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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with widespread pain for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with widespread pain for the past month. The pain radiates all over but is worse in her shoulders, neck and lower back. It tends to be worse in the mornings and in cold weather. She reports that she is not able to sleep and feels lethargic during the day. Her partner reports that she has been more forgetful recently. She has otherwise been well without recent illnesses. On examination, there is clear tenderness to the affected areas. There are no other significant findings.
      Which of the following is an appropriate first-line treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Pregabalin

      Correct Answer: Aerobic exercise

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Fibromyalgia Patients

      Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition that causes widespread pain, increased sensitivity to pain, and psychological symptoms. Treatment options can be divided into generic and patient-focused treatments. Aerobic exercise is a first-line, generic treatment that has been shown to improve symptoms of pain and physical function. Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is a patient-focused treatment that may be considered for patients with pain-related depression, anxiety, catastrophizing, and/or passive or active coping strategies. Anaerobic exercise should be avoided as it may increase inflammation and oxidative stress. Duloxetine and pregabalin are pharmacotherapy options for patients with severe pain or sleep disturbance, but only after non-pharmacological treatments have failed. It is important to tailor treatment to each patient’s individual needs.

      Treatment Options for Fibromyalgia Patients

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 2 - A 49-year-old carpet layer presents to the clinic for review. He has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old carpet layer presents to the clinic for review. He has been complaining of severe anterior knee pain for a few days. On examination, you notice that the left knee is warm and there is swelling on the patella. There is local pain on patellar pressure and pain with knee flexion.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 131 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 185 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 12 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      Knee aspirate: Gram stain negative for bacteria; fluid contains occasional white cells; culture is negative.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Localised cellulitis

      Correct Answer: Pre–patellar bursitis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Knee Conditions: A Case-Based Approach

      A patient presents with a red, tender, and inflamed knee. The differential diagnosis includes prepatellar bursitis, osteoarthritis, localised cellulitis, rheumatoid arthritis, and gout.

      prepatellar bursitis, also known as housemaid’s knee, carpet layer’s knee, or nun’s knee, is often caused by repetitive knee trauma. Treatment involves non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents and local corticosteroid injection. Septic bursitis requires appropriate antibiotic cover and drainage.

      Osteoarthritis is a diagnosis of exclusion and does not typically cause a red, tender, inflamed knee. Knee aspirate in this case would not show white cells.

      Localised cellulitis may result in erythema but is unlikely to cause knee swelling. Knee aspirate in this case would not show white cells.

      Rheumatoid arthritis is unlikely to present in men of this age and typically affects small joints of the fingers, thumbs, wrists, feet, and ankles.

      Gout can be diagnosed through the presence of negatively birefringent crystals seen on joint microscopy.

      In conclusion, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s symptoms and appropriate diagnostic tests are necessary to differentiate between these knee conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old woman complains of discomfort at the base of her left thumb....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman complains of discomfort at the base of her left thumb. The right first carpometacarpal joint is swollen and tender.
      What could be the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: De Quervain's tenosynovitis

      Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Common Hand and Wrist Pathologies

      The hand and wrist are common sites of pathology, particularly in postmenopausal women. Osteoarthritis frequently affects the first carpometacarpal joint, causing tenderness, stiffness, crepitus, swelling, and pain on thumb abduction. This can lead to squaring of the hand, radial subluxation of the metacarpal, and atrophy of the thenar muscles.

      Scaphoid fractures are also relatively common, often resulting from a fall onto an outstretched hand. The proximal portion of the scaphoid lacks its own blood supply, which can lead to avascular necrosis if a fracture isolates it from the rest of the bone. This produces pain and tenderness on the radial side of the wrist, typically in the anatomical snuffbox, worsened by wrist movement.

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is another common pathology, characterized by stenosing tenosynovitis of the first dorsal compartment of the wrist. It presents with pain, swelling, and tenderness on the radial aspect of the wrist. Treatment typically involves splinting, with or without corticosteroid injection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 4 - A 72-year-old man presented to his GP with complaints of fatigue, unintentional weight...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man presented to his GP with complaints of fatigue, unintentional weight loss, and night sweats. He reported feeling generally down. Upon further questioning, he mentioned experiencing stiffness and pain in his shoulders and neck, particularly in the morning and lasting for about half an hour.
      What would be the most appropriate investigation to perform in this case?

      Your Answer: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Diagnosis of Polymyalgia Rheumatica

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a condition that causes pain and stiffness in proximal muscle groups, often accompanied by systemic symptoms. While other potential diagnoses such as infections or neoplasia should be considered, PMR is typically characterised by raised levels of inflammatory markers, particularly erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). Treatment with corticosteroids usually results in rapid improvement, and lack of response to steroids may indicate a need to re-evaluate the diagnosis. Autoantibody screening and nerve conduction velocity tests are not helpful in diagnosing PMR, while muscle biopsy may be performed to exclude polymyositis. A temporal artery biopsy may be considered if the patient has symptoms of giant cell arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 5 - Which joint is usually spared from osteoarthritis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which joint is usually spared from osteoarthritis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Elbow joint

      Explanation:

      Osteoarthritis in the Hand and Elbow

      Osteoarthritis (OA) is a prevalent form of arthritis that commonly affects the hand, particularly the joints. The joints may exhibit several deformities, including the development of small bone spurs called nodes. These nodes are referred to as Heberden’s nodes when they occur at the joint next to the fingernail and Bouchard’s nodes when they occur at the middle joints. The base of the thumb may also appear squared off, accompanied by swelling and tenderness. Soft tissue laxity can result in instability at the base of the thumb.

      In contrast, elbow OA is relatively uncommon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 6 - A 42-year-old known intravenous (iv) drug user presents to her general practitioner with...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old known intravenous (iv) drug user presents to her general practitioner with complaints of fever, morning stiffness, and joint pain. The patient reports a constant, dull pain in the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints bilaterally, with an intensity of 3/10. Her medical history is unremarkable, but her family history includes a skin condition and rheumatoid arthritis. The patient consumes 15 alcoholic units per week and smokes two packs of cigarettes per day. On physical examination, the patient is febrile with a temperature of 38.1 °C. The DIP joints are warm and swollen, and there is symmetric nail pitting. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient's current presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Appearance of a silver, scaly rash

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Arthritides: Understanding Clinical and Laboratory Findings

      Arthritis is a common condition that affects the joints, and it can be challenging to distinguish between the various types that exist. However, by considering the patient’s medical history, physical examination, and laboratory findings, clinicians can make an accurate diagnosis.

      For instance, psoriatic arthritis is an inflammatory subtype of arthritis that often affects the DIP joints, sausage digits, and nails. The classic X-ray finding of psoriatic arthritis is the pencil in a cup appearance, although it is not specific to the disease. In contrast, rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by PIP and MCP joint involvement, wrist and cervical spine pain, and positive rheumatoid factor and anti-CCP antibodies.

      Septic arthritis is a medical emergency that usually involves large joints and is associated with high fever, chills, and rapid joint destruction. Synovial fluid analysis may reveal Gram-positive cocci in cases of septic arthritis caused by Staphylococcus aureus.

      Osteoarthritis, on the other hand, is a degenerative joint disease that is associated with subchondral cyst formation, joint space narrowing, and osteophyte formation. It typically affects the DIP and PIP joints and large weight-bearing joints, but it is not an inflammatory arthritis.

      In summary, understanding the clinical and laboratory findings associated with different types of arthritis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old woman presents with a four-month history of finding it more difficult...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with a four-month history of finding it more difficult to get out of her chair. She also complains of a right-sided temporal headache, which is often triggered when she brushes her hair. A diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica with temporal arthritis is suspected.
      Which of the following blood tests is most useful in supporting the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Plasma viscosity

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Markers for Polymyalgia Rheumatica and Temporal arthritis

      Polymyalgia rheumatica and temporal arthritis are inflammatory conditions that can cause significant morbidity if left untreated. Here are some diagnostic markers that can help support or rule out these conditions:

      Plasma viscosity: A raised plasma viscosity can support a diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica with temporal arthritis, but it is a nonspecific inflammatory marker.

      Creatine kinase: A raised creatine kinase is not supportive of a diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica or temporal arthritis.

      Monospot test: A positive monospot test is supportive of a diagnosis of Epstein–Barr virus (EBV), but not polymyalgia rheumatica or temporal arthritis.

      Whole cell count (WCC): A raised WCC is not supportive of a diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica or temporal arthritis.

      Bence Jones proteins: Presence of Bence Jones protein is supportive of a diagnosis of multiple myeloma, but not polymyalgia rheumatica or temporal arthritis.

      If temporal arthritis is suspected, immediate treatment with prednisolone is crucial to prevent permanent loss of vision. A temporal artery biopsy can confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old male immigrant from Turkey presents with complaints of recurrent painful oral...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male immigrant from Turkey presents with complaints of recurrent painful oral ulcers, genital ulcers, tender nodules on the extensor surface of the tibia and arthritis of both knees and ankles for the past 3 months. He has also had episodes of severe eye pain. He had an episode of pulmonary embolism due to deep vein thrombosis of the right leg 1 month ago. On examination, the oral cavity shows the presence of small shallow ulcers with a yellow necrotic centre. Genital examination reveals ulcers on the shaft of the penis and scrotal scars. The glans is spared. Non-specific inflammatory response is observed after intradermal injection of normal saline. Investigations revealed:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      White cell count (WCC) 20 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 80 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      C-reactive protein (CRP) Positive
      Anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies Positive
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Behçet’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Behçet’s Syndrome: A Multisystem Disorder with Recurrent Oral and Genital Ulcerations

      Behçet’s syndrome is a multisystem disorder that primarily affects young people from the Mediterranean region, the Middle East, and the Far East. The syndrome is characterized by recurrent oral and genital ulcerations, as well as ocular involvement. The main pathologic lesion is systemic perivasculitis with early neutrophil infiltration and endothelial swelling. In some patients, vasculitis of the vasa vasorum can result in the formation of pseudo-aneurysms. Anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies are present in patients with Behçet’s syndrome. The recurrent aphthous ulcerations are essential for the diagnosis, and a non-specific skin inflammatory reactivity to any scratches or intradermal saline injection (pathergy test) is a common and specific manifestation. Genital ulcers are painful, do not affect the glans penis or urethra, and produce scrotal scars. Thromboembolic events are a component of the disease itself, with superficial or deep peripheral vein thrombosis seen in 30% of patients. Pulmonary emboli are a rare but possible complication.

      Other possible diagnoses, such as extra intestinal Crohn’s disease, occult malignancy, systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), and rheumatoid arthritis, can be ruled out based on the absence of certain clinical features and the presence of anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old white man comes to his general practitioner complaining of progressive low...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old white man comes to his general practitioner complaining of progressive low back pain over the past four years. The pain is worse at night when he lies down and improves as he moves around during the day, but it does not go away with rest. Upon further questioning, he reports having experienced three episodes of acute eye pain with sensitivity to light and blurry vision in the past two years. He sought treatment from an ophthalmologist, and the symptoms resolved with steroids and eye drops. X-rays reveal some inflammatory and arthritic changes in the sacroiliac joints. Despite treatment, the disease has continued to progress, and ten years later, x-rays show calcification of the anterior spinal ligament. What is the most likely positive finding in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HLA-B27

      Explanation:

      Understanding HLA and Autoimmune Diseases

      HLA-B27 is a genetic marker associated with ankylosing spondylitis, an autoimmune disease that primarily affects the spine. This disease is more common in males and typically presents in the 20s and 30s. Other autoimmune manifestations, such as anterior uveitis, can also occur in individuals with HLA-B27. Additionally, young men with this genetic marker may be prone to reactive arthritis after chlamydia or gonorrhoeal urethritis.

      Rheumatoid factor, on the other hand, is not associated with HLA-B27 or ankylosing spondylitis. While stiffness that improves with exercise may be seen in rheumatoid arthritis, this disease typically affects peripheral joints and does not lead to calcification of the anterior spinal ligament.

      Other HLA markers are associated with different autoimmune diseases. HLA-DR3 is linked to type 1 diabetes mellitus, HLA-DR5 is associated with pernicious anaemia and Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, and HLA-B8 is linked to Graves’ disease. Understanding these genetic markers can aid in the diagnosis and management of autoimmune diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 10 - A 52-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a severely painful, swollen,...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a severely painful, swollen, and red left big toe. He states that it started yesterday and has become so excruciating that he cannot put on shoes. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and was diagnosed with a stomach ulcer last year. The diagnosis is a first episode of acute gout. What would be the most suitable initial treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colchicine

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Acute Gout Flare in a Patient with Peptic Ulcer Disease

      When managing an acute gout flare in a patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease, it is important to consider the potential risks and benefits of different treatment options. Colchicine and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are both effective first-line treatments, but NSAIDs should be used with caution in patients with a history of peptic ulcer disease. If NSAIDs are used, proton-pump cover should be provided for gastric protection. Allopurinol should not be started until after the acute attack has been resolved, and paracetamol may be used as an adjunct for pain relief but would not treat the underlying cause of pain. Prednisolone may be used in patients unable to tolerate NSAIDs or colchicine, but there is no contraindication to a trial of oral colchicine in this patient. Overall, the choice of treatment should be individualized based on the patient’s medical history and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Rheumatology (1/4) 25%
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