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  • Question 1 - Through what means is the superior oblique muscle provided with its supply? ...

    Incorrect

    • Through what means is the superior oblique muscle provided with its supply?

      Your Answer: Fifth cranial nerve

      Correct Answer: Fourth cranial nerve

      Explanation:

      The Superior Oblique Muscle and Trochlear Nerve

      The superior oblique muscle is responsible for rotating the top of the eye towards the nose and moving the eye downward to create incyclotorsion. The trochlear nerve, also known as the fourth cranial nerve, is unique for three reasons. Firstly, it exits the dorsal side of the brain stem, which is different from the other cranial nerves. Secondly, the fibres from the trochlear nucleus cross in the midbrain before exiting, allowing for contralateral innervation of the superior oblique muscle. Lastly, the trochlear fibres have a long intracranial course before piercing the dura.

      To remember the innervation of the lateral rectus and superior oblique muscles, the mnemonic LR6SO4 can be used. The lateral rectus muscle is innervated by the sixth cranial nerve, while the superior oblique muscle is innervated by the fourth cranial nerve. the function and innervation of the superior oblique muscle and trochlear nerve is important in diagnosing and treating eye movement disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old male returns from a backpacking trip in Eastern Europe with symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male returns from a backpacking trip in Eastern Europe with symptoms of diarrhea. He has been experiencing profuse watery diarrhea and colicky abdominal pain for the past week. He has been going to the toilet approximately 10 times a day and occasionally feels nauseated, but has not vomited. He has lost around 5 kg in weight due to this illness. On examination, he has a temperature of 37.7°C and appears slightly dehydrated. There is some slight tenderness on abdominal examination, but no specific abnormalities are detected. PR examination reveals watery, brown feces. What investigation would be the most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Analysis for Clostridium toxin

      Correct Answer: Stool microscopy and culture

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Treatment of Giardiasis in Traveller’s Diarrhoea

      Traveller’s diarrhoea is a common condition that can occur when travelling to different parts of the world. In this case, the patient is likely suffering from giardiasis, which is caused by a parasite that can be found in contaminated water or food. The best way to diagnose giardiasis is through microscopic examination of the faeces, where cysts may be seen. However, in some cases, chronic disease may occur, and cysts may not be found in the faeces. In such cases, a duodenal aspirate or biopsy may be required to confirm the diagnosis.

      The treatment for giardiasis is metronidazole, which is an antibiotic that is effective against the parasite.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      97.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 75-year-old woman presents to a respiratory outpatient clinic with a dry cough...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman presents to a respiratory outpatient clinic with a dry cough and shortness of breath that has been ongoing for 6 months. Despite being a non-smoker, her husband is a pigeon breeder. Upon examination, she has an SpO2 of 95% on room air and clubbing is present. Chest examination reveals symmetrical and bilateral reduced chest expansion with fine end-inspiratory crepitations. A chest radiograph shows increased interstitial markings in the lower zones of both lungs. High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) confirms these findings and also shows bibasal honeycombing. There is no lymphadenopathy present on CT. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypersensitivity pneumonitis (extrinsic allergic alveolitis)

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (usual interstitial pneumonia)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Interstitial Lung Disease: A Case Study

      Interstitial lung disease (ILD) is a group of lung disorders that affect the interstitium, the tissue and space surrounding the air sacs in the lungs. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is the most common type of ILD, characterized by chronic inflammation of the lung interstitium with lower zone predominance. This article discusses the differential diagnosis for ILD, using a case study of a patient presenting with subacute dry cough, exertional dyspnea, and general malaise and fatigue.

      Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis (IPF)
      IPF is characterized by chronic inflammation of the lung interstitium with lower zone predominance. Patients present with subacute dry cough, exertional dyspnea, and general malaise and fatigue. Clinical examination reveals fine end-inspiratory crepitations throughout the chest with lower zone predominance. Radiological findings include reduced lung volumes and bilateral increased interstitial markings with lower zone predominance on chest X-ray (CXR), and honeycombing and microcyst formation in the lung bases on high-resolution CT (HRCT). Lung transplantation is the only definitive treatment, while steroids are not indicated.

      Tuberculosis
      Tuberculosis presents with chronic cough, haemoptysis, fever, and night sweats. Imaging shows cavitating lesions ± lymphadenopathy.

      Bronchiectasis
      Bronchiectasis presents with productive cough, recurrent chest infections, and haemoptysis. CXR findings are often non-specific, but dilated, thick-walled (ectatic) bronchi are easily seen on HRCT.

      Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis (Extrinsic Allergic Alveolitis)
      Hypersensitivity pneumonitis may be caused by airborne irritants to lung parenchyma, such as pigeon breeding. Changes are classically found in lung apices, making it less likely than IPF/UIP.

      Sarcoidosis
      End-stage sarcoidosis may present with lung fibrosis, but this does not spare the apices and typically affects the middle and upper zones of the lung.

      In conclusion, the differential diagnosis for ILD includes IPF, tuberculosis, bronchiectasis, hypersensitivity pneumonitis, and sarcoidosis. Accurate diagnosis is crucial for appropriate treatment and management of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      44.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 60-year-old man presents to the Accident & Emergency Department following an overdose...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents to the Accident & Emergency Department following an overdose of one of his medications. On initial triage, his blood pressure is found to be 72/48 mmHg, heart rate 34 bpm and his serum blood glucose is recorded as 1.4 mmol/l. A 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) shows sinus bradycardia. He has a past medical history of hypertension, atrial fibrillation, insulin-dependent type 2 diabetes and hypercholesterolaemia.
      Which of the following medications is most likely to be responsible for this patient’s symptoms?

      Your Answer: Insulin

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Toxidrome Analysis: Identifying the Causative Agent in a Hypoglycaemic Patient

      In cases of hypoglycaemia, it is important to consider all possible causative agents before initiating treatment. In this scenario, the patient presents with hypoglycaemia, bradycardia, and hypotension. After reviewing the patient’s medication history, the most likely agent responsible for this toxidrome is bisoprolol, a cardioselective beta-blocker commonly used in the treatment of heart failure and dysrhythmias.

      While amlodipine, a dihydropyridine calcium-channel blocker, can cause hypotension in overdose, it is unlikely to cause the marked hypoglycaemia seen in this case. Digoxin, a cardiovascular agent, can lead to life-threatening dysrhythmias, but the patient’s sinus bradycardia and hypoglycaemia make it a less likely causative agent than bisoprolol. Insulin overdose results in neuroglycopenia, but it would not lead to bradycardia and hypotension. Metformin overdose rarely results in hypoglycaemia, but the major concern is lactic acidosis.

      Treatment for bisoprolol overdose involves airway management, fluid resuscitation, and glucagon therapy. Additional treatment options include vasopressors and lipid emulsion therapy. It is important to consider all possible causative agents and their specific toxidromes before initiating treatment for hypoglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      36
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 27-year-old woman who is 39+0 weeks pregnant undergoes an artificial rupture of...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman who is 39+0 weeks pregnant undergoes an artificial rupture of membranes to speed up slow labour. However, soon after the procedure, the CTG shows foetal bradycardia and the umbilical cord is palpable at the vaginal opening. What is the first step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Perform an episiotomy

      Correct Answer: Ask the mother to 'go on all fours'

      Explanation:

      The appropriate action for a woman with a cord prolapse is to request that she assume an all-fours position on her knees and elbows. This condition occurs when the umbilical cord descends before the fetus’s presenting part, resulting in signs of fetal distress on a CTG after an artificial rupture of membranes. To prevent compression, the fetus’s presenting part may be pushed back into the uterus, and tocolytics may be used. If the cord is beyond the introitus, it should be kept warm and moist but not pushed back inside. The patient should be instructed to assume an all-fours position until an immediate caesarean section can be arranged. Applying external suprapubic pressure is not recommended, as it is part of the initial management of shoulder dystocia. Attempting to return the umbilical cord to the uterus is not recommended, as it may worsen fetal hypoxia and cause vasospasm. An episiotomy is not necessary for the initial management of cord prolapse and is typically used during instrumental vaginal deliveries or when the mother is at high risk of perineal trauma.

      Understanding Umbilical Cord Prolapse

      Umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that can occur during delivery. It happens when the umbilical cord descends ahead of the presenting part of the fetus, which can lead to compression or spasm of the cord. This can cause fetal hypoxia and potentially irreversible damage or death. Certain factors increase the risk of cord prolapse, such as prematurity, multiparity, polyhydramnios, twin pregnancy, cephalopelvic disproportion, and abnormal presentations like breech or transverse lie.

      Around half of all cord prolapses occur when the membranes are artificially ruptured. Diagnosis is usually made when the fetal heart rate becomes abnormal and the cord is palpable vaginally or visible beyond the introitus. Cord prolapse is an obstetric emergency that requires immediate management. The presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back into the uterus to avoid compression, and the cord should be kept warm and moist to prevent vasospasm. The patient may be asked to go on all fours or assume the left lateral position until preparations for an immediate caesarian section have been carried out. Tocolytics may be used to reduce uterine contractions, and retrofilling the bladder with saline can help elevate the presenting part. Although caesarian section is the usual first-line method of delivery, an instrumental vaginal delivery may be possible if the cervix is fully dilated and the head is low.

      In conclusion, umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that requires prompt recognition and management. Understanding the risk factors and appropriate interventions can help reduce the incidence of fetal mortality associated with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - In which condition is a stiff neck not present in a toddler? ...

    Correct

    • In which condition is a stiff neck not present in a toddler?

      Your Answer: Measles

      Explanation:

      Complications of Measles and Other Causes of Neck Stiffness

      Measles is a highly contagious viral infection that can lead to various complications. These include respiratory problems such as croup, bronchitis, bronchiolitis, and pneumonitis. Measles can also cause conjunctivitis, myocarditis, hepatitis, and encephalitis, which occurs in 1 in 1000-2000 cases. Additionally, measles can make the body more susceptible to ear infections and bacterial pneumonia.

      Apart from measles, other conditions can also cause neck stiffness. For instance, the involvement of the cervical spine in the arthritis of Still’s disease may lead to neck stiffness. Tuberculosis (TB) may cause tuberculous meningitis or Pott’s disease, both of which can cause neck stiffness. Another recognized cause of neck stiffness with an extended neck is retropharyngeal abscess.

      In summary, measles can lead to various complications, including respiratory problems, conjunctivitis, myocarditis, hepatitis, and encephalitis. It can also make the body more susceptible to ear infections and bacterial pneumonia. Other conditions such as Still’s disease, TB, and retropharyngeal abscess can also cause neck stiffness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 58-year-old woman has developed hypotension and tachycardia, 3 hours after a laparoscopic...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old woman has developed hypotension and tachycardia, 3 hours after a laparoscopic partial gastrectomy for a distal gastric tumor. Her blood gas analysis shows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      pH 7.28 7.35–7.45
      pCO2 7.1 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
      pO2 8.0 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
      Bicarbonate 29 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
      Base excess 5 mmol/l –2.0 to +2.0 mmol/l
      What is the most probable diagnosis based on these findings?

      Your Answer: Hypoventilation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Arterial Blood Gas Results: Causes of Respiratory Failure

      Arterial blood gas (ABG) results can provide valuable information about a patient’s respiratory status. In the case of type II respiratory failure with respiratory acidosis and hypoxaemia, hypoventilation is the likely cause. This can occur during surgery due to medications and post-operative pain, leading to insufficient ventilation and retention of carbon dioxide.

      Other conditions that can affect ABG results include pulmonary embolus, which causes hypoxaemia and respiratory alkalosis due to increased elimination of CO2. Pulmonary oedema, on the other hand, triggers hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis to compensate for impaired gas exchange. If left untreated, it can progress to type I respiratory failure with acidaemia and hypoxaemia.

      CO2 absorption from pneumoperitoneum during laparoscopic surgery can cause a transient respiratory acidosis, but it would not explain the type II respiratory failure seen in the above scenario. Lung atelectasis, which refers to incomplete lung expansion, can lead to hypoxaemia but drives a hyperventilation response and respiratory alkalosis with type I respiratory failure.

      Understanding the different causes of respiratory failure and their corresponding ABG results can aid in proper diagnosis and management of patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      87.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 6-year-old boy arrives at the Emergency Department with a high fever, difficulty...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old boy arrives at the Emergency Department with a high fever, difficulty breathing, severe sore throat, and drooling of saliva. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Call the ear, nose and throat (ENT) surgeon/senior anaesthetist to secure her airway

      Explanation:

      Managing Acute Epiglottitis: Prioritizing Airway Security

      Acute epiglottitis is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention to secure the patient’s airway. While medical therapies and investigations are important, the priority should be given to securing the airway via endo-/nasotracheal intubation or tracheostomy guided by a senior anaesthetist and ENT surgeon. Oral instrumentation is contraindicated until the airway has been secured. Lateral neck X-ray may be useful in diagnosing less acute presentations, but in this case, the child requires intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics and admission to an Intensive Therapy Unit/High-dependency Unit bed in the hospital. Intubating a child with acute epiglottitis can be challenging and should only be undertaken by an experienced anaesthetist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 66-year-old man is referred to the Elderly Medicine Clinic with a 6-month...

    Correct

    • A 66-year-old man is referred to the Elderly Medicine Clinic with a 6-month history of changed behaviour. He has been hoarding newspapers and magazines around the house and refuses to change his clothes for weeks on end. His wife has noticed that he tells the same stories repeatedly, often just minutes apart. He has a new taste for potato crisps and has gained 4 kg in weight. On examination, his mini-mental state examination (MMSE) is 27/30.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fronto-temporal dementia (FTD)

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Dementia and Their Characteristics

      Dementia is a term used to describe a group of symptoms that affect memory, thinking, and social abilities. There are several types of dementia, each with its own set of characteristics. Here are some of the most common types of dementia and their features:

      1. Fronto-temporal dementia (FTD)
      FTD is characterized by a lack of attention to personal hygiene, repetitive behavior, hoarding/criminal behavior, and new eating habits. Patients with FTD tend to perform well on cognitive tests, but may experience loss of fluency, lack of empathy, ignoring social etiquette, and loss of abstraction.

      2. Diogenes syndrome
      Diogenes syndrome, also known as senile squalor syndrome, is characterized by self-neglect, apathy, social withdrawal, and compulsive hoarding.

      3. Lewy body dementia
      Lewy body dementia is characterized by parkinsonism and visual hallucinations.

      4. Alzheimer’s dementia
      Alzheimer’s dementia shows progressive cognitive decline, including memory loss, difficulty with language, disorientation, and mood swings.

      5. Vascular dementia
      Vascular dementia is characterized by stepwise cognitive decline, usually with a history of vascular disease.

      Understanding the different types of dementia and their characteristics can help with early detection and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      47.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 48-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency department by emergency ambulance following...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency department by emergency ambulance following a deliberate overdose of an unknown drug.

      She is accompanied by her husband who tells you that she has a long history of anxiety and depression and takes fluoxetine 20 mg od and lorazepam 2 mg bd.

      On primary assessment, her airway is clear but she only groans when sternal rub is applied. Her chest is clear to auscultation but her respiratory rate is 6 ventilations per minute and oxygen saturations are 93% on air.

      Heart sounds are normal with a rate of 80 bpm and blood pressure is 82/44 mmHg. ECG shows sinus rhythm. Capillary blood glucose is 6.3 mmol/L. Her GCS is 8/15 (E1, V2, M5) but her pupils are slowly reactive bilaterally and size 4. All limbs appear to move equally and there is no apparent injury. She smells of alcohol.

      What is the first most appropriate step in the immediate management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Administer intravenous flumazenil 200 mcg then further doses of 100 mcg dependant on response

      Correct Answer: Insert a nasopharyngeal airway and commence high flow oxygen

      Explanation:

      The ABCDE approach is important for assessing acutely unwell patients. Protecting the airway is paramount in this case, as the patient’s level of consciousness threatens it. Oxygen and a nasopharyngeal airway are the first steps. Flumazenil and naloxone are not indicated, as the drug taken is unknown and opioid overdose is unlikely. Activated charcoal may not be effective if the time of ingestion is unknown. Prophylactic intubation is reasonable but not mandatory. Arterial blood gases can help determine ventilation, but supplemental oxygen and airway adjuncts are reasonable first steps.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      100.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 36-year-old woman has given birth to her first child and was given...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman has given birth to her first child and was given a dose of intramuscular syntocinon before the placenta was delivered. During the wait for the placenta, she experiences a blood loss of 400ml. Even after the placenta is delivered, the bleeding continues and she loses an additional 500ml of blood. The medical team initiates the necessary resuscitation measures and the major haemorrhage protocol. The cause of the bleeding is identified as uterine atony, and the patient is given boluses of syntocinon, ergometrine, and carboprost. However, the bleeding persists. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Ligation of the uterine artery

      Correct Answer: Intra-uterine Bakri catheter

      Explanation:

      The correct first-line surgical intervention for postpartum haemorrhage is an intra-uterine Bakri catheter. This device is used to tamponade the bleeding caused by uterine atony, which is a failure of the uterine myometrium cells to contract. Hysterectomy is not the first option as it is a last resort and will make the patient infertile. Lying the patient on her left lateral side is not relevant for a woman who has already delivered her baby. Ligation of the internal iliac artery may be used, but it is not the next most appropriate step as it may lead to ischaemic complications. Intra-uterine balloon tamponade is the first-line surgical intervention if other measures fail.

      Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage

      Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.

      In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.

      Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      768.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 12-year-old boy is presented by his father with a widespread skin rash....

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old boy is presented by his father with a widespread skin rash. The boy has been experiencing itching for the past 3 days and has developed a fever along with the rash. During the examination, it is observed that the rash consists of macules, papules, crusted lesions, and vesicles that have spread across most of his body. The father has been administering ibuprofen to the boy for relief from fever and discomfort.
      What is the probable diagnosis, and why is ibuprofen not recommended in this case?

      Your Answer: The increased risk of necrotising fasciitis

      Explanation:

      The symptoms exhibited by this patient are consistent with chickenpox, including lesions at various stages of healing, fever, and itching. However, it is important to note that the use of NSAIDs can increase the risk of necrotising fasciitis in chickenpox patients. While ibuprofen is a suitable NSAID for patients of all ages, it is important to avoid aspirin due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome in children with chickenpox. Short-term use of ibuprofen during acute febrile illnesses is unlikely to cause significant gastrointestinal side effects.

      Chickenpox: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Chickenpox is a viral infection caused by the varicella zoster virus. It is highly contagious and can be spread through respiratory droplets. The virus can also reactivate later in life, causing shingles. Chickenpox is most infectious four days before the rash appears and until five days after the rash first appears. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days. Symptoms include fever, an itchy rash that starts on the head and trunk before spreading, and mild systemic upset.

      Management of chickenpox is supportive and includes keeping cool, trimming nails, and using calamine lotion. School exclusion is recommended during the infectious period. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG). If chickenpox develops, IV acyclovir may be considered. Secondary bacterial infection of the lesions is a common complication, which may be increased by the use of NSAIDs. In rare cases, invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections may occur, resulting in necrotizing fasciitis. Other rare complications include pneumonia, encephalitis, disseminated haemorrhagic chickenpox, arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis.

      Radiographic Findings in Varicella Pneumonia

      Varicella pneumonia is a rare complication of chickenpox that can occur in immunocompromised patients or adults. Radiographic findings of healed varicella pneumonia may include miliary opacities throughout both lungs, which are of uniform size and dense, suggesting calcification. There is typically no focal lung parenchymal mass or cavitating lesion seen. These findings are characteristic of healed varicella pneumonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      48.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old woman with Crohn's disease (CD) visits her primary care physician for...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with Crohn's disease (CD) visits her primary care physician for a regular follow-up. During the examination, the doctor observes clubbing, hepatomegaly, and episcleritis, which are known signs linked with CD. What other non-intestinal symptom is commonly associated with CD?

      Your Answer: Erythema multiforme

      Correct Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum

      Explanation:

      Extra-Intestinal Manifestations and Skin Conditions Associated with Inflammatory Bowel Disease

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), including Crohn’s disease (CD) and ulcerative colitis (UC), can present with extra-intestinal manifestations, with some features being more prevalent in one than the other. Joint complications are the most common, but other manifestations include eye inflammation, joint pain and stiffness, and liver and biliary tree issues. Additionally, CD can present with skin conditions such as pyoderma gangrenosum, while UC is associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis and cholangiocarcinoma.

      Other skin conditions, such as necrobiosis lipoidica and palmar erythema, are not associated with IBD. Erythema multiforme is a drug-related skin rash, while lichen planus is a skin rash of unknown cause that is not associated with IBD. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these extra-intestinal manifestations and skin conditions when evaluating patients with IBD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      36.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 65-year-old man presents with increased satiety, dull abdominal pain and weight loss...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with increased satiety, dull abdominal pain and weight loss over the past 6 months. He smokes 20 cigarettes per day and has suffered from indigestion symptoms for some years. On examination, his body mass index is 18 and he looks thin. He has epigastric tenderness and a suspicion of a mass on examination of the abdomen.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 101 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 9.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 201 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 110 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Faecal occult blood (FOB) Positive
      Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy Yellowish coloured, ulcerating
      submucosal mass within the
      stomach
      Histology Extensive lymphocytes within the biopsy
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gastric carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Gastric lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Histological Diagnoses of Gastric Conditions

      Gastric lymphoma is often caused by chronic infection with H. pylori, and eradicating the infection can be curative. If not, chemotherapy is the first-line treatment. Other risk factors include HIV infection and long-term immunosuppressive therapy. In contrast, H. pylori gastritis is diagnosed through histological examination, which reveals lymphocytes and may indicate gastric lymphoma. Gastric ulcers are characterized by inflammation, necrosis, fibrinoid tissue, or granulation tissue on histology. Gastric carcinoma is identified through adenocarcinoma of diffuse or intestinal type, with higher grades exhibiting poorly formed tubules, intracellular mucous, and signet ring cells. Finally, alcoholic gastritis is diagnosed through histology as neutrophils in the epithelium above the basement membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 30-year-old previously healthy man is involved in an accident at home. He...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old previously healthy man is involved in an accident at home. He is brought to Accident and Emergency where he is found to have superficial abrasions to the right side of his chest and upper abdomen, together with an obvious deformity of the right humerus. Radiograph of the right arm shows a displaced midshaft humerus fracture. Neurovascular examination reveals radial nerve palsy, together with absent peripheral pulses and a cool, clammy distal arm. He was given oral paracetamol at home, while waiting for the ambulance to arrive. Pain score remains 9/10. Parameters are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Temperature 36.9 °C 36.1–37.2 °C
      Pulse 110 bpm 60–100 bpm
      Blood pressure 140/90 mmHg < 120/80 mmHg
      Oxygen saturations 98% on room air 94–98%
      Respiratory rate 22 breaths/min 12–18 breaths/min
      Which of the following is the most appropriate form of pain relief?

      Your Answer: IV morphine

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Analgesic for Acute Pain: A Case-by-Case Basis

      Analgesia is typically administered in a stepwise manner, but emergency medicine requires a more individualized approach. In cases of acute pain from long bone fractures, non-opioid analgesia may not be sufficient. The two most viable options are oral and IV morphine, with IV morphine being preferred due to its rapid onset and safe side-effect profile. However, caution must be exercised due to the risk of respiratory depression and dependency. Oral NSAIDs and morphine are contraindicated as the patient must be kept nil by mouth before urgent surgical intervention. Oxycodone prolonged release is too weak for severe pain. Choosing the right analgesic for acute pain requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      2066.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 50-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after falling down the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after falling down the stairs at home. She complains of ‘rib pain’ and is moved to the resus room from triage, as she was unable to complete full sentences due to shortness of breath. Sats on room air were 92%. You are asked to see her urgently as the nursing staff are concerned about her deterioration.
      On examination, she appears distressed; blood pressure is 85/45, heart rate 115 bpm, respiratory rate 38 and sats 87% on air. Her left chest does not appear to be moving very well, and there are no audible breath sounds on the left on auscultation.
      What is the most appropriate next step in immediate management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Left-sided chest drain

      Correct Answer: Needle thoracocentesis of left chest

      Explanation:

      Needle Thoracocentesis for Tension Pneumothorax

      Explanation:
      In cases of traumatic chest pain, it is important to keep an open mind regarding other injuries. However, if a patient rapidly deteriorates with signs of shock, hypoxia, reduced chest expansion, and no breath sounds audible on the affected side of the chest, a tension pneumothorax should be suspected. This is an immediately life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention.

      There is no time to wait for confirmation on a chest X-ray or to set up a chest drain. Instead, needle thoracocentesis should be performed on the affected side of the chest. A large-bore cannula is inserted in the second intercostal space, mid-clavicular line, on the affected side. This can provide rapid relief and should be followed up with the insertion of a chest drain.

      It is important to note that there is no role for respiratory consultation or nebulisers in this scenario. Rapid intervention is key to preventing cardiac arrest and improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      69.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 49-year-old woman presents to her doctor with complaints of hot flashes, vaginal...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old woman presents to her doctor with complaints of hot flashes, vaginal soreness, and decreased libido. She reports that her last menstrual period was 6 months ago and suspects that she is going through menopause. The patient is interested in starting hormone replacement therapy (HRT) but is worried about the risk of developing venous thromboembolism (VTE). What is the safest HRT option for her in terms of VTE risk?

      Your Answer: Transdermal HRT

      Explanation:

      Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progesterone in women with a uterus, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. While it can be effective in reducing symptoms such as hot flashes and vaginal dryness, HRT can also have adverse effects and potential complications.

      Some common side-effects of HRT include nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain. However, there are also more serious potential complications associated with HRT. For example, the use of HRT has been linked to an increased risk of breast cancer, particularly when a progesterone is added. The Women’s Health Initiative study found a relative risk of 1.26 at 5 years of developing breast cancer with HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is also related to the duration of use, and it begins to decline when HRT is stopped.

      Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of endometrial cancer. Oestrogen by itself should not be given as HRT to women with a womb, as this can increase the risk of endometrial cancer. The addition of a progesterone can reduce this risk, but it is not eliminated completely. The British National Formulary states that the additional risk is eliminated if a progesterone is given continuously.

      HRT has also been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progesterone is added. However, transdermal HRT does not appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any treatment, even transdermal, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE).

      Finally, HRT has been linked to an increased risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than 10 years after menopause. It is important for women considering HRT to discuss the potential risks and benefits with their healthcare provider and make an informed decision based on their individual circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 18 - A 56-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of a painful swollen...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of a painful swollen knee that started 1 day ago. Upon examination, his right knee is warm to the touch, diffusely swollen, and erythematosus. There is pain on both active and passive movement, and flexion and extension are limited due to pain.
      Observations show a respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute, oxygen saturations of 99%, blood pressure of 131/86 mmHg, heart rate of 68 beats per minute, and a temperature of 38.1ºC.
      Blood tests have been sent off for cultures and the results are pending.
      What is the most likely causative organism for this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      The most common organism causing septic arthritis is Staphylococcus aureus. It is important to consider septic arthritis as a possible diagnosis when a joint appears red, hot, and swollen. While Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most common cause in sexually active young adults, it is less likely in a 54-year-old. Salmonella typhimurium is a rare cause, but individuals with sickle cell disease are at higher risk for Salmonella spp septic arthritis. Staphylococcus epidermidis is a common cause in patients with a new prosthetic joint.

      Septic Arthritis in Adults: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Septic arthritis is a condition that occurs when bacteria infect a joint, leading to inflammation and pain. The most common organism that causes septic arthritis in adults is Staphylococcus aureus, but in young adults who are sexually active, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most common organism. The infection usually spreads through the bloodstream from a distant bacterial infection, such as an abscess. The knee is the most common location for septic arthritis in adults. Symptoms include an acute, swollen joint, restricted movement, warmth to the touch, and fever.

      To diagnose septic arthritis, synovial fluid sampling is necessary and should be done before administering antibiotics if necessary. Blood cultures may also be taken to identify the cause of the infection. Joint imaging may also be used to confirm the diagnosis.

      Treatment for septic arthritis involves intravenous antibiotics that cover Gram-positive cocci. Flucloxacillin or clindamycin is recommended if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Antibiotic treatment is typically given for several weeks, and patients are usually switched to oral antibiotics after two weeks. Needle aspiration may be used to decompress the joint, and arthroscopic lavage may be required in some cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      19
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  • Question 19 - A young child develops an eczematous, weeping rash on their wrist after receiving...

    Incorrect

    • A young child develops an eczematous, weeping rash on their wrist after receiving a new bracelet. In the Gell and Coombs classification of hypersensitivity reactions, what type of reaction is this an example of?

      Your Answer: Type I reaction

      Correct Answer: Type IV reaction

      Explanation:

      Allergic contact dermatitis, which is often caused by nickel, is the type IV hypersensitivity reaction observed in this patient.

      Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions

      Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is responsible for anaphylaxis and atopy, such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II, or cytotoxic hypersensitivity, happens when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface. This type of reaction is associated with autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, Goodpasture’s syndrome, and other conditions. Type III, or immune complex hypersensitivity, occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes. This type of reaction is responsible for serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, and extrinsic allergic alveolitis. Type IV, or delayed hypersensitivity, is T-cell mediated and is responsible for tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, allergic contact dermatitis, and other conditions.

      In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is associated with Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the different types of hypersensitivity reactions is important in diagnosing and treating various conditions. Proper identification of the type of reaction can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and management strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      28.4
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  • Question 20 - You are a FY2 doctor working in a district general hospital in Scotland....

    Incorrect

    • You are a FY2 doctor working in a district general hospital in Scotland. You have recently detained your 19-year old patient who was admitted a flare up of ulcerative colitis. He was demanding to go home because he is hearing voices that are telling him that everyone in the hospital is going to kill him. He tells you that his mother is the instigator and needs to be punished for her actions. You do note that he is delirious secondary to sepsis. You have contacted a psychiatrist, who has told you that she will be there within the next 6 hours. The patient is sitting peacefully in bed, making no attempts to leave, but appears to be responding to auditory hallucinations and talking about harming his mother.
      You wish to give the patient a sedative. Can you do this?

      Your Answer: Yes, it is urgently needed

      Correct Answer: Yes, but the patient must consent

      Explanation:

      Administering Medication to Patients with Emergency Detention Certificates: Consent and Approval Requirements

      When a patient is placed under an emergency detention certificate, the purpose is to assess whether they require medical treatment for a mental disorder. However, administering medication to these patients requires careful consideration of consent and approval requirements.

      Firstly, it is important to note that patients should not be given treatment without their consent unless they fall under the Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000, or treatment is needed urgently to save their life or prevent serious deterioration. If the patient does not fall under the Adults with Incapacity Act and there is no urgent need for treatment, medication cannot be given without the patient’s express consent.

      Even if medication is urgently needed, it cannot be administered against the patient’s will until they have been formally assessed and placed on a short-term detention certificate. Additionally, medication cannot be offered without the patient’s consent, even if it is urgently needed.

      It is also important to note that a psychiatrist’s approval is not required to offer medication to these patients. However, the patient’s spouse or family member cannot provide consent on their behalf.

      In summary, administering medication to patients with emergency detention certificates requires their express consent, unless there is an urgent need for treatment to save their life or prevent serious deterioration. A psychiatrist’s approval is not required, but consent cannot be given by a patient’s family member.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
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  • Question 21 - A 42-year-old male presents to the Emergency department with complaints of headaches and...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old male presents to the Emergency department with complaints of headaches and tiredness during exercise for the past three weeks. He is a smoker of five cigarettes per day and drinks approximately 20 units of alcohol each week. There is no significant family history. On examination, his pulse is 78 beats per minute, and his blood pressure is 182/102 mmHg. However, there are no abnormalities on examination of heart, chest, or abdomen. The investigations reveal a sodium level of 144 mmol/L (137-144), haemoglobin level of 155 g/L (130-180), potassium level of 2.8 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), white cell count of 8.2 ×109/L (4-11), urea level of 5.0 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), platelet count of 188 ×109/L (150-400), creatinine level of 90 µmol/L (60-110), and glucose level of 5.6 mmol/L (3.0-6.0). The ECG shows tall R waves in leads V5-6 and deep S waves in leads V1-2. The chest x-ray is reported as normal. What possible diagnosis would you consider for this patient?

      Your Answer: Conn’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Hypertension and Hypokalaemia: Possible Diagnosis of Primary Hyperaldosteronism

      This patient is showing signs of hypertension, as indicated by the left ventricular hypertrophy on their ECG. Additionally, their hypertension is accompanied by hypokalaemia, which may suggest a diagnosis of primary hyperaldosteronism, also known as Conn’s syndrome. This condition is caused by excessive production of aldosterone from either an adrenal adenoma or bilateral adrenal hyperplasia, resulting in salt and water retention, hypertension, and potassium excretion leading to hypokalaemia. In some cases, primary hyperaldosteronism has been detected in up to 5% of patients in hypertension clinics. It is important to investigate potential secondary causes for hypertension, particularly in young or difficult-to-control hypertensive patients. Renal artery stenosis is unlikely to cause such severe hypokalaemia, and one would expect a mildly elevated creatinine if it were severe enough to cause hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      85.7
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  • Question 22 - A 75-year-old woman has been experiencing a sensation of dragging, which improves when...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman has been experiencing a sensation of dragging, which improves when lying down. According to the Pelvic Organ Prolapse Quantification (POPQ), her cervix is prolapsed 0.8 cm below the hymen level during straining. What is her diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Stage 2 prolapse

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Stages of Pelvic Organ Prolapse

      Pelvic organ prolapse (POP) is a common condition among women, especially those who have given birth or gone through menopause. It occurs when the pelvic organs, such as the uterus, bladder, or rectum, descend from their normal position and bulge into the vaginal canal. The severity of POP is classified into four stages based on the distance of the prolapse from the hymen.

      Stage 1 prolapse is the mildest form, where the cervix descends more than 1 cm above the hymen. Stage 2 prolapse is when the most distal prolapse is between 1 cm above and 1 cm below the level of the hymen. Stage 3 prolapse is when the prolapse extends more than 1 cm below the hymen but not completely outside the vaginal opening. Finally, stage 4 prolapse is the most severe form, where there is complete eversion of the vagina.

      Another type of POP is called enterocoele or enterocele, which occurs when the small intestine descends into the lower pelvic cavity and pushes into the upper vaginal wall. This can cause discomfort, pain, and difficulty with bowel movements.

      In rare cases, a condition called procidentia can occur, where the uterus and cervix protrude from the introitus, resulting in thickened vaginal mucous and ulceration. This is a severe form of POP that requires immediate medical attention.

      It is important for women to be aware of the different stages of POP and seek medical advice if they experience any symptoms, such as pelvic pressure, discomfort, or difficulty with urination or bowel movements. Treatment options may include pelvic floor exercises, pessaries, or surgery, depending on the severity of the prolapse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 55-year-old woman presents with a 1-month history of abdominal bloating, early satiety,...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with a 1-month history of abdominal bloating, early satiety, pelvic pain and frequency of urination. Blood results revealed CA-125 of 50 u/ml (<36 u/ml).
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Colorectal cancer

      Correct Answer: Ovarian cancer

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of abdominal symptoms

      Abdominal symptoms can have various causes, and a careful differential diagnosis is necessary to identify the underlying condition. In this case, the patient presents with bloating, early satiety, urinary symptoms, and an elevated CA-125 level. Here are some possible explanations for these symptoms, based on their typical features and diagnostic markers.

      Ovarian cancer: This is a possible diagnosis, given the mass effect on the gastrointestinal and urinary organs, as well as the elevated CA-125 level. However, ovarian cancer often presents with vague symptoms initially, and other conditions can also increase CA-125 levels. Anorexia and weight loss are additional symptoms to consider.

      Colorectal cancer: This is less likely, given the absence of typical symptoms such as change in bowel habits, rectal bleeding, or anemia. The classical marker for colorectal cancer is CEA, not CA-125.

      Irritable bowel syndrome: This is also less likely, given the age of the patient and the presence of urinary symptoms. Irritable bowel syndrome is a diagnosis of exclusion, and other likely conditions should be ruled out first.

      Genitourinary prolapse: This is a possible diagnosis, given the urinary symptoms and the sensation of bulging or fullness. Vaginal spotting, pain, or irritation are additional symptoms to consider. However, abdominal bloating and early satiety are not typical, and CA-125 levels should not be affected.

      Diverticulosis: This is unlikely, given the absence of typical symptoms such as altered bowel habits or left iliac fossa pain. Diverticulitis can cause rectal bleeding, but fever and acute onset of pain are more characteristic.

      In summary, the differential diagnosis of abdominal symptoms should take into account the patient’s age, gender, medical history, and specific features of the symptoms. Additional tests and imaging may be necessary to confirm or exclude certain conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      50.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 58-year-old male presents with macrocytic anaemia and a megaloblastic bone marrow. What...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old male presents with macrocytic anaemia and a megaloblastic bone marrow. What is the most probable cause of his macrocytosis?

      Your Answer: Folate deficiency

      Explanation:

      Megaloblastic Bone Marrow and Its Causes

      A megaloblastic bone marrow is a condition that occurs due to a deficiency in vitamin B12 or folate, as well as some cytotoxic drugs. This condition is characterized by the presence of large, immature red blood cells in the bone marrow. However, other causes of macrocytosis, which is the presence of abnormally large red blood cells in the bloodstream, do not result in a megaloblastic bone marrow appearance. It is important to identify the underlying cause of macrocytosis to determine the appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 16-year-old previously healthy woman presents with a 10-month history of persistent non-bloody...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old previously healthy woman presents with a 10-month history of persistent non-bloody diarrhoea and central abdominal pain. She also gives a history of unintentional weight loss. The patient is not yet menstruating. On examination, she has slight conjunctival pallor. Blood tests reveal a macrocytic anaemia.
      What is the likeliest diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      Coeliac disease is a condition where the lining of the small intestine is abnormal and improves when gluten is removed from the diet. It is caused by an immune response to a component of gluten called α-gliadin peptide. Symptoms can occur at any age but are most common in infancy and in adults in their 40s. Symptoms include abdominal pain, bloating, diarrhea, delayed puberty, and anemia. Blood tests are used to diagnose the disease, and a biopsy of the small intestine can confirm the diagnosis. Treatment involves avoiding gluten in the diet. Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis have different symptoms, while irritable bowel syndrome and carcinoid syndrome are unlikely in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      72.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old Afro-Caribbean lady undergoes a routine chest X-ray during a career-associated medical...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old Afro-Caribbean lady undergoes a routine chest X-ray during a career-associated medical examination. The chest X-ray report reveals bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. On closer questioning the patient admits to symptoms of fatigue and weight loss and painful blue-red nodules on her shins.
      What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Tuberculosis

      Correct Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Hilar Lymphadenopathy and Erythema Nodosum

      Sarcoidosis is a condition characterized by granulomas affecting multiple systems, with lung involvement being the most common. It typically affects young adults, especially females and Afro-Caribbean populations. While the cause is unknown, infections and environmental factors have been suggested. Symptoms include weight loss, fatigue, and fever, as well as erythema nodosum and anterior uveitis. Acute sarcoidosis usually resolves without treatment, while chronic sarcoidosis requires steroids and monitoring of lung function, ESR, CRP, and serum ACE levels.

      Tuberculosis is a potential differential diagnosis, as it can also present with erythema nodosum and hilar lymphadenopathy. However, the absence of a fever and risk factors make it less likely.

      Lung cancer is rare in young adults and typically presents as a mass or pleural effusion on X-ray.

      Pneumonia is an infection of the lung parenchyma, but the absence of infective symptoms and consolidation on X-ray make it less likely.

      Mesothelioma is a cancer associated with asbestos exposure and typically presents in older individuals. The absence of exposure and the patient’s age make it less likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      44.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A seventy-one-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis is recovering on the ward 6 days...

    Incorrect

    • A seventy-one-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis is recovering on the ward 6 days following a right hemi-colectomy for a tumour in the ascending colon. He complains to the nurse looking after him that he has developed pain in his abdomen. The pain is diffuse and came on suddenly but has gradually been getting worse since onset. He ranks it an 8/10. He has not opened his bowels or passed flatus since the procedure.

      On examination:

      Blood pressure: 110/70 mmHg; Heart rate: 100/minute; Respiratory rate: 18/minute; Temperature: 38.5 ºC; Oxygen saturations: 97%.

      Abdominal exam: abdomen is distended. Diffusely tender upon palpation and evidence of guarding throughout. No organomegaly. No pulsatile masses. Kidneys are non-ballotable. No shifting dullness. Absent bowel sounds.

      There is feculent matter in the abdominal wound drain.

      What is the most appropriate imaging modality to investigate this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Abdominal X-ray

      Correct Answer: Abdominal CT

      Explanation:

      A possible complication after an elective left hemi-colectomy is an anastomotic leak, which typically occurs 5-7 days after the procedure. This patient has rheumatoid arthritis and may be taking steroids and other anti-rheumatic drugs, which increases the risk of developing an anastomotic leak. Abdominal pain and fever are common signs of this condition, but they are not specific, so it is important to rule out an anastomotic leak promptly to avoid further complications. The best imaging modality for diagnosing an anastomotic leak is an abdominal CT scan. Abdominal X-rays are not sufficient for visualizing soft tissues, and ileus alone is not enough to confirm the diagnosis. Abdominal ultrasound is inferior to CT scans, and pelvic ultrasound is unlikely to provide adequate visualization. Colonoscopy is not recommended in this case, as the patient is peritonitic and suspected of having a leak.

      Complications can occur in all types of surgery and require vigilance in their detection. Anticipating likely complications and appropriate avoidance can minimize their occurrence. Understanding the anatomy of a surgical field will allow appreciation of local and systemic complications that may occur. Physiological and biochemical derangements may also occur, and appropriate diagnostic modalities should be utilized. Safe and timely intervention is the guiding principle for managing complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      79.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 30-year-old woman is being seen on the postnatal ward 3 days after...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is being seen on the postnatal ward 3 days after an uncomplicated, elective lower-segment caesarean section. This is her first child and she is eager to exclusively breastfeed. Her lochia is normal and she is able to move around independently. She is scheduled to be discharged later in the day and is interested in starting contraception right away. She has previously used both the combined oral contraceptive pill and an intrauterine device, both of which worked well for her. What options should be presented to her?

      Your Answer: Combined-oral contraceptive pill to start immediately

      Correct Answer: Progesterone-only pill to start immediately

      Explanation:

      Women who have recently given birth, whether they are breastfeeding or not, can begin taking the progesterone-only pill at any time. However, for this patient who is only 2 days postpartum, it is recommended to prescribe the progesterone-only pill as it does not contain estrogen and is less likely to affect milk production. Additionally, it does not increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, which is a concern for postpartum women until 21-28 days after giving birth. The combined oral contraceptive pill should be avoided until 21 days postpartum due to the risk of thrombosis and reduced breast milk production. The patient cannot resume her previous contraceptives at this time. While an intrauterine device can be inserted during a caesarean section, it is advisable to wait 4-6 weeks postpartum before having it inserted vaginally. It is incorrect to tell the patient that she cannot use any contraception if she wishes to breastfeed, as the progesterone-only pill has been shown to have minimal effect on milk production in breastfeeding women.

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.

      The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      72.7
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  • Question 29 - An 80-year-old man undergoes surgery to remove his left lung due to advanced...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man undergoes surgery to remove his left lung due to advanced non-small cell lung cancer. What is the most fatal complication that may arise from this treatment?

      Your Answer: Anastomotic dehiscence

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary oedema

      Explanation:

      After a pneumonectomy, patients may experience various complications. Non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema affects a small percentage of patients but can be fatal. Treatment involves supportive measures and may require mechanical ventilation or extracorporeal membrane oxygenation. Pneumonia is a common complication but does not have a high mortality rate. Anastomotic dehiscence, particularly in right pneumonectomies involving the carina, is the most significant cause of mortality. Arrhythmias, such as atrial fibrillation, can occur but are not typically fatal. Pulmonary embolism affects a small percentage of patients but can be deadly if not recognized early. Mortality rates can be reduced to 10% or less with prompt treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiothoracic
      35.3
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  • Question 30 - A 33-year-old woman who gave birth three weeks ago is feeling very fatigued...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman who gave birth three weeks ago is feeling very fatigued after walking to the park and back. The birth was via a caesarean section and she needed one unit of blood transfusion. She visits her family doctor and denies experiencing any chest pain, heart palpitations, shortness of breath, or further bleeding.

      During the examination, there are no indications of ongoing bleeding, and the caesarean section incision is healing properly. The blood test results are as follows:

      - Hb 95 g/L Female: (115 - 160)
      - Platelets 240 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      - WBC 7.0 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      - Ferritin 6 µg/L (15 - 300)

      What is the minimum haemoglobin level for this patient to be prescribed iron supplements?

      Your Answer: <110 g/L

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The appropriate cut-off for determining if iron supplementation is necessary in the postpartum period is <100 g/L. It is important to continue oral iron for three months after normalizing ferritin levels to ensure adequate stores for efficient oxygen delivery to the tissues. Cut-offs of <105 g/L, <110 g/L, and <120 g/L are incorrect for iron supplementation in the second or third trimester of pregnancy, first trimester of pregnancy, and postpartum period, respectively. However, the decision to administer iron for anaemia should be based on the doctor's discretion and the patient's symptoms. During pregnancy, women are checked for anaemia twice – once at the initial booking visit (usually around 8-10 weeks) and again at 28 weeks. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has set specific cut-off levels to determine if a pregnant woman requires oral iron therapy. These levels are less than 110 g/L in the first trimester, less than 105 g/L in the second and third trimesters, and less than 100 g/L postpartum. If a woman’s iron levels fall below these cut-offs, she will be prescribed oral ferrous sulfate or ferrous fumarate. It is important to continue this treatment for at least three months after the iron deficiency has been corrected to allow the body to replenish its iron stores. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help ensure that pregnant women receive the appropriate care to prevent and manage anaemia during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      39.7
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Sciences (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (1/4) 25%
Respiratory (0/3) 0%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics (0/3) 0%
Neurology (2/2) 100%
Clinical Biochemistry (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (2/2) 100%
Emergency Medicine (0/1) 0%
Acute Medicine And Intensive Care (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology (2/3) 67%
Musculoskeletal (0/2) 0%
Ethics And Legal (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Haematology (1/2) 50%
Surgery (0/1) 0%
Cardiothoracic (0/1) 0%
Passmed