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  • Question 1 - A 78 year old woman presents to the clinic complaining of left sided...

    Correct

    • A 78 year old woman presents to the clinic complaining of left sided temporal headaches and jaw claudication that has been going on for a month. A left temporal artery biopsy is negative. Results show: Hb: 130g/l Platelets: 359*109/L, WBC: 10*109/L, CRP: 89mg/l Which of the following options would be the next best step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Commence prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Temporal arteritis is a chronic large- and medium-sized vessel vasculitis that typically involves the temporal arteries. Classical symptoms include temporal headaches, jaw claudication, amaurosis fugax. Physical exam shows scalp tenderness, palpation of the temporal area may demonstrate an absent pulse, knot-like swelling and vision loss. Lab results reveal an increased erythematous sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Management approach: high-dose systemic corticosteroids should be promptly administered even before the diagnosis is established. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Inability to manage this or administer glucocorticoids might lead to development of blindness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 33 year old female presents with dyspnoea, myalgia, arthralgia and a skin...

    Correct

    • A 33 year old female presents with dyspnoea, myalgia, arthralgia and a skin rash. The presence of which of the following antibodies would be the most specific for SLE?

      Your Answer: Anti-Sm

      Explanation:

      Anti-Sm antibodies are essential for diagnosis of SLE, especially in anti-dsDNA-negative patients. ANA are also found in 95% of the patients with SLE but they may also occur with other conditions like Juvenile inflammatory arthritis, chronic activity hepatitis, and Sjogren’s syndrome. Anti-Ro, although also found with SLE are more characteristic of Sjogren Syndrome. RF is usually associated with rheumatoid arthritis and cANCA with Wegener’s granulomatosis, Churg Strauss, and microscopic polyangiitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      918.7
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  • Question 3 - Osteopetrosis occurs as a result of a defect in: ...

    Correct

    • Osteopetrosis occurs as a result of a defect in:

      Your Answer: Osteoclast function

      Explanation:

      It is a metabolic bone disease caused by defective osteoclastic resorption of immature bone. Osteopetrosis is also known as marble bone disease. Osteoclasts are unable to adequately acidify bone matrix. Impaired bone resorption leads to overly dense bone that is more likely to fracture. It is usually treated with bone marrow transplant and high dose calcitriol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 26 year old woman is 32 weeks pregnant. She has a history...

    Correct

    • A 26 year old woman is 32 weeks pregnant. She has a history of Sjogren Syndrome. The foetus would be at a risk for which of the following?

      Your Answer: All correct

      Explanation:

      Women with Sjögren syndrome are likely to experience more complications during pregnancy than women without an autoimmune disease as the anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies cross the placenta and lead to various life threatening complications. Studies show a high incidence of poor fetal outcomes for these patients. Congenital heart block, neonatal lupus, congestive cardiac failure, hydrops fetalis can all be caused as a result of Sjogren syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      455.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An 18 year old boy, thin with a tall stature, and a high...

    Incorrect

    • An 18 year old boy, thin with a tall stature, and a high arched palate arrives at the hospital with a spontaneous pneumothorax. He is accompanied by his brother who has a similar appearance. You suspect Marfan's Syndrome. The gene encoding which of the following proteins is defective in this condition?

      Your Answer: Actin

      Correct Answer: Fibrillin-1

      Explanation:

      A variety of proteins compose the structure of microfibrils, the most prominent of which are the two fibrillins. Fibrillin-1 a scaffolding protein is encoded by FBN1 on human chromosome 15q21 and fibrillin-2 is encoded by FBN2 on 5q23. Mutations in FBN1 produce Marfan syndrome, a pleiotropic autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder with prominent manifestations in the skeleton, eye and cardiovascular system. A number of conditions related to Marfan syndrome are also due to FBN1 mutations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      178.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 47 year old woman presents with joint pains and a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 47 year old woman presents with joint pains and a history of recurrent infections over the past few months. Labs reveal a positive rheumatoid factor and low white cell count. Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following features would be present in her case?

      Your Answer: Distal interphalangeal joint involvement

      Correct Answer: Splenomegaly

      Explanation:

      Felty syndrome is a severe subtype of seropositive Rheumatoid arthritis. Clinical triad consists of arthritis, splenomegaly, and neutropenia (leads to an increased risk of recurrent bacterial infections). Other symptoms include skin ulcers of the lower limbs (indicating vasculitis), hepatomegaly, fever, and chest pain (indicating pleuritis or pericarditis). It is associated with increased risk of developing non-Hodgkin lymphoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      18.9
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  • Question 7 - An 80 year old female, previously diagnosed with polymyalgia rheumatica 18 months back,...

    Correct

    • An 80 year old female, previously diagnosed with polymyalgia rheumatica 18 months back, presents to the outpatient clinic with bilateral shoulder stiffness and generalized myalgia. The ESR was found to be 60mm/1st hour at the time of presentation. Prednisolone therapy was initiated at a daily dose of 15 mg along with Calcium and Vitamin supplementation. She reported resolution of her symptoms in one week. However the symptoms relapsed when the prednisolone dose was reduced below the current dose of 12.5 mg daily. How should she be ideally managed?

      Your Answer: Continue the current dose of prednisolone and start methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia rheumatica, a syndrome characterized by proximal muscle pain and stiffness in older persons, generally is treated with prednisone. Dosages of 15 to 25 mg of prednisone per day can reduce inflammation considerably, although many patients relapse when therapy is tapered. Long-term (18 to 36 months) steroid treatment has been recommended by several studies, but this can result in multiple side effects, including osteoporosis, hypertension, cataracts, and hyperglycaemia. Methotrexate has been used to reduce inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis, systemic vasculitis, and giant cell arteritis, and in some studies has been combined with prednisone to treat polymyalgia rheumatica, decreasing the duration of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      21.2
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  • Question 8 - A 30 year old female has been started on azathioprine after she was...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old female has been started on azathioprine after she was found to be intolerant of methotrexate. Routine blood monitoring shows the following values: Hb 7.9 g/dL, Plt 97*109/l, WBC 2.7*109/l. Azathioprine toxicity will most likely to occur in the presence of which of the following?

      Your Answer: Rifampicin

      Correct Answer: Thiopurine methyltransferase deficiency

      Explanation:

      Azathioprine therapy can cause acute myelosuppression. Toxicity is in part caused by the incorporation of azathioprine-derived 6-thioguanine nucleotides (6-TGN) into deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA). The enzyme thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) plays an important role in azathioprine catabolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 49 year old female presents to the clinic complaining of pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 49 year old female presents to the clinic complaining of pain in her left elbow that is localized to the left lateral epicondyle. She has spent the weekend painting her house. A diagnosis of lateral epicondylitis is suspected. The pain would characteristically worsen on which of the following movements?

      Your Answer: Pronation of the forearm with the elbow flexed

      Correct Answer: Resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended

      Explanation:

      Lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is an overuse injury of the hand and finger extensor tendons that originate in the lateral humeral epicondyle that occurs following repeated or excessive pronation/supination and extension of the wrist (e.g., in racquet sports). Clinical features include pain and tenderness over the lateral epicondyle and along extensor muscles, thickening of the tendons. The examiner holds the patient’s hand with the thumb placed over the lateral epicondyle – The patient makes a fist, supinates the forearm, deviates radially, and extends the fist against the examiner’s resistance which results in pain over the lateral epicondyle. Conservative treatment includes rest, physiotherapy and orthotic braces. If this fails corticosteroids and lidocaine injections are employed. Surgery is indicated in patients with persistent symptoms despite 6 months of conservative treatment. Excision of abnormal tendon tissue; longitudinal incisions (tenotomies) in scarred and fibrotic areas to promote healing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      80.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 24 year old male, known case of hereditary angioneurotic oedema presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 24 year old male, known case of hereditary angioneurotic oedema presents with recurrent fever and arthralgia which is accompanied by a rash on face and upper chest. These attacks have been refractory to treatment and have occurred recurrently requiring adrenaline on several occasions. Lab results reveal persistently reduced C4 levels. Which of the following is most likely causing his current symptoms?

      Your Answer: Dermatomyositis

      Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus

      Explanation:

      Angioedema secondary to C1 inhibitor deficiency has been rarely reported to be associated with systemic lupus erythematosus. A genetic defect of C1 inhibitor produces hereditary angioedema, which is usually presented with cutaneous painless oedema, but oedema of the genital area, gastrointestinal and laryngeal tracts have also been reported. In lupus patients, angioedema may be the result of an acquired type of C1 inhibitor deficiency, most probably due to antibody formation directed against the C1 inhibitor molecule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      23
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Rheumatology (5/10) 50%
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