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  • Question 1 - A 45-year-old man presents with decreased hearing in his right ear. Upon examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents with decreased hearing in his right ear. Upon examination, you observe that his right ear canal is obstructed with wax, while the left ear is unobstructed. What results would you anticipate when conducting Rinne and Weber tests?

      Your Answer: Weber: sound is heard centrally; Rinne: BC > AC on the right and AC > BC on the left

      Correct Answer: Weber: sound localises to the right; Rinne: BC > AC on the right and AC > BC on the left

      Explanation:

      The Rinne and Weber tests are utilized to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss.

      In the case of this individual, there is an obstruction of wax in the right ear canal, which would result in a conductive hearing loss on the right side.

      During the Weber test, the patient should be able to locate the sound to the side of a conductive hearing loss, as bone conduction is enhanced. The sound will be located away from a sensorineural hearing loss.

      If there is a conductive hearing loss, the Rinne test will be negative, as bone conduction is better than air conduction. It will be positive if air conduction is better than bone conduction, which may be the case for mild-moderate sensorineural hearing loss or if there is normal hearing.

      In this instance, the wax blockage causes a conductive hearing loss on the right side. Therefore, during the Weber test, the sound should be localized to the right, and Rinne should be negative on the right side and positive on the left.

      Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness

      Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test indicates that BC is better than AC, suggesting conductive deafness.

      Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking the patient which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.

      The table below summarizes the interpretation of Rinne and Weber tests. A normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally and the sound is midline. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear and AC being greater than BC in the unaffected ear, with the sound lateralizing to the affected ear. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, with the sound lateralizing to the unaffected ear.

      Overall, Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are useful tools for differentiating between conductive and sensorineural deafness, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.

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      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 2 - You are requested to conduct a home visit for Edna, a 72-year-old woman,...

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    • You are requested to conduct a home visit for Edna, a 72-year-old woman, who reports sudden onset of dizziness that started four days ago. The dizziness has been constant since then and causes her to feel unsteady while walking. She has a medical history of migraines and rheumatoid arthritis but has never experienced similar episodes before. She consumes 21 units of alcohol per week and has never smoked.

      During the examination, she can stand and walk but requires support from furniture. You attempt to perform a Romberg test, but she starts to sway as soon as she closes her eyes. Both tympanic membranes appear normal. Cranial nerve examination is unremarkable except for marked nystagmus on vertical gaze. The rest of her neurological examination is normal.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cerebrovascular accident

      Explanation:

      When experiencing sudden dizziness, it can be challenging to determine if it is caused by a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). To differentiate between central (related to the central nervous system) and peripheral (related to the inner ear) causes of vertigo, doctors look for the presence of vertical nystagmus. If present, it indicates a central cause. Other signs of a central cause include the presence of other neurological symptoms and risk factors for CVAs. Labyrinthitis and benign paroxysmal positional vertigo are peripheral causes of vertigo that would cause lateral nystagmus. A space occupying lesion may cause central vertigo, but symptoms would likely have a more gradual onset. Vestibular migraines are a central cause that can cause vertical nystagmus, but the vertigo typically lasts for 4-72 hours, so the persistence of symptoms would not fit this diagnosis.

      Vertigo is a condition characterized by a false sensation of movement in the body or environment. There are various causes of vertigo, each with its own unique characteristics. Viral labyrinthitis, for example, is typically associated with a recent viral infection, sudden onset, nausea and vomiting, and possible hearing loss. Vestibular neuronitis, on the other hand, is characterized by recurrent vertigo attacks lasting hours or days, but with no hearing loss. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo is triggered by changes in head position and lasts for only a few seconds. Meniere’s disease, meanwhile, is associated with hearing loss, tinnitus, and a feeling of fullness or pressure in the ears. Elderly patients with vertigo may be experiencing vertebrobasilar ischaemia, which is accompanied by dizziness upon neck extension. Acoustic neuroma, which is associated with hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus, is also a possible cause of vertigo. Other causes include posterior circulation stroke, trauma, multiple sclerosis, and ototoxicity from medications like gentamicin.

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  • Question 3 - A 56-year-old woman visits the General Practitioner for a check-up. She mentions that...

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    • A 56-year-old woman visits the General Practitioner for a check-up. She mentions that her friends have informed her about her bad breath. From where is this patient's issue most likely originating?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mouth

      Explanation:

      Causes and Treatment of Halitosis

      Halitosis, commonly known as bad breath, affects 80-90% of people with persistent symptoms. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence identifies poor oral hygiene, smoking, periodontal disease, dry mouth, dentures, and poor denture hygiene as the primary causes of halitosis. In such cases, referral to a dentist and a trial of antibacterial mouthwash and toothpaste may be appropriate.

      Less common causes of halitosis include sinusitis, foreign body in the nasal cavities, tonsillitis, tonsil stones in the throat, bronchiectasis in the respiratory tract, acid reflux, and Helicobacter pylori in the gastrointestinal tract. Pseudo-halitosis is a condition in which people falsely believe they have bad breath.

      In conclusion, halitosis can be caused by various factors, and treatment depends on the underlying cause. Maintaining good oral hygiene and seeking medical attention when necessary can help alleviate symptoms and improve overall oral health.

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  • Question 4 - You review a patient who you diagnosed with Meniere's disease last week. Her...

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    • You review a patient who you diagnosed with Meniere's disease last week. Her vertigo has settled but she still has hearing loss and tinnitus on the right side. She is still waiting to be seen by the ENT department but has a few questions about Meniere's disease.

      Which statement below regarding Meniere's disease is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Around half of people with Meniere's disease have bilateral involvement after 5 years if not treated

      Explanation:

      Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is unknown. It is more commonly seen in middle-aged adults but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally. The condition is characterized by the excessive pressure and progressive dilation of the endolymphatic system. The main symptoms of Meniere’s disease are recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. Vertigo is usually the most prominent symptom, but patients may also experience a sensation of aural fullness or pressure, nystagmus, and a positive Romberg test. These episodes can last from minutes to hours and are typically unilateral, but bilateral symptoms may develop over time.

      The natural history of Meniere’s disease is that symptoms usually resolve in the majority of patients after 5-10 years. However, most patients will be left with some degree of hearing loss, and psychological distress is common. ENT assessment is required to confirm the diagnosis, and patients should inform the DVLA as the current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved. Acute attacks can be managed with buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine, and admission to the hospital may be required. Prevention strategies include the use of betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises, which may be beneficial.

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  • Question 5 - A 42-year-old woman presents to her GP for a follow-up appointment. She was...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to her GP for a follow-up appointment. She was diagnosed with Bell's palsy three weeks ago after experiencing left-sided facial weakness. The GP prescribed a 10-day course of oral prednisolone and provided eye care advice. However, the patient reports no improvement in her symptoms since then.

      During the examination, the patient appears healthy but still has left-sided facial weakness without forehead sparing. The rest of her cranial nerve examination is normal, and there is no indication of middle ear disease.

      What would be the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to ear, nose and throat (ENT) specialist

      Explanation:

      If a patient with Bell’s palsy doesn’t show any improvement in paralysis after 3 weeks, it is recommended to urgently refer them to an ENT specialist. This will allow for further investigation into other potential causes of facial weakness, including neuroimaging. It is not appropriate to reassure the patient that symptoms can take up to 3 months to resolve if there has been no improvement. Prescribing a further course of prednisolone or treating with oral aciclovir is not recommended. Referring to a plastic surgeon may be appropriate for facial reconstructive surgery, but usually only after a longer period of residual paralysis.

      Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.

      The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.

      Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.

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  • Question 6 - What combination of findings would be expected in a patient with equal bilateral...

    Incorrect

    • What combination of findings would be expected in a patient with equal bilateral otosclerosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rinne negative both sides with central Weber

      Explanation:

      Understanding Otosclerosis and its Effects on Hearing

      Otosclerosis is a condition that leads to conductive deafness, which means that bone conduction is better than air conduction. When testing for this condition, you would expect to see bilateral negative Rinne with central Weber. However, if the disease is in its early stages, the Rinne test may be equivocal. It is important to note that the second and third options do not make sense in the context of otosclerosis. Understanding the effects of otosclerosis on hearing can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management options.

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  • Question 7 - A 65 year-old man comes to you with complaints of nasal blockage on...

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    • A 65 year-old man comes to you with complaints of nasal blockage on the right side for the past two months. He reports that it is now affecting his sleep. He denies any episodes of bleeding but has been experiencing postnasal drip. Upon examination, you observe a polyp on the right side and inflamed mucosa on both sides. What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to ENT

      Explanation:

      A unilateral nasal polyp is a concerning symptom that requires immediate attention. While bilateral polyps are typically associated with rhinosinusitis, a unilateral polyp may indicate the presence of malignancy. Therefore, it is crucial to refer the patient to an ENT specialist for further evaluation.

      In cases where small bilateral nasal polyps are present, primary care treatment may involve saline nasal douching and intranasal steroids. However, if the polyps are causing significant obstruction, referral to an ENT specialist is necessary.

      Understanding Nasal Polyps

      Nasal polyps are a relatively uncommon condition affecting around 1% of adults in the UK. They are more commonly seen in men and are not typically found in children or the elderly. There are several associations with nasal polyps, including asthma (particularly late-onset asthma), aspirin sensitivity, infective sinusitis, cystic fibrosis, Kartagener’s syndrome, and Churg-Strauss syndrome. When asthma, aspirin sensitivity, and nasal polyposis occur together, it is known as Samter’s triad.

      The most common features of nasal polyps include nasal obstruction, rhinorrhoea, sneezing, and a poor sense of taste and smell. However, if a patient experiences unilateral symptoms or bleeding, further investigation is always necessary.

      If a patient is suspected of having nasal polyps, they should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist for a full examination. Treatment typically involves the use of topical corticosteroids, which can shrink polyp size in around 80% of patients. With proper management, most patients with nasal polyps can experience relief from their symptoms.

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  • Question 8 - A 45-year-old man presents with complaints of dizziness that have developed over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents with complaints of dizziness that have developed over the past two weeks. He experiences episodes of vertigo when he turns his head, particularly when he turns over in bed. He denies any recent illness or injury. The vertigo lasts for several seconds at a time and he reports no hearing loss, ear pain, fullness, or ringing. On examination, there are no abnormalities in cranial nerve function, cerebellar signs, or Romberg's test. Dix-Hallpike testing is positive for rotatory vertigo and nystagmus.

      What is the most appropriate pharmacological approach for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Promethazine 25 mg nocte

      Explanation:

      Management of Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo

      This patient is exhibiting typical signs and symptoms of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV). It is important to note that vestibular sedatives are not effective in managing BPPV. However, the Epley manoeuvre can be performed and taught to the patient, which has been shown to effectively reduce or eliminate symptoms.

      It is also important to remember that no treatment needed is a valid management option for BPPV. This concept is particularly relevant for the MRCGP AKT exam, which tests primary care management skills. As a primary care physician, it is important to recognize when doing nothing is the most appropriate course of action for a patient. Don’t hesitate to select this option if it is the best choice for the patient’s condition.

      Overall, the management of BPPV involves a combination of patient education, reassurance, and appropriate interventions such as the Epley manoeuvre.

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  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of a painful discharging...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of a painful discharging right ear and a mild unilateral right-sided hearing loss that has been going on for 3 days. During examination, the doctor observes an intact tympanic membrane and copious purulent liquid discharge. The patient has a normal heart rate of 70 bpm and is not running a fever.
      What is the most suitable course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe topical antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Management Options for Otitis Externa

      Otitis externa is a common condition characterized by pain, itching, and discharge in the ear canal. Here are some management options for this condition:

      Prescribe Topical Antibiotics: Topical antibiotics are the first-line treatment for otitis externa. Neomycin or clioquinol are recommended, and they may be combined with a topical corticosteroid if there is inflammation and eczema. Aminoglycosides should be used cautiously as second line if there is perforation of the eardrum.

      Prescribe Oral Antibiotics: Oral antibiotics may be necessary if the patient is systemically unwell or there is preauricular lymphadenitis or cellulitis. Flucloxacillin or erythromycin is the drug of choice.

      Refer to Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) for Ear Wick Insertion: If there is extensive swelling of the auditory canal, an ear wick may be used. This is impregnated with antibiotic-steroid combination and is inserted into the auditory canal. However, if the tympanic membrane is visible, topical antibiotics would be the first-line treatment.

      Prescribe Analgesia Only: Paracetamol or ibuprofen is usually sufficient for analgesia in cases of otitis externa. However, analgesia should be used in combination with antibiotics to aid in curing and preventing the worsening of symptoms.

      Do Not Prescribe Topical Antifungals: Topical antifungals are not indicated in simple cases of otitis externa. They may be necessary if there is a secondary fungal infection, but this is not described in this case.

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  • Question 10 - What is the correct option regarding nasal polyps? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct option regarding nasal polyps?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Have a pinkish red appearance

      Explanation:

      Nasal Polyps: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Nasal polyps are growths that develop in the nasal passages, with the majority arising in the ethmoid sinuses. While allergy is the main cause, there may also be an infective component. Antrochoanal polyps, which are associated with chronic infection, are much rarer and arise from the maxillary sinuses. These growths have a yellowish-grey appearance, and any pink or red polyps should be regarded as suspicious.

      Symptoms of nasal polyps include blockage of the nasal passages, leading to anosmia or loss of smell. Treatment typically involves the use of topical steroids, which can help to reduce the size of the polyps. However, surgical removal may be necessary in some cases, and recurrence is common. While smell is usually restored after treatment, it may not always be fully regained. Overall, understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for nasal polyps can help individuals to manage this condition effectively.

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  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old man comes in for a routine check-up with his GP. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man comes in for a routine check-up with his GP. He is a non-smoker and has been feeling generally well. However, he has noticed that his gums have been bleeding when he brushes his teeth. He admits that he has been under a lot of stress lately and has not been brushing his teeth as regularly as he should.

      Upon examination, there are no signs of ulceration or leukoplakia. The margins of his gums appear red but are not actively bleeding. There is no evidence of a dental abscess, and he has no fever.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action based on his current presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise he should arrange routine dental review

      Explanation:

      Patients who present with gingivitis should be advised to regularly visit a dentist for routine check-ups. Antibiotics are typically not necessary for this condition.

      There is no need for urgent dental review, as there are no signs of acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis or oral malignancy. Benzydamine mouthwash may provide temporary pain relief, but it is not recommended for gingivitis. Chlorhexidine mouthwash may be used as an adjunct to dental review and antibiotic therapy for necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.

      In cases of simple gingivitis, antibiotics are generally not prescribed.

      Understanding Gingivitis and its Management

      Gingivitis is a dental condition that is commonly caused by poor oral hygiene. It is characterized by red and swollen gums that bleed easily. In severe cases, it can lead to acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, which is accompanied by painful bleeding gums, bad breath, and ulcers on the gums.

      For patients with simple gingivitis, regular dental check-ups are recommended, and antibiotics are usually not necessary. However, for those with acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, it is important to seek immediate dental attention. In the meantime, oral metronidazole or amoxicillin may be prescribed for three days, along with chlorhexidine or hydrogen peroxide mouthwash and simple pain relief medication.

      It is crucial to maintain good oral hygiene to prevent gingivitis from developing or worsening. This includes brushing teeth twice a day, flossing daily, and using mouthwash regularly. By understanding the causes and management of gingivitis, individuals can take steps to protect their oral health and prevent complications.

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  • Question 12 - A 47-year-old man visits his primary care physician with concerns about a persistent...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man visits his primary care physician with concerns about a persistent ulcer on his tongue that has been growing for a few weeks. He is a heavy smoker, consuming 30 cigarettes a day, and drinks alcohol regularly. Upon examination, the physician notes bilateral submandibular lymphadenopathy, multiple dental caries, and a 1-cm ulcer on the lateral border of his tongue. What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer under 2-week rule

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of Tongue Cancer

      Tongue cancer is a common type of oral cancer, with about 75% of cases occurring on the mobile tongue. It typically presents as a persistent growing lesion, which may be painless or painful. Carcinoma of the tongue base is often clinically silent until it infiltrates the musculature. Risk factors for tongue cancer include poor dental hygiene, smoking, drinking, and betel and pan consumption in ethnic minorities.

      All suspicious tongue lesions should be referred urgently under the 2-week rule for exclusion of malignancy. Treatment options for tongue cancer include surgery and radiotherapy. The overall 5-year survival rates are 60% for women and 40% for men.

      It is important to note that prescribing Tri Adcortyl® ointment or antibiotics would not be appropriate for the management of tongue cancer. Instead, urgent referral for further evaluation and treatment is necessary.

      In some cases, a chancre caused by syphilis may present as a solitary, painless, indurated, reddish ulcer on the oral mucosa. Therefore, testing for syphilis and treating if positive may be necessary in some cases. However, it is important to differentiate between syphilis and tongue cancer, as the management and prognosis differ significantly.

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  • Question 13 - You have a follow-up appointment with a 4-year-old boy. He was seen two...

    Incorrect

    • You have a follow-up appointment with a 4-year-old boy. He was seen two weeks ago for left-sided ear pain and discharge, for which you prescribed amoxicillin. Today, his mother reports that he has improved and she has been able to keep his ear dry. However, upon examination of the left ear, a tympanic membrane perforation is observed. What should be done next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise to keep ear dry and see in a further 4 weeks time

      Explanation:

      Perforated Tympanic Membrane: Causes and Management

      A perforated tympanic membrane, also known as a ruptured eardrum, is often caused by an infection but can also result from barotrauma or direct trauma. This condition can lead to hearing loss and increase the risk of otitis media.

      In most cases, no treatment is necessary as the tympanic membrane will typically heal on its own within 6-8 weeks. However, it is important to avoid getting water in the ear during this time. Antibiotics may be prescribed if the perforation occurs after an episode of acute otitis media. This approach is supported by the 2008 Respiratory Tract Infection Guidelines from NICE.

      If the tympanic membrane doesn’t heal by itself, myringoplasty may be performed. This surgical procedure involves repairing the perforation with a graft of tissue taken from another part of the body. With proper management, a perforated tympanic membrane can be successfully treated and hearing can be restored.

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  • Question 14 - Samantha is a 7-year-old girl who has presented with impacted earwax which has...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 7-year-old girl who has presented with impacted earwax which has failed to improve with olive oil drops. Ear irrigation has been recommended.

      Which of the following would be a contraindication to this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Grommets in situ

      Explanation:

      Ear irrigation should not be performed on patients with grommets as it is a contraindication. Additionally, individuals who have had otitis media within the past 6 weeks should also avoid ear irrigation. However, there are no other listed conditions that would prevent someone from undergoing this procedure.

      Understanding earwax and Its Impacts

      earwax is a natural substance produced by the body to protect the ear canal. However, it is not uncommon for earwax to become impacted, leading to a range of symptoms such as pain, hearing loss, tinnitus, and vertigo. In such cases, treatment is necessary to alleviate the discomfort caused by the impacted earwax. Primary care options for treatment include ear drops or irrigation, also known as ‘ear syringing’. It is important to note that treatment should not be administered if there is a suspected perforation or if the patient has grommets. Ear drops such as olive oil, sodium bicarbonate 5%, and almond oil can be used to help alleviate the symptoms of impacted earwax.

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  • Question 15 - A 2-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother. She has a history of recurrent otitis media and has been touching her right ear frequently for the past 3 days. She was restless and had a fever overnight, and now has a red, boggy swelling behind her right ear that is more prominent than on the left. During the examination, the child appears unhappy, with a temperature of 39.2ºC, a heart rate of 170 beats/minute, and a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute. Due to her distress, it is difficult to examine her ears, but the left ear canal and tympanic membrane appear normal, while the right ear canal and tympanic membrane appear red. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mastoiditis

      Explanation:

      Mastoiditis is a bacterial infection that is particularly serious and commonly affects children. It often occurs as a result of prolonged otitis media. The infection can cause the porous bone to deteriorate, and severe cases may require surgery and intravenous antibiotics. Acute otitis media is an infection of the inner ear and typically doesn’t cause swelling. However, mastoiditis can develop as a complication of otitis media. The patient in question has no history of trauma that could explain the described swelling, which is also not in the correct location to be a parotid swelling. While lymphadenitis can cause an erythematous swelling, it is usually described as soft, fluctuant, and tender and is typically found post auricularly rather than over the mastoid process.

      In 2008, NICE released guidelines for the management of respiratory tract infections in primary care, specifically focusing on the prescribing of antibiotics for self-limiting infections in both adults and children. The guidelines recommend a no antibiotic or delayed antibiotic prescribing approach for acute otitis media, acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis, common cold, acute rhinosinusitis, and acute cough/acute bronchitis. However, an immediate antibiotic prescribing approach may be considered for certain patients, such as children under 2 years with bilateral acute otitis media or patients with acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis who have 3 or more Centor criteria present. The guidelines also suggest advising patients on the expected duration of their respiratory tract infection. If a patient is deemed at risk of developing complications, an immediate antibiotic prescribing policy is recommended. This includes patients who are systemically unwell, have symptoms and signs suggestive of serious illness and/or complications, or are at high risk of serious complications due to pre-existing comorbidity.

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  • Question 16 - You see a 28-year-old female patient with painful mouth ulcers. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 28-year-old female patient with painful mouth ulcers. She has been experiencing coryzal symptoms for the past week. The patient has around 5 small shallow ulcers scattered around her gums and inside her cheeks. The ulcers have been present for 2 days, and she is having difficulty eating and drinking. The patient has no significant medical history and is generally healthy. She smokes 5-10 cigarettes daily.

      What is the accurate statement about aphthous mouth ulcers?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aphthous ulcers are more common in non-smokers

      Explanation:

      Aphthous mouth ulcers are painful sores that are circular or oval in shape and are found only in the mouth. They are not associated with any systemic disease and often occur repeatedly, usually starting in childhood. These ulcers can be caused by damage to the mouth, such as biting the cheek or brushing too hard, or may be due to a genetic predisposition. Other factors that can trigger these ulcers include stress, certain foods, stopping smoking, and hormonal changes related to the menstrual cycle.

      Aphthous ulcers are characterized by their round or oval shape, a clearly defined margin, a yellowish-grey slough on the floor, and a red periphery. They usually appear on non-keratinized mucosal surfaces, such as the inside of the lips, cheeks, floor of the mouth, or undersurface of the tongue. In most cases, investigations are not necessary, but they may be considered if an underlying systemic disease is suspected.

      Treatment for aphthous ulcers involves avoiding any factors that may trigger them and providing symptomatic relief for pain, discomfort, and swelling. This may include using a low potency topical corticosteroid, an antimicrobial mouthwash, or a topical analgesic. Most ulcers will heal within two weeks without leaving any scars. However, if a mouth ulcer persists for more than three weeks, it is important to seek urgent referral to a specialist.

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  • Question 17 - A 42-year-old man presents with tinnitus. No subjective hearing loss or other symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents with tinnitus. No subjective hearing loss or other symptoms are reported. He is systemically well. He has had tinnitus for several years but over time the tinnitus has had an increasing psychological effect on his well-being. He has previously been seen recently for the first time with regards his tinnitus and was given tinnitus support (information provision and discussion of management options) and was also referred for audiological assessment which is pending.

      He is not suicidal but has become increasingly distressed by the tinnitus which is persistent and intrusive. He struggles to sleep and has become increasingly depressed. It has got to the point over the last week where due to his tinnitus he can't cope to go to work and is spending days at home feeling unable to do anything productive. He has no past history of any mental health problems and just wants to feel better and for his tinnitus to be less intrusive.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate management strategy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently (to be seen within 2 weeks) for specialist assessment

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Tinnitus Management

      NICE has recently released guidelines for the assessment, investigation, and management of tinnitus. Tinnitus support is a crucial aspect of these guidelines, which involves healthcare professionals discussing difficulties, goals, and management plans with patients. It is important to note that the psychological impact of tinnitus should not be overlooked, and the guidelines include consideration of psychological aspects. Those with tinnitus associated with a high risk of suicide should be referred immediately for crisis mental health input. Additionally, those with tinnitus that affects their mental well-being and prevents them from carrying out daily activities should be referred for further assessment and management within two weeks. It is important to note that betahistine should not be used to treat tinnitus alone, as evidence suggests that it doesn’t improve symptoms and may cause adverse effects.

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  • Question 18 - You encounter a 50-year-old woman during your afternoon clinic. She reports experiencing sudden...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 50-year-old woman during your afternoon clinic. She reports experiencing sudden episodes where the room spins uncontrollably, accompanied by nausea and occasional vomiting. Additionally, she feels as though her hearing is impaired on the right side and experiences a ringing sound and a feeling of fullness on that side. Based on these symptoms, you suspect that she may have Meniere's disease. What is a true statement about this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sensorineural hearing loss is a symptom of Meniere's disease

      Explanation:

      Meniere’s disease is characterized by sensorineural hearing loss, which can worsen over time and eventually result in profound bilateral hearing loss.

      Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is unknown. It is more commonly seen in middle-aged adults but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally. The condition is characterized by the excessive pressure and progressive dilation of the endolymphatic system. The main symptoms of Meniere’s disease are recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. Vertigo is usually the most prominent symptom, but patients may also experience a sensation of aural fullness or pressure, nystagmus, and a positive Romberg test. These episodes can last from minutes to hours and are typically unilateral, but bilateral symptoms may develop over time.

      The natural history of Meniere’s disease is that symptoms usually resolve in the majority of patients after 5-10 years. However, most patients will be left with some degree of hearing loss, and psychological distress is common. ENT assessment is required to confirm the diagnosis, and patients should inform the DVLA as the current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved. Acute attacks can be managed with buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine, and admission to the hospital may be required. Prevention strategies include the use of betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises, which may be beneficial.

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  • Question 19 - A 50-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of recurrent vertigo that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of recurrent vertigo that has been going on for 6 months. She reports experiencing episodes that last from a few minutes to several hours, accompanied by tinnitus and decreased hearing in her left ear. She denies any identifiable triggers that worsen her symptoms. She has no significant medical history. Her ear and cranial nerve examinations are normal.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ménière's disease

      Explanation:

      Meniere’s disease is characterized by spontaneous episodes of vertigo lasting minutes to hours, accompanied by unilateral hearing loss and tinnitus. This clinical presentation suggests a diagnosis of Meniere’s disease, which should be confirmed by referral to an ENT specialist and formal audiometry. The cause of Meniere’s disease is unknown, but it may be associated with raised endolymph pressure in the inner ear. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo, labyrinthitis, and vestibular neuronitis are not likely diagnoses, as they present with different symptoms and characteristics.

      Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is unknown. It is more commonly seen in middle-aged adults but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally. The condition is characterized by the excessive pressure and progressive dilation of the endolymphatic system. The main symptoms of Meniere’s disease are recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. Vertigo is usually the most prominent symptom, but patients may also experience a sensation of aural fullness or pressure, nystagmus, and a positive Romberg test. These episodes can last from minutes to hours and are typically unilateral, but bilateral symptoms may develop over time.

      The natural history of Meniere’s disease is that symptoms usually resolve in the majority of patients after 5-10 years. However, most patients will be left with some degree of hearing loss, and psychological distress is common. ENT assessment is required to confirm the diagnosis, and patients should inform the DVLA as the current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved. Acute attacks can be managed with buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine, and admission to the hospital may be required. Prevention strategies include the use of betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises, which may be beneficial.

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  • Question 20 - A 26-year-old man comes to you with complaints of a persistent sore throat...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man comes to you with complaints of a persistent sore throat and occasional hoarseness that has been bothering him for a few months. He expresses concern that there may be something lodged in his throat, but he is able to swallow without difficulty. He denies any significant weight loss and has no notable medical or family history.

      During your examination, you observe mild redness in the oropharynx, but the neck appears normal and there are no palpable masses.

      What would be the best course of action in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe a trial of a proton pump inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Understanding Laryngopharyngeal Reflux

      Laryngopharyngeal reflux (LPR) is a condition that occurs when stomach acid flows back into the throat, causing inflammation in the larynx and hypopharynx mucosa. It is a common diagnosis, accounting for approximately 10% of ear, nose, and throat referrals. Symptoms of LPR include a sensation of a lump in the throat, hoarseness, chronic cough, dysphagia, heartburn, and sore throat. The external examination of the neck should be normal, with no masses, and the posterior pharynx may appear erythematous.

      Diagnosis of LPR can be made without further investigations in the absence of red flags. However, the NICE cancer referral guidelines should be reviewed for red flags such as persistent, unilateral throat discomfort, dysphagia, and persistent hoarseness. Lifestyle measures such as avoiding fatty foods, caffeine, chocolate, and alcohol can help manage LPR. Additionally, proton pump inhibitors and sodium alginate liquids like Gaviscon can also be used to manage symptoms.

      In summary, Laryngopharyngeal reflux is a common condition that can cause discomfort and inflammation in the throat. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention if red flags are present. Lifestyle measures and medication can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life.

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  • Question 21 - A 25-year-old male comes to the GP complaining of a lump in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male comes to the GP complaining of a lump in his throat and increasing hoarseness that has been present for the past 3 weeks. He reports having a cold 4 weeks ago but denies experiencing heartburn, weight loss, nausea and vomiting, or difficulty swallowing. He is a non-smoker and drinks 12 units of alcohol per week. There is no significant medical history to note.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Laryngopharyngeal reflux

      Explanation:

      Laryngopharyngeal reflux may be the cause of globus and hoarseness in the absence of any red flags. This condition is often referred to as ‘silent’ reflux. While globus hystericus is a symptom of anxiety, it is unlikely to persist without other autonomic symptoms. Gastro-oesophageal reflux, on the other hand, is characterized by retrosternal burning and regurgitation that worsens when lying down or leaning forward and is relieved by antacids. Post-nasal drip, which is commonly triggered by colds and flu, typically presents with an intractable cough or throat clearing that is worse at night.

      Understanding Laryngopharyngeal Reflux

      Laryngopharyngeal reflux (LPR) is a condition that occurs when stomach acid flows back into the throat, causing inflammation in the larynx and hypopharynx mucosa. It is a common diagnosis, accounting for approximately 10% of ear, nose, and throat referrals. Symptoms of LPR include a sensation of a lump in the throat, hoarseness, chronic cough, dysphagia, heartburn, and sore throat. The external examination of the neck should be normal, with no masses, and the posterior pharynx may appear erythematous.

      Diagnosis of LPR can be made without further investigations in the absence of red flags. However, the NICE cancer referral guidelines should be reviewed for red flags such as persistent, unilateral throat discomfort, dysphagia, and persistent hoarseness. Lifestyle measures such as avoiding fatty foods, caffeine, chocolate, and alcohol can help manage LPR. Additionally, proton pump inhibitors and sodium alginate liquids like Gaviscon can also be used to manage symptoms.

      In summary, Laryngopharyngeal reflux is a common condition that can cause discomfort and inflammation in the throat. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention if red flags are present. Lifestyle measures and medication can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life.

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  • Question 22 - A 63-year-old man comes to the clinic with his wife for evaluation. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man comes to the clinic with his wife for evaluation. He has been experiencing a change in his voice with constant hoarseness and a chronic dry cough for the past six weeks. He attributes this to a previous cold and chest infection and believes it will improve over time.
      He is a heavy smoker, consuming 25 cigarettes per day for the past 50 years. He has a history of COPD and is currently taking a high dose Seretide inhaler. On examination, his BP is 145/85 mmHg, pulse is 75 and regular, and chest auscultation reveals scattered wheezing.
      Investigations reveal:
      Hb 134 g/L (135-180)
      WCC 8.0 ×109/L (4.5-10)
      PLT 179 ×109/L (150-450)
      Na 137 mmol/L (135-145)
      K 4.7 mmol/L (3.5-5.5)
      Cr 122 µmol/L (70-110)
      ECG shows sinus rhythm.
      CXR (arranged by another GP partner) shows no mass lesion identified.
      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent ENT referral

      Explanation:

      Urgent Investigation for Hoarseness

      Under NICE guidance, patients who present with hoarseness for more than three weeks require urgent investigation for possible cancer. In this case, a chest x-ray did not show an underlying cancer, but an ENT referral for laryngoscopy is warranted.

      While inadequate oral hygiene after inhaler use leading to candida infection is a possibility, the absence of oral candida makes it unlikely. Speech therapy is an option to maximize vocal effectiveness, and it is effective for hoarseness related to organic pathology such as nodules or polyps, and non-organic laryngeal dysfunction (for example, muscle tension dysphonia).

      Stopping the use of Seretide is inappropriate because it is likely to worsen symptoms of COPD and is unlikely to elucidate the underlying cause of the hoarseness. It is important to investigate the cause of hoarseness to ensure prompt and appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 23 - A 50-year-old man presents with classic symptoms of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents with classic symptoms of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) and is concerned about the likelihood of recurrence. He reports multiple episodes of the room spinning when he moves his head, lasting 30 seconds to 1 minute. You explain that while symptoms often resolve without treatment over several weeks, the Epley manoeuvre can be offered to alleviate symptoms. The patient, who is a driver, is disabled by his symptoms and would like to know the chances of recurrence over the next 3-5 years.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Approximately 50% of individuals diagnosed with BPPV will experience a relapse of symptoms within 3 to 5 years.

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common cause of vertigo that occurs suddenly when there is a change in head position. It is more prevalent in individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. Symptoms of BPPV include dizziness and vertigo, which can be accompanied by nausea. Each episode typically lasts for 10-20 seconds and can be triggered by rolling over in bed or looking upwards. A positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, which is indicated by vertigo and rotatory nystagmus, can confirm the diagnosis of BPPV.

      Fortunately, BPPV has a good prognosis and usually resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Treatment options include the Epley manoeuvre, which is successful in around 80% of cases, and vestibular rehabilitation exercises such as the Brandt-Daroff exercises. While medication such as Betahistine may be prescribed, it tends to have limited effectiveness. However, it is important to note that around half of individuals with BPPV may experience a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after their initial diagnosis.

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  • Question 24 - A 40-year-old man presents to the GP with episodes of dizziness that began...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man presents to the GP with episodes of dizziness that began two weeks ago. These episodes occur randomly but are worsened when he changes the position of his head. His most recent episode lasted longer than a day and was particularly uncomfortable, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. During a cranial nerve examination, the GP observes horizontal nystagmus. The patient denies experiencing any aural symptoms like tinnitus. When asked about his overall health, the patient reports having had a viral upper respiratory tract infection the previous week.

      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vestibular neuronitis

      Explanation:

      Horizontal nystagmus is a common symptom of vestibular neuronitis, which is caused by inflammation of the vestibular nerve. This condition typically presents with vertigo, nausea, vomiting, and balance problems, but doesn’t cause hearing loss as the cochlear nerve is not affected. The presence of horizontal nystagmus helps to rule out a central cause of vertigo, such as a stroke.

      Acoustic neuroma, on the other hand, is characterized by a tumor that compresses the eighth cranial nerve, leading to symptoms such as vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. Meniere’s disease is another condition that causes sudden episodes of vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus, but also involves a sensation of fullness in the ears due to an abnormal amount of endolymph in the inner ear. However, the absence of tinnitus in the patient in the vignette makes these diagnoses less likely.

      A posterior circulation stroke can also cause nystagmus, vertigo, and nausea, but these symptoms typically come on suddenly and are accompanied by ataxia, unilateral limb weakness, and an altered mental state. In addition, a central cause of vertigo would result in vertical nystagmus rather than horizontal nystagmus.

      Viral labyrinthitis is similar to vestibular neuronitis, but is more likely to cause hearing loss and tinnitus. In vestibular neuronitis, only the vestibular nerve is affected, while hearing is spared.

      Understanding Vestibular Neuronitis

      Vestibular neuronitis is a type of vertigo that typically occurs after a viral infection. It is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo that can last for hours or days, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Horizontal nystagmus is also a common symptom, but there is no hearing loss or tinnitus.

      It is important to differentiate vestibular neuronitis from other conditions such as viral labyrinthitis and posterior circulation stroke. The HiNTs exam can be used to distinguish between these conditions.

      Treatment for vestibular neuronitis typically involves medication to alleviate symptoms, such as buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine for severe cases, or a short course of oral medication for less severe cases. Vestibular rehabilitation exercises are also recommended for patients who experience chronic symptoms.

      Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for vestibular neuronitis can help individuals manage this condition and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 25 - A 32-year-old man presents with recurrent itchy ears.
    Which of the following statements about...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents with recurrent itchy ears.
      Which of the following statements about this condition is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It may be precipitated by overzealous use of cotton buds

      Explanation:

      Understanding Otitis Externa: Myths and Facts

      Otitis externa, commonly known as swimmer’s ear, is a condition that affects the skin of the external ear canal. Here are some common myths and facts about this condition:

      Myth: Otitis externa is always bacterial in origin.
      Fact: While bacterial pathogens are frequently involved, viral and fungal pathogens may also be seen, particularly after prolonged use of corticosteroid drops.

      Myth: If adequately treated, otitis externa is unlikely to recur.
      Fact: Otitis externa is commonly recurrent, especially in the presence of a predisposing factor, such as a chronic underlying skin disease, immunodeficiency or diabetes.

      Myth: Systemic complications are common.
      Fact: Severe infections may cause local lymphadenitis or cellulitis. Rarely, infection may invade the deeper adjacent structures and progress to necrotising (malignant) otitis externa, a condition that can cause serious morbidity and also mortality. This is mainly seen in immunocompromised individuals, particularly people with diabetes.

      Myth: The use of aminoglycoside antibiotics is contraindicated.
      Fact: In a patient who doesn’t have grommets or a perforated eardrum, aminoglycosides (eg gentamicin) or polymyxin drops are not contraindicated. When the eardrum is not intact, there is concern about ototoxicity. If necessary, they can be used in these circumstances, with caution, by specialists.

      Debunking Myths About Otitis Externa

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  • Question 26 - A 20-year-old woman presents with a painful throat. She has been experiencing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman presents with a painful throat. She has been experiencing a sore throat and painful swallowing for the past few days, but her symptoms have worsened over the last 24 hours. She now has neck pain and difficulty opening her mouth fully.
      Upon examination, her temperature is 38.9 °C and her throat shows a displaced uvula, an enlarged right tonsil, and swelling around the right tonsil.
      What is the best initial management strategy for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange hospital admission

      Explanation:

      Peritonsillar Abscess: A Serious Complication of Sore Throat

      When evaluating a patient with a sore throat, it is crucial for clinicians to be aware of any potential serious causes or complications. One such condition is a peritonsillar abscess, which requires hospital admission and immediate treatment.

      A peritonsillar abscess can lead to airway obstruction, deeper spread of infection, and abscess rupture. Therefore, it is important to check for clinical features such as difficulty swallowing, fever, and severe throat pain.

      The initial management for a peritonsillar abscess is to arrange hospital admission. Once admitted, the patient can receive inpatient treatment in a safe environment with immediate care and monitoring. Treatment typically involves aspiration or drainage of the abscess, along with antibiotic use and pain relief.

      In summary, a peritonsillar abscess is a serious complication of sore throat that requires prompt recognition and management. Hospital admission is necessary to ensure the patient’s safety and prevent further complications.

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  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old woman has a slowly enlarging, unilateral, smooth, painless lump below her...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has a slowly enlarging, unilateral, smooth, painless lump below her left ear.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pleomorphic adenoma

      Explanation:

      Salivary Gland Neoplasms: Common Benign Tumors and Signs of Malignancy

      Salivary gland neoplasms are mostly benign, with pleomorphic adenoma being the most common. Pain may occur, and a persistent and unexplained neck lump warrants urgent referral. Mumps is not a likely cause as it typically affects both parotid glands. Lymphoma usually causes enlargement of multiple lymph nodes, while parotid carcinoma is much less common than pleomorphic adenoma. Malignant tumors may present with rapid growth, hardness, fixation, tenderness, lymph node involvement, and metastatic disease. Infiltration may affect local sensory nerves and the facial nerve. Reactive lymphadenopathy usually involves multiple lymph nodes and is transient.

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  • Question 28 - A 4-year-old girl has had frequent upper respiratory tract infections and also frequently...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl has had frequent upper respiratory tract infections and also frequently complains of earache.
      Select from the list the single feature that would most suggest a diagnosis of otitis media with effusion (OME) rather than acute otitis media.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Presence of bubbles and a fluid level behind the eardrum

      Explanation:

      Understanding Otitis Media with Effusion (Glue Ear)

      Otitis media with effusion, commonly known as glue ear, is a condition characterized by inflammation of the middle ear and the accumulation of fluid in the middle-ear cleft. This condition is prevalent in young children, with most experiencing at least one episode during early childhood. Although most episodes are brief, symptoms such as earache and hearing loss can occur. Hearing loss can be significant, especially if it persists for more than a month and affects both ears. However, not all cases of glue ear present with hearing loss.

      It is important to note that a normal-looking eardrum doesn’t necessarily exclude the possibility of OME. Otoscopic features of OME may include opacification of the drum, loss of the light reflex, indrawn or retracted drum, decreased mobility of the drum, bubbles or fluid level behind the drum, yellow or amber color change to the drum, and fullness or bulging of the drum. It is worth noting that acute otitis media may also present with earache and hearing loss, and the eardrum may appear redder and bulge.

      In conclusion, understanding the symptoms and signs of OME is crucial in diagnosing and managing this condition. If you suspect that you or your child may have glue ear, seek medical attention promptly.

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  • Question 29 - A 27-year-old man urgently books an appointment at your clinic. He complains of...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man urgently books an appointment at your clinic. He complains of left-sided facial pain and malaise that has been ongoing for two weeks. He mentions that his symptoms initially improved after a week, but then worsened again, and he now feels worse than he did initially. He has no significant medical history.

      During the examination, you note a low-grade fever of 37.9 degrees, but all other observations are normal. Anterior rhinoscopy reveals a purulent discharge from the left middle meatus, but there are no abnormalities in the eyes or periorbital tissues.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bacterial sinusitis

      Explanation:

      The man’s symptoms suggest bacterial sinusitis, as he has experienced a double sickening where his symptoms initially improved but then suddenly worsened. This is often caused by a secondary bacterial infection following a viral rhinosinusitis. The presence of a fever and purulent discharge seen on rhinoscopy further support this diagnosis.

      Trigeminal neuralgia would not cause a fever, while sialadenitis would result in swelling of only one salivary gland. Cavernous sinus thrombosis is a rare complication of bacterial sinusitis and is not likely in this case.

      Acute sinusitis is a condition where the mucous membranes of the paranasal sinuses become inflamed. This inflammation is usually caused by infectious agents such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenza, and rhinoviruses. Certain factors can predispose individuals to this condition, including nasal obstruction, recent local infections, swimming/diving, and smoking. Symptoms of acute sinusitis include facial pain, nasal discharge, and nasal obstruction. Treatment options include analgesia, intranasal decongestants or nasal saline, and intranasal corticosteroids. Oral antibiotics may be necessary for severe presentations, but they are not typically required. In some cases, an initial viral sinusitis can worsen due to secondary bacterial infection, which is known as double-sickening.

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  • Question 30 - A 60-year-old man who is a smoker presents with hoarseness of his voice,...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man who is a smoker presents with hoarseness of his voice, firm cervical nodes and difficulty in swallowing.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma of the larynx

      Explanation:

      Types of Head and Neck Cancer: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type of cancer in the upper airway, with the larynx being the most likely location. Symptoms may include pain radiating to the ear, weight loss, and stridor in advanced cases. Small cell carcinoma of the larynx is rare. Adenocarcinoma of the hypopharynx is relatively rare and usually squamous cell carcinoma. Adenocarcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma are common varieties of oesophageal cancer, with dysphagia, anorexia, weight loss, vomiting, and gastrointestinal bleeding being red flag features. Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type of tonsillar cancer, with symptoms including a sore throat, ear pain, a foreign body sensation, bleeding, and a neck mass. Tonsillar enlargement may be the only sign if the tumour growth is below the surface, or there may be a fungating mass.

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