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Question 1
Correct
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A 55-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of chest pain and difficulty breathing. He had been hospitalized four weeks ago for acute coronary syndrome and was discharged on bisoprolol, simvastatin, aspirin, and ramipril. During the examination, a narrow complex tachycardia is observed. What is the absolute contraindication in this scenario?
Your Answer: Verapamil
Explanation:Verapamil and Beta Blockers: A Dangerous Combination
Verapamil is a type of medication that blocks calcium channels in the heart, leading to a decrease in cardiac output and a slower heart rate. However, it also has negative effects on the heart’s ability to contract, making it a highly negatively inotropic drug. Additionally, it may impair the conduction of electrical signals between the atria and ventricles of the heart.
According to the British National Formulary (BNF), verapamil should not be given to patients who are already taking beta blockers. This is because the combination of these two drugs can lead to dangerously low blood pressure and even asystole, a condition where the heart stops beating altogether.
Therefore, it is important for healthcare professionals to carefully consider a patient’s medication history before prescribing verapamil. If a patient is already taking beta blockers, alternative treatments should be considered to avoid the potentially life-threatening consequences of combining these two drugs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old man with heart failure and depression is discovered to have a sodium level of 130. He is not experiencing any symptoms, and his heart failure and depression are under control. He has slight pitting pedal oedema. He is currently taking ramipril, bisoprolol, simvastatin and citalopram.
What is the optimal approach to managing this patient?Your Answer: Advise him to increase his salt intake
Correct Answer: Restrict his fluid input to 1.5 l/day and recheck in 3 days
Explanation:Managing Hyponatraemia: Considerations and Options
Hyponatraemia, a condition characterized by low serum sodium levels, requires careful management to avoid potential complications. The first step in treating hyponatraemia is to restrict fluid intake to reverse any dilution and address the underlying cause. Administering saline should only be considered if fluid restriction fails, as treating hyponatraemia too quickly can lead to central pontine myelinolysis.
In cases where hyponatraemia is caused by medication, such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), it may be necessary to adjust or discontinue the medication. However, abrupt discontinuation of SSRIs can cause withdrawal symptoms, so patients should be gradually weaned off over several weeks or months.
It is also important to consider other factors that may contribute to hyponatraemia, such as heart failure or hypokalaemia. However, administering intravenous saline or increasing salt intake may not be appropriate in all cases and could worsen underlying conditions.
Overall, managing hyponatraemia requires careful consideration of the underlying cause and potential treatment options to avoid complications and promote optimal patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman visits her GP after being discharged from the hospital. She was admitted three weeks ago due to chest pain and was diagnosed with a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction. During her hospital stay, she was prescribed several new medications to prevent future cardiac events and is seeking further guidance on her statin dosage. What is the most suitable advice to provide?
Your Answer: Atorvastatin 20 mg od
Correct Answer: Atorvastatin 80 mg od
Explanation:Choosing the Right Statin Dose for Secondary Prevention of Coronary Events
All patients who have had a myocardial infarction should be started on an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, a beta-blocker, a high-intensity statin, and antiplatelet therapy. Before starting a statin, liver function tests should be checked. The recommended statin dose for secondary prevention, as per NICE guidelines, is atorvastatin 80 mg od. Simvastatin 40 mg od is not the most appropriate drug of choice for secondary prevention, and atorvastatin is preferred due to its reduced incidence of myopathy. While simvastatin 80 mg od is an appropriate high-intensity statin therapy, atorvastatin is still preferred. Atorvastatin 20 mg od and 40 mg od are too low a dose to start with, and the dose may need to be increased to 80 mg in the future.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 49-year-old woman presents to the Cardiology clinic with a heart murmur. During the physical exam, the patient exhibits a collapsing pulse. Upon auscultation, a 2/5 early diastolic murmur is heard at the lower left sternal edge, which is more pronounced during expiration.
What is the most probable clinical sign that will be observed?Your Answer: Corrigan’s sign
Explanation:Cardiac Signs and Their Associated Conditions
Corrigan’s Sign: This sign is characterized by an abrupt distension and collapse of the carotid arteries, indicating aortic incompetence. It is often seen in patients with a collapsing pulse and an early diastolic murmur, which are suggestive of aortic regurgitation. A wide pulse pressure may also be found.
Malar Flush: Mitral stenosis is associated with malar flush, a mid-diastolic murmur, loudest at the apex when the patient is in the left lateral position, and a tapping apex. A small-volume pulse is also typical.
Tapping Apex: A tapping apex is a classical sign of mitral stenosis.
Pulsatile Hepatomegaly: Severe tricuspid regurgitation can cause reverse blood flow to the liver during systole, resulting in pulsatile hepatomegaly.
Clubbing: Clubbing is more commonly seen in lung pathology and is unlikely to present in aortic regurgitation. It is seen in congenital cyanotic heart disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old man experiences persistent, intense chest pain that spreads to his left arm. Despite taking multiple antacid tablets, he finds no relief. He eventually seeks medical attention at the Emergency Department and is diagnosed with a heart attack. He is admitted to the hospital and stabilized before being discharged five days later.
About three weeks later, the man begins to experience a constant, burning sensation in his chest. He returns to the hospital, where a friction rub is detected during auscultation. Additionally, his heart sounds are muffled.
What is the most likely cause of this complication, given the man's medical history?Your Answer: Viral infection
Correct Answer: Autoimmune phenomenon
Explanation:Understanding Dressler Syndrome
Dressler syndrome is a condition that occurs several weeks after a myocardial infarction (MI) and results in fibrinous pericarditis with fever and pleuropericardial chest pain. It is believed to be an autoimmune phenomenon, rather than a result of viral, bacterial, or fungal infections. While these types of infections can cause pericarditis, they are less likely in the context of a recent MI. Chlamydial infection, in particular, does not cause pericarditis. Understanding the underlying cause of pericarditis is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of Dressler syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A patient in their 60s with idiopathic pericarditis becomes increasingly unwell, with hypotension, jugular venous distention and muffled heart sounds on auscultation. Echocardiogram confirms a pericardial effusion.
At which of the following sites does this effusion occur?Your Answer: Between the fibrous pericardium and the mediastinal pleura
Correct Answer: Between the visceral pericardium and the parietal pericardium
Explanation:Understanding the Site of Pericardial Effusion
Pericardial effusion is a condition where excess fluid accumulates in the pericardial cavity, causing compression of the heart. To understand the site of pericardial effusion, it is important to know the layers of the pericardium.
The pericardium has three layers: the fibrous pericardium, the parietal pericardium, and the visceral pericardium. The pericardial fluid is located in between the visceral and parietal pericardium, which is the site where a pericardial effusion occurs.
It is important to note that pericardial effusion does not occur between the parietal pericardium and the fibrous pericardium, the visceral pericardium and the myocardium, the fibrous pericardium and the mediastinal pleura, or the fibrous pericardium and the central tendon of the diaphragm.
In summary, pericardial effusion occurs at the site where pericardial fluid is normally produced – between the parietal and visceral layers of the serous pericardium. Understanding the site of pericardial effusion is crucial in diagnosing and treating this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 72-year-old man is admitted to hospital with exertional chest pain. He reports that this has only begun in the past few days, particularly when climbing hills. The pain is not present when he is at rest.
What is the gold standard test that you will request for this patient from the following tests?Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) coronary angiogram
Explanation:Investigating Cardiac Chest Pain: Recommended Tests
When a patient presents with cardiac chest pain, it is important to conduct appropriate investigations to determine the underlying cause. The following tests are recommended:
Computed Tomography (CT) Coronary Angiogram: This non-invasive test uses CT scanning to detect any evidence of coronary artery disease and determine its extent. It is considered the gold standard test for investigating cardiac chest pain.
Angiogram: Before undergoing an angiogram, the patient should first have an exercise tolerance test (ETT) to assess real-time cardiac function during exertion. If the patient experiences ischaemic changes and reduced exercise tolerance, an angiogram may be necessary.
Chest X-ray: A chest X-ray is not a priority investigation for cardiac chest pain, as it does not aid in diagnosis unless there is evidence of associated heart failure or pleural effusions.
Full Blood Count: While anaemia could contribute to angina, a full blood count is not a first-line investigation for cardiac chest pain.
Troponin: Troponin levels may be raised in cases of myocardial damage, but are not necessary for managing angina. The recurring pain and relief with rest indicate angina, rather than a myocardial infarction (MI), which would present with crushing chest pain and dyspnoea that is not alleviated by rest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department with sudden onset central crushing chest pain. The patient reports feeling pain in his neck and jaw as well. He has no significant medical history, but he does smoke occasionally and consumes up to 60 units of alcohol per week. An ECG is performed, revealing widespread ST elevation indicative of an acute coronary syndrome. At what point do the microscopic changes of acute MI become visible?
Your Answer: 3-6 hours after infarct occurs.
Correct Answer: 12-24 hours after the infarct
Explanation:The Pathological Progression of Myocardial Infarction: A Timeline of Changes
Myocardial infarction, commonly known as a heart attack, is a serious medical condition that occurs when blood flow to the heart is blocked, leading to tissue damage and potentially life-threatening complications. The pathological progression of myocardial infarction follows a predictable sequence of events, with macroscopic and microscopic changes occurring over time.
Immediately after the infarct occurs, there are usually no visible changes to the myocardium. However, within 3-6 hours, maximal inflammatory changes occur, with the most prominent changes occurring between 24-72 hours. During this time, coagulative necrosis and acute inflammatory responses are visible, with marked infiltration by neutrophils.
Between 3-10 days, the infarcted area begins to develop a hyperaemic border, and the process of organisation and repair begins. Granulation tissue replaces dead muscle, and dying neutrophils are replaced by macrophages. Disintegration and phagocytosis of dead myofibres occur during this time.
If a patient survives an acute infarction, the infarct heals through the formation of scar tissue. However, scar tissue does not possess the usual contractile properties of normal cardiac muscle, leading to contractile dysfunction or congestive cardiac failure. The entire process from coagulative necrosis to the formation of well-formed scar tissue takes 6-8 weeks.
In summary, understanding the timeline of changes that occur during myocardial infarction is crucial for early diagnosis and effective treatment. By recognising the macroscopic and microscopic changes that occur over time, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate interventions to improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old woman was recently diagnosed with essential hypertension and prescribed medication to lower her blood pressure. However, she stopped taking the medication due to reported dizziness. Her blood pressure readings usually run at 150/100 mmHg. She denies any chest pain, shortness of breath, leg swelling, or visual problems. She has a history of occasional migraines but no other medical conditions. She has no known drug allergies. Her vital signs are within normal limits, other than high blood pressure. The S1 and S2 sounds are normal. There is no S3 or S4 sound, murmur, rub, or gallop. The peripheral pulses are normal and symmetric. The serum electrolytes (sodium, potassium, calcium, and chloride), creatinine, and urea nitrogen are within normal range. What is the most appropriate antihypertensive medication for this patient?
Your Answer: Amlodipine
Correct Answer: Indapamide
Explanation:The best medication for the patient in the scenario would be indapamide, a thiazide diuretic that blocks the Na+/Cl− cotransporter in the distal convoluted tubules, increasing calcium reabsorption and reducing the risk of osteoporotic fractures. Common side-effects include hyponatraemia, hypokalaemia, hypercalcaemia, hyperglycaemia, hyperuricaemia, gout, postural hypotension and hypochloraemic alkalosis.
Prazosin is used for benign prostatic hyperplasia.
Enalapril is not preferred for patients over 55 years old and can increase osteoporosis risk.
Propranolol is not a preferred initial treatment for hypertension, and amlodipine can cause ankle swelling and should be avoided in patients with myocardial infarction and symptomatic heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 49-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of chest pain and pain in his left shoulder. He had spent the previous 2 h shoveling snow, but had to stop because of the pain. He admits to several prior episodes of chest pain under similar circumstances. No ST segment changes are seen on the electrocardiogram (ECG). The patient is given sublingual nitroglycerin, which relieves his pain, and is admitted for an overnight stay. The following morning, serum cardiac enzymes are within normal limits and no ECG changes are seen.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Stable (typical) angina
Explanation:Differentiating Types of Angina
When a patient presents with chest pain, it is important to differentiate between the different types of angina. In the case of a patient who has experienced chest pain triggered by heavy physical labor without characteristic ECG changes, and without rise in serum cardiac enzymes, it is likely that they are experiencing stable (typical) angina. This is not the patient’s first episode, and the pain is not becoming progressively worse with less severe triggers, ruling out unstable (crescendo) angina. Additionally, the fact that the pain was triggered by physical activity rather than occurring at rest rules out Prinzmetal variant angina. Subendocardial infarction and transmural infarction can also be ruled out as both would result in elevated cardiac enzyme levels and characteristic ECG changes, such as ST depression or ST elevation and Q waves, respectively. Therefore, based on the patient’s presentation, stable (typical) angina is the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 57-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department with sudden onset central crushing chest pain. The patient reports feeling pain in his neck and jaw as well. He has no significant medical history, but he does smoke socially and consumes up to 60 units of alcohol per week. An ECG is performed, revealing widespread ST elevation indicative of an acute coronary syndrome.
What is the earliest point at which the microscopic changes of acute MI become apparent?Your Answer: 12-24 hours after the infarct
Explanation:The Pathological Progression of Myocardial Infarction: A Timeline of Changes
Myocardial infarction, commonly known as a heart attack, is a serious medical condition that occurs when blood flow to the heart is blocked, leading to tissue damage and potentially life-threatening complications. The pathological progression of myocardial infarction follows a predictable sequence of events, with macroscopic and microscopic changes occurring over time.
Immediately after the infarct occurs, there are usually no visible changes to the myocardium. However, within 3-6 hours, maximal inflammatory changes occur, with the most prominent changes occurring between 24-72 hours. During this time, coagulative necrosis and acute inflammatory responses are visible, with marked infiltration by neutrophils.
Between 3-10 days, the infarcted area begins to develop a hyperaemic border, and the process of organisation and repair begins. Granulation tissue replaces dead muscle, and dying neutrophils are replaced by macrophages. Disintegration and phagocytosis of dead myofibres occur during this time.
If a patient survives an acute infarction, the infarct heals through the formation of scar tissue. However, scar tissue does not possess the usual contractile properties of normal cardiac muscle, leading to contractile dysfunction or congestive cardiac failure. The entire process from coagulative necrosis to the formation of well-formed scar tissue takes 6-8 weeks.
In summary, understanding the timeline of changes that occur during myocardial infarction is crucial for early diagnosis and effective treatment. By recognising the macroscopic and microscopic changes that occur over time, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate interventions to improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 47-year-old woman is admitted with central chest pain of 18 hours’ duration and shortness of breath. Her troponin is elevated, and her electrocardiogram (ECG) shows changes in leads V2–V6. While undergoing initial management in preparation for primary percutaneous coronary intervention (primary PCI), she deteriorates suddenly and goes into cardiac arrest. Efforts to resuscitate her are unsuccessful. At post-mortem, rupture of the left ventricular cardiac wall is evident at the apex.
Which is the most likely blood vessel to have been involved in the infarct?Your Answer: The anterior interventricular (left anterior descending) artery
Explanation:Coronary Arteries and Their Blood Supply to the Heart
The heart is supplied with blood by the coronary arteries. There are four main coronary arteries that provide blood to different parts of the heart.
The anterior interventricular artery, also known as the left anterior descending artery, supplies blood to the apex of the heart, as well as the anterior part of the interventricular septum and adjacent anterior walls of the right and left ventricles.
The right marginal artery supplies the anteroinferior aspect of the right ventricle.
The posterior interventricular artery supplies the interventricular septum and adjacent right and left ventricles on the diaphragmatic surface of the heart, but does not reach the apex.
The circumflex artery supplies the posterolateral aspect of the left ventricle.
Finally, the conus branch of the right coronary artery supplies the outflow tract of the right ventricle.
Understanding the blood supply to different parts of the heart is important in diagnosing and treating heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man visits his general practitioner (GP), as he is concerned that he may have inherited a heart condition. He is fit and well and has no history of any medical conditions. However, his 28-year-old brother has recently been diagnosed with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) after collapsing when he was playing football. The patient’s father died suddenly when he was 42, which the family now thinks might have been due to the same condition.
Which of the following signs is most likely to be found in a patient with this condition?Your Answer: Pansystolic murmur increased by squatting
Correct Answer: Ejection systolic murmur decreased by squatting
Explanation:Understanding the Ejection Systolic Murmur in Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy: Decreased by Squatting
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) is a condition characterized by asymmetrical hypertrophy of both ventricles, with the septum hypertrophying and causing an outflow obstruction of the left ventricle. This obstruction leads to an ejection systolic murmur and reduced cardiac output. However, interestingly, this murmur can be decreased by squatting, which is not typical for most heart murmurs.
Squatting affects murmurs by increasing afterload and preload, which usually makes heart murmurs louder. However, in HCM, the murmur intensity is decreased due to increased left ventricular size and reduced outflow obstruction. Other findings on examination may include a jerky pulse and a double apex beat.
While HCM is often asymptomatic, it can present with dyspnea, angina, and syncope. Patients are also at risk of sudden cardiac death, most commonly due to ventricular arrhythmias. Poor prognostic factors include syncope, family history of sudden death, onset of symptoms at a young age, ventricular tachycardia on Holter monitoring, abnormal blood pressure response during exercise, and septal thickness greater than 3 cm on echocardiogram.
In summary, understanding the ejection systolic murmur in HCM and its unique response to squatting can aid in the diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with a two hour history of central crushing chest pain. She has a history of ischaemic heart disease and poorly controlled diabetes. The ECG shows ST-elevation in V1, V2 and V3, and her serum troponin levels are elevated. What is the most suitable definitive management approach?
Your Answer: Primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)
Explanation:Treatment Options for ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction (STEMI)
ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction (STEMI) is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention. The diagnosis of STEMI is confirmed through cardiac sounding chest pain and evidence of ST-elevation on the ECG. The primary treatment option for STEMI is immediate revascularization through primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) and placement of a cardiac stent.
Therapeutic alteplase, a thrombolytic agent, used to be a common treatment option for STEMI, but it has been largely replaced by primary PCI due to its superior therapeutic outcomes. Aspirin is routinely given in myocardial infarction, and clopidogrel may also be given, although many centers are now using ticagrelor instead.
High-flow oxygen and intravenous morphine may be used for adequate analgesia and resuscitation, but the primary treatment remains primary PCI and revascularization. Routine use of high flow oxygen in non-hypoxic patients with an acute coronary syndrome is no longer advocated.
It is crucial to avoid delaying treatment for STEMI, as it can lead to further deterioration of the patient and increase the risk of cardiac arrhythmia or arrest. Therefore, waiting for troponin results before further management is not an appropriate option. The diagnosis of STEMI can be made through history and ECG findings, and immediate intervention is necessary for optimal outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old man presents with increasing shortness of breath, tiredness, intermittent chest pain and leg swelling for the last 6 months. His past medical history includes hypertension, gout and a previous myocardial infarction 5 years ago. His current medications are as follows:
diltiazem 60 mg orally (po) twice daily (bd)
spironolactone 100 mg po once daily (od)
allopurinol 100 mg po od
paracetamol 1 g po four times daily (qds) as required (prn)
lisinopril 20 mg po od.
Given this man’s likely diagnosis, which of the above medications should be stopped?Your Answer: Spironolactone
Correct Answer: Diltiazem
Explanation:Medications for Heart Failure: Uses and Contraindications
Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can treat angina and hypertension, but it should be stopped in patients with chronic heart disease and heart failure due to its negative inotropic effects.
Spironolactone can alleviate leg swelling and is one of the three drugs that have been shown to reduce mortality in heart failure, along with ACE inhibitors and β-blockers.
Allopurinol is safe to use in heart failure patients as it is used for the prevention of gout and has no detrimental effect on the heart.
Paracetamol does not affect the heart and is safe to use in heart failure patients.
Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor used to treat hypertension and angina, and stopping it can worsen heart failure. It is also one of the three drugs that have been shown to reduce mortality in heart failure. The mechanism by which ACE inhibitors reduce mortality is not fully understood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 16
Correct
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A young marine biologist was snorkelling among giant stingrays when the tail (barb) of one of the stingrays suddenly pierced his chest. The tip of the barb pierced the right ventricle and the man instinctively removed it in the water. When he was brought onto the boat, there was absence of heart sounds, reduced cardiac output and engorged jugular veins.
What was the most likely diagnosis for the young marine biologist who was snorkelling among giant stingrays and had the tail (barb) of one of the stingrays pierce his chest, causing the tip of the barb to pierce the right ventricle? Upon being brought onto the boat, the young man exhibited absence of heart sounds, reduced cardiac output and engorged jugular veins.Your Answer: Cardiac tamponade
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of a patient with chest trauma
When evaluating a patient with chest trauma, it is important to consider various potential diagnoses based on the clinical presentation and mechanism of injury. Here are some possible explanations for different symptoms:
– Cardiac tamponade: If a projectile penetrates the fibrous pericardium, blood can accumulate in the pericardial cavity and compress the heart, leading to decreased cardiac output and potential death.
– Deep vein thrombosis: This condition involves the formation of a blood clot in a deep vein, often in the leg. However, it does not typically cause the symptoms described in this case.
– Stroke: A stroke occurs when blood flow to the brain is disrupted, usually due to a blockage or rupture of an artery. This is not likely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms.
– Pulmonary embolism: If a clot from a deep vein thrombosis travels to the lungs and obstructs blood flow, it can cause sudden death. However, given the history of trauma, other possibilities should be considered first.
– Haemothorax: This refers to the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity around a lung. While it can cause respiratory distress and chest pain, it does not typically affect jugular veins or heart sounds. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman is admitted to the Cardiology Ward with acute left ventricular failure. The patient is severely short of breath.
What would be the most appropriate initial step in managing her condition?Your Answer: Establish venous access and administer intravenous (iv) furosemide
Correct Answer: Sit her up and administer high flow oxygen
Explanation:Managing Acute Shortness of Breath: Prioritizing ABCDE Approach
When dealing with acutely unwell patients experiencing shortness of breath, it is crucial to follow the ABCDE approach. The first step is to address Airway and Breathing by sitting the patient up and administering high flow oxygen to maintain normal saturations. Only then should Circulation be considered, which may involve cannulation and administering IV furosemide.
According to the latest NICE guidelines, non-invasive ventilation should be considered as part of non-pharmacological management if simple measures do not improve symptoms.
It is important to prioritize the ABCDE approach and not jump straight to administering medication or inserting a urinary catheter. Establishing venous access and administering medication should only be done after ensuring the patient’s airway and breathing are stable.
If the patient has an adequate systolic blood pressure, iv nitrates such as glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) infusion could be considered to reduce preload on the heart. However, most patients can be treated with iv diuretics, such as furosemide.
In cases of acute pulmonary edema, close monitoring of urine output is recommended, and the easiest and most accurate method is through catheterization with hourly urine measurements. Oxygen should be given urgently if the patient is short of breath.
In summary, managing acute shortness of breath requires a systematic approach that prioritizes Airway and Breathing before moving on to Circulation and other interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 18
Correct
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You are requested by a nurse to assess a 66-year-old woman on the Surgical Assessment Unit who is 1-day postoperative, having undergone a laparoscopic cholecystectomy procedure for cholecystitis. She has a medical history of type II diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease. Blood tests taken earlier in the day revealed electrolyte imbalances with hyperkalaemia.
Which of the following ECG changes is linked to hyperkalaemia?Your Answer: Peaked T waves
Explanation:Electrocardiogram (ECG) Changes Associated with Hypo- and Hyperkalaemia
Hypo- and hyperkalaemia can cause significant changes in the ECG. Hypokalaemia is associated with increased amplitude and width of the P wave, T wave flattening and inversion, ST-segment depression, and prominent U-waves. As hypokalaemia worsens, it can lead to frequent supraventricular ectopics and tachyarrhythmias, eventually resulting in life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias. On the other hand, hyperkalaemia is associated with peaked T waves, widening of the QRS complex, decreased amplitude of the P wave, prolongation of the PR interval, and eventually ventricular tachycardia/ventricular fibrillation. Both hypo- and hyperkalaemia can cause prolongation of the PR interval, but only hyperkalaemia is associated with flattening of the P-wave. In hyperkalaemia, eventually ventricular tachycardia/ventricular fibrillation is seen, while AF can occur in hypokalaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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You are fast-bleeped to the ward where you find a 46-year-old woman in ventricular tachycardia. She had a witnessed syncopal episode while walking to the toilet with nursing staff and currently has a blood pressure of 85/56 mmHg. She is orientated to time, place and person but is complaining of feeling light-headed.
How would you manage this patient’s ventricular tachycardia?Your Answer: Digoxin 500 micrograms iv loading dose
Correct Answer: Synchronised direct current (DC) cardioversion
Explanation:Treatment Options for Ventricular Tachycardia: Synchronised Cardioversion and Amiodarone
Ventricular tachycardia is a serious condition that requires immediate treatment. The Resuscitation Council tachycardia guideline recommends synchronised electrical cardioversion as the first-line treatment for unstable patients with ventricular tachycardia who exhibit adverse features such as shock, myocardial ischaemia, syncope, or heart failure. Synchronised cardioversion is timed to coincide with the R or S wave of the QRS complex, reducing the risk of ventricular fibrillation or cardiac arrest.
Administering an unsynchronised shock could coincide with the T wave, triggering fibrillation of the ventricles and leading to a cardiac arrest. If three attempts of synchronised cardioversion fail to restore sinus rhythm, a loading dose of amiodarone 300 mg iv should be given over 10–20 minutes, followed by another attempt of cardioversion.
Amiodarone is the first-line treatment for uncompromised patients with tachycardia. A loading dose of 300 mg is given iv, followed by an infusion of 900 mg over 24 hours. Digoxin and metoprolol are not recommended for the treatment of ventricular tachycardia. Digoxin is used for atrial fibrillation, while metoprolol should be avoided in patients with significant hypotension, as it can further compromise the patient’s condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl is referred to cardiology outpatients with intermittent palpitations. She describes occasional spontaneous episodes of being abnormally aware of her heart. She says her heart rate is markedly increased during episodes. She has no significant medical or family history. She is on the oral contraceptive pill. ECG is performed. She is in sinus rhythm at 80 beats per min. PR interval is 108 ms. A slurring slow rise of the initial portion of the QRS complex is noted; QRS duration is 125 ms.
What is the correct diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Wolff-Parkinson-White Syndrome: An Abnormal Congenital Accessory Pathway with Tachyarrhythmia Episodes
Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is a rare condition with an incidence of about 1.5 per 1000. It is characterized by the presence of an abnormal congenital accessory pathway that bypasses the atrioventricular node, known as the Bundle of Kent, and episodes of tachyarrhythmia. While the condition may be asymptomatic or subtle, it can increase the risk of sudden cardiac death.
The presence of a pre-excitation pathway in WPW results in specific ECG changes, including shortening of the PR interval, a Delta wave, and QRS prolongation. The ST segment and T wave may also be discordant to the major component of the QRS complex. These features may be more pronounced with increased vagal tone.
Upon diagnosis of WPW, risk stratification is performed based on a combination of history, ECG, and invasive cardiac electrophysiology studies. Treatment is only offered to those who are considered to have significant risk of sudden cardiac death. Definitive treatment involves the destruction of the abnormal electrical pathway by radiofrequency catheter ablation, which has a high success rate but is not without complication. Patients who experience regular tachyarrhythmias may be offered pharmacological treatment based on the specific arrhythmia.
Other conditions, such as first-degree heart block, pulmonary embolism, hyperthyroidism, and Wenckebach syndrome, have different ECG findings and are not associated with WPW. Understanding the specific features of WPW can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female with Down's syndrome presents with a systolic murmur on clinical examination. What is the most prevalent cardiac anomaly observed in individuals with Down's syndrome that could account for this murmur?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect
Explanation:Endocardial Cushion Defects
Endocardial cushion defects, also referred to as atrioventricular (AV) canal or septal defects, are a group of abnormalities that affect the atrial septum, ventricular septum, and one or both of the AV valves. These defects occur during fetal development when the endocardial cushions, which are responsible for separating the heart chambers and forming the valves, fail to develop properly. As a result, there may be holes or gaps in the septum, or the AV valves may not close properly, leading to a mix of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in the heart. This can cause a range of symptoms, including shortness of breath, fatigue, poor growth, and heart failure. Treatment for endocardial cushion defects typically involves surgery to repair the defects and improve heart function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance from a music festival. It is a hot day and she had been standing in the crowd when she suddenly collapsed and lost consciousness. She is now fully alert and gives a history of feeling dizzy and nauseated before the collapse. She tells you that she is healthy, plays tennis for her local club and is a keen runner. She has had no previous episodes of losing consciousness. Her father has recently had a heart attack aged 60 years. Her resting electrocardiogram (ECG) shows a corrected QT interval of 400 ms and a slightly prolonged PR interval but is otherwise normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vasovagal syncope
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Vasovagal Syncope
Vasovagal syncope is a common cause of transient loss of consciousness. The hallmark of this condition is the three Ps – pallor, palpitations, and sweating. In patients with a history of vasovagal syncope, the ECG is typically normal. A prolonged PR interval may be seen in young athletes, but first-degree heart block rarely causes cardiac syncope. Ischemic heart disease is not a significant factor in this condition, and a family history of myocardial infarction is not relevant.
If there are no features suggesting a more serious cause of transient loss of consciousness or a significant personal or family cardiac history, the patient can be discharged from the Emergency Department. However, they should be advised to seek medical attention if they experience any further episodes.
Other conditions that may cause transient loss of consciousness include complete heart block, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, substance misuse, and long QT syndrome. However, in this case, the patient’s history and ECG are not suggestive of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which congenital cardiac defect is correctly matched with its associated syndrome from the following options?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Turner syndrome and coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:Common Cardiovascular Abnormalities Associated with Genetic Syndromes
Various genetic syndromes are associated with cardiovascular abnormalities. Turner syndrome is linked with coarctation of the aorta, aortic stenosis, bicuspid aortic valve, aortic dilation, and dissection. Marfan syndrome is associated with aortic root dilation, mitral valve prolapse, mitral regurgitation, and aortic dissection. Kartagener syndrome can lead to bicuspid aortic valve, dextrocardia, bronchiectasis, and infertility. However, congenital adrenal hyperplasia is not associated with congenital cardiac conditions. Finally, congenital rubella syndrome is linked with patent ductus arteriosus, atrial septal defect, and pulmonary stenosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man with aortic stenosis came for his annual check-up. During the visit, his blood pressure was measured at 110/90 mmHg and his carotid pulse was slow-rising. What is the most severe symptom that indicates a poor prognosis in aortic stenosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Syncope
Explanation:Symptoms and Mortality Risk in Aortic Stenosis
Aortic stenosis is a serious condition that can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion and potentially fatal outcomes. Here are some common symptoms and their associated mortality risks:
– Syncope: This is a major concern and indicates the need for valve replacement, regardless of valve area.
– Chest pain: While angina can occur due to reduced diastolic coronary perfusion time and increased left ventricular mass, it is not as significant as syncope in predicting mortality.
– Cough: Aortic stenosis typically does not cause coughing.
– Palpitations: Unless confirmed to be non-sustained ventricular tachycardia, palpitations do not increase mortality risk.
– Orthostatic dizziness: Mild decreased cerebral perfusion can cause dizziness upon standing, but this symptom alone does not confer additional mortality risk.It is important to be aware of these symptoms and seek medical attention if they occur, as aortic stenosis can be a life-threatening condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old patient with hypertension arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of central chest pain that feels heavy. The pain does not radiate, and there are no other risk factors for atherosclerosis. Upon examination, the patient's vital signs are normal, including pulse, temperature, and oxygen saturation. The patient appears sweaty, but cardiovascular and respiratory exams are unremarkable. The patient experiences tenderness over the sternum at the site of the chest pain, and the resting electrocardiogram (ECG) is normal.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange a 12-h troponin T assay before deciding whether or not to discharge the patient
Explanation:Management of Chest Pain in a Patient with Risk Factors for Cardiac Disease
Chest pain is a common presenting complaint in primary care and emergency departments. However, it is important to consider the possibility of an acute coronary syndrome in patients with risk factors for cardiac disease. Here are some management strategies for a patient with chest pain and risk factors for cardiac disease:
Arrange a 12-h troponin T assay before deciding whether or not to discharge the patient. A normal troponin assay would make a diagnosis of acute coronary syndrome unlikely, but further investigation may be required to determine if the patient has underlying coronary artery disease.
Do not discharge the patient with a diagnosis of costochondritis based solely on chest wall tenderness. This should only be used in low-risk patients with tenderness that accurately reproduces the pain they have been feeling on minimal palpation.
Do not discharge the patient if serial resting ECGs are normal. A normal ECG does not rule out an acute cardiac event.
Admit the patient to the Coronary Care Unit for monitoring and further assessment only if the 12-h troponin comes back elevated.
Do not discharge the patient and arrange an outpatient exercise tolerance test until further investigation has been done to rule out an acute cardiac event.
In summary, it is important to consider the possibility of an acute coronary syndrome in patients with chest pain and risk factors for cardiac disease. Further investigation, such as a 12-h troponin assay, may be required before deciding on appropriate management strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old known intravenous drug user presents to your GP clinic with complaints of fatigue, night sweats and joint pain. During the examination, you observe a new early-diastolic murmur. What is the probable causative organism for this patient's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Common Causes of Infective Endocarditis and their Characteristics
Infective endocarditis is a serious condition that can lead to severe complications if left untreated. The most common causative organism of acute infective endocarditis is Staphylococcus aureus, especially in patients with risk factors such as prosthetic valves or intravenous drug use. Symptoms and signs consistent with infective endocarditis include fever, heart murmur, and arthritis, as well as pathognomonic signs like splinter hemorrhages, Osler’s nodes, Roth spots, Janeway lesions, and petechiae.
Group B streptococci is less common than Staphylococcus aureus but has a high mortality rate of 70%. Streptococcus viridans is not the most common cause of infective endocarditis, but it does cause 50-60% of subacute cases. Group D streptococci is the third most common cause of infective endocarditis. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is not the most common cause of infective endocarditis and usually requires surgery for cure.
In summary, knowing the characteristics of the different causative organisms of infective endocarditis can help in the diagnosis and treatment of this serious condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man presents with complaints of palpitations and dizzy spells. Upon performing an echocardiogram, the diagnosis of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is made.
What will be visualized on the echocardiogram?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced left ventricular cavity size
Explanation:Echocardiographic Findings in Hypertrophic Obstructive Cardiomyopathy
Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a condition characterized by thickening of the heart muscle, particularly the septum, which can lead to obstruction of blood flow out of the heart. Echocardiography is a useful tool for diagnosing and monitoring HOCM. Here are some echocardiographic findings commonly seen in HOCM:
Reduced left ventricular cavity size: Patients with HOCM often have a banana-shaped left ventricular cavity, with reduced size due to septal hypertrophy.
Increased left ventricular outflow tract gradients: HOCM can cause obstruction of blood flow out of the heart, leading to increased pressure gradients in the left ventricular outflow tract.
Systolic anterior motion of the mitral leaflet: This is a characteristic finding in HOCM, where the mitral valve moves forward during systole and can contribute to obstruction of blood flow.
Asymmetrical septal hypertrophy: While some patients with HOCM may have symmetrically hypertrophied ventricles, the more common presentation is asymmetrical hypertrophy, with thickening of the septum.
Mitral regurgitation: HOCM can cause dysfunction of the mitral valve, leading to mild to moderate regurgitation of blood back into the left atrium.
Overall, echocardiography plays an important role in the diagnosis and management of HOCM, allowing for visualization of the structural and functional abnormalities associated with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man, who recently immigrated to the United Kingdom from Eastern Europe, presents to his general practitioner with a history of intermittent dizzy spells. He reports having limited exercise capacity since childhood, but this has not been investigated before. Upon examination, the patient appears slight, has a dusky blue discoloration to his lips and tongue, and has finger clubbing. A murmur is also heard. The GP refers him to a cardiologist.
The results of a cardiac catheter study are as follows:
Anatomical site Oxygen saturation (%) Pressure (mmHg)
End systolic/End diastolic
Superior vena cava 58 -
Inferior vena cava 52 -
Right atrium (mean) 56 10
Right ventricle 55 105/9
Pulmonary artery - 16/8
Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure - 9
Left atrium 97 -
Left ventricle 84 108/10
Aorta 74 110/80
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fallot's tetralogy
Explanation:Fallot’s Tetralogy
Fallot’s tetralogy is a congenital heart defect that consists of four features: ventricular septal defect, pulmonary stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, and an over-riding aorta. To diagnose this condition, doctors look for specific indicators. A step-down in oxygen saturation between the left atrium and left ventricle indicates a right to left shunt at the level of the ventricles, which is a sign of ventricular septal defect. Pulmonary stenosis is indicated by a significant gradient of 89 mmHg across the pulmonary valve, which is calculated by subtracting the right ventricular systolic pressure from the pulmonary artery systolic pressure. Right ventricular hypertrophy is diagnosed by high right ventricular pressures and a right to left shunt, as indicated by the oxygen saturations. Finally, an over-riding aorta is identified by a further step-down in oxygen saturation between the left ventricle and aorta. While this could also occur in cases of patent ductus arteriosus with right to left shunting, the presence of the other features of Fallot’s tetralogy makes an over-riding aorta the most likely cause of reduced oxygen saturation due to admixture of deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle entering the left heart circulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man comes to the clinic with a complaint of experiencing severe dizziness upon standing quickly. He is currently taking atenolol 100 mg OD for hypertension. Upon measuring his blood pressure while lying down and standing up, the readings are 146/88 mmHg and 108/72 mmHg, respectively. What is the main cause of his postural hypotension?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Impaired baroreceptor reflex
Explanation:Postural Hypotension
Postural hypotension is a common condition that affects many people, especially the elderly and those with refractory hypertension. When standing up, blood tends to pool in the lower limbs, causing a temporary drop in blood pressure. Baroreceptors in the aortic arch and carotid sinus detect this change and trigger a sympathetic response, which includes venoconstriction, an increase in heart rate, and an increase in stroke volume. This response helps to restore cardiac output and blood pressure, usually before any awareness of hypotension. However, a delay in this response can cause dizziness and presyncope.
In some cases, the reflex response is partially impaired by medications such as beta blockers. This means that increased adrenaline release, decreased pH (via chemoreceptors), or pain (via a sympathetic response) can lead to an increase in blood pressure rather than a decrease. postural hypotension and its underlying mechanisms can help individuals manage their symptoms and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain. He has a medical history of angina, hypertension, high cholesterol, and is a current smoker. Upon arrival, a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) is conducted, revealing ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which coronary artery is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right coronary artery
Explanation:ECG Changes and Localisation of Infarct in Coronary Artery Disease
Patients with chest pain and multiple risk factors for cardiac disease require prompt evaluation to determine the underlying cause. Electrocardiogram (ECG) changes can help localise the infarct to a particular territory, which can aid in diagnosis and treatment.
Inferior infarcts are often due to lesions in the right coronary artery, as evidenced by ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. However, in 20% of cases, this can also be caused by an occlusion of a dominant left circumflex artery.
Lateral infarcts involve branches of the left anterior descending (LAD) and left circumflex arteries, and are characterised by ST elevation in leads I, aVL, and V5-6. It is unusual for a lateral STEMI to occur in isolation, and it usually occurs as part of a larger territory infarction.
Anterior infarcts are caused by blockage of the LAD artery, and are characterised by ST elevation in leads V1-V6.
Blockage of the right marginal artery does not have a specific pattern of ECG changes associated with it, and it is not one of the major coronary vessels.
In summary, understanding the ECG changes associated with different coronary arteries can aid in localising the infarct and guiding appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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