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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her parents who are worried about her constant tugging on her left ear and increased fussiness over the past 24 hours.
During the examination, the child's temperature is found to be 38.5ºC, and the left tympanic membrane appears red. There is no discharge in the ear canal, the right ear is normal, and there are no signs of mastoiditis. The child has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Five day course of oral amoxicillin to be started immediately
Correct Answer: Regular analgesia, call back in 3 days time if the symptoms are not resolving
Explanation:Parents should be informed that antibiotics are not always necessary for treating acute otitis media in children. The condition typically resolves on its own within 24-72 hours without the need for antibiotics. Pain relief medication can be used to alleviate discomfort and reduce fever during this time. However, if symptoms persist for more than 4 days or worsen, parents should seek medical attention. Immediate antibiotic prescription is not recommended unless the child is under 2 years old, has bilateral otitis media, otorrhoea, or is immunocompromised. Amoxicillin is the first-line therapy, while erythromycin and clarithromycin are alternative options for children allergic to penicillin. Topical antibiotics are not recommended for treating otitis media, and oral antibiotics should be used if necessary. Referral to the emergency department is not necessary unless there are signs of complications such as acute mastoiditis, meningitis, or facial nerve paralysis. Swabbing the ear is not useful, even if there is discharge present, as the condition is likely to have resolved before culture results become available.
Acute otitis media is a common condition in young children, often caused by bacterial infections following viral upper respiratory tract infections. Symptoms include ear pain, fever, and hearing loss, and diagnosis is based on criteria such as the presence of a middle ear effusion and inflammation of the tympanic membrane. Antibiotics may be prescribed in certain cases, and complications can include perforation of the tympanic membrane, hearing loss, and more serious conditions such as meningitis and brain abscess.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about an unusual patch inside his cheek. He noticed a red-white patch while brushing his teeth, but he is unsure how long it has been there. He has a smoking history of 35 pack years and drinks approximately 18 units of alcohol per week. There is no family history of oral cancer. On examination, he appears to be in good health, and no cervical lymphadenopathy is detected. There is a 2cm red and white macule with a velvety texture on the buccal vestibule of the oral cavity, consistent with erythroleukoplakia. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral (within 2 weeks) for assessment by head and neck team
Explanation:Immediate investigation is necessary for any oral cavity lesion that appears suspicious for erythroplakia or leukoplakia due to the risk of malignancy.
When to Refer Patients with Mouth Lesions for Oral Surgery
Mouth lesions can be a cause for concern, especially if they persist for an extended period of time. In cases where there is unexplained oral ulceration or mass that lasts for more than three weeks, or red and white patches that are painful, swollen, or bleeding, a referral to oral surgery should be made within two weeks. Additionally, if a patient experiences one-sided pain in the head and neck area for more than four weeks, which is associated with earache but doesn’t result in any abnormal findings on otoscopy, or has an unexplained recent neck lump or a previously undiagnosed lump that has changed over a period of three to six weeks, a referral should be made.
Patients who have persistent sore or painful throats or signs and symptoms in the oral cavity that last for more than six weeks and cannot be definitively diagnosed as a benign lesion should also be referred. It is important to note that the level of suspicion should be higher in patients who are over 40, smokers, heavy drinkers, and those who chew tobacco or betel nut (areca nut). By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients with mouth lesions receive timely and appropriate care. For more information on this topic, please refer to the link provided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man who is a smoker presents with a 6-week history of hoarseness of voice. He is otherwise well with no weight loss or sore throat, and has a normal-looking oropharynx and oral cavity.
What is the MOST APPROPRIATE management option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to the local hospital ENT department under the 2-week-wait criteria
Explanation:Importance of Prompt Referral for Laryngeal Carcinoma
Laryngeal carcinoma is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. If left untreated, it can lead to severe complications and even death. One of the most common symptoms of laryngeal carcinoma is persistent hoarseness, which is why it is important to seek medical attention if you experience this symptom.
In addition to hoarseness, an unexplained lump in the neck is another sign that you may be at risk of laryngeal carcinoma. If you experience either of these symptoms, it is important to seek a 2-week-wait cancer referral as soon as possible.
The priority in diagnosing laryngeal carcinoma is to exclude it by direct visualisation of the larynx, which can only be done in an ENT department. Therefore, it is crucial to seek medical attention and get referred to an ENT department for further evaluation and treatment. Early detection and treatment can greatly improve the chances of a successful outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 7-year-old girl who has presented with impacted earwax which has failed to improve with olive oil drops. Ear irrigation has been recommended.
Which of the following would be a contraindication to this?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Grommets in situ
Explanation:Ear irrigation should not be performed on patients with grommets as it is a contraindication. Additionally, individuals who have had otitis media within the past 6 weeks should also avoid ear irrigation. However, there are no other listed conditions that would prevent someone from undergoing this procedure.
Understanding earwax and Its Impacts
earwax is a natural substance produced by the body to protect the ear canal. However, it is not uncommon for earwax to become impacted, leading to a range of symptoms such as pain, hearing loss, tinnitus, and vertigo. In such cases, treatment is necessary to alleviate the discomfort caused by the impacted earwax. Primary care options for treatment include ear drops or irrigation, also known as ‘ear syringing’. It is important to note that treatment should not be administered if there is a suspected perforation or if the patient has grommets. Ear drops such as olive oil, sodium bicarbonate 5%, and almond oil can be used to help alleviate the symptoms of impacted earwax.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man comes to you complaining of bilateral sneezing, watery nasal discharge, and nasal itching. He reports experiencing these symptoms at this time of year for the past few years, but this year they are worse and are interfering with his college attendance. He has no trouble breathing, no other medical issues, and takes no regular medications. His mother suggested he try putting vaseline around his nose, and he has taken some cetirizine, but it has not been effective thus far.
What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intranasal fluticasone furoate and continue regular antihistamine
Explanation:For individuals with moderate-to-severe or persistent symptoms of allergic rhinitis, intranasal steroids are the recommended first-line treatment. They have been found to be more effective than oral antihistamines. Combining intranasal steroids with oral antihistamines can provide even better results.
If a person experiences persistent watery rhinorrhea despite using both intranasal steroids and oral antihistamines, an intranasal anticholinergic like ipratropium bromide can be added to the treatment plan.
In cases where symptoms are severe and significantly impacting quality of life despite optimal treatment, a short course of oral steroids may be considered. However, this should only be used for important life events.
If symptoms remain uncontrolled despite optimal management, immunotherapy may be considered as a future option.
Understanding Allergic Rhinitis
Allergic rhinitis is a condition that causes inflammation in the nose due to sensitivity to allergens such as dust mites, grass, tree, and weed pollens. It can be classified into seasonal, perennial, or occupational, depending on the timing and cause of symptoms. Seasonal rhinitis, which occurs due to pollens, is commonly known as hay fever. Symptoms of allergic rhinitis include sneezing, bilateral nasal obstruction, clear nasal discharge, post-nasal drip, and nasal pruritus.
The management of allergic rhinitis involves allergen avoidance and medication. For mild-to-moderate intermittent or mild persistent symptoms, oral or intranasal antihistamines may be prescribed. For moderate-to-severe persistent symptoms or if initial drug treatment is ineffective, intranasal corticosteroids may be recommended. In some cases, a short course of oral corticosteroids may be necessary to cover important life events. Topical nasal decongestants, such as oxymetazoline, may also be used for short periods, but prolonged use can lead to tachyphylaxis and rebound hypertrophy of the nasal mucosa (rhinitis medicamentosa) upon withdrawal.
In summary, allergic rhinitis is a common condition that can cause discomfort and affect daily life. Understanding the different types of allergic rhinitis and its symptoms can help in managing the condition effectively. It is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman with a history of hypertension visits the surgery with a complaint of hoarseness that has been present for 3 weeks. The hoarseness started after she had an upper respiratory tract infection 7 weeks ago. She is in good health and doesn't smoke. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to ear, nose and throat
Explanation:Hoarseness can be caused by various factors such as overusing the voice, smoking, viral infections, hypothyroidism, gastro-oesophageal reflux, laryngeal cancer, and lung cancer. It is important to investigate the underlying cause of hoarseness, and a chest x-ray may be necessary to rule out any apical lung lesions.
If laryngeal cancer is suspected, it is recommended to refer the patient to an ENT specialist through a suspected cancer pathway. This referral should be considered for individuals who are 45 years old and above and have persistent unexplained hoarseness or an unexplained lump in the neck. Early detection and treatment of laryngeal cancer can significantly improve the patient’s prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old male presents with benign paroxysmal positional vertigo that has persisted for 3 weeks after a recent upper respiratory tract infection. He requests the Epley manoeuvre to alleviate his symptoms as he is currently unable to operate a vehicle. What is the success rate of the Epley manoeuvre in patients with this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 80%
Explanation:Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common cause of vertigo that occurs suddenly when there is a change in head position. It is more prevalent in individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. Symptoms of BPPV include dizziness and vertigo, which can be accompanied by nausea. Each episode typically lasts for 10-20 seconds and can be triggered by rolling over in bed or looking upwards. A positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, which is indicated by vertigo and rotatory nystagmus, can confirm the diagnosis of BPPV.
Fortunately, BPPV has a good prognosis and usually resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Treatment options include the Epley manoeuvre, which is successful in around 80% of cases, and vestibular rehabilitation exercises such as the Brandt-Daroff exercises. While medication such as Betahistine may be prescribed, it tends to have limited effectiveness. However, it is important to note that around half of individuals with BPPV may experience a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after their initial diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old girl is presented to the GP by her mother who has noticed a peculiar lump on her neck. The mother is uncertain about the duration of the lump. The lump is situated in the anterior triangle, just in front of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, and has a soft texture. The lump is mobile but doesn't transilluminate.
After a biopsy, cholesterol crystals are discovered in the extracted fluid. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Branchial cyst
Explanation:Branchial cysts are a type of neck lump that are present from birth and typically appear in the front of the neck, near the sternocleidomastoid muscle. These cysts are lined with either squamous or columnar cells and may contain fluid that includes cholesterol crystals. They develop when the second and third branchial arches fail to fuse properly during fetal development. Cystic hygromas, lipomas, and thyroglossal cysts are different types of neck lumps that are located in different areas and do not typically contain cholesterol crystals.
Understanding Branchial Cysts: A Developmental Defect of the Neck
A branchial cyst is a non-cancerous growth that develops due to a defect in the branchial arches. It is filled with fluid and encapsulated by stratified squamous epithelium. These cysts may have a fistula and are prone to infection, which can cause them to enlarge following a respiratory tract infection. They typically present in late childhood or early adulthood as asymptomatic lateral neck lumps, usually located anterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle. Although there is a slight male predisposition, they account for around 20% of paediatric neck masses.
When examining a neck lump in children, it is important to consider and exclude other potential causes such as congenital, inflammatory, or neoplastic conditions. A branchial cyst can be diagnosed through ultrasound and fine-needle aspiration, and referral to an Ear Nose and Throat (ENT) specialist is necessary for treatment. Branchial cysts can be treated conservatively or surgically excised, and antibiotics are required for acute infections.
In summary, understanding branchial cysts is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. These developmental defects of the neck can present as asymptomatic lateral neck lumps and are prone to infection. With proper evaluation and management, branchial cysts can be effectively treated by ENT specialists.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You diagnose a middle-aged man with a left-sided sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss that started 12 hours ago during your joint clinic with a medical student and refer directly to ENT who diagnose an idiopathic sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss and begin treatment. Your medical student asks what will happen next for the patient.
What is the most suitable medication for treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral prednisolone for 7 days
Explanation:Patients with sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss who are referred to ENT are typically prescribed high-dose oral corticosteroids as treatment. The recommended dosage, according to ENT UK’s guideline, is oral prednisolone at a maximum of 60mg/day or 1 mg/kg/day for 7 days, followed by a tapering off period over the next week. Dexamethasone, another type of corticosteroid, doesn’t require intravenous or intramuscular administration. Intravenous immunoglobulin is not a recommended treatment for idiopathic sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss. While oral acyclovir has been considered for treating Bell’s palsy, the evidence supporting its effectiveness is weak.
When a patient experiences a sudden loss of hearing, it is crucial to conduct a thorough examination to determine whether it is conductive or sensorineural hearing loss. If it is the latter, known as sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL), it is imperative to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist immediately. The majority of SSNHL cases have no identifiable cause, making them idiopathic. To rule out the possibility of a vestibular schwannoma, an MRI scan is typically performed. ENT specialists administer high-dose oral corticosteroids to all patients with SSNHL.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man visits the General Practitioner complaining of hearing loss. He served in the military and was exposed to loud noises, which he thinks is the reason for his hearing loss.
What is the accurate statement regarding noise-induced hearing loss?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is usually bilateral and symmetrical
Explanation:Understanding Noise-Induced Hearing Loss and Its Unique Characteristics in Shooters
Noise-induced hearing loss is a gradual and symmetrical hearing loss that typically affects both ears. However, in the case of shooters, the loss occurs in the opposite ear to where they hold their gun, as the gun side is shielded. The damage is permanent and greatest at high frequencies. Examination of the tympanic membrane is usually normal, except in cases of glue ear. Prolonged exposure to excessive noise can result in permanent damage, but the loss doesn’t progress once exposure is discontinued. Patients with occupational exposure should be referred for further evaluation, as there may be legal implications. Employers have a duty to protect employees from noise under the Control of Noise at Work Regulations 2005. Compensation may be available under the Armed Forces Compensation Scheme for those affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by his father. The child recently had an ear infection and his father is concerned that his child may have reduced hearing. There are no signs of inflammation or discharge on examination of the ears, but the GP suspects that the child may have otitis media with effusion (glue ear). His childhood development, including speech and language development, has been normal.
Which of the following management options is most appropriate for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No active treatment
Explanation:Treatment Options for Otitis Media with Effusion in Children
Otitis media with effusion is a common condition in children, but it is usually self-limiting and resolves within 12 months. While there is no proven benefit from medication, there are several treatment options available.
Observation is a viable option, as a period of watchful waiting is unlikely to result in any long-term complications. However, if signs and symptoms persist, referral for a hearing test after 6-12 weeks or to a specialist in ear, nose, and throat (ENT) may be necessary.
Antibiotics are not indicated in cases where there are no symptoms or signs of active infection. Intranasal corticosteroids and oral antihistamines are also not recommended by The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) for the treatment of otitis media with effusion in children.
Nasal decongestants, such as pseudoephedrine, may provide temporary relief for stuffy nose and sinus pain/pressure caused by infection or other breathing illnesses, but they are not indicated for children with glue ear.
In summary, the best course of action for otitis media with effusion in children is often observation, with referral to a specialist if necessary. Other treatment options should be carefully considered and discussed with a healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man contacts his GP seeking advice for his seasonal allergic rhinitis. He has been managing his symptoms with intranasal decongestants, but lately, he has noticed that they are only partially effective. He experiences a runny nose and occasional sneezing, but there are no red flag symptoms such as unilateral obstruction or cacosmia. He has already taken the maximum dose of over-the-counter decongestants and is wondering if the GP can prescribe a higher dose.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop the intranasal decongestant
Explanation:Prolonged use of intranasal decongestants like oxymetazoline should be avoided due to the development of tachyphylaxis, where increasing doses are needed to achieve the same effect. Additionally, stopping the medication can lead to rebound symptoms known as rhinitis medicamentosa. Therefore, it is best to encourage patients to discontinue the decongestant rather than prescribing a higher dose. Oral decongestants like pseudoephedrine are not commonly prescribed due to limited evidence supporting their effectiveness. For patients with allergic rhinitis, short-term use of oral corticosteroids may be recommended for severe symptoms, but intranasal corticosteroids and antihistamines are more practical options. Patients should also be advised on self-help strategies like allergen avoidance. Referral to an ENT specialist is not necessary for most cases of allergic rhinitis, except for those with red flags, suspected structural abnormalities, diagnostic uncertainty, or persisting symptoms despite optimal primary care management.
Understanding Allergic Rhinitis
Allergic rhinitis is a condition that causes inflammation in the nose due to sensitivity to allergens such as dust mites, grass, tree, and weed pollens. It can be classified into seasonal, perennial, or occupational, depending on the timing and cause of symptoms. Seasonal rhinitis, which occurs due to pollens, is commonly known as hay fever. Symptoms of allergic rhinitis include sneezing, bilateral nasal obstruction, clear nasal discharge, post-nasal drip, and nasal pruritus.
The management of allergic rhinitis involves allergen avoidance and medication. For mild-to-moderate intermittent or mild persistent symptoms, oral or intranasal antihistamines may be prescribed. For moderate-to-severe persistent symptoms or if initial drug treatment is ineffective, intranasal corticosteroids may be recommended. In some cases, a short course of oral corticosteroids may be necessary to cover important life events. Topical nasal decongestants, such as oxymetazoline, may also be used for short periods, but prolonged use can lead to tachyphylaxis and rebound hypertrophy of the nasal mucosa (rhinitis medicamentosa) upon withdrawal.
In summary, allergic rhinitis is a common condition that can cause discomfort and affect daily life. Understanding the different types of allergic rhinitis and its symptoms can help in managing the condition effectively. It is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother. She has a history of recurrent otitis media and has been touching her right ear frequently for the past 3 days. She was restless and had a fever overnight, and now has a red, boggy swelling behind her right ear that is more prominent than on the left. During the examination, the child appears unhappy, with a temperature of 39.2ºC, a heart rate of 170 beats/minute, and a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute. Due to her distress, it is difficult to examine her ears, but the left ear canal and tympanic membrane appear normal, while the right ear canal and tympanic membrane appear red. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mastoiditis
Explanation:Mastoiditis is a bacterial infection that is particularly serious and commonly affects children. It often occurs as a result of prolonged otitis media. The infection can cause the porous bone to deteriorate, and severe cases may require surgery and intravenous antibiotics. Acute otitis media is an infection of the inner ear and typically doesn’t cause swelling. However, mastoiditis can develop as a complication of otitis media. The patient in question has no history of trauma that could explain the described swelling, which is also not in the correct location to be a parotid swelling. While lymphadenitis can cause an erythematous swelling, it is usually described as soft, fluctuant, and tender and is typically found post auricularly rather than over the mastoid process.
In 2008, NICE released guidelines for the management of respiratory tract infections in primary care, specifically focusing on the prescribing of antibiotics for self-limiting infections in both adults and children. The guidelines recommend a no antibiotic or delayed antibiotic prescribing approach for acute otitis media, acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis, common cold, acute rhinosinusitis, and acute cough/acute bronchitis. However, an immediate antibiotic prescribing approach may be considered for certain patients, such as children under 2 years with bilateral acute otitis media or patients with acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis who have 3 or more Centor criteria present. The guidelines also suggest advising patients on the expected duration of their respiratory tract infection. If a patient is deemed at risk of developing complications, an immediate antibiotic prescribing policy is recommended. This includes patients who are systemically unwell, have symptoms and signs suggestive of serious illness and/or complications, or are at high risk of serious complications due to pre-existing comorbidity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 14
Incorrect
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You are reviewing a patient who presented to a colleague about eight weeks ago. He is a 65-year-old male with mild to moderate symptoms of nasal congestion and persistent feeling of a blocked nose. He reports ongoing problems of a similar nature. He informs you that as well as the above he gets intermittent clear nasal discharge which can alternate between nostrils and he has had periods of nasal and ocular 'itch'.
At his last appointment he was prescribed a daily non-sedating antihistamine which he has been using regularly. He was also given advice on nasal douching. Despite these measures he is still suffering from persistent nasal symptoms. He has heard that steroid medication can be used to treat his symptoms and asks for a prescription.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next pharmacological option to add in to his treatment in trying to manage his symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intranasal corticosteroid spray (for example, fluticasone propionate 100 mcgs each nostril once daily)
Explanation:Treatment Guidelines for Allergic and Non-Allergic Rhinitis
Guidelines for the treatment of allergic and non-allergic rhinitis recommend the use of oral non-sedating antihistamines, topical nasal corticosteroids or antihistamines, and anti-inflammatory eye drops either in isolation or in combination. For mild symptoms, oral and/or topical antihistamines are recommended, with regular use being more effective than as-required use. Sedating antihistamines should be avoided due to their negative effects on academic and work performance.
In moderate to severe symptoms, intranasal corticosteroids are the treatment of choice if antihistamine treatment has been ineffective. Different preparations have different degrees of systemic absorption, with mometasone and fluticasone having negligible systemic absorption. Intranasal corticosteroids have an onset of action of six to eight hours after the first dose, but regular use for at least two weeks may be needed to see the maximal effects.
If treatment with the above doesn’t improve things, it is important to review technique and compliance and increase the dosage where appropriate. Short courses of oral corticosteroids may be used to gain control in severe nasal blockage or if the patient has a very important upcoming event. They should be used in conjunction with intranasal corticosteroids, and a burst of prednisolone at a dose of 0.5 mg/kg/day for 5-10 days can be used.
In addition to the above, watery rhinorrhoea may respond to topical ipratropium, and catarrh in those with co-existent asthma may be helped by a leukotriene receptor antagonist. These guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to the treatment of allergic and non-allergic rhinitis, with a range of options available depending on the severity of symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of vertigo that has been present for the past 5 weeks after a recent respiratory tract infection. He reports feeling nauseous and unsteady on his feet, especially when turning over in bed. He denies any hearing loss or ringing in his ears. A cerebellar stroke was ruled out when he was initially evaluated at the hospital.
During the examination, you observe fine-horizontal nystagmus. However, the neurological examination is otherwise unremarkable, and his hearing and otoscopy results are normal. You suspect that he may be suffering from vestibular neuronitis.
What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer the patient to a balance specialist for consideration of vestibular rehabilitation exercises
Explanation:Vestibular rehabilitation exercises are the recommended treatment for chronic symptoms of vestibular neuronitis. While short-term use of oral prochlorperazine or antihistamines can provide relief, they should not be used for more than three days as they may hinder the body’s compensatory mechanisms and delay recovery.
NICE CKS guidance advises against the use of corticosteroids, benzodiazepines, or antiviral medication as there is no evidence of their effectiveness.
If symptoms persist for six weeks or more, patients should be referred to a specialist for further investigation and vestibular rehabilitation exercises. It is crucial to note that urgent referral is necessary if symptoms do not improve within one week of initial treatment to rule out other potential causes.
Understanding Vestibular Neuronitis
Vestibular neuronitis is a type of vertigo that typically occurs after a viral infection. It is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo that can last for hours or days, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Horizontal nystagmus is also a common symptom, but there is no hearing loss or tinnitus.
It is important to differentiate vestibular neuronitis from other conditions such as viral labyrinthitis and posterior circulation stroke. The HiNTs exam can be used to distinguish between these conditions.
Treatment for vestibular neuronitis typically involves medication to alleviate symptoms, such as buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine for severe cases, or a short course of oral medication for less severe cases. Vestibular rehabilitation exercises are also recommended for patients who experience chronic symptoms.
Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for vestibular neuronitis can help individuals manage this condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of gradual hearing loss and worsening tinnitus over the past year. She has no significant medical history but reports that her father also experienced hearing loss at a young age. On neurological examination, she has mild bilateral conductive hearing loss, but her tympanic membrane appears normal. What is the probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Otosclerosis
Explanation:Otosclerosis, which is an inherited condition, can cause hearing loss in young adults. The symptoms of slowly progressing bilateral conductive hearing loss and a positive family history are typical of otosclerosis.
Presbyacusis, on the other hand, is a type of hearing loss that occurs with aging and is unlikely to affect a young woman. Sensorineural hearing loss is caused by acoustic neuroma, while Meniere’s disease is characterized by episodes of vertigo.
Understanding Otosclerosis: A Progressive Conductive Deafness
Otosclerosis is a medical condition that occurs when normal bone is replaced by vascular spongy bone. This condition leads to a progressive conductive deafness due to the fixation of the stapes at the oval window. It is an autosomal dominant condition that typically affects young adults, with onset usually occurring between the ages of 20-40 years.
The main features of otosclerosis include conductive deafness, tinnitus, a normal tympanic membrane, and a positive family history. In some cases, patients may also experience a flamingo tinge, which is caused by hyperemia and affects around 10% of patients.
Management of otosclerosis typically involves the use of a hearing aid or stapedectomy. A hearing aid can help to improve hearing, while a stapedectomy involves the surgical removal of the stapes bone and replacement with a prosthesis.
Overall, understanding otosclerosis is important for individuals who may be at risk of developing this condition. Early diagnosis and management can help to improve hearing and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 17
Incorrect
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You plan to study whether a simple intervention sheet for elderly patients telling them why they are not receiving antibiotics for throat infections impacts on returns to the surgery and burden of illness with respect to complications.
Which of the following statements is correct concerning this study?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Approval for the study must be obtained from the local ethics committee
Explanation:Ethical Considerations for a Retrospective Research Study
This is not an audit, but rather a retrospective research study aimed at examining the impact of an intervention on both the burden of illness and local resource use. As such, it is necessary to obtain approval from the local ethical committee before proceeding with the study. While the study appears reasonable, it is important to note that the outcomes may differ from those of other studies, even if published elsewhere. Therefore, it may be beneficial to include a few more surgeries to increase the sample size.
It is justifiable to use the same methods as another study to validate the original publication. However, it is not necessary to obtain consent from the original authors if a similar study has already been published. Overall, it is important to consider the ethical implications of conducting a retrospective research study and to ensure that all necessary approvals are obtained before proceeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man visits the clinic with a complaint of painful gums. Upon examination, he is found to have gingival hyperplasia. Which medication is the most probable cause of this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nifedipine
Explanation:Phenytoin, ciclosporin, calcium channel blockers, and AML are all associated with gingival hyperplasia.
Understanding Gingival Hyperplasia and Its Causes
Gingival hyperplasia is a condition characterized by an abnormal growth of gum tissue, resulting in an enlarged and swollen appearance. This condition can be caused by various factors, including certain medications and medical conditions. Some of the drugs that have been linked to gingival hyperplasia include phenytoin, ciclosporin, and calcium channel blockers, particularly nifedipine. These drugs can cause an overgrowth of gum tissue, leading to discomfort and difficulty in maintaining proper oral hygiene.
Aside from medication, gingival hyperplasia can also be a symptom of acute myeloid leukemia, particularly the myelomonocytic and monocytic types. This type of cancer affects the blood and bone marrow, leading to abnormal growth of white blood cells and other blood components. As a result, the gums may become swollen and inflamed, making it difficult to eat, speak, and perform other daily activities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old man visits his primary care physician with concerns about a persistent ulcer on his tongue that has been growing for a few weeks. He is a heavy smoker, consuming 30 cigarettes a day, and drinks alcohol regularly. Upon examination, the physician notes bilateral submandibular lymphadenopathy, multiple dental caries, and a 1-cm ulcer on the lateral border of his tongue. What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer under 2-week rule
Explanation:Diagnosis and Management of Tongue Cancer
Tongue cancer is a common type of oral cancer, with about 75% of cases occurring on the mobile tongue. It typically presents as a persistent growing lesion, which may be painless or painful. Carcinoma of the tongue base is often clinically silent until it infiltrates the musculature. Risk factors for tongue cancer include poor dental hygiene, smoking, drinking, and betel and pan consumption in ethnic minorities.
All suspicious tongue lesions should be referred urgently under the 2-week rule for exclusion of malignancy. Treatment options for tongue cancer include surgery and radiotherapy. The overall 5-year survival rates are 60% for women and 40% for men.
It is important to note that prescribing Tri Adcortyl® ointment or antibiotics would not be appropriate for the management of tongue cancer. Instead, urgent referral for further evaluation and treatment is necessary.
In some cases, a chancre caused by syphilis may present as a solitary, painless, indurated, reddish ulcer on the oral mucosa. Therefore, testing for syphilis and treating if positive may be necessary in some cases. However, it is important to differentiate between syphilis and tongue cancer, as the management and prognosis differ significantly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A child presents with an inability to swallow, a ‘hot potato’ voice and an asymmetrical tonsillitis.
What is the most effective treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Drainage of abscess
Explanation:Treatment for Quinsy: Drainage, Antibiotics, and Corticosteroids
Quinsy, also known as peritonsillar abscess, is a serious complication of tonsillitis that requires urgent treatment. Symptoms include a displaced uvula, enlarged oropharynx, and a hot potato voice. The recommended treatment involves drainage of the abscess via needle and scalpel incision, followed by antibiotics such as penicillin, cephalosporins, co-amoxiclav, or clindamycin. In some cases, intravenous corticosteroids may also be beneficial. Watchful waiting is not recommended, as the infection can spread and lead to serious complications. Prompt treatment is necessary to prevent aspiration, airway obstruction, and other life-threatening complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 21
Incorrect
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The wife of a 65-year-old man contacts you urgently for a home visit. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and type 2 diabetes. According to his wife, he is experiencing severe dizziness due to labyrinthitis and is unable to leave his bed.
Upon arrival, you find the patient in bed, complaining of intense dizziness that makes him feel like the room is spinning. He has vomited multiple times and cannot stand up. He has never experienced this before.
During the assessment, the patient's vital signs are normal. Otoscopy reveals no abnormalities. Neurological examination of the limbs shows normal power, tone, reflexes, and coordination. However, he cannot walk for a gait examination. Eye examination shows bidirectional nystagmus on lateral gaze bilaterally. A head impulse test is normal with no catch-up saccades seen. All other cranial nerves are normal.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Call ambulance and refer to on-call stroke team
Explanation:The HiNTs exam is a helpful tool for differentiating between vestibular neuronitis and posterior circulation stroke in cases of acute vertigo. It consists of three steps, with a fourth step recently suggested for detecting AICA infarcts. The exam assesses for nystagmus, skew deviation, head impulse test, and new unilateral hearing loss. A normal head impulse test is concerning and warrants referral to the acute stroke team. While prochlorperazine may be useful for acute peripheral vestibular neuropathy, betahistine is only licensed for Meniere’s disease. As this patient’s symptoms are ongoing, a TIA clinic would not be appropriate, and urgent neuroimaging should be performed before considering high dose aspirin. If there is any diagnostic uncertainty, referral for same-day assessment is necessary.
Understanding Vestibular Neuronitis
Vestibular neuronitis is a type of vertigo that typically occurs after a viral infection. It is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo that can last for hours or days, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Horizontal nystagmus is also a common symptom, but there is no hearing loss or tinnitus.
It is important to differentiate vestibular neuronitis from other conditions such as viral labyrinthitis and posterior circulation stroke. The HiNTs exam can be used to distinguish between these conditions.
Treatment for vestibular neuronitis typically involves medication to alleviate symptoms, such as buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine for severe cases, or a short course of oral medication for less severe cases. Vestibular rehabilitation exercises are also recommended for patients who experience chronic symptoms.
Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for vestibular neuronitis can help individuals manage this condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman has been receiving treatment for the past three weeks for otitis externa with flumetasone/clioquinol 0.02%/1%, followed by gentamicin 0.3% w/v and hydrocortisone acetate 1% ear drops. She acquired the condition while on vacation in Spain. She is now experiencing increasing itchiness in her ears. During examination, her ears have abundant discharge with black spots on a white background. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clotrimazole solution
Explanation:Treatment Options for Fungal Otitis Externa
Fungal otitis externa is a common ear infection that can be difficult to diagnose and treat. Patients who have had prolonged courses of steroid and antibiotic drops are particularly susceptible to this type of infection. Symptoms include pruritus and discharge, which may not respond to antibiotics. The most common fungal agents are Aspergillus and Candida, which can be treated with topical clotrimazole. Topical ciprofloxacin is not effective against fungal infections, and co-amoxiclav tablets should not be used. Sofradex® ear drops, which contain steroids, may exacerbate symptoms. If initial treatment with antifungal medication is unsuccessful, referral to an Ear, Nose and Throat specialist may be necessary for further evaluation and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old female presents with a sore throat. Upon examination, she has enlarged tonsils on both sides and tender cervical lymphadenopathy. Her medical history shows that she has had six episodes of tonsillitis in the past year and has missed several days of school due to her sore throat. With a Centor score of 3/4, you decide to prescribe penicillin V. What other treatment options should be considered?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to ENT for consideration of a tonsillectomy
Explanation:The frequency of tonsillectomies has significantly decreased in recent years due to increased recognition of the possible risks and limited advantages. Nevertheless, the patient meets the referral standards outlined by NICE.
Tonsillitis and Tonsillectomy: Complications and Indications
Tonsillitis is a condition that can lead to various complications, including otitis media, peritonsillar abscess, and, in rare cases, rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis. Tonsillectomy, the surgical removal of the tonsils, is a controversial procedure that should only be considered if the person meets specific criteria. According to NICE, surgery should only be considered if the person experiences sore throats due to tonsillitis, has five or more episodes of sore throat per year, has been experiencing symptoms for at least a year, and the episodes of sore throat are disabling and prevent normal functioning. Other established indications for a tonsillectomy include recurrent febrile convulsions, obstructive sleep apnoea, stridor, dysphagia, and peritonsillar abscess if unresponsive to standard treatment.
Despite the benefits of tonsillectomy, the procedure also carries some risks. Primary complications, which occur within 24 hours of the surgery, include haemorrhage and pain. Secondary complications, which occur between 24 hours to 10 days after the surgery, include haemorrhage (most commonly due to infection) and pain. Therefore, it is essential to weigh the benefits and risks of tonsillectomy before deciding to undergo the procedure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man comes in for a routine check-up with his GP. He is a non-smoker and has been feeling generally well. However, he has noticed that his gums have been bleeding when he brushes his teeth. He admits that he has been under a lot of stress lately and has not been brushing his teeth as regularly as he should.
Upon examination, there are no signs of ulceration or leukoplakia. The margins of his gums appear red but are not actively bleeding. There is no evidence of a dental abscess, and he has no fever.
What would be the most appropriate course of action based on his current presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise he should arrange routine dental review
Explanation:Patients who present with gingivitis should be advised to regularly visit a dentist for routine check-ups. Antibiotics are typically not necessary for this condition.
There is no need for urgent dental review, as there are no signs of acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis or oral malignancy. Benzydamine mouthwash may provide temporary pain relief, but it is not recommended for gingivitis. Chlorhexidine mouthwash may be used as an adjunct to dental review and antibiotic therapy for necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
In cases of simple gingivitis, antibiotics are generally not prescribed.
Understanding Gingivitis and its Management
Gingivitis is a dental condition that is commonly caused by poor oral hygiene. It is characterized by red and swollen gums that bleed easily. In severe cases, it can lead to acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, which is accompanied by painful bleeding gums, bad breath, and ulcers on the gums.
For patients with simple gingivitis, regular dental check-ups are recommended, and antibiotics are usually not necessary. However, for those with acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, it is important to seek immediate dental attention. In the meantime, oral metronidazole or amoxicillin may be prescribed for three days, along with chlorhexidine or hydrogen peroxide mouthwash and simple pain relief medication.
It is crucial to maintain good oral hygiene to prevent gingivitis from developing or worsening. This includes brushing teeth twice a day, flossing daily, and using mouthwash regularly. By understanding the causes and management of gingivitis, individuals can take steps to protect their oral health and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl presents to the surgical department with complaints of a sore throat. She is running a temperature of 39.2ºC and is experiencing difficulty in eating due to the pain, although she is able to tolerate fluids. There are no other associated symptoms such as cough or rash. On examination, her heart rate is 120/min and chest auscultation is normal. Bilateral tonsils are covered in exudate, while ear examination is unremarkable. Apart from supportive care, what is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phenoxymethylpenicillin for 10 days
Explanation:The patient is exhibiting signs of systemic disturbance and requires antibiotic treatment. A 7 to 10-day antibiotic regimen is recommended to effectively eliminate any potential Streptococcus infection. The BNF recommends Phenoxymethylpenicillin as the primary antibiotic option.
Management of Sore Throat
Sore throat is a common condition that includes pharyngitis, tonsillitis, and laryngitis. Routine throat swabs and rapid antigen tests are not recommended for patients with a sore throat. Pain relief can be achieved with paracetamol or ibuprofen, and antibiotics are not usually necessary. However, antibiotics may be indicated for patients with marked systemic upset, unilateral peritonsillitis, a history of rheumatic fever, an increased risk from acute infection, or when 3 or more Centor criteria are present. The Centor criteria and FeverPAIN criteria can be used to determine the likelihood of isolating Streptococci. If antibiotics are necessary, phenoxymethylpenicillin or clarithromycin can be given for a 7 or 10 day course. There is some evidence that a single dose of oral corticosteroid may reduce the severity and duration of pain, but this has not yet been incorporated into UK guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of persistent blockage of his right nostril, accompanied by sneezing and rhinorrhea, six weeks after recovering from a cold. Upon examination, a large polyp is observed in the right nostril, while the left nostril appears normal. What is the most suitable course of action for managing this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to ENT
Explanation:Understanding Nasal Polyps
Nasal polyps are a relatively uncommon condition affecting around 1% of adults in the UK. They are more commonly seen in men and are not typically found in children or the elderly. There are several associations with nasal polyps, including asthma (particularly late-onset asthma), aspirin sensitivity, infective sinusitis, cystic fibrosis, Kartagener’s syndrome, and Churg-Strauss syndrome. When asthma, aspirin sensitivity, and nasal polyposis occur together, it is known as Samter’s triad.
The most common features of nasal polyps include nasal obstruction, rhinorrhoea, sneezing, and a poor sense of taste and smell. However, if a patient experiences unilateral symptoms or bleeding, further investigation is always necessary.
If a patient is suspected of having nasal polyps, they should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist for a full examination. Treatment typically involves the use of topical corticosteroids, which can shrink polyp size in around 80% of patients. With proper management, most patients with nasal polyps can experience relief from their symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents with complaints of dizziness that have developed over the past two weeks. He experiences episodes of vertigo when he turns his head, particularly when he turns over in bed. He denies any recent illness or injury. The vertigo lasts for several seconds at a time and he reports no hearing loss, ear pain, fullness, or ringing. On examination, there are no abnormalities in cranial nerve function, cerebellar signs, or Romberg's test. Dix-Hallpike testing is positive for rotatory vertigo and nystagmus.
What is the most appropriate pharmacological approach for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Promethazine 25 mg nocte
Explanation:Management of Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo
This patient is exhibiting typical signs and symptoms of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV). It is important to note that vestibular sedatives are not effective in managing BPPV. However, the Epley manoeuvre can be performed and taught to the patient, which has been shown to effectively reduce or eliminate symptoms.
It is also important to remember that no treatment needed is a valid management option for BPPV. This concept is particularly relevant for the MRCGP AKT exam, which tests primary care management skills. As a primary care physician, it is important to recognize when doing nothing is the most appropriate course of action for a patient. Don’t hesitate to select this option if it is the best choice for the patient’s condition.
Overall, the management of BPPV involves a combination of patient education, reassurance, and appropriate interventions such as the Epley manoeuvre.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man comes to you with complaints of a persistent sore throat and occasional hoarseness that has been bothering him for a few months. He expresses concern that there may be something lodged in his throat, but he is able to swallow without difficulty. He denies any significant weight loss and has no notable medical or family history.
During your examination, you observe mild redness in the oropharynx, but the neck appears normal and there are no palpable masses.
What would be the best course of action in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe a trial of a proton pump inhibitor
Explanation:Understanding Laryngopharyngeal Reflux
Laryngopharyngeal reflux (LPR) is a condition that occurs when stomach acid flows back into the throat, causing inflammation in the larynx and hypopharynx mucosa. It is a common diagnosis, accounting for approximately 10% of ear, nose, and throat referrals. Symptoms of LPR include a sensation of a lump in the throat, hoarseness, chronic cough, dysphagia, heartburn, and sore throat. The external examination of the neck should be normal, with no masses, and the posterior pharynx may appear erythematous.
Diagnosis of LPR can be made without further investigations in the absence of red flags. However, the NICE cancer referral guidelines should be reviewed for red flags such as persistent, unilateral throat discomfort, dysphagia, and persistent hoarseness. Lifestyle measures such as avoiding fatty foods, caffeine, chocolate, and alcohol can help manage LPR. Additionally, proton pump inhibitors and sodium alginate liquids like Gaviscon can also be used to manage symptoms.
In summary, Laryngopharyngeal reflux is a common condition that can cause discomfort and inflammation in the throat. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention if red flags are present. Lifestyle measures and medication can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding cholesteatomas is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The peak incidence is 10-20 years
Explanation:Understanding Cholesteatoma
Cholesteatoma is a benign growth of squamous epithelium that can cause damage to the skull base. It is most commonly found in individuals between the ages of 10 and 20 years old. Those born with a cleft palate are at a higher risk of developing cholesteatoma, with a 100-fold increase in risk.
The main symptoms of cholesteatoma include a persistent discharge with a foul odor and hearing loss. Other symptoms may occur depending on the extent of the growth, such as vertigo, facial nerve palsy, and cerebellopontine angle syndrome.
During otoscopy, a characteristic attic crust may be seen in the uppermost part of the eardrum.
Management of cholesteatoma involves referral to an ear, nose, and throat specialist for surgical removal. Early detection and treatment are important to prevent further damage to the skull base and surrounding structures.
In summary, cholesteatoma is a non-cancerous growth that can cause significant damage if left untreated. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention promptly if they occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man comes to the clinic with his wife for evaluation. He has been experiencing a change in his voice with constant hoarseness and a chronic dry cough for the past six weeks. He attributes this to a previous cold and chest infection and believes it will improve over time.
He is a heavy smoker, consuming 25 cigarettes per day for the past 50 years. He has a history of COPD and is currently taking a high dose Seretide inhaler. On examination, his BP is 145/85 mmHg, pulse is 75 and regular, and chest auscultation reveals scattered wheezing.
Investigations reveal:
Hb 134 g/L (135-180)
WCC 8.0 ×109/L (4.5-10)
PLT 179 ×109/L (150-450)
Na 137 mmol/L (135-145)
K 4.7 mmol/L (3.5-5.5)
Cr 122 µmol/L (70-110)
ECG shows sinus rhythm.
CXR (arranged by another GP partner) shows no mass lesion identified.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent ENT referral
Explanation:Urgent Investigation for Hoarseness
Under NICE guidance, patients who present with hoarseness for more than three weeks require urgent investigation for possible cancer. In this case, a chest x-ray did not show an underlying cancer, but an ENT referral for laryngoscopy is warranted.
While inadequate oral hygiene after inhaler use leading to candida infection is a possibility, the absence of oral candida makes it unlikely. Speech therapy is an option to maximize vocal effectiveness, and it is effective for hoarseness related to organic pathology such as nodules or polyps, and non-organic laryngeal dysfunction (for example, muscle tension dysphonia).
Stopping the use of Seretide is inappropriate because it is likely to worsen symptoms of COPD and is unlikely to elucidate the underlying cause of the hoarseness. It is important to investigate the cause of hoarseness to ensure prompt and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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