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  • Question 1 - A 37-year-old woman has a Mirena inserted for birth control on day 12...

    Correct

    • A 37-year-old woman has a Mirena inserted for birth control on day 12 of her menstrual cycle. What is the duration before it becomes a dependable contraceptive method?

      Your Answer: 7 days

      Explanation:

      Contraceptives – Time to become effective (if not used on the first day of period):
      Immediate: IUD
      2 days: Progestin-only pill (POP)
      7 days: Combined oral contraceptive (COC), injection, implant, intrauterine system (IUS)

      Intrauterine contraceptive devices include copper IUDs and levonorgestrel-releasing IUS. Both are over 99% effective. The IUD prevents fertilization by decreasing sperm motility, while the IUS prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucus. Potential problems include heavier periods with IUDs and initial bleeding with the IUS. There is a small risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. New IUS systems, such as Jaydess® and Kyleena®, have smaller frames and less levonorgestrel, resulting in lower serum levels and different rates of amenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      55.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following is the least probable cause of snoring in adolescents?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the least probable cause of snoring in adolescents?

      Your Answer: Kallman's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Snoring is not a symptom of Kallman’s syndrome, which is a condition that leads to delayed puberty due to hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism.

      Snoring in Children: Possible Causes

      Snoring in children can be caused by various factors. One of the common causes is obesity, which can lead to the narrowing of the airways and difficulty in breathing during sleep. Another possible cause is nasal problems such as polyps, deviated septum, and hypertrophic nasal turbinates, which can also obstruct the airways and cause snoring. Recurrent tonsillitis can also contribute to snoring, as the inflamed tonsils can block the air passages.

      In some cases, snoring in children may be associated with certain medical conditions such as Down’s syndrome and hypothyroidism. These conditions can affect the structure and function of the respiratory system, leading to snoring and other breathing difficulties.

      It is important to identify the underlying cause of snoring in children and seek appropriate treatment to prevent potential health complications. Parents should consult a healthcare professional if their child snores regularly or experiences other symptoms such as daytime sleepiness, difficulty concentrating, or behavioral problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      47.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An informal inpatient who is believed to pose a risk to themselves or...

    Incorrect

    • An informal inpatient who is believed to pose a risk to themselves or others can be detained in hospital for 72 hours for further evaluation under which section of the Mental Health Act (MHA)?

      Your Answer: Section 2

      Correct Answer: Section 5 (2)

      Explanation:

      The Mental Health Act (MHA) has several sections that allow for compulsory admission and treatment of individuals with mental disorders. Section 5(2) can only be used for inpatients and is implemented by the Responsible Clinician or their designated deputy. It lasts for 72 hours and should be followed by a formal Mental Health Act assessment for consideration of detention under Section 2 or 3. Section 2 allows for compulsory admission and assessment of individuals who cannot be safely assessed in the community and refuse voluntary admission. It requires an application from the patient’s nearest relative or an Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) and two medical recommendations. It lasts up to 28 days and can be appealed within 14 days of admission. Section 136 allows the police to remove individuals from public places and take them to a place of safety, such as a Mental Health Unit or Accident and Emergency. Section 3 allows for compulsory admission and treatment of individuals who pose risks to self or others and refuse voluntary admission. It requires an application from the patient’s nearest relative or an AMHP and two medical recommendations. It lasts up to 6 months and can be appealed within the first 6 months and then once a year. Section 4 is an emergency section that allows for detention in hospital for up to 72 hours and requires an application from an AMHP or the patient’s nearest relative and one medical recommendation. It can be converted to Section 2 if a second medical recommendation is obtained within 72 hours and should only be used in urgent cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      29.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old man presents to his family doctor after a trip to Southeast...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents to his family doctor after a trip to Southeast Asia. He and his colleagues frequently ate at street food stalls during their trip, often consuming seafood. He complains of feeling unwell, loss of appetite, yellowing of the skin and dark urine. He had a fever initially, but it disappeared once the jaundice appeared. During the examination, he has an enlarged liver and tenderness in the upper right quadrant. His ALT and AST levels are ten times the upper limit of normal, while his bilirubin level is six times the upper limit of normal, but his ALP is only slightly elevated. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis A

      Explanation:

      The patient’s history of foreign travel suggests that the most likely diagnosis is Hepatitis A. This virus is typically contracted through ingestion of contaminated food, particularly undercooked shellfish. While rare, outbreaks of Hepatitis A can occur worldwide, especially in resource-poor regions. Symptoms usually appear 2-6 weeks after exposure and can be more severe in older patients. Liver function tests often show elevated levels of ALT and AST. Diagnosis is confirmed through serologic testing for IgM antibody to HAV. Treatment involves supportive care and management of complications. Salmonella infection, Hepatitis B, gallstones, and pancreatic carcinoma are less likely diagnoses based on the patient’s symptoms and clinical presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      38.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A couple from Bangladesh, parents of a 13-year-old boy, seek guidance. They have...

    Incorrect

    • A couple from Bangladesh, parents of a 13-year-old boy, seek guidance. They have recently moved to the UK and have been advised by immigration officials that their son should receive the BCG vaccine for tuberculosis. The boy is currently healthy and shows no symptoms. What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Reassure the parents that he does not require the BCG vaccine

      Correct Answer: Arrange a tuberculin skin test

      Explanation:

      Before administering the vaccine, it is crucial to conduct a tuberculin skin test to rule out any previous exposure to tuberculosis.

      The BCG Vaccine: Who Should Get It and How It’s Administered

      The Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine is a vaccine that provides limited protection against tuberculosis (TB). In the UK, it is given to high-risk infants and certain groups of people who are at risk of contracting TB. The vaccine contains live attenuated Mycobacterium bovis and also offers limited protection against leprosy.

      The Greenbook provides guidelines on who should receive the BCG vaccine. It is recommended for all infants living in areas of the UK where the annual incidence of TB is 40/100,000 or greater, as well as infants with a parent or grandparent who was born in a country with a high incidence of TB. The vaccine is also recommended for previously unvaccinated tuberculin-negative contacts of cases of respiratory TB, new entrants under 16 years of age who were born in or have lived for a prolonged period in a high-risk country, healthcare workers, prison staff, staff of care homes for the elderly, and those who work with homeless people.

      Before receiving the BCG vaccine, any person being considered must first be given a tuberculin skin test, except for children under 6 years old who have had no contact with tuberculosis. The vaccine is given intradermally, normally to the lateral aspect of the left upper arm. It can be given at the same time as other live vaccines, but if not administered simultaneously, there should be a 4-week interval.

      There are some contraindications for the BCG vaccine, including previous BCG vaccination, a past history of tuberculosis, HIV, pregnancy, and a positive tuberculin test (Heaf or Mantoux). It is not given to anyone over the age of 35, as there is no evidence that it works for people of this age group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is a true statement about trigeminal neuralgia? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about trigeminal neuralgia?

      Your Answer: The pain is commonly triggered by touching the skin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Trigeminal Neuralgia

      Trigeminal neuralgia is a type of pain syndrome that is characterized by severe pain on one side of the face. While most cases are idiopathic, some may be caused by compression of the trigeminal roots due to tumors or vascular problems. According to the International Headache Society, trigeminal neuralgia is defined as a disorder that causes brief electric shock-like pains that are limited to one or more divisions of the trigeminal nerve. The pain is often triggered by light touch, such as washing, shaving, or brushing teeth, and can occur spontaneously. Certain areas of the face, such as the nasolabial fold or chin, may be more susceptible to pain. The pain may also remit for varying periods.

      Red flag symptoms and signs that suggest a serious underlying cause include sensory changes, ear problems, a history of skin or oral lesions that could spread perineurally, pain only in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, optic neuritis, a family history of multiple sclerosis, and onset before the age of 40.

      The first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia is carbamazepine. If there is a failure to respond to treatment or atypical features are present, such as onset before the age of 50, referral to neurology is recommended. Understanding the symptoms and management of trigeminal neuralgia is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      47.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 23-year-old female patient visits the ophthalmologist complaining of painful red eyes. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old female patient visits the ophthalmologist complaining of painful red eyes. Upon examination, the ophthalmologist diagnoses her with bilateral anterior uveitis. During the medical history, the patient reveals that she has been experiencing a persistent dry cough and has visited her GP several times. The ophthalmologist orders blood tests and a chest x-ray, which reveal elevated angiotensin-converting enzyme levels and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. What is the underlying cause of uveitis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Explanation:

      Sarcoidosis may present as bilateral anterior uveitis in young adults, making it an important early consideration. Recurrent uveitis in both eyes, along with a history of pulmonary issues, should prompt investigation for sarcoidosis. The other options, which do not involve a dry cough, are not relevant. Rheumatoid arthritis affects small joints in the hands, feet, and wrists, while ankylosing spondylitis primarily affects the spine with symptoms of back pain and stiffness, neither of which are mentioned in this scenario.

      Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. It is a common cause of red eye and is associated with HLA-B27, which may also be linked to other conditions. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small or irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness, tearing, and the presence of pus and inflammatory cells in the front part of the eye. This condition may be associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and treatment may involve the use of cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      33.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 25 year old male arrives at the Emergency Department after being struck...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old male arrives at the Emergency Department after being struck in the back of the head with a baseball bat. He reports a headache and has a cut on his occiput. He is alert, responsive to commands, and able to provide a detailed description of the incident.
      What is his Glasgow coma scale (GCS)?

      Your Answer: 15

      Explanation:

      The GCS score for this patient is 654, which stands for Motor (6 points), Verbal (5 points), and Eye opening (4 points). This scoring system is used to assess a patient’s level of consciousness and is commonly used in cases of head injury to monitor for changes in neurology. The patient in question has a perfect score for eye opening, is fully oriented in time, place, and person, and is able to obey commands, resulting in a motor score of 6.

      Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale for Adults

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in adults who have suffered a brain injury or other neurological condition. It is based on three components: motor response, verbal response, and eye opening. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to 6, with a higher score indicating a better level of consciousness.

      The motor response component assesses the patient’s ability to move in response to stimuli. A score of 6 indicates that the patient is able to obey commands, while a score of 1 indicates no movement at all.

      The verbal response component assesses the patient’s ability to communicate. A score of 5 indicates that the patient is fully oriented, while a score of 1 indicates no verbal response at all.

      The eye opening component assesses the patient’s ability to open their eyes. A score of 4 indicates that the patient is able to open their eyes spontaneously, while a score of 1 indicates no eye opening at all.

      The GCS score is expressed as a combination of the scores from each component, with the motor response score listed first, followed by the verbal response score, and then the eye opening score. For example, a GCS score of 13, M5 V4 E4 at 21:30 would indicate that the patient had a motor response score of 5, a verbal response score of 4, and an eye opening score of 4 at 9:30 PM.

      Overall, the Glasgow Coma Scale is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to assess the level of consciousness in adults with neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to the doctor's office because of a rash...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to the doctor's office because of a rash on his upper arm. During the examination, the doctor observes several raised lesions that are approximately 2 mm in diameter. Upon closer inspection, a central dimple is visible in most of the lesions. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Molluscum contagiosum

      Explanation:

      Understanding Molluscum Contagiosum

      Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection that is commonly seen in children, particularly those with atopic eczema. It is caused by the molluscum contagiosum virus and can be transmitted through direct contact or contaminated surfaces. The infection presents as pinkish or pearly white papules with a central umbilication, which can appear anywhere on the body except for the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. In children, lesions are commonly seen on the trunk and in flexures, while in adults, sexual contact may lead to lesions developing on the genitalia, pubis, thighs, and lower abdomen.

      While molluscum contagiosum is a self-limiting condition that usually resolves within 18 months, it is important to avoid sharing towels, clothing, and baths with uninfected individuals to prevent transmission. Scratching the lesions should also be avoided, and treatment may be considered if the itch is problematic. However, treatment is not usually recommended, and if necessary, simple trauma or cryotherapy may be used. In some cases, referral may be necessary, such as for individuals who are HIV-positive with extensive lesions or those with eyelid-margin or ocular lesions and associated red eye.

      Overall, understanding molluscum contagiosum and taking appropriate precautions can help prevent transmission and alleviate symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 76-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner with one-sided visual loss. During...

    Correct

    • A 76-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner with one-sided visual loss. During the examination, a relative afferent pupillary defect is observed. Fundoscopy reveals a 'cherry-red spot' with a red centre of the macula and a pale surrounding of the retina.
      What is the most suitable next step in managing this patient, considering the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Send patient to the Eye Hospital for immediate review by an Ophthalmologist

      Explanation:

      Central Retinal-Artery Occlusion: An Ocular Emergency

      Central retinal-artery occlusion (CRAO) is a serious condition that requires immediate attention from an ophthalmologist. It is diagnosed through a dilated eye examination that reveals a cherry-red spot in the center of the macula, surrounded by pale retina due to lack of blood flow. Other signs include segmentation of the blood column in the arteries and cattle-trucking.

      CRAO is an ocular emergency because the retinal damage becomes irreversible with time, and urgent management is necessary to protect the other eye and the cardiovascular and cerebrovascular systems. The primary goal of management is to re-perfuse ischaemic tissue as quickly as possible and to institute secondary prevention early.

      If giant-cell arteritis is suspected, immediate treatment is necessary, including intravenous steroids followed by oral steroids.

      Referral under the 2-week-wait rule is necessary when there is a suspicion of cancer, but no signs of a tumor from history or fundoscopy findings.

      It is crucial to refer the patient for urgent brain imaging and immediate review by an eye specialist. Starting the patient on topical antibiotics and anti-inflammatories would be inappropriate since there are no signs of an infection process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      40.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 29-year-old female patient visits her GP with complaints of dyspareunia, dysuria, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old female patient visits her GP with complaints of dyspareunia, dysuria, and dysmenorrhoea. During a bimanual examination, the GP observes generalised tenderness, a fixed, retroverted uterus, and uterosacral ligament nodules. The GP suspects endometriosis and refers the patient for laparoscopy to confirm the diagnosis. What would be the most suitable initial treatment option?

      Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      The recommended initial treatments for endometriosis are NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. Ibuprofen is the most suitable option for managing pain, and it should be tried first. If the pain is not relieved with one medication, a combination of paracetamol and NSAIDs can be used. If these options are not effective, hormonal treatment can be considered. Codeine is not the first-line treatment and should only be used after other options have been tried. The combined oral contraceptive pill and Mirena coil are also not the initial interventions and should only be considered if analgesia and hormonal treatments are unsuccessful.

      Understanding Endometriosis

      Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.

      It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      95.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A previously well 62-year-old bank clerk was seen by her general practitioner (GP),...

    Correct

    • A previously well 62-year-old bank clerk was seen by her general practitioner (GP), complaining of recurrent attacks of dizziness. She complains of recurring attacks of the room spinning around her in a horizontal plane, which is happening on multiple occasions every day. Each attack lasts about 10 seconds and seems to occur whenever she turns in bed, lies down or sits up from the supine position. There are no other associated symptoms. She is taking no medication. Standard neurological examination is normal.
      Which of the following diagnoses is most likely?

      Your Answer: Benign positional paroxysmal vertigo (BPPV)

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of recurrent positional vertigo

      Recurrent positional vertigo is a common complaint that can have various underlying causes. One of the most frequent diagnoses is benign positional paroxysmal vertigo (BPPV), which typically affects middle-aged and older women and is triggered by specific head movements. BPPV is diagnosed based on the patient’s history and confirmed with the Hallpike manoeuvre, which elicits characteristic nystagmus. Treatment options include canalith repositioning manoeuvres and vestibular rehabilitation exercises.

      However, other conditions may mimic BPPV or coexist with it, and therefore a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary. Migraine-associated vertigo is a type of vestibular migraine that can cause brief episodes of vertigo without headache, but usually has a longer duration and is not triggered by positional changes. Posterior circulation ischaemia, which affects the brainstem and cerebellum, can also cause vertigo, but typically presents with other neurological symptoms and has a more acute onset. Postural hypotension, which results from a drop in blood pressure upon standing, can cause dizziness and syncope, but is not usually related to head movements. Labyrinthitis, an inflammation of the inner ear, can cause vertigo and hearing loss, but is not typically triggered by positional changes.

      Therefore, a careful history and physical examination, including a neurological assessment, are essential to differentiate between these conditions and guide appropriate management. In some cases, further testing such as imaging or vestibular function tests may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      208.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You are performing the yearly evaluation of a 42-year-old woman with type 1...

    Incorrect

    • You are performing the yearly evaluation of a 42-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Your objective is to screen for diabetic neuropathy that may affect her feet. What is the most suitable screening test to utilize?

      Your Answer: Test sensation using cotton wool

      Correct Answer: Test sensation using a 10 g monofilament

      Explanation:

      To evaluate diabetic neuropathy in the feet, it is recommended to utilize a monofilament weighing 10 grams.

      Diabetic foot disease is a significant complication of diabetes mellitus that requires regular screening. In 2015, NICE published guidelines on diabetic foot disease. The disease is caused by two main factors: neuropathy, which results in a loss of protective sensation, and peripheral arterial disease, which increases the risk of macro and microvascular ischaemia. Symptoms of diabetic foot disease include loss of sensation, absent foot pulses, reduced ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI), intermittent claudication, calluses, ulceration, Charcot’s arthropathy, cellulitis, osteomyelitis, and gangrene. All patients with diabetes should be screened for diabetic foot disease at least once a year. Screening for ischaemia involves palpating for both the dorsalis pedis pulse and posterial tibial artery pulse, while screening for neuropathy involves using a 10 g monofilament on various parts of the sole of the foot. NICE recommends that patients be risk-stratified into low, moderate, and high-risk categories based on factors such as deformity, previous ulceration or amputation, renal replacement therapy, neuropathy, and non-critical limb ischaemia. Patients who are moderate or high-risk should be regularly followed up by their local diabetic foot centre.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      42.2
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  • Question 14 - A 42-year-old male complains of difficulty breathing after experiencing flu-like symptoms for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old male complains of difficulty breathing after experiencing flu-like symptoms for a week. He has a dry cough and no chest discomfort. A chest x-ray reveals bilateral consolidation, and he has red rashes on his limbs and torso. Which test is most likely to provide a definitive diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Urinary antigen for Legionella

      Correct Answer: Serology for Mycoplasma

      Explanation:

      A diagnosis of Mycoplasma can be made based on symptoms such as flu-like symptoms, bilateral consolidation, and erythema multiforme. The most suitable diagnostic test for this condition is Mycoplasma serology.

      Mycoplasma pneumoniae: A Cause of Atypical Pneumonia

      Mycoplasma pneumoniae is a type of bacteria that causes atypical pneumonia, which is more common in younger patients. This disease is associated with various complications such as erythema multiforme and cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia. Epidemics of Mycoplasma pneumoniae typically occur every four years. It is important to recognize atypical pneumonia because it may not respond to penicillins or cephalosporins due to the bacteria lacking a peptidoglycan cell wall.

      The disease usually has a gradual onset and is preceded by flu-like symptoms, followed by a dry cough. X-rays may show bilateral consolidation. Complications may include cold agglutinins, erythema multiforme, erythema nodosum, meningoencephalitis, Guillain-Barre syndrome, bullous myringitis, pericarditis/myocarditis, and gastrointestinal and renal problems.

      Diagnosis is generally made through Mycoplasma serology and a positive cold agglutination test. Management involves the use of doxycycline or a macrolide such as erythromycin or clarithromycin.

      In comparison to Legionella pneumonia, which is caused by a different type of bacteria, Mycoplasma pneumoniae has a more gradual onset and is associated with different complications. It is important to differentiate between the two types of pneumonia to ensure appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A diabetic woman in her 50s presents with painful diabetic neuropathy in her...

    Correct

    • A diabetic woman in her 50s presents with painful diabetic neuropathy in her feet. She has no other significant medical history. What is the recommended initial treatment to alleviate her pain?

      Your Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      Diabetes can cause peripheral neuropathy, which typically results in sensory loss rather than motor loss. This often affects the lower legs first due to the length of the sensory neurons supplying this area, resulting in a glove and stocking distribution. Painful diabetic neuropathy is a common issue that can be managed with drugs such as amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If these drugs do not work, tramadol may be used as a rescue therapy, and topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain. Pain management clinics may also be helpful for patients with resistant problems.

      Gastrointestinal autonomic neuropathy can cause gastroparesis, which can lead to erratic blood glucose control, bloating, and vomiting. This can be managed with prokinetic agents such as metoclopramide, domperidone, or erythromycin. Chronic diarrhea, which often occurs at night, is another potential complication of diabetic neuropathy. Gastroesophageal reflux disease can also occur due to decreased lower esophageal sphincter pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      36.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 3-year-old boy is taken to his pediatrician by his father due to...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old boy is taken to his pediatrician by his father due to constant scratching of his bottom at night. The father reports observing some unusual white particles when cleaning his son's bottom after a bowel movement. What would be the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Prescribe a single dose of mebendazole for the whole household and issue hygiene advice.

      Explanation:

      Threadworm Infestation in Children

      Threadworm infestation, caused by Enterobius vermicularis or pinworms, is a common occurrence among children in the UK. The infestation happens when eggs present in the environment are ingested. In most cases, threadworm infestation is asymptomatic, but some possible symptoms include perianal itching, especially at night, and vulval symptoms in girls. Diagnosis can be made by applying Sellotape to the perianal area and sending it to the laboratory for microscopy to see the eggs. However, most patients are treated empirically, and this approach is supported in the CKS guidelines.

      The CKS recommends a combination of anthelmintic with hygiene measures for all members of the household. Mebendazole is the first-line treatment for children over six months old, and a single dose is given unless the infestation persists. It is essential to treat all members of the household to prevent re-infection. Proper hygiene measures, such as washing hands regularly, keeping fingernails short, and washing clothes and bedding at high temperatures, can also help prevent the spread of threadworm infestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      41.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What is the most commonly associated factor with the use of combined oral...

    Correct

    • What is the most commonly associated factor with the use of combined oral contraceptive pills among women in their reproductive years?

      Your Answer: Increased risk of cervical cancer

      Explanation:

      The combined oral contraceptive pill is associated with a higher likelihood of developing breast and cervical cancer, but it can also provide protection against ovarian and endometrial cancer.

      Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than 1 per 100 woman years. It does not interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.

      However, there are also some disadvantages to the combined oral contraceptive pill. One of the main issues is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side-effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.

      It is important to weigh the pros and cons of the combined oral contraceptive pill before deciding if it is the right method of birth control for you. While some users report weight gain while taking the pill, a Cochrane review did not support a causal relationship. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be an effective and convenient method of birth control, but it is important to discuss any concerns or potential risks with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      51.5
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  • Question 18 - A first-time mother brings her daughter, Lily, who is 7-months old, to the...

    Correct

    • A first-time mother brings her daughter, Lily, who is 7-months old, to the GP surgery. She is worried about Lily's development as she is still unable to sit without support. However, Lily is able to roll from front to back, sit with back straight if being held, and grasp toys when lying on her back. Can you inform the mother at what age Lily will be able to sit without support?

      Your Answer: 7-8 months, refer if not achieved by 12 months

      Explanation:

      If sitting without support is not achieved by 12 months, referral is necessary, although it should typically be achieved by 7-8 months.

      Gross Motor Developmental Milestones

      Gross motor skills refer to the ability to use large muscles in the body for activities such as crawling, walking, running, and jumping. These skills are essential for a child’s physical development and are achieved through a series of developmental milestones.
      At 3 months, a baby should have little or no head lag when pulled to sit and should have good head control when lying on their abdomen. By 6 months, they should be able to lift and grasp their feet when lying on their back, pull themselves to a sitting position, and roll from front to back. At 9 months, they should be able to pull themselves to a standing position and crawl. By 12 months, they should be able to cruise and walk with one hand held. At 18 months, they should be able to walk unsupported and squat to pick up a toy. By 2 years, they should be able to run and walk up and down stairs holding onto a rail. At 3 years, they should be able to ride a tricycle using pedals and walk up stairs without holding onto a rail. By 4 years, they should be able to hop on one leg.

      It is important to note that while the majority of children crawl on all fours before walking, some children may bottom-shuffle, which is a normal variant that runs in families. These milestones serve as a guide for parents and healthcare professionals to monitor a child’s physical development and identify any potential delays or concerns.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      167
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 50-year-old woman presents to her GP on the same day with a...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to her GP on the same day with a sudden onset of hearing loss in her right ear while having breakfast. She reports feeling well otherwise and denies any ear pain, discharge, or previous ENT issues. The patient has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications. Otoscopy reveals no abnormalities, and tuning fork tests confirm a sensorineural loss. What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently to ENT

      Explanation:

      If someone experiences sudden onset sensorineural hearing loss, it is important to refer them to an ENT specialist within 24 hours for investigation and potential treatment with steroids.

      Understanding Hearing Loss with Weber and Rinnes Tests

      Hearing loss can be classified as either conductive or sensorineural, and a formal assessment with pure tone audiometry is often necessary to determine which type is present. However, in a clinical setting, Weber and Rinnes tests can also be helpful in categorizing different types of hearing loss.

      The Weber test involves using a tuning fork to determine if a patient has symmetrical or asymmetrical hearing loss. In a normal patient, the sound is heard equally loud in both ears. However, in a patient with asymmetrical hearing loss, the sound is heard louder in one ear than the other. This finding should be confirmed by repeating the procedure and having the patient occlude one ear with a finger.

      The Rinne test involves comparing air conduction to bone conduction in both ears. In a patient with normal hearing, air conduction is greater than bone conduction in both ears. However, in a patient with sensorineural hearing loss, air conduction is greater than bone conduction in the unaffected ear. In a patient with conductive hearing loss, bone conduction is greater than air conduction in the affected ear.

      Understanding the results of these tests can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat hearing loss. By identifying the type and severity of hearing loss, appropriate interventions such as hearing aids or cochlear implants can be recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      141.8
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  • Question 20 - A 30-year-old woman presents with a swollen first finger and wrist pain associated...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with a swollen first finger and wrist pain associated with a 5 month history of generalised fatigue. She has no other symptoms including no skin changes, and no previous medical history. Her mother suffers from psoriasis. She had the following blood tests as part of her investigations.

      Hb 125 g/l

      Platelets 390 * 109/l

      WBC 9.5 * 109/l

      ESR 78 mm/h

      Rheumatoid Factor Negative

      Antinuclear Antibody Negative

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Although females in this age group can be affected by SLE and rheumatoid arthritis, the most probable diagnosis for this patient is psoriatic arthritis due to the presence of dactylitis and a first-degree relative with psoriasis. Furthermore, rheumatoid factor and antinucleur antibody are typically positive in rheumatoid arthritis, while antinucleur antibody is mainly positive in SLE. Gout usually targets the first metatarsophalangeal joint of the first toe.

      Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is known to have a poor correlation with cutaneous psoriasis. In fact, it often precedes the development of skin lesions. This condition affects both males and females equally, with around 10-20% of patients with skin lesions developing an arthropathy.

      The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with different patterns of joint involvement. The most common type is symmetric polyarthritis, which is very similar to rheumatoid arthritis and affects around 30-40% of cases. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is another type, which typically affects the hands and feet and accounts for 20-30% of cases. Sacroiliitis, DIP joint disease, and arthritis mutilans (severe deformity of fingers/hand) are other patterns of joint involvement. Other signs of psoriatic arthropathy include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, enthesitis, tenosynovitis, dactylitis, and nail changes.

      To diagnose psoriatic arthropathy, X-rays are often used. These can reveal erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as periostitis and a pencil-in-cup appearance. Management of this condition should be done by a rheumatologist, and treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis. However, there are some differences, such as the use of monoclonal antibodies like ustekinumab and secukinumab. Mild peripheral arthritis or mild axial disease may be treated with NSAIDs alone, rather than all patients being on disease-modifying therapy as with RA. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      48.7
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  • Question 21 - A 60-year-old man with no significant medical history presents with a lump in...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with no significant medical history presents with a lump in his right groin that he noticed while showering. The lump has been present for two weeks and disappears when he lies down. He does not experience any discomfort, and there are no other gastrointestinal symptoms. Upon examination, a small reducible swelling is observed in the right groin. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Advise no action as asymptomatic

      Correct Answer: Routine referral for surgical repair

      Explanation:

      Patient has an asymptomatic inguinal hernia and surgical repair is recommended as conservative management may not be effective.

      Understanding Inguinal Hernias

      Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main feature of an inguinal hernia is a lump in the groin area, which is located superior and medial to the pubic tubercle. This lump disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are common symptoms, which can worsen with activity, but severe pain is rare. Strangulation, a serious complication, is uncommon.

      The clinical management of inguinal hernias involves treating medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for patients who are not fit for surgery, but it has little role in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method of treatment, as it is associated with the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are generally repaired with an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically. Patients can return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks following an open repair and after 1-2 weeks following laparoscopic repair, according to the Department for Work and Pensions.

      Complications of inguinal hernias include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. While traditional textbooks describe the anatomical differences between indirect and direct hernias, this is not relevant to clinical management. Overall, understanding the features, management, and complications of inguinal hernias is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      28.6
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  • Question 22 - A 49-year-old woman receives a red blood cell transfusion in the emergency department...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old woman receives a red blood cell transfusion in the emergency department after a car accident. She develops a fever and becomes anxious after 30 minutes. The transfusion is stopped and the following observations are made: respiratory rate 21 breaths per minute, heart rate 74 bpm, saturations 98% (room air), blood pressure 125/85 mmHg, temperature 39ºC. The patient is comfortable at rest and chest auscultation reveals no wheezing. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient's reaction?

      Your Answer: Paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Complications of Blood Product Transfusion: Understanding the Risks

      Blood product transfusion can lead to various complications that can be classified into different categories. Immunological complications include acute haemolytic reactions, non-haemolytic febrile reactions, and allergic/anaphylaxis reactions. Infective complications may also arise, including the transmission of vCJD. Other complications include transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI), transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO), hyperkalaemia, iron overload, and clotting.

      Non-haemolytic febrile reactions are thought to be caused by antibodies reacting with white cell fragments in the blood product and cytokines that have leaked from the blood cell during storage. On the other hand, allergic reactions to blood transfusions are caused by hypersensitivity reactions to components within the transfusion. TRALI is a rare but potentially fatal complication of blood transfusion, while TACO is a relatively common reaction due to fluid overload resulting in pulmonary oedema.

      It is important to understand the risks associated with blood product transfusion and to be aware of the different types of complications that may arise. Proper management and prompt treatment are crucial in preventing further harm to the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      109.5
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  • Question 23 - A 50-year-old female comes to an after-hours general practitioner complaining of worsening fever,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female comes to an after-hours general practitioner complaining of worsening fever, chest pain that worsens when inhaling, and a productive cough with blood-streaked sputum. She reports that she had symptoms of a dry cough, myalgia, and lethargy a week ago, but this week her symptoms have changed to those she is presenting with today. Her chest x-ray shows a cavitating lesion with a thin wall on the right side and an associated pleural effusion. What is the probable causative organism?

      Your Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Causes of Pneumonia

      Pneumonia is a respiratory infection that can be caused by various infectious agents. Community acquired pneumonia (CAP) is the most common type of pneumonia and is caused by different microorganisms. The most common cause of CAP is Streptococcus pneumoniae, which accounts for around 80% of cases. Other infectious agents that can cause CAP include Haemophilus influenzae, Staphylococcus aureus, atypical pneumonias caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae, and viruses.

      Klebsiella pneumoniae is another microorganism that can cause pneumonia, but it is typically found in alcoholics. Streptococcus pneumoniae, also known as pneumococcus, is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. It is characterized by a rapid onset, high fever, pleuritic chest pain, and herpes labialis (cold sores).

      In summary, pneumonia can be caused by various infectious agents, with Streptococcus pneumoniae being the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. It is important to identify the causative agent to provide appropriate treatment and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      34.3
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  • Question 24 - A 75-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after slipping on ice....

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after slipping on ice. He has a painful left leg that appears shortened and externally rotated. There are no visible skin breaks and no peripheral neurovascular compromise. An x-ray reveals a stable, complete, intertrochanteric proximal femur fracture. The patient has no medical history and takes no regular medications. He is given pain relief and referred to the orthopaedic team. What is the recommended procedure for his condition?

      Your Answer: Total hip replacement

      Correct Answer: Dynamic hip screw

      Explanation:

      The optimal surgical management for an extracapsular proximal femoral fracture is a dynamic hip screw. This is the recommended approach for patients who are fit and have no comorbidities that would prevent them from undergoing surgery. Conservative management is not appropriate as it would lead to a reduced quality of life and is only considered for patients who cannot undergo surgery.

      Intramedullary nails with external fixation are used for lower extremity long bone fractures, such as femur or tibia fractures. This involves inserting a nail into the bone alongside external fixation screws that are attached to a device outside the skin to provide additional support and realign the bone if necessary. External fixation is temporary and will be removed once the bone has healed sufficiently.

      Hemiarthroplasty, which involves replacing the femoral head and neck, is typically used for displaced fractures and is less complicated than a total hip replacement (THR). It is suitable for less active patients who want to return to normal activities of daily living. However, THR is becoming more popular for active patients with displaced femoral neck fractures and pre-existing hip osteoarthritis. As this patient does not have a displaced fracture, THR is not necessary.

      Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a potential risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms of a hip fracture include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures can be classified as intracapsular or extracapsular, with the Garden system being a commonly used classification system. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV fractures.

      Intracapsular hip fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures are recommended for replacement arthroplasty, such as total hip replacement or hemiarthroplasty, according to NICE guidelines. Total hip replacement is preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with the use of a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular hip fractures can be managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures or an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      45.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 58-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of a painful left...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of a painful left leg that has been getting worse for several hours. She has no other symptoms and has a medical history of asthma, hypertension, and a laparoscopic cholecystectomy 8 weeks ago.

      During the examination, the left calf diameter is approximately 4 cm larger than the right calf, but there is no oedema.

      What would be the most suitable initial investigation?

      Your Answer: Proximal leg vein ultrasound

      Explanation:

      If the Wells score for a suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is 2 or higher, a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be arranged within 4 hours. In this case, the patient’s Wells score is 2 due to recent major surgery within 12 weeks and a calf swelling at least 3 cm larger than the asymptomatic side. It is important to note that a CT angiogram of the leg is not appropriate for diagnosing DVT, and ultrasound is the preferred imaging modality. A CT pulmonary angiogram would only be necessary if the patient had symptoms suggestive of pulmonary embolism. A chest X-ray is not relevant in this scenario. If ultrasound is not possible within 4 hours, a D-dimer test could be performed and interim therapeutic anticoagulation given, but the initial choice is to perform an ultrasound scan as soon as possible.

      NICE updated their guidelines on the investigation and management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020. The use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) is recommended as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis. The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy, with DOACs being the preferred choice. All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months, with the length of anticoagulation being determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 72 year old man presents with a 6 day history of vomiting...

    Correct

    • A 72 year old man presents with a 6 day history of vomiting and diarrhoea. His blood results show Na+ 142 mmol/l, K+ 5.9 mmol/l, urea 14 mmol/l, and creatinine 320 mmol/l. His renal function was normal on routine blood tests 2 months ago. What finding is most indicative of acute tubular necrosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Raised urinary sodium

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing acute kidney injury, which can be categorized into three causes: pre-renal, renal, and post-renal. Pre-renal causes are due to inadequate renal perfusion, such as dehydration, haemorrhage, heart failure, or sepsis. In this case, the kidneys are still able to concentrate urine and retain sodium, resulting in high urine osmolality and low urine sodium. Renal causes are most commonly caused by acute tubular necrosis, which damages tubular cells due to prolonged ischaemia or toxins. In this scenario, the kidneys are unable to concentrate urine or retain sodium, leading to low urine osmolality and high urine sodium. Acute glomerulonephritis and acute interstitial nephritis are rarer causes of renal injury. Post-renal causes are due to obstruction of the urinary tract, which can be identified through hydronephrosis on renal ultrasound.

      Distinguishing between Acute Tubular Necrosis and Prerenal Uraemia in Acute Kidney Injury

      Acute kidney injury can be caused by various factors, including prerenal uraemia and acute tubular necrosis. It is important to distinguish between the two in order to provide appropriate treatment. Prerenal uraemia occurs when the kidneys hold on to sodium to preserve volume, leading to decreased blood flow to the kidneys. On the other hand, acute tubular necrosis is caused by damage to the kidney tubules, often due to ischemia or toxins.

      To differentiate between the two, several factors can be considered. In prerenal uraemia, urine sodium levels are typically less than 20 mmol/L, while in acute tubular necrosis, they are usually greater than 40 mmol/L. Urine osmolality is also a useful indicator, with levels above 500 mOsm/kg suggesting prerenal uraemia and levels below 350 mOsm/kg suggesting acute tubular necrosis.

      Fractional sodium excretion and fractional urea excretion are also important measures. In prerenal uraemia, the fractional sodium excretion is typically less than 1%, while in acute tubular necrosis, it is usually greater than 1%. Similarly, the fractional urea excretion is less than 35% in prerenal uraemia and greater than 35% in acute tubular necrosis.

      Other factors that can help distinguish between the two include response to fluid challenge, serum urea:creatinine ratio, urine:plasma osmolality, urine:plasma urea ratio, and specific gravity. By considering these factors, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose and treat acute kidney injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      36.8
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  • Question 27 - A 72-year-old man visits his general practice with symptoms of difficulty initiating urine...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man visits his general practice with symptoms of difficulty initiating urine flow. He also has to wake on a number of occasions each night to visit the toilet to pass urine. His pelvic exam is normal and a urinalysis does not indicate infection.
      Which of the following treatment options is likely to bring the most rapid symptom relief?

      Your Answer: Alpha-blocker

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition in men over 40 years old, characterized by non-cancerous growth of the prostate gland. This can lead to lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) that affect quality of life, such as obstructive symptoms (difficulty urinating) and irritative symptoms (frequent urination). While prostate cancer can present with similar symptoms, a reassuring biopsy can rule out cancer.

      Alpha-blockers, such as tamsulosin and doxazosin, are commonly used to treat moderate to severe symptomatic BPH, regardless of prostate size. These medications work by blocking α-adrenoreceptors in the prostate, prostatic urethra, and bladder neck, leading to decreased muscle tone and reduced bladder obstruction.

      Dutasteride and finasteride are both 5-α-reductase inhibitors (5ARIs) that block the production of dihydrotestosterone and reduce prostate volume. While there is no difference in clinical efficacy between the two agents, finasteride takes longer to show its effects. Current guidelines recommend 5ARIs for men with LUTS and a prostate larger than 30 g or a PSA level >1.4 ng/ml who are at high risk of progression. However, alpha-blockers remain the first-line agents for pharmacological treatment.

      Testosterone replacement therapy is not indicated for the treatment of BPH, and beta-blockers are not effective in managing BPH/LUTS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 27-year-old woman comes in for her 8th week of pregnancy and reports...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman comes in for her 8th week of pregnancy and reports an uncomplicated pregnancy thus far. She is currently in good health and not experiencing any symptoms. However, she expresses concern about not being vaccinated against rubella as a child due to her parents' anti-vaccine beliefs. She is aware of the potential harm rubella can cause to her developing fetus and blood tests confirm that she is not immune to the virus.

      What advice should be given to her?

      Your Answer: She can have the MMR vaccine postnatally

      Explanation:

      In the case of a pregnant woman who is not immune to rubella, it is recommended to offer the MMR vaccination after giving birth. Rubella can cause severe harm to the developing foetus, especially during the first 8-10 weeks of pregnancy. Although congenital rubella syndrome is now rare due to widespread MMR vaccination, there has been a resurgence of measles, mumps, and rubella outbreaks in developed countries due to the anti-vaccination movement. The woman should avoid contact with individuals who may have rubella and cannot receive the vaccine while pregnant. Referral to an obstetrician is not necessary at this time since the woman is asymptomatic and in good health. The MMR vaccine should not be administered at 20 weeks of pregnancy, and if the woman is not immune, it should be offered postnatally. If there is a suspicion of rubella based on the woman’s clinical presentation, the local Health Protection Team should be notified, but this is not necessary in this case since there is no suspicion.

      Rubella and Pregnancy: Risks, Features, Diagnosis, and Management

      Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection caused by the togavirus. Thanks to the introduction of the MMR vaccine, it is now rare. However, if contracted during pregnancy, there is a risk of congenital rubella syndrome, which can cause serious harm to the fetus. It is important to note that the incubation period is 14-21 days, and individuals are infectious from 7 days before symptoms appear to 4 days after the onset of the rash.

      The risk of damage to the fetus is highest in the first 8-10 weeks of pregnancy, with a risk as high as 90%. However, damage is rare after 16 weeks. Features of congenital rubella syndrome include sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease (e.g. patent ductus arteriosus), growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric skin lesions, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, and cerebral palsy.

      If a suspected case of rubella in pregnancy arises, it should be discussed immediately with the local Health Protection Unit (HPU) as type/timing of investigations may vary. IgM antibodies are raised in women recently exposed to the virus. It should be noted that it is very difficult to distinguish rubella from parvovirus B19 clinically. Therefore, it is important to also check parvovirus B19 serology as there is a 30% risk of transplacental infection, with a 5-10% risk of fetal loss.

      If a woman is tested at any point and no immunity is demonstrated, they should be advised to keep away from people who might have rubella. Non-immune mothers should be offered the MMR vaccination in the post-natal period. However, MMR vaccines should not be administered to women known to be pregnant or attempting to become pregnant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      35.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Among the following groups of malignant tumours, which one is known for frequently...

    Correct

    • Among the following groups of malignant tumours, which one is known for frequently metastasizing to bone?

      Your Answer: Breast, prostate, kidney, lung, thyroid

      Explanation:

      Metastasis Patterns of Common Tumours

      Metastasis, the spread of cancer cells from the primary tumour to other parts of the body, is a major factor in cancer progression and treatment. Different types of cancer have different patterns of metastasis. Here are some common tumours and their predilection for dissemination to specific organs:

      – Breast, prostate, kidney, lung, thyroid: These tumours have a predilection for dissemination to bone.
      – Kidney, sarcoma, lung, thyroid: Sarcoma most commonly metastasises to the lungs.
      – Breast, prostate, kidney, lymphoma: Tumours that commonly metastasise to the brain include those of the breast, lung, prostate, kidney and thyroid.
      – Lung, breast, prostate, thyroid, brain: Primary brain tumours rarely metastasise to other parts of the body.
      – Thyroid, brain, lung, liver, breast: Primary liver tumours most commonly metastasise to the lung, portal vein and portal nodes.

      Understanding the metastasis patterns of different tumours can help in early detection and targeted treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      34.3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old man visits his GP complaining of nasal congestion, facial pain, a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits his GP complaining of nasal congestion, facial pain, a runny nose, and a decreased sense of smell that has been ongoing for three months. He has a history of seasonal allergies. Upon palpation of the maxillofacial area, tenderness is noted. No visible nasal polyps are present.
      What are the primary symptoms of chronic sinusitis?

      Your Answer: Symptoms lasting less than 12 weeks

      Correct Answer: Facial pain and/or pressure

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Symptoms of Chronic Rhinosinusitis

      Chronic rhinosinusitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the sinuses that lasts for at least 12 weeks. To diagnose this condition, doctors look for specific symptoms that are indicative of chronic sinusitis. These symptoms include nasal obstruction, nasal discharge, facial pain and pressure, and loss of smell sensation.

      Facial pain and pressure are common symptoms of chronic sinusitis, and they are caused by congestion of the sinuses. Pain is typically felt over the maxillary, ethmoid, and frontal sinuses, which can be palpated by a doctor during an examination. Coughing is not a major symptom of chronic sinusitis, but it may be present in some patients and could indicate an underlying condition such as asthma or COPD.

      Nasal polyps are not a major symptom of chronic sinusitis, but they can be present in some individuals with this condition. The presence of nasal polyps indicates a variant of chronic sinusitis, which may require different management strategies.

      It is important to note that symptoms must last for at least 12 weeks without resolution before a diagnosis of chronic rhinosinusitis can be made. If symptoms last for less than 12 weeks, the criteria for chronic rhinosinusitis are not met. While patients may be experiencing chronic sinusitis before the 12-week mark, doctors must wait for this duration to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      39.3
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Reproductive Medicine (3/4) 75%
Paediatrics (3/4) 75%
Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Infectious Diseases (1/2) 50%
Neurology (2/2) 100%
Ophthalmology (2/2) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
ENT (2/3) 67%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal (1/2) 50%
Renal Medicine/Urology (2/3) 67%
Haematology/Oncology (2/2) 100%
Respiratory Medicine (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Passmed