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  • Question 1 - A 75-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her family members....

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her family members. She has been experiencing palpitations and chest tightness for the last two hours. Upon examination, her ECG shows a 'sawtooth' appearance with baseline atrial activity of approximately 300/min and a ventricular rate of 150/min. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Atrial flutter

      Explanation:

      Atrial flutter is a type of supraventricular tachycardia that is characterized by a series of rapid atrial depolarization waves. This condition can be identified through ECG findings, which show a sawtooth appearance. The underlying atrial rate is typically around 300 beats per minute, which can affect the ventricular or heart rate depending on the degree of AV block. For instance, if there is a 2:1 block, the ventricular rate will be 150 beats per minute. Flutter waves may also be visible following carotid sinus massage or adenosine.

      Managing atrial flutter is similar to managing atrial fibrillation, although medication may be less effective. However, atrial flutter is more sensitive to cardioversion, so lower energy levels may be used. For most patients, radiofrequency ablation of the tricuspid valve isthmus is curative.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      45.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 22-year-old woman comes to the early pregnancy unit for her 12-week scan....

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old woman comes to the early pregnancy unit for her 12-week scan. She reports no pain or bleeding. The radiologist's ultrasound scan shows no foetal heart rate and a foetal pole corresponding to 8-week gestation, leading to a diagnosis of miscarriage. As this is her first pregnancy, she expresses her preference for medication over expectant management. You decide to prescribe a prostaglandin analogue.

      What medication do you prescribe?

      Your Answer: Misoprostol

      Explanation:

      Misoprostol is a medication that mimics the effects of prostaglandin E1 and is commonly used in medical miscarriage. It can be taken orally, sublingually, or as a vaginal pessary to induce strong uterine contractions and cervical ripening, leading to the expulsion of fetal tissue. Patients may experience abdominal pain and diarrhea as side effects. Desogestrel, on the other hand, is a progesterone-only pill that prevents ovulation and thickens cervical mucus, but it is not used in miscarriage. Mifepristone, an anti-progestogenic steroid, is often used in combination with misoprostol for miscarriage and termination of pregnancy. It blocks progesterone effects, sensitizes the myometrium to prostaglandin-induced contractions, and ripens the cervix. Methotrexate, which inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, is used in pregnancy termination and ectopic pregnancies that meet specific criteria. It is also used as a chemotherapy agent and immunological suppressant.

      Drugs Used in Obstetrics and Gynaecology

      Syntocinon is a synthetic form of oxytocin that is utilized in the active management of the third stage of labor. It aids in the contraction of the uterus, which reduces the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Additionally, it is used to induce labor. Ergometrine, an ergot alkaloid, is an alternative to oxytocin in the active management of the third stage of labor. It can decrease blood loss by constricting the vascular smooth muscle of the uterus. Its mechanism of action involves stimulating alpha-adrenergic, dopaminergic, and serotonergic receptors. However, it can cause coronary artery spasm as an adverse effect.

      Mifepristone is used in combination with misoprostol to terminate pregnancies. Misoprostol is a prostaglandin analog that causes uterine contractions. Mifepristone is a competitive progesterone receptor antagonist. Its mechanism of action involves blocking the effects of progesterone, which is necessary for the maintenance of pregnancy. However, it can cause menorrhagia as an adverse effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - As a neurology doctor, you have been requested to assess a 36-year-old woman...

    Correct

    • As a neurology doctor, you have been requested to assess a 36-year-old woman who was in a car accident and suffered a significant head injury.

      Upon arrival, she is unconscious, and there are some minor twitching movements in her right arm and leg. When she wakes up, these movements become more severe, with her right arm and leg repeatedly flinging out with different amplitudes.

      Based on the likely diagnosis, where is the lesion most likely located?

      Your Answer: Left basal ganglia

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting signs of hemiballismus, which is characterized by involuntary and sudden jerking movements on one side of the body. These movements typically occur on the side opposite to the lesion and may decrease in intensity during periods of relaxation or sleep. The most common location for the lesion causing hemiballismus is the basal ganglia, specifically on the contralateral side. A lesion in the left motor cortex would result in decreased function on the right side of the body, and psychosomatic factors are not the cause of this movement disorder. A lesion in the right basal ganglia would cause movement disorders on the left side of the body.

      Understanding Hemiballism

      Hemiballism is a condition that arises from damage to the subthalamic nucleus. It is characterized by sudden, involuntary, and jerking movements that occur on the side opposite to the lesion. The movements primarily affect the proximal limb muscles, while the distal muscles may display more choreiform-like movements. Interestingly, the symptoms may decrease while the patient is asleep.

      The main treatment for hemiballism involves the use of antidopaminergic agents such as Haloperidol. These medications help to reduce the severity of the symptoms and improve the patient’s quality of life. It is important to note that early diagnosis and treatment are crucial in managing this condition. With proper care and management, individuals with hemiballism can lead fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old female presents with sudden onset of pain in her lower right...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female presents with sudden onset of pain in her lower right abdomen. She has no significant medical history. Her last menstrual period was six weeks ago and her cycles have been regular in the past.

      During the physical examination, her temperature is 37.5°C, pulse rate is 98 bpm regular, and blood pressure is 110/72 mmHg. There is tenderness and guarding in the right iliac fossa.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ectopic pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Causes of Right Iliac Fossa Pain in Women

      Right iliac fossa pain in women can be caused by various conditions such as mittelschmerz, appendicitis, and ectopic pregnancy. However, in the case of a young woman who is seven weeks past her last period, ectopic pregnancy is highly suspected. This condition occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube.

      To confirm or rule out ectopic pregnancy, the most appropriate initial test would be a pregnancy test. This test detects the presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), a hormone produced by the placenta after implantation. If the test is positive, further evaluation such as ultrasound and blood tests may be necessary to determine the location of the pregnancy and the appropriate management. It is important to seek medical attention promptly if experiencing RIF pain, as delay in diagnosis and treatment of ectopic pregnancy can lead to serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      48.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - At which of the following sites is the development of diverticulosis least likely...

    Correct

    • At which of the following sites is the development of diverticulosis least likely in individuals over 60 years of age?

      Your Answer: Rectum

      Explanation:

      It is extremely rare for diverticular disease to affect the rectum due to the circular muscle coat present in this area, which is a result of the blending of the tenia at the recto-sigmoid junction. While left-sided colonic diverticular disease is more common, right-sided colonic diverticular disease is also acknowledged.

      Understanding Diverticular Disease

      Diverticular disease is a common condition that involves the protrusion of the colon’s mucosa through its muscular wall. This typically occurs between the taenia coli, where vessels penetrate the muscle to supply the mucosa. Symptoms of diverticular disease include altered bowel habits, rectal bleeding, and abdominal pain. Complications can arise, such as diverticulitis, haemorrhage, fistula development, perforation and faecal peritonitis, abscess formation, and diverticular phlegmon.

      To diagnose diverticular disease, patients may undergo a colonoscopy, CT cologram, or barium enema. However, it can be challenging to rule out cancer, especially in diverticular strictures. Acutely unwell surgical patients require a systematic investigation, including plain abdominal films and an erect chest x-ray to identify perforation. An abdominal CT scan with oral and intravenous contrast can help identify acute inflammation and local complications.

      Treatment for diverticular disease includes increasing dietary fibre intake and managing mild attacks with antibiotics. Peri colonic abscesses require drainage, either surgically or radiologically. Recurrent episodes of acute diverticulitis requiring hospitalisation may indicate a segmental resection. Hinchey IV perforations, which involve generalised faecal peritonitis, require a resection and usually a stoma. This group has a high risk of postoperative complications and typically requires HDU admission. Less severe perforations may be managed by laparoscopic washout and drain insertion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old man comes to you with complaints of pedal oedema, frothy urine...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man comes to you with complaints of pedal oedema, frothy urine and decreased urine output. He has no significant medical history. You suspect that the patient's nephrotic syndrome may be caused by a common form of idiopathic glomerulonephritis that affects adults.

      What would be the most helpful initial test to confirm this particular diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anti-phospholipase A2 antibodies

      Explanation:

      Idiopathic membranous glomerulonephritis is believed to be associated with anti-phospholipase A2 antibodies. This condition is a common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults, and since the patient has no other relevant medical history, an idiopathic cause is likely. To confirm the diagnosis, measuring anti-phospholipase A2 levels is recommended.

      Testing for ASOT would suggest post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN), which is more common in children and typically presents with an acute nephritic picture rather than nephrotic syndrome. Therefore, this is not the most likely diagnosis.

      While dyslipidaemia is commonly found in nephrotic syndrome, confirming it would not help confirm the suspected diagnosis of idiopathic membranous glomerulonephritis.

      Although acute kidney injury (AKI) can occur in individuals with nephrotic syndrome, assessing renal function is unlikely to help diagnose membranous glomerulonephritis.

      While assessing the protein content in a sample may be useful in diagnosing nephrotic syndrome, it is not specific to membranous glomerulonephritis.

      Membranous glomerulonephritis is the most common type of glomerulonephritis in adults and is the third leading cause of end-stage renal failure. It typically presents with proteinuria or nephrotic syndrome. A renal biopsy will show a thickened basement membrane with subepithelial electron dense deposits, creating a spike and dome appearance. The condition can be caused by various factors, including infections, malignancy, drugs, autoimmune diseases, and idiopathic reasons.

      Management of membranous glomerulonephritis involves the use of ACE inhibitors or ARBs to reduce proteinuria and improve prognosis. Immunosuppression may be necessary for patients with severe or progressive disease, but many patients spontaneously improve. Corticosteroids alone are not effective, and a combination of corticosteroid and another agent such as cyclophosphamide is often used. Anticoagulation may be considered for high-risk patients.

      The prognosis for membranous glomerulonephritis follows the rule of thirds: one-third of patients experience spontaneous remission, one-third remain proteinuric, and one-third develop end-stage renal failure. Good prognostic factors include female sex, young age at presentation, and asymptomatic proteinuria of a modest degree at the time of diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old, gravida 2 para 1, presents to the emergency department with pelvic...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old, gravida 2 para 1, presents to the emergency department with pelvic pain. She delivered a healthy baby at 37 weeks gestation 13 days ago.

      During the examination, it was found that she has right lower quadrant pain and her temperature is 37.8º C. Further tests revealed a left gonadal (ovarian) vein thrombosis. The patient was informed about the risk of the thrombus lodging in the venous system from the left gonadal vein.

      What is the first structure that the thrombus will go through if lodged from the left gonadal vein?

      Your Answer: Left renal vein

      Explanation:

      The left gonadal veins empty into the left renal vein, meaning that any thrombus originating from the left gonadal veins would travel to the left renal vein. However, if the thrombus originated from the right gonadal vein, it would flow into the inferior vena cava (IVC) since the right gonadal vein directly drains into the IVC.

      The portal vein is typically formed by the merging of the superior mesenteric and splenic veins, and it also receives blood from the inferior mesenteric, gastric, and cystic veins.

      The superior vena cava collects venous drainage from the upper half of the body, specifically above the diaphragm.

      Anatomy of the Inferior Vena Cava

      The inferior vena cava (IVC) originates from the fifth lumbar vertebrae and is formed by the merging of the left and right common iliac veins. It passes to the right of the midline and receives drainage from paired segmental lumbar veins throughout its length. The right gonadal vein empties directly into the cava, while the left gonadal vein usually empties into the left renal vein. The renal veins and hepatic veins are the next major veins that drain into the IVC. The IVC pierces the central tendon of the diaphragm at the level of T8 and empties into the right atrium of the heart.

      The IVC is related anteriorly to the small bowel, the first and third parts of the duodenum, the head of the pancreas, the liver and bile duct, the right common iliac artery, and the right gonadal artery. Posteriorly, it is related to the right renal artery, the right psoas muscle, the right sympathetic chain, and the coeliac ganglion.

      The IVC is divided into different levels based on the veins that drain into it. At the level of T8, it receives drainage from the hepatic vein and inferior phrenic vein before piercing the diaphragm. At the level of L1, it receives drainage from the suprarenal veins and renal vein. At the level of L2, it receives drainage from the gonadal vein, and at the level of L1-5, it receives drainage from the lumbar veins. Finally, at the level of L5, the common iliac vein merges to form the IVC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old patient presents with sudden onset of chest pain, ankle edema, and...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient presents with sudden onset of chest pain, ankle edema, and difficulty breathing. The diagnosis is heart failure. Which of the following is the cause of the inadequate response of his stroke volume?

      Your Answer: Preload

      Explanation:

      The response of stroke volume in a normal heart to changes in preload is governed by Starling’s Law. This means that an increase in end diastolic volume in the left ventricle should result in a higher stroke volume, as the cardiac myocytes stretch. However, this effect has a limit, as seen in cases of heart failure where excessive stretch of the cardiac myocytes prevents this response.

      The heart has four chambers and generates pressures of 0-25 mmHg on the right side and 0-120 mmHg on the left. The cardiac output is the product of heart rate and stroke volume, typically 5-6L per minute. The cardiac impulse is generated in the sino atrial node and conveyed to the ventricles via the atrioventricular node. Parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers project to the heart via the vagus and release acetylcholine and noradrenaline, respectively. The cardiac cycle includes mid diastole, late diastole, early systole, late systole, and early diastole. Preload is the end diastolic volume and afterload is the aortic pressure. Laplace’s law explains the rise in ventricular pressure during the ejection phase and why a dilated diseased heart will have impaired systolic function. Starling’s law states that an increase in end-diastolic volume will produce a larger stroke volume up to a point beyond which stroke volume will fall. Baroreceptor reflexes and atrial stretch receptors are involved in regulating cardiac output.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      1123.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of abdominal pain and...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She is currently 11 weeks pregnant. Upon examination, there is evidence of bleeding, but the size of the uterus is consistent with the given dates, and the cervical os is closed. What is the most appropriate term to describe this scenario?

      Your Answer: Threatened miscarriage

      Explanation:

      Miscarriage is the loss of a pregnancy before the 20th week. It is a common occurrence, with about 10-20% of pregnancies ending in miscarriage. In most cases, the cause of miscarriage is unknown, but it can be due to genetic abnormalities, hormonal imbalances, or health conditions such as diabetes or thyroid problems.

      There are different types of miscarriage, including complete, incomplete, inevitable, and septic. A complete miscarriage is when all fetal tissue has been passed, bleeding has stopped, the uterus is no longer enlarged, and the cervical os is closed. An incomplete miscarriage is when only some fetal parts have been passed, and the cervical os is usually open. An inevitable miscarriage means that a miscarriage is about to occur, with the fetus still possibly alive but the cervical os open and bleeding usually heavier. A septic miscarriage occurs when the contents of the uterus are infected, causing endometritis. Symptoms include offensive vaginal loss, tender uterus, and in cases of pelvic infection, abdominal pain and peritonism.

      Types of Miscarriage

      Miscarriage is a common complication that can occur during pregnancy. There are different types of miscarriage, each with its own set of symptoms and characteristics. One type is threatened miscarriage, which is painless vaginal bleeding that occurs before 24 weeks, typically at 6-9 weeks. The bleeding is usually less than menstruation, and the cervical os is closed. This type of miscarriage complicates up to 25% of all pregnancies.

      Another type is missed (delayed) miscarriage, which is characterized by a gestational sac that contains a dead fetus before 20 weeks without the symptoms of expulsion. The mother may experience light vaginal bleeding or discharge and the disappearance of pregnancy symptoms, but pain is not usually present. The cervical os is closed, and when the gestational sac is larger than 25 mm and no embryonic or fetal part can be seen, it is sometimes referred to as a blighted ovum or anembryonic pregnancy.

      Inevitable miscarriage is another type, which is characterized by heavy bleeding with clots and pain. The cervical os is open in this case. Lastly, incomplete miscarriage occurs when not all products of conception have been expelled. This type of miscarriage is characterized by pain and vaginal bleeding, and the cervical os is open. Understanding the different types of miscarriage can help individuals recognize the symptoms and seek appropriate medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A woman in her 50s with lung cancer and bone metastasis in the...

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her 50s with lung cancer and bone metastasis in the thoracic spinal vertebral bodies experiences a pathological fracture at the level of T4. The fracture is unstable and the spinal cord is severely compressed at this level. Which of the following findings will not be present six weeks after the injury?

      Your Answer: Extensor plantar reflexes

      Correct Answer: Diminished patellar tendon reflex

      Explanation:

      When there is a lesion in the thoracic cord, it can lead to spastic paraparesis, hyperreflexia, and extensor plantar responses, which are all signs of an upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion. In addition, there may be incontinence, loss of sensation below the lesion, and a type of ataxia known as sensory ataxia. These symptoms usually appear a few weeks after the initial injury, once the spinal shock phase (characterized by areflexia) has passed.

      The spinal cord is a central structure located within the vertebral column that provides it with structural support. It extends rostrally to the medulla oblongata of the brain and tapers caudally at the L1-2 level, where it is anchored to the first coccygeal vertebrae by the filum terminale. The cord is characterised by cervico-lumbar enlargements that correspond to the brachial and lumbar plexuses. It is incompletely divided into two symmetrical halves by a dorsal median sulcus and ventral median fissure, with grey matter surrounding a central canal that is continuous with the ventricular system of the CNS. Afferent fibres entering through the dorsal roots usually terminate near their point of entry but may travel for varying distances in Lissauer’s tract. The key point to remember is that the anatomy of the cord will dictate the clinical presentation in cases of injury, which can be caused by trauma, neoplasia, inflammatory diseases, vascular issues, or infection.

      One important condition to remember is Brown-Sequard syndrome, which is caused by hemisection of the cord and produces ipsilateral loss of proprioception and upper motor neuron signs, as well as contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Lesions below L1 tend to present with lower motor neuron signs. It is important to keep a clinical perspective in mind when revising CNS anatomy and to understand the ways in which the spinal cord can become injured, as this will help in diagnosing and treating patients with spinal cord injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      81.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A patient presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath and fatigue....

    Correct

    • A patient presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath and fatigue. Upon examination, a purpuric rash is discovered on their torso, arms, and legs. The initial blood test results are as follows:

      Hb 78 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 43 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 9.3 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)

      A blood film reveals numerous fragmented red cells (schistocytes) and marked thrombocytopenia, indicating intravascular hemolysis with high levels of free hemoglobin. To confirm this diagnosis, which of the following additional test results would be helpful?

      Your Answer: Low haptoglobins

      Explanation:

      Haptoglobin is a liver-produced protein that binds to free haemoglobin in blood plasma, allowing the reticuloendothelial system to remove it. This consumption of haptoglobin reduces its detectable levels in the blood, making it a useful indicator of haemolysis.

      If an individual has a functioning liver, conjugated bilirubin levels will increase in haemolysis. This is because the liver generates conjugated bilirubin from unconjugated bilirubin, which is produced from the porphyrin rings of haemoglobin. Conjugated bilirubin is more soluble in water and can be secreted through the kidneys.

      Lactate dehydrogenase is an intracellular enzyme that is leaked from cells, including erythrocytes, which are broken down. Its levels increase due to cell breakdown, not only in haemolysis but also in cardiomyocyte damage due to infarction and lymphocyte turnover due to leukaemia.

      Potassium is an intracellular ion that can increase in levels due to haemolysis and cell breakdown. This can lead to cardiac arrhythmias such as ventricular tachycardia and fibrillation.

      Low platelets and a purpuric rash suggest that the likely form of intravascular haemolysis is a microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia (MAHA) such as thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) or haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS). These rare conditions result in the accumulation of intravascular thrombosis, leading to platelet and clotting factor consumption.

      Understanding Haemolytic Anaemias by Site

      Haemolytic anaemias can be classified by the site of haemolysis, either intravascular or extravascular. In intravascular haemolysis, free haemoglobin is released and binds to haptoglobin. As haptoglobin becomes saturated, haemoglobin binds to albumin forming methaemalbumin, which can be detected by Schumm’s test. Free haemoglobin is then excreted in the urine as haemoglobinuria and haemosiderinuria. Causes of intravascular haemolysis include mismatched blood transfusion, red cell fragmentation due to heart valves, TTP, DIC, HUS, paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria, and cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia.

      On the other hand, extravascular haemolysis occurs when red blood cells are destroyed by macrophages in the spleen or liver. This type of haemolysis is commonly seen in haemoglobinopathies such as sickle cell anaemia and thalassaemia, hereditary spherocytosis, haemolytic disease of the newborn, and warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia.

      It is important to understand the site of haemolysis in order to properly diagnose and treat haemolytic anaemias. While both intravascular and extravascular haemolysis can lead to anaemia, the underlying causes and treatment approaches may differ.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 75-year-old male visits his GP accompanied by his wife who is anxious...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old male visits his GP accompanied by his wife who is anxious about his recent memory decline. The patient's wife is worried as her mother had Alzheimer's disease and she fears her husband may be developing it too. Among the following causes of cognitive decline, which one is potentially reversible?

      Your Answer: Brain tumour

      Explanation:

      Normal pressure hydrocephalus can be a reversible cause of dementia, while Pick’s disease is a degenerative form of frontotemporal dementia that cannot be reversed. Lewy body dementia is a progressive condition that is linked to parkinson’s and visual hallucinations. Multi-infarct dementia is associated with cardiovascular risk factors like smoking, diabetes, and atrial fibrillation, but the damage caused by infarcts is irreversible. A brain tumor is a potential cause of dementia that can be reversed.

      Understanding the Causes of Dementia

      Dementia is a condition that affects millions of people worldwide, and it is caused by a variety of factors. The most common causes of dementia include Alzheimer’s disease, cerebrovascular disease, and Lewy body dementia. These conditions account for around 40-50% of all cases of dementia.

      However, there are also rarer causes of dementia, which account for around 5% of cases. These include Huntington’s disease, Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD), Pick’s disease, and HIV (in 50% of AIDS patients). These conditions are less common but can still have a significant impact on those affected.

      It is also important to note that there are several potentially treatable causes of dementia that should be ruled out before a diagnosis is made. These include hypothyroidism, Addison’s disease, B12/folate/thiamine deficiency, syphilis, brain tumours, normal pressure hydrocephalus, subdural haematoma, depression, and chronic drug use (such as alcohol or barbiturates).

      In conclusion, understanding the causes of dementia is crucial for effective diagnosis and treatment. While some causes are more common than others, it is important to consider all potential factors and rule out treatable conditions before making a final diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 15-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother due to...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother due to complaints of severe abdominal cramps and heavy menstrual bleeding.

      Which term accurately describes an excessive amount of menstrual bleeding?

      Your Answer: Menorrhagia

      Explanation:

      Menstrual Disorders

      Menstrual disorders are common among women and can cause discomfort and inconvenience. Menorrhagia is a condition where women experience prolonged and heavy periods at regular intervals. On the other hand, metrorrhagia, also known as spotting, is characterized by vaginal bleeding that is not in line with a regular menstrual cycle. Cryptomenorrhoea is a condition where menstruation occurs but is concealed, such as in the case of an imperforate hymen. Dysmenorrhoea, which often coexists with menorrhagia, refers to severe uterine pain experienced by some women during and around the time of menstruation.

      Oligomenorrhoea, on the other hand, is a condition where menstrual bleeding occurs infrequently, with periods of non-menstruation for more than 35 days. When menstruation does not occur at all, this is called amenorrhoea. It is important for women to be aware of these conditions and seek medical attention if they experience any abnormal menstrual symptoms. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help manage these conditions and improve the quality of life for women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Samantha, a 65-year-old woman, was admitted to the hospital following a fall at...

    Correct

    • Samantha, a 65-year-old woman, was admitted to the hospital following a fall at home. After various tests, Samantha was diagnosed with a stroke and commenced on the appropriate medical treatment. Although some of her symptoms have improved, Samantha is experiencing difficulty with communication. She can speak, but her words do not make sense, and she cannot comprehend when others try to communicate with her. The specialist suspects Wernicke's aphasia.

      Which area of the brain would be affected to cause this presentation?

      Your Answer: Temporal lobe

      Explanation:

      Brain lesions can be localized based on the neurological disorders or features that are present. The gross anatomy of the brain can provide clues to the location of the lesion. For example, lesions in the parietal lobe can result in sensory inattention, apraxias, astereognosis, inferior homonymous quadrantanopia, and Gerstmann’s syndrome. Lesions in the occipital lobe can cause homonymous hemianopia, cortical blindness, and visual agnosia. Temporal lobe lesions can result in Wernicke’s aphasia, superior homonymous quadrantanopia, auditory agnosia, and prosopagnosia. Lesions in the frontal lobes can cause expressive aphasia, disinhibition, perseveration, anosmia, and an inability to generate a list. Lesions in the cerebellum can result in gait and truncal ataxia, intention tremor, past pointing, dysdiadokinesis, and nystagmus.

      In addition to the gross anatomy, specific areas of the brain can also provide clues to the location of a lesion. For example, lesions in the medial thalamus and mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus can result in Wernicke and Korsakoff syndrome. Lesions in the subthalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia can cause hemiballism, while lesions in the striatum (caudate nucleus) can result in Huntington chorea. Parkinson’s disease is associated with lesions in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia, while lesions in the amygdala can cause Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which is characterized by hypersexuality, hyperorality, hyperphagia, and visual agnosia. By identifying these specific conditions, doctors can better localize brain lesions and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 45-year-old patient visits his GP with complaints of fatigue and weight loss....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old patient visits his GP with complaints of fatigue and weight loss. He reports pain in his right shoulder area and tingling sensations in his fourth and fifth fingers on the right hand. Upon diagnosis, it is revealed that he has an apical lung tumor that is pressing on the C8-T1 nerve roots of the brachial plexus. Which nerve in the upper limb is primarily affected?

      Your Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Explanation:

      The pressure applied by the tumour on the inferior roots of the brachial plexus (C8-T1) explains the pain in the shoulder region, as the ulnar nerve, which innervates the palmar surface of the fifth digit and medial part of the fourth digit, originates from these roots.

      The axillary nerve’s cutaneous branches supply the skin surrounding the inferior part of the deltoid muscle around the shoulder joint.

      The lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm is the only sensory branch of the musculoskeletal nerve and innervates the lateral aspect of the forearm.

      Although the radial nerve has the most extensive cutaneous innervation of the nerves in the upper limb, it does not supply the palmar surface of the hand but rather its dorsal side.

      The median nerve supplies the lateral part of the palm and the palmar surface of the three most lateral fingers, and is partially comprised of the C8-T1 roots of the brachial plexus. Therefore, altered sensations of the thumb or index finger would be more typical of median nerve impairment than the fourth or fifth digits.

      The ulnar nerve originates from the medial cord of the brachial plexus, specifically from the C8 and T1 nerve roots. It provides motor innervation to various muscles in the hand, including the medial two lumbricals, adductor pollicis, interossei, hypothenar muscles (abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi), and flexor carpi ulnaris. Sensory innervation is also provided to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. The nerve travels through the posteromedial aspect of the upper arm and enters the palm of the hand via Guyon’s canal, which is located superficial to the flexor retinaculum and lateral to the pisiform bone.

      The ulnar nerve has several branches that supply different muscles and areas of the hand. The muscular branch provides innervation to the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus. The palmar cutaneous branch arises near the middle of the forearm and supplies the skin on the medial part of the palm, while the dorsal cutaneous branch supplies the dorsal surface of the medial part of the hand. The superficial branch provides cutaneous fibers to the anterior surfaces of the medial one and one-half digits, and the deep branch supplies the hypothenar muscles, all the interosseous muscles, the third and fourth lumbricals, the adductor pollicis, and the medial head of the flexor pollicis brevis.

      Damage to the ulnar nerve at the wrist can result in a claw hand deformity, where there is hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits. There may also be wasting and paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles (except for the lateral two lumbricals), hypothenar muscles, and sensory loss to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. Damage to the nerve at the elbow can result in similar symptoms, but with the addition of radial deviation of the wrist. It is important to diagnose and treat ulnar nerve damage promptly to prevent long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 16 - A 15-year-old female presents to her primary care physician with concerns about her...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old female presents to her primary care physician with concerns about her height and delayed puberty. Upon further questioning, she reports never having had a menstrual period. The patient's height is notably below her midparental height.

      During the physical examination, the patient is found to be in Tanner Stage I for breast development and early Tanner Stage II for pubic hair development. Additionally, she has a webbed neck.

      Laboratory tests reveal elevated levels of Luteinizing Hormone (LH) and Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH) with decreased estrogen levels. The diagnosis is confirmed through karyotyping.

      Which cardiac abnormality is most frequently associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Explanation:

      Aortic coarctation is a common cardiac complication associated with Turner Syndrome.

      Understanding Turner’s Syndrome

      Turner’s syndrome is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is identified as 45,XO or 45,X.

      The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (present in 15% of cases), coarctation of the aorta (present in 5-10% of cases), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially in the feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is also more common in individuals with Turner’s syndrome, as well as an increased incidence of autoimmune diseases such as autoimmune thyroiditis and Crohn’s disease.

      In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and is characterized by various physical features and health conditions. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 17 - A pair of adolescents are fooling around with an airgun when one mistakenly...

    Correct

    • A pair of adolescents are fooling around with an airgun when one mistakenly shoots his buddy in the stomach. The injured friend is rushed to the ER where he is examined. The bullet has entered just to the right of the rectus sheath at the level of the 2nd lumbar vertebrae. Which of the following structures is the most probable to have been harmed by the bullet?

      Your Answer: Fundus of the gallbladder

      Explanation:

      The most superficially located structure is the fundus of the gallbladder, which is found at this level.

      Anatomical Planes and Levels in the Human Body

      The human body can be divided into different planes and levels to aid in anatomical study and medical procedures. One such plane is the transpyloric plane, which runs horizontally through the body of L1 and intersects with various organs such as the pylorus of the stomach, left kidney hilum, and duodenojejunal flexure. Another way to identify planes is by using common level landmarks, such as the inferior mesenteric artery at L3 or the formation of the IVC at L5.

      In addition to planes and levels, there are also diaphragm apertures located at specific levels in the body. These include the vena cava at T8, the esophagus at T10, and the aortic hiatus at T12. By understanding these planes, levels, and apertures, medical professionals can better navigate the human body during procedures and accurately diagnose and treat various conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 18 - A 54-year-old man visits his GP for a routine check-up and physical examination....

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man visits his GP for a routine check-up and physical examination. He has a medical history of hypertension and asthma but currently has no immediate concerns. He reports feeling healthy.

      During the examination, the man appears to be in good health, with normal vital signs except for a high blood pressure reading of 160/90 mmHg. While listening to his heart, the GP detects an S4 heart sound and orders an ECG.

      Which segment of the ECG corresponds to the S4 heart sound?

      Your Answer: P wave

      Explanation:

      The S4 heart sound coincides with the P wave on an ECG. This is because the S4 sound is caused by the contraction of the atria against a stiff ventricle, which occurs just before the S1 sound. It is commonly heard in conditions such as aortic stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, or hypertension. As the P wave represents atrial depolarization, it is the ECG wave that coincides with the S4 heart sound.

      It is important to note that the QRS complex, which represents ventricular depolarization, is not associated with the S4 heart sound. Similarly, the ST segment, which is the interval between ventricular depolarization and repolarization, and T waves, which indicate ventricular repolarization, are not linked to the S4 heart sound.

      Heart sounds are the sounds produced by the heart during its normal functioning. The first heart sound (S1) is caused by the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves, while the second heart sound (S2) is due to the closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves. The intensity of these sounds can vary depending on the condition of the valves and the heart. The third heart sound (S3) is caused by the diastolic filling of the ventricle and is considered normal in young individuals. However, it may indicate left ventricular failure, constrictive pericarditis, or mitral regurgitation in older individuals. The fourth heart sound (S4) may be heard in conditions such as aortic stenosis, HOCM, and hypertension, and is caused by atrial contraction against a stiff ventricle. The different valves can be best heard at specific sites on the chest wall, such as the left second intercostal space for the pulmonary valve and the right second intercostal space for the aortic valve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      15.1
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  • Question 19 - A study can only make confident claims about cause and effect if it...

    Correct

    • A study can only make confident claims about cause and effect if it has what?

      Your Answer: Good internal validity

      Explanation:

      Claims about cause and effect require good internal validity.

      Validity refers to how accurately something measures what it claims to measure. There are two main types of validity: internal and external. Internal validity refers to the confidence we have in the cause and effect relationship in a study. This means we are confident that the independent variable caused the observed change in the dependent variable, rather than other factors. There are several threats to internal validity, such as poor control of extraneous variables and loss of participants over time. External validity refers to the degree to which the conclusions of a study can be applied to other people, places, and times. Threats to external validity include the representativeness of the sample and the artificiality of the research setting. There are also other types of validity, such as face validity and content validity, which refer to the general impression and full content of a test, respectively. Criterion validity compares tests, while construct validity measures the extent to which a test measures the construct it aims to.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 20 - A 54 year old female who has undergone a hysterectomy presents to the...

    Correct

    • A 54 year old female who has undergone a hysterectomy presents to the clinic with complaints of pain and decreased sensation on the inner part of her thigh. Upon examination, weak thigh adduction is noted. What nerve injury is most probable?

      Your Answer: Obturator nerve

      Explanation:

      The adductor nerve is responsible for providing sensation to the inner part of the thigh and facilitating adduction and internal rotation of the thigh. This nerve is commonly damaged during surgeries involving the pelvic or abdominal region. It is improbable for the L3 spinal cord to be compressed in such cases.

      Anatomy of the Obturator Nerve

      The obturator nerve is formed by branches from the ventral divisions of L2, L3, and L4 nerve roots, with L3 being the main contributor. It descends vertically in the posterior part of the psoas major muscle and emerges from its medial border at the lateral margin of the sacrum. After crossing the sacroiliac joint, it enters the lesser pelvis and descends on the obturator internus muscle to enter the obturator groove. The nerve lies lateral to the internal iliac vessels and ureter in the lesser pelvis and is joined by the obturator vessels lateral to the ovary or ductus deferens.

      The obturator nerve supplies the muscles of the medial compartment of the thigh, including the external obturator, adductor longus, adductor brevis, adductor magnus (except for the lower part supplied by the sciatic nerve), and gracilis. The cutaneous branch, which is often absent, supplies the skin and fascia of the distal two-thirds of the medial aspect of the thigh when present.

      The obturator canal connects the pelvis and thigh and contains the obturator artery, vein, and nerve, which divides into anterior and posterior branches. Understanding the anatomy of the obturator nerve is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the medial thigh and pelvic region.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 21 - A 24-year-old female arrives at the emergency department in a state of panic...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old female arrives at the emergency department in a state of panic following a recent breakup with her partner. She complains of chest tightness and dizziness, fearing that she may be experiencing a heart attack. Upon examination, her vital signs are stable except for a respiratory rate of 34 breaths per minute. What compensatory mechanism is expected in response to the change in her oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve, and what is the underlying cause?

      Your Answer: Left shift, respiratory alkalosis

      Explanation:

      The patient’s oxygen dissociation curve has shifted to the left, indicating respiratory alkalosis. This is likely due to the patient experiencing a panic attack and hyperventilating, leading to a decrease in carbon dioxide levels and an increase in the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen. Respiratory acidosis, hypercapnia, and a right shift of the curve are not appropriate explanations for this patient’s condition.

      Understanding the Oxygen Dissociation Curve

      The oxygen dissociation curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. It is not influenced by the concentration of haemoglobin. The curve can shift to the left or right, indicating changes in oxygen delivery to tissues. When the curve shifts to the left, there is increased saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, resulting in decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Conversely, when the curve shifts to the right, there is reduced saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, leading to enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues.

      The L rule is a helpful mnemonic to remember the factors that cause a shift to the left, resulting in lower oxygen delivery. These factors include low levels of hydrogen ions (alkali), low partial pressure of carbon dioxide, low levels of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, and low temperature. On the other hand, the mnemonic ‘CADET, face Right!’ can be used to remember the factors that cause a shift to the right, leading to raised oxygen delivery. These factors include carbon dioxide, acid, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, exercise, and temperature.

      Understanding the oxygen dissociation curve is crucial in assessing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and the delivery of oxygen to tissues. By knowing the factors that can shift the curve to the left or right, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions in managing patients with respiratory and cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 22 - A 42-year-old man undergoes a partial thyroidectomy and experiences hoarseness upon returning to...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man undergoes a partial thyroidectomy and experiences hoarseness upon returning to the ward. As a healthcare professional, you know that this is a common complication of thyroid surgery. Which nerve is most likely responsible for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The recurrent laryngeal nerve is a branch of the vagus nerve (CN X) that provides motor supply to all but one of the laryngeal muscles and sensory supply to the larynx below the vocal cords. The left nerve loops under the arch of the aorta and passes deep to the inferior constrictor muscle of the pharynx, while the right nerve usually loops under the right subclavian artery. Both nerves pass close to or through the thyroid ligament, making them susceptible to injury during thyroid surgery. Dysfunction of either nerve can result in a hoarse voice.

      The internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve is the only other nerve among the given options that innervates the larynx. It carries sensory supply to the larynx above the vocal cords, while the external branch supplies the cricothyroid muscle. Dysfunction of the external branch can cause a hoarse voice, but dysfunction of the internal branch will not.

      The greater auricular nerve and transverse cervical nerve are superficial cutaneous nerves that arise from the cervical plexus and supply the skin overlying the mandible, ear auricle, and neck. The phrenic nerve, also arising from the cervical plexus, provides motor innervation to the diaphragm and sensation to the parietal pericardium and pleura adjacent to the mediastinum.

      During surgical procedures, there is a risk of nerve injury caused by the surgery itself. This is not only important for the patient’s well-being but also from a legal perspective. There are various operations that carry the risk of nerve damage, such as posterior triangle lymph node biopsy, Lloyd Davies stirrups, thyroidectomy, anterior resection of rectum, axillary node clearance, inguinal hernia surgery, varicose vein surgery, posterior approach to the hip, and carotid endarterectomy. Surgeons must have a good understanding of the anatomy of the area they are operating on to minimize the incidence of nerve lesions. Blind placement of haemostats is not recommended as it can also cause nerve damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      5.2
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  • Question 23 - A 61-year-old man is starting amiodarone for persistent atrial fibrillation. What blood tests...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old man is starting amiodarone for persistent atrial fibrillation. What blood tests should be checked before beginning therapy?

      Your Answer: Liver function tests, thyroid function tests and renal function tests

      Explanation:

      Before and during amiodarone therapy, it is important to check thyroid and liver function tests.

      Drug monitoring is an essential aspect of patient care to ensure the safe and effective use of medications. The tables below provide basic guidelines for monitoring common drugs in different therapeutic categories. It is important to note that these guidelines do not relate to monitoring the effectiveness of treatment, such as checking lipid levels for patients taking statins.

      For cardiovascular drugs, statins require monitoring of liver function tests (LFTs) at baseline, 3 months, and 12 months. ACE inhibitors require monitoring of electrolytes (U&E) prior to treatment, after increasing the dose, and at least annually. Amiodarone requires monitoring of thyroid function tests (TFT), LFT, U&E, and chest X-ray prior to treatment, and TFT and LFT every 6 months.

      In rheumatology, methotrexate requires monitoring of full blood count (FBC), LFT, and U&E before starting treatment, with weekly monitoring until therapy stabilizes, and then every 2-3 months. Azathioprine requires monitoring of FBC and LFT before treatment, weekly for the first 4 weeks, and every 3 months thereafter.

      For neuropsychiatric drugs, lithium requires monitoring of lithium levels, TFT, and U&E prior to treatment, weekly until stabilized, and then every 3 months. TFT and U&E should be monitored every 6 months. Sodium valproate requires monitoring of LFT and FBC before treatment and periodically during the first 6 months.

      Finally, for endocrine drugs, glitazones require monitoring of LFT before treatment and regularly during treatment. These guidelines serve as a starting point for drug monitoring and may be adjusted based on individual patient needs and clinical judgment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 24 - A 42 year old woman comes to your general practice with a complaint...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old woman comes to your general practice with a complaint of right wrist pain that has been bothering her for a year. The pain worsens with flexion and she rates it as a 7 on the pain scale. She has tried pain medication but with little success. Upon examination, there is no indication of synovitis, but a small effusion is present in the right wrist. Onycholysis is also observed. Purple plaques are present on the extensor surfaces of the elbows bilaterally. What is the clinical diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic arthritis is strongly linked to psoriasis, with skin and nail bed changes serving as indicators of this related pathological process. Diagnosis is made through clinical evaluation. For comprehensive information on these conditions, Arthritis Research UK is a valuable resource.

      Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is characterized by joint inflammation that often precedes the development of skin lesions. While it affects both males and females equally, only 10-20% of patients with psoriasis develop this condition. The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with the most common types being symmetric polyarthritis and asymmetrical oligoarthritis. Other signs include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, and nail changes. X-rays may show erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as a pencil-in-cup appearance. Treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis, but mild cases may only require NSAIDs and newer monoclonal antibodies may be used. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 25 - A 10-year-old boy comes to the genetics clinic with a history of poor...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy comes to the genetics clinic with a history of poor coordination and speech difficulties that have been getting worse over the past year, indicating a possible inherited ataxia disorder.

      Despite testing for known ataxia genes, no mutations are found. As a result, a whole exome sequence is conducted to search for less common mutations, which reveals a silent mutation in a codon on chromosome 11.

      How would you best describe this mutation?

      Your Answer: A single base mutation that does not change the amino acid, and does not affect the phenotype or transcription of that gene

      Explanation:

      A silent mutation is a type of mutation where a single base is altered, but the resulting amino acid remains the same. This is often due to the degeneracy of the genetic code, where multiple codons can code for the same amino acid. This type of mutation is considered silent because it does not affect the downstream processing or phenotype of the gene.

      On the other hand, a synonymous mutation is also a single base change that does not alter the amino acid, but it can cause changes in downstream processing or phenotype. This type of mutation can lead to conditions such as Phenylketonuria and von Hippel-Lindau disease.

      A missense mutation is a single base change that alters the resulting amino acid, leading to changes in protein function and potentially causing disease. Meanwhile, a neutral missense mutation is a single base change that alters the amino acid but does not affect protein function or phenotype.

      Types of DNA Mutations

      There are different types of DNA mutations that can occur in an organism’s genetic material. One type is called a silent mutation, which does not change the amino acid sequence of a protein. This type of mutation often occurs in the third position of a codon, where the change in the DNA base does not affect the final amino acid produced.

      Another type of mutation is called a nonsense mutation, which results in the formation of a stop codon. This means that the protein being produced is truncated and may not function properly.

      A missense mutation is a point mutation that changes the amino acid sequence of a protein. This can have significant effects on the protein’s function, as the altered amino acid may not be able to perform its intended role.

      Finally, a frameshift mutation occurs when a number of nucleotides are inserted or deleted from the DNA sequence. This can cause a shift in the reading frame of the DNA, resulting in a completely different amino acid sequence downstream. These mutations can have serious consequences for the organism, as the resulting protein may be non-functional or even harmful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 26 - A 5-day-old infant has undergone newborn blood spot screening test before being discharged...

    Correct

    • A 5-day-old infant has undergone newborn blood spot screening test before being discharged from the hospital. The test suggests a possible diagnosis of medium-chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD), which can be caused by the disturbance of RNA splicing.

      Which organelle is responsible for carrying out this process?

      Your Answer: Nucleus

      Explanation:

      RNA splicing occurs within the nucleus, where pre-mRNA is transcribed and spliced before it moves out of the nucleus to a ribosome. This process involves removing introns and joining exons to create the final mRNA sequence. In MCADD, disruption of a splicing enhancer can lead to exon skipping and a missense mutation, causing difficulty in breaking down fat as an energy source. The Golgi apparatus, mitochondrion, and nucleolus are not involved in RNA splicing, but have other important cellular functions.

      Functions of Cell Organelles

      The functions of major cell organelles can be summarized in a table. The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is responsible for the translation and folding of new proteins, as well as the manufacture of lysosomal enzymes. It is also the site of N-linked glycosylation. Cells such as pancreatic cells, goblet cells, and plasma cells have extensive RER. On the other hand, the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is involved in steroid and lipid synthesis. Cells of the adrenal cortex, hepatocytes, and reproductive organs have extensive SER.

      The Golgi apparatus modifies, sorts, and packages molecules that are destined for cell secretion. The addition of mannose-6-phosphate to proteins designates transport to lysosome. The mitochondrion is responsible for aerobic respiration and contains mitochondrial genome as circular DNA. The nucleus is involved in DNA maintenance, RNA transcription, and RNA splicing, which removes the non-coding sequences of genes (introns) from pre-mRNA and joins the protein-coding sequences (exons).

      The lysosome is responsible for the breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccharides. The nucleolus produces ribosomes, while the ribosome translates RNA into proteins. The peroxisome is involved in the catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids, resulting in the formation of hydrogen peroxide. Lastly, the proteasome, along with the lysosome pathway, is involved in the degradation of protein molecules that have been tagged with ubiquitin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 27 - A senior citizen who is unfamiliar to you arrives with seizures. A companion...

    Correct

    • A senior citizen who is unfamiliar to you arrives with seizures. A companion describes that he had been experiencing a prickling sensation around his mouth and muscle contractions in his extremities.

      What blood test outcomes would you anticipate from these indications?

      Your Answer: Hypocalcaemia

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is hypocalcaemia, which is characterized by perioral paraesthesia, cramps, tetany, and convulsions. Hypophosphatemia and hypokalaemia are not the most appropriate answers, as they would not cause these symptoms. Sepsis is also an incorrect answer.

      Hypocalcaemia: Symptoms and Signs

      Hypocalcaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of calcium in the blood. As calcium is essential for proper muscle and nerve function, many of the symptoms and signs of hypocalcaemia are related to neuromuscular excitability. The most common features of hypocalcaemia include muscle twitching, cramping, and spasms, as well as perioral paraesthesia. In chronic cases, patients may experience depression and cataracts. An electrocardiogram (ECG) may show a prolonged QT interval.

      Two specific signs that are commonly used to diagnose hypocalcaemia are Trousseau’s sign and Chvostek’s sign. Trousseau’s sign is observed when the brachial artery is occluded by inflating the blood pressure cuff and maintaining pressure above systolic. This causes wrist flexion and fingers to be drawn together, which is seen in around 95% of patients with hypocalcaemia and around 1% of normocalcaemic people. Chvostek’s sign is observed when tapping over the parotid gland causes facial muscles to twitch. This sign is seen in around 70% of patients with hypocalcaemia and around 10% of normocalcaemic people. Overall, hypocalcaemia can cause a range of symptoms and signs that are related to neuromuscular excitability, and specific diagnostic signs can be used to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
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  • Question 28 - A 67-year-old man comes in for a routine health check-up. He has a...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man comes in for a routine health check-up. He has a medical history of hypercholesterolaemia and peripheral vascular disease, and is currently taking aspirin and atorvastatin.

      During the examination, his clinic blood pressure averages at 195/108mmHg. All other observations are normal, and there are no signs of neurological issues.

      The doctor decides to prescribe nifedipine.

      What is a potential side effect of this medication?

      Your Answer: Tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Reflex tachycardia may occur as a result of the peripheral vasodilation caused by nifedipine.

      Calcium channel blockers are a class of drugs commonly used to treat cardiovascular disease. These drugs target voltage-gated calcium channels found in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these areas, making it important to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is used to treat angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. It is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Side effects include heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is used to treat angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Side effects include hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      Nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are dihydropyridines used to treat hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. They affect peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, which means they do not worsen heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter acting dihydropyridines like nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia. Side effects include flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves a flow chart that takes into account various factors such as age, ethnicity, and comorbidities. Calcium channel blockers may be used as part of the treatment plan depending on the individual patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 29 - A middle-aged woman who is obese comes in with complaints of polyuria. She...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged woman who is obese comes in with complaints of polyuria. She has a history of squamous cell lung carcinoma. What could be the possible reason for her polyuria?

      Your Answer: Hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Polyuria is caused by all the options listed above, except for syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion. However, the patient’s age does not match the typical onset of type 1 diabetes, which usually occurs in young individuals. Furthermore, squamous cell lung carcinoma is commonly associated with a paraneoplastic syndrome that results in the release of excess parathyroid hormone by the tumor, leading to hypercalcemia and subsequent polyuria, along with other symptoms such as renal and biliary stones, bone pain, abdominal discomfort, nausea, vomiting, depression, and anxiety.

      Lung cancer can present with paraneoplastic features, which are symptoms caused by the cancer but not directly related to the tumor itself. Small cell lung cancer can cause the secretion of ADH and, less commonly, ACTH, which can lead to hypertension, hyperglycemia, hypokalemia, alkalosis, and muscle weakness. Lambert-Eaton syndrome is also associated with small cell lung cancer. Squamous cell lung cancer can cause the secretion of parathyroid hormone-related protein, leading to hypercalcemia, as well as clubbing and hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy. Adenocarcinoma can cause gynecomastia and hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy. Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is a painful condition involving the proliferation of periosteum in the long bones. Although traditionally associated with squamous cell carcinoma, some studies suggest that adenocarcinoma is the most common cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 30 - A 49-year-old woman visits the clinic complaining of occasional palpitations over the last...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old woman visits the clinic complaining of occasional palpitations over the last 7 days. The palpitations occur without any physical exertion and are not accompanied by chest pain. Upon examination, her heart appears to be functioning normally. An ECG is conducted, revealing indications of hyperkalaemia. What is an ECG indicator of hyperkalaemia?

      Your Answer: Small or absent P waves

      Explanation:

      The presence of small or inverted T waves on an ECG can indicate hyperkalaemia, along with other signs such as absent or reduced P waves, broad and bizarre QRS complexes, and tall-tented T waves. In severe cases, hyperkalaemia can lead to asystole.

      Hyperkalaemia is a condition where there is an excess of potassium in the blood. The levels of potassium in the plasma are regulated by various factors such as aldosterone, insulin levels, and acid-base balance. When there is metabolic acidosis, hyperkalaemia can occur as hydrogen and potassium ions compete with each other for exchange with sodium ions across cell membranes and in the distal tubule. The ECG changes that can be seen in hyperkalaemia include tall-tented T waves, small P waves, widened QRS leading to a sinusoidal pattern, and asystole.

      There are several causes of hyperkalaemia, including acute kidney injury, drugs such as potassium sparing diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, spironolactone, ciclosporin, and heparin, metabolic acidosis, Addison’s disease, rhabdomyolysis, and massive blood transfusion. Foods that are high in potassium include salt substitutes, bananas, oranges, kiwi fruit, avocado, spinach, and tomatoes.

      It is important to note that beta-blockers can interfere with potassium transport into cells and potentially cause hyperkalaemia in renal failure patients. In contrast, beta-agonists such as Salbutamol are sometimes used as emergency treatment. Additionally, both unfractionated and low-molecular weight heparin can cause hyperkalaemia by inhibiting aldosterone secretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
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  • Question 31 - As a physician at the headache clinic, you assess a middle-aged, obese woman...

    Correct

    • As a physician at the headache clinic, you assess a middle-aged, obese woman who has been experiencing headaches and rhinorrhea for the past eight weeks. Upon conducting basic observations, you note that her temperature is 37ºC, heart rate is 74/min, saturation's are at 100%, respiratory rate is 12/min, and blood pressure is 168/90mmHg. Based on these findings, what is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Empty sella syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Empty Sella Syndrome

      Empty sella syndrome is a condition where the pituitary gland is flattened and located at the back of the sella turcica. The cause of this condition is unknown, but it is more common in women who have had multiple pregnancies and are obese. The syndrome is characterized by headaches, hypertension, and rhinorrhea.

      Individuals with empty sella syndrome may experience headaches, which can be severe and persistent. Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is also a common symptom. Rhinorrhea, or a runny nose, may also occur. It is important to note that not all individuals with empty sella syndrome experience symptoms, and the severity of symptoms can vary.

      Overall, understanding empty sella syndrome is important for individuals who may be experiencing symptoms or have been diagnosed with the condition. Seeking medical attention and treatment can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 32 - A concerned parent brings their 14-year-old daughter to the general practice, worried that...

    Correct

    • A concerned parent brings their 14-year-old daughter to the general practice, worried that she has not yet started her periods.

      The 14-year-old has breast bud development, but no signs of menstruation. A pregnancy test comes back negative.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary amenorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Primary amenorrhoea occurs when a girl has not started menstruating by the age of 15, despite having normal secondary sexual characteristics like breast development. In girls with no secondary sexual characteristics, primary amenorrhoea is defined as the absence of menstruation by the age of 13. Possible causes of primary amenorrhoea include hypothyroidism and imperforate hymen, but not endometriosis, which typically causes heavy and/or painful periods. While delayed menarche can occur spontaneously before the age of 18, this girl’s symptoms are not within the normal range of variation. Malnutrition or extreme exercise are more likely to cause primary amenorrhoea than obesity-induced amenorrhoea, which typically results in secondary amenorrhoea where periods stop for 6 months or more after menarche has occurred.

      Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management

      Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls with no secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.

      The causes of amenorrhoea vary depending on the type. Primary amenorrhoea may be caused by gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, and thyrotoxicosis. Meanwhile, secondary amenorrhoea may be caused by stress, excessive exercise, PCOS, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and other underlying medical conditions.

      To diagnose amenorrhoea, initial investigations may include pregnancy tests, full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels. Management of amenorrhoea involves treating the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause and treat the underlying cause accordingly. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis and other complications.

      In conclusion, amenorrhoea is a condition that requires proper diagnosis and management. Understanding the causes and appropriate investigations can help in providing the necessary treatment and care for women experiencing this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      19.7
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  • Question 33 - As a medical student on a gastrointestinal ward, you come across a patient...

    Correct

    • As a medical student on a gastrointestinal ward, you come across a patient suffering from long-standing reflux. During the ward round, you notice that the patient, who is in his late 40s, is being treated with metoclopramide, a pro-kinetic drug that blocks the action of dopamine and speeds up gastrointestinal motility. However, the patient is now experiencing gynaecomastia and erectile dysfunction. Which hormone is most likely being overproduced in this patient, leading to his current symptoms?

      Your Answer: Prolactin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prolactin and Galactorrhoea

      Prolactin is a hormone produced by the anterior pituitary gland, and its release is regulated by various physiological factors. Dopamine is the primary inhibitor of prolactin release, and dopamine agonists like bromocriptine can be used to manage galactorrhoea. It is crucial to distinguish between the causes of galactorrhoea and gynaecomastia, which are both related to the actions of prolactin on breast tissue.

      Excess prolactin can lead to different symptoms in men and women. Men may experience impotence, loss of libido, and galactorrhoea, while women may have amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. Several factors can cause raised prolactin levels, including prolactinoma, pregnancy, oestrogens, stress, exercise, sleep, acromegaly, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and primary hypothyroidism.

      Certain drugs can also increase prolactin levels, such as metoclopramide, domperidone, phenothiazines, and haloperidol. Although rare, some SSRIs and opioids may also cause raised prolactin levels.

      In summary, understanding prolactin and its effects on the body is crucial in diagnosing and managing conditions like galactorrhoea. Identifying the underlying causes of raised prolactin levels is essential in providing appropriate treatment and care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 34 - A 64-year-old man comes in for a follow-up of his type 2 diabetes....

    Correct

    • A 64-year-old man comes in for a follow-up of his type 2 diabetes. Despite being on metformin therapy, his HbA1c levels are at 62mmol/mol. To address this, you plan to initiate sitagliptin for dual hypoglycemic therapy.

      What is the mechanism of action of sitagliptin?

      Your Answer: Decreases GLP-1 breakdown

      Explanation:

      Sitagliptin, a DPP-4 inhibitor, reduces the breakdown of GLP-1 and GIP incretins, leading to increased levels of these hormones and potentiation of the incretin effect, which is typically reduced in diabetes.

      Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 35 - A 25-year-old woman with a history of multiple sexual partners complains of chronic...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman with a history of multiple sexual partners complains of chronic pelvic pain, dysuria, deep dyspareunia, and green vaginal discharge with a foul odor. The physician suspects pelvic inflammatory disease as she had a previous Chlamydia infection but is currently negative. Which sexually transmitted infection is most likely responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: gonorrhoeae

      Explanation:

      Pelvic inflammatory disease is most commonly caused by chlamydia and gonorrhoeae, with gonorrhoeae being the likely cause in this patient since they do not have chlamydia. While HIV does not directly cause pelvic inflammatory disease, it can increase the risk of contracting sexually transmitted infections. Syphilis follows its own distinct clinical course and does not cause pelvic inflammatory disease, while herpes typically presents with painful genital blisters but does not cause pelvic inflammatory disease.

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition where the female pelvic organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and surrounding peritoneum, become infected and inflamed. It is typically caused by an infection that spreads from the endocervix. The most common causative organism is Chlamydia trachomatis, followed by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycoplasma genitalium, and Mycoplasma hominis. Symptoms of PID include lower abdominal pain, fever, dyspareunia, dysuria, menstrual irregularities, vaginal or cervical discharge, and cervical excitation.

      To diagnose PID, a pregnancy test should be done to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, and a high vaginal swab should be taken to screen for Chlamydia and gonorrhoeae. However, these tests may often be negative, so consensus guidelines recommend having a low threshold for treatment due to the potential complications of untreated PID. Management typically involves oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole. In mild cases of PID, intrauterine contraceptive devices may be left in, but the evidence is limited, and removal of the IUD may be associated with better short-term clinical outcomes according to recent guidelines.

      Complications of PID include perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh Curtis Syndrome), which occurs in around 10% of cases and is characterized by right upper quadrant pain that may be confused with cholecystitis, infertility (with a risk as high as 10-20% after a single episode), chronic pelvic pain, and ectopic pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      4.4
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  • Question 36 - A 25-year-old patient presents at 22 weeks gestation with an abnormal ultrasound scan....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old patient presents at 22 weeks gestation with an abnormal ultrasound scan. The scan shows hydrops fetalis. Upon questioning, the woman reveals that her 6-year-old daughter was recently diagnosed with parvovirus B19 by their family doctor.

      What could be the probable cause of hydrops fetalis in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Suppression of foetal erythropoiesis

      Explanation:

      Hydrops fetalis is a condition where the fetus has fluid accumulation in at least two compartments, such as the kidneys and polyhydramnios. One cause of this condition is infection with parvovirus B19, which suppresses fetal erythropoiesis and leads to fetal anemia and heart failure. This, in turn, causes fluid accumulation seen on ultrasound. Parvovirus B19 commonly affects children and can cause erythema infectiosum, also known as slapped cheek disease.

      While autoimmune hemolysis can also cause hydrops fetalis, it is typically associated with ABO or rhesus incompatibility. This occurs when maternal antibodies attack fetal red blood cells, leading to immune-mediated hemolysis and hydrops fetalis. This is not the same mechanism as that caused by parvovirus B19 infection.

      Cardiac malformations and exposure to teratogens during pregnancy can also cause heart failure and hydrops fetalis, but this is not typically associated with parvovirus B19 infection. Similarly, fetal kidney failure can lead to fluid accumulation and hydrops fetalis, but it is not caused by antenatal parvovirus B19 infection. Pulmonary hypertension is another cause of heart failure, but it is not common in fetuses and is more commonly seen in the elderly population. It is not caused by parvovirus B19 infection in fetuses.

      Parvovirus B19: A Virus with Various Clinical Presentations

      Parvovirus B19 is a type of DNA virus that can cause different clinical presentations. One of the most common is erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease or slapped-cheek syndrome. This illness may manifest as a mild feverish condition or a noticeable rash that appears after a few days. The rash is characterized by rose-red cheeks, which is why it is called slapped-cheek syndrome. It may spread to other parts of the body but rarely involves the palms and soles. The rash usually peaks after a week and then fades, but it may recur for some months after exposure to triggers such as warm baths, sunlight, heat, or fever. Most children recover without specific treatment, and school exclusion is unnecessary as the child is no longer infectious once the rash emerges. However, in adults, the virus may cause acute arthritis.

      Aside from erythema infectiosum, parvovirus B19 can also present as asymptomatic, pancytopenia in immunosuppressed patients, or aplastic crises in sickle-cell disease. The virus suppresses erythropoiesis for about a week, so aplastic anemia is rare unless there is a chronic hemolytic anemia. In pregnant women, the virus can cross the placenta and cause severe anemia due to viral suppression of fetal erythropoiesis, which may lead to heart failure secondary to severe anemia and the accumulation of fluid in fetal serous cavities such as ascites, pleural and pericardial effusions. This condition is called hydrops fetalis and is treated with intrauterine blood transfusions.

      It is important to note that parvovirus B19 can affect an unborn baby in the first 20 weeks of pregnancy. If a woman is exposed early in pregnancy, she should seek prompt advice from her antenatal care provider as maternal IgM and IgG will need to be checked. The virus is spread by the respiratory route, and a person is infectious 3 to 5 days before the appearance of the rash. Children are no longer infectious once the rash appears, and there is no specific treatment. Therefore, school exclusion is unnecessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 37 - A 26-year-old male accountant comes to the clinic complaining of weakness in his...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old male accountant comes to the clinic complaining of weakness in his left arm and right leg. He reports experiencing high levels of stress at work and a recent breakup with his girlfriend. Interestingly, he appears to show little emotional reaction when discussing these events and his motor symptoms. Additionally, he is observed moving his affected limbs normally when he thinks no one is watching. How would you describe his presentation?

      Your Answer: Belle indifference

      Explanation:

      Belle Indifference in Conversion Disorder

      Conversion disorder is a dissociative disorder that arises when emotional stress is transformed into physical health symptoms. One of the characteristic features of this disorder is belle indifference, which is the lack of emotional response to the severe physical disabilities that patients with conversion disorders present with. Although it is rarely seen nowadays, it is still included in the diagnostic criteria of this disorder.

      Belle indifference is typically observed in conversion disorder and is a striking feature of this condition. EEG and MRI may confirm the physical disability, but the patient shows no emotional response to the symptoms. Hypochondriasis, on the other hand, is a condition where the patient believes they have a specific diagnosis, such as cancer. It is important to differentiate between these two conditions as they have different treatment approaches. the features of belle indifference in conversion disorder can aid in the diagnosis and management of this disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 38 - A 45-year-old engineer who recently returned from working in the Nigerian oil industry...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old engineer who recently returned from working in the Nigerian oil industry is experiencing a persistent flu-like illness, cough, unintended weight loss of 5 kilograms in 3 months, and a faint erythematous rash. During examination, enlarged cervical lymph nodes were observed. What is the most probable cause of his illness?

      Your Answer: HIV seroconversion illness

      Explanation:

      HIV Consideration for Patients Returning from Developing Countries

      Patients who have recently returned from developing countries, particularly sub-Saharan Africa, should always be considered for HIV infection. This is especially important if they are exhibiting symptoms of seroconversion, which is the period when the body is producing antibodies to fight the virus. It is crucial to consider HIV as a potential diagnosis in these cases, as early detection and treatment can greatly improve outcomes. A study published in the BMJ recommends that healthcare providers keep HIV in mind when evaluating patients who have recently traveled to developing countries. By doing so, they can help prevent the spread of the virus and provide appropriate care to those who are infected. It is important to note that HIV can be asymptomatic for years, so routine testing is also recommended for individuals who have traveled to high-risk areas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      16.6
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  • Question 39 - A 67-year-old man is admitted to the acute stroke unit following a haemorrhagic...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man is admitted to the acute stroke unit following a haemorrhagic stroke. Three days after admission he complains of pain and swelling in the left calf. A Doppler ultrasound shows large DVT with extension into the upper leg. Given his recent stroke, anticoagulation is contraindicated, however, there is a significant risk of him developing a pulmonary embolus. The decision is made to insert an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter. The registrar inserting the filter is fairly junior, he plans to insert this just above the renal veins, however, asks the consultant if there are any landmarks he can use to guide him. The consultant advises him if he reaches the diaphragm he has gone too far!

      At which vertebral level would the diaphragm be encountered when inserting an IVC filter?

      Your Answer: T8

      Explanation:

      The point at which the inferior vena cava passes through the diaphragm is being asked in this question. The correct answer is T8, which is where the IVC crosses the diaphragm through the caval opening. The IVC is formed by the joining of the left and right common iliac veins at around L5.

      In patients who are at high risk of pulmonary embolus and for whom anticoagulation is not effective or contraindicated, an IVC filter can be used. This filter is usually inserted above the renal veins, but it can be placed at any level, including the superior vena cava, if necessary.

      The other options provided in the question, T6, T10, and T11, are not associated with any significant structures. The oesophagus passes through the diaphragm with the vagal trunk at T10.

      Structures Perforating the Diaphragm

      The diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscle that separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities. It plays a crucial role in breathing by contracting and relaxing to create negative pressure in the lungs. However, there are certain structures that perforate the diaphragm, allowing them to pass through from the thoracic to the abdominal cavity. These structures include the inferior vena cava at the level of T8, the esophagus and vagal trunk at T10, and the aorta, thoracic duct, and azygous vein at T12.

      To remember these structures and their corresponding levels, a helpful mnemonic is I 8(ate) 10 EGGS AT 12. This means that the inferior vena cava is at T8, the esophagus and vagal trunk are at T10, and the aorta, thoracic duct, and azygous vein are at T12. Knowing these structures and their locations is important for medical professionals, as they may need to access or treat them during surgical procedures or diagnose issues related to them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 40 - A 35-year-old female tennis player visits her GP with a complaint of pain...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female tennis player visits her GP with a complaint of pain on the lateral side of her wrist and at the base of her left thumb. The pain has been gradually worsening over the past few weeks and is aggravated by thumb movement. Upon examination, the GP observes tenderness in the area above the first dorsal compartment and a positive Finkelstein test. The GP diagnoses her with De Quervain's tenosynovitis, which is an inflammation of a tendon sheath. What tendons are impacted by this condition?

      Your Answer: Extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus

      Explanation:

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the synovium surrounding a tendon. Specifically, it affects the tendon sheath that encloses two adjacent tendons – the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus – responsible for extending and abducting the thumb. It is important to note that De Quervain’s syndrome only affects these two tendons and not the extensor pollicis longus or any flexors. Additionally, the adductor pollicis muscle is not involved in this condition. Tenderness over the first dorsal compartment is a common sign of De Quervain’s tenosynovitis, as the affected tendons do not travel underneath it.

      De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is a condition that commonly affects women between the ages of 30 and 50. It occurs when the sheath containing the tendons of the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus becomes inflamed. The condition is characterized by pain on the radial side of the wrist, tenderness over the radial styloid process, and pain when the thumb is abducted against resistance. A positive Finkelstein’s test, in which pain is elicited by ulnar deviation and longitudinal traction of the thumb, is also indicative of the condition.

      Treatment for De Quervain’s tenosynovitis typically involves analgesia, steroid injections, and immobilization with a thumb splint (spica). In some cases, surgical intervention may be necessary. With proper diagnosis and treatment, patients can experience relief from the pain and discomfort associated with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      42.4
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular System (4/4) 100%
General Principles (8/8) 100%
Neurological System (7/8) 88%
Reproductive System (4/4) 100%
Gastrointestinal System (2/2) 100%
Renal System (3/3) 100%
Haematology And Oncology (1/1) 100%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Respiratory System (3/3) 100%
Musculoskeletal System And Skin (2/2) 100%
Endocrine System (2/2) 100%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Passmed