a 12-year-old patient with an infective exacerbation of asthma. She is under the respiratory specialist at the local hospital as she has had longstanding problems with poor disease control. Her current medications consist of salbutamol 2 puffs PRN, Symbicort 400/6 2 puffs BD, montelukast 10 mg OD and theophylline 400 mg BD. She is allergic to penicillin.
She reports a one week history of progressive chest tightness and cough productive of green purulent phlegm. Following your assessment you feel she warrants antibiotic treatment.
Which of the following antibiotics is the most appropriate to prescribe?Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:The Importance of Drug Interactions in Theophylline Metabolism
Theophylline is a medication that undergoes hepatic metabolism, making it susceptible to interactions with other drugs. These interactions can either increase or decrease its metabolism, affecting its plasma concentration and ultimately its clinical effectiveness. Due to its narrow therapeutic index, concurrent prescription of drugs that affect its metabolism can lead to toxicity or limit its effectiveness.
Certain antibiotics, such as azithromycin, ciprofloxacin, clarithromycin, and erythromycin, can increase the plasma concentration of theophylline if co-prescribed. Therefore, it is important to consider these interactions when prescribing medications to patients taking theophylline.
In cases where the patient is penicillin allergic, doxycycline is a safe option as it doesn’t interfere with theophylline metabolism. By being aware of these interactions, healthcare professionals can ensure the safe and effective use of theophylline in their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 9
Correct
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A 56-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to his GP for a follow-up appointment after experiencing a recent exacerbation that required oral corticosteroids for remission. He reports feeling well with no abdominal symptoms, but has had four exacerbations in the past year that required treatment with oral corticosteroids. His current medications include paracetamol and mesalazine. On examination, his vital signs are within normal limits and his abdominal exam is unremarkable. His recent blood test results show no significant abnormalities. According to NICE guidelines, what is the recommended next step in managing his ulcerative colitis?
Your Answer: Oral thiopurines (azathioprine or mercaptopurine)
Explanation:Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Correct
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Who is authorized to sign the DVLA Notification form for healthcare professionals?
Your Answer: A practice manager
Explanation:DVLA Form 3854: Who Can Complete It?
The DVLA accepts submissions of the Notification form for health professionals form DOM 3854 completed by a nurse, as long as they provide an active NMC number. However, some specialist reports may require a registered medical practitioner’s counter-signature before acceptance.
Typically, the patient’s GP completes DVLA medical reports. However, opticians or optometrists can also complete this particular form, provided they supply their GOC number.
To summarize, the DVLA Form 3854 can be completed by nurses and optometrists, but some specialist reports may require a registered medical practitioner’s counter-signature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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