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  • Question 1 - A 51-year-old woman presents with non-specific abdominal discomfort that has been bothering her...

    Correct

    • A 51-year-old woman presents with non-specific abdominal discomfort that has been bothering her for the past 2 months. She also reports experiencing loose stools up to three times a day for the past month, despite previously having solid stools once daily. She denies any weight loss or blood in her stool. Upon examination, her abdomen is soft and nontender, and she has normal urine dip results. Blood tests, including a CA-125 and coeliac screen, and a faecal calprotectin test all come back within the normal range. Although you suspect irritable bowel syndrome, the patient is worried about the possibility of colorectal cancer. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Faecal immunochemical test (FIT)

      Explanation:

      If a patient shows new symptoms of possible colorectal cancer but does not meet the 2-week criteria, it is recommended to undergo the FIT test. In the case of a patient experiencing unexplained abdominal pain and a change in bowel habit, a FIT test is the most appropriate next step, according to NICE guidance, especially considering the patient’s age and the absence of rectal bleeding. It is not advisable to simply suggest diet changes or reassure the patient without conducting the necessary tests, as her symptoms require complete investigation. Repeating a faecal calprotectin level is unlikely to be helpful and may only delay the patient from receiving the appropriate support.

      Referral Guidelines for Colorectal Cancer

      Colorectal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. In 2015, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their referral guidelines for patients suspected of having colorectal cancer. According to these guidelines, patients who are 40 years or older with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain, 50 years or older with unexplained rectal bleeding, or 60 years or older with iron deficiency anemia or change in bowel habit should be referred urgently to colorectal services for investigation. Additionally, patients who test positive for occult blood in their feces should also be referred urgently.

      An urgent referral should also be considered for patients who have a rectal or abdominal mass, unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, or are under 50 years old with rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms/findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss, or iron deficiency anemia.

      The NHS offers a national screening program for colorectal cancer, which involves sending eligible patients aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of fecal occult blood test that uses antibodies to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.

      The FIT test is also recommended for patients with new symptoms who do not meet the 2-week criteria listed above. For example, patients who are 50 years or older with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, under 60 years old with changes in their bowel habit or iron deficiency anemia, or 60 years or older who have anemia even in the absence of iron deficiency. Early detection and treatment of colorectal cancer can significantly improve patient outcomes, making it important to follow these referral guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old woman complains of rectal bleeding and discomfort during bowel movements for...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman complains of rectal bleeding and discomfort during bowel movements for the past two weeks. She has a history of poor dietary habits and chronic constipation. Upon wiping, she notices fresh blood on the toilet paper. During examination, her abdomen is soft and nontender, and rectal examination is painful but reveals no masses.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemorrhoids

      Correct Answer: Anal fissure

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Anal Pain: Understanding the Causes

      Anal pain can be a distressing symptom that can have various underlying causes. One of the most common causes is an anal fissure, which is a painful tear in the anal canal. This condition is often caused by trauma from hard or painful bowel movements and is associated with low-fiber diets.

      Patients with anal fissures typically experience severe pain during bowel movements, which can lead to constipation and worsening symptoms. However, medical therapy with stool-bulking agents and fiber supplementation can help resolve acute anal fissures in most cases.

      Other potential causes of anal pain include distal colonic polyps, anal warts, hemorrhoids, and rectal carcinoma. Distal colonic polyps are slow-growing overgrowths of the colonic mucosa that carry a small risk of becoming malignant. Anal warts are caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV) and can present as painless bumps or eruptions in the anogenital area.

      Hemorrhoids are swollen blood vessels in the lower rectum that can cause rectal bleeding, pain, pruritus, or prolapse. Rectal carcinoma is a rare but serious condition that can cause bleeding, change in bowel habits, abdominal pain, and malaise.

      In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis of anal pain is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment. A thorough physical examination and medical history can help identify the underlying cause and guide management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 3 - A 36-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of fatigue and itchy skin. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of fatigue and itchy skin. During the examination, the doctor notices yellowing of the eyes and an enlarged liver. Blood tests reveal the presence of anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMAs).

      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer from the options below.

      Your Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis

      Correct Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) is a chronic liver disease that primarily affects middle-aged women. It is believed to be an autoimmune disorder that causes progressive cholestasis and can lead to end-stage liver disease. Symptoms include fatigue, pruritus, and right upper quadrant discomfort. Laboratory tests typically show elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase, g-glutamyl transpeptidase, and immunoglobulins, as well as the presence of antimitochondrial antibodies. Treatment involves the use of ursodeoxycholic acid to slow disease progression. Autoimmune hepatitis, diffuse systemic sclerosis, primary sclerosing cholangitis, and systemic lupus erythematosus are other potential differential diagnoses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 4 - A 49 year old man complains of experiencing dyspepsia on and off for...

    Correct

    • A 49 year old man complains of experiencing dyspepsia on and off for the past few months. He reports no signs of bleeding, dysphagia or weight loss, abstains from alcohol and is generally healthy. He is not taking any regular medication and has been using over-the-counter antacids which provide some relief. Physical examination reveals no abnormalities. What is your recommended plan for continued management?

      Your Answer: Proton pump inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Management of Dyspepsia and Referral for Possible Cancer

      Dyspepsia is a common symptom that can be caused by various factors, including medication and lifestyle choices. However, it can also be a sign of underlying conditions such as stomach or oesophageal cancer. The 2015 NICE guidelines provide updated advice on when urgent referral for endoscopy is necessary. Patients with dysphagia or an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer should be referred urgently. Patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should also be referred urgently. Non-urgent referrals include patients with haematemesis or those with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with other symptoms.

      For patients with undiagnosed dyspepsia, a step-wise approach is recommended. First, medications should be reviewed for possible causes. Lifestyle advice should also be given. If symptoms persist, a trial of full-dose proton pump inhibitor for one month or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried. If symptoms persist after either approach, the alternative should be attempted. Testing for H. pylori infection can be done using a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms resolve following test and treat, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 5 - What is the most accurate description of a characteristic of irritable bowel syndrome...

    Correct

    • What is the most accurate description of a characteristic of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)?

      Your Answer: A low FODMAP diet is often prescribed for treatment of the syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Irritable Bowel Syndrome: Diagnosis and Management

      Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS) is a functional gastrointestinal disorder that presents with abdominal pain, bloating, and altered bowel habits. While there is no specific organic pathology associated with IBS, it can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life. Management of IBS involves providing psychological support and recommending dietary measures such as fibre supplementation, increased water intake, and avoiding trigger foods. A low FODMAP diet, which involves avoiding consumption of garlic, onion, high fructose fruits, wheat, alcohol, and dairy, may also be helpful. Pharmacological treatment is adjunctive and should be directed at symptoms. However, if there are ‘red flag’ symptoms such as bleeding, anemia, chronic diarrhea, older age, history of colon polyps, cancer in the patient or first-degree relatives, or constitutional symptoms such as anorexia or weight loss, lower gastrointestinal endoscopy should be performed. Nocturnal symptoms are not consistent with IBS, and weight loss is a ‘red flag’ symptom that should alert the clinician to the possibility of an organic pathology.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department complaining of acute rectal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department complaining of acute rectal pain. He has a 2-month history of perianal pain and bright red rectal bleeding at the time of defaecation. He has been taking regular codeine for the past six months for low back pain.
      On examination, there is a thrombosed haemorrhoid visible externally. It is impossible to proceed with digital rectal examination because the patient is in too much pain.
      What is the most appropriate immediate treatment for this patient?
      Select the SINGLE most likely option.
      Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Prescribe stool softeners

      Correct Answer: Thrombectomy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Thrombosed Haemorrhoids

      Thrombosed haemorrhoids can cause severe pain and discomfort. The best treatment option in the acute phase is evacuation of the clot through incision and drainage. This provides immediate relief from the pain. Rubber-band ligation and injection sclerotherapy are effective outpatient treatments for haemorrhoids, but they are not used in the acute setting. Stool softeners should be prescribed to prevent constipation, which is the main cause of haemorrhoids. Topical treatments containing multiple ingredients, including corticosteroids, may help relieve symptoms but are not useful in treating the acute pain of a thrombosed haemorrhoid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 7 - What is the most frequent reason for hepatocellular carcinoma in the UK, particularly...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequent reason for hepatocellular carcinoma in the UK, particularly among older adults?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis C

      Explanation:

      Hepatocellular carcinoma is primarily caused by hepatitis B worldwide, while in Europe, hepatitis C is the most common cause.

      Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is a type of cancer that ranks as the third most common cause of cancer worldwide. The leading cause of HCC globally is chronic hepatitis B, while chronic hepatitis C is the most common cause in Europe. The primary risk factor for developing HCC is liver cirrhosis, which can result from various factors such as hepatitis B and C, alcohol, haemochromatosis, and primary biliary cirrhosis. Other risk factors include alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency, hereditary tyrosinosis, glycogen storage disease, aflatoxin, certain drugs, porphyria cutanea tarda, male sex, diabetes mellitus, and metabolic syndrome.

      HCC tends to present late, and patients may exhibit features of liver cirrhosis or failure such as jaundice, ascites, RUQ pain, hepatomegaly, pruritus, and splenomegaly. In some cases, decompensation may occur in patients with chronic liver disease. Raised AFP levels are also common. Screening with ultrasound and alpha-fetoprotein may be necessary for high-risk groups, including patients with liver cirrhosis secondary to hepatitis B and C or haemochromatosis, and men with liver cirrhosis secondary to alcohol.

      Management options for early-stage HCC include surgical resection, liver transplantation, radiofrequency ablation, transarterial chemoembolisation, and sorafenib, a multikinase inhibitor. It is important to note that Wilson’s disease is an exception to the typical causes of liver cirrhosis and HCC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 8 - Which one of the following statements regarding pancreatic cancer is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding pancreatic cancer is true?

      Your Answer: Gallstone disease is a risk factor

      Correct Answer: High-resolution CT scanning is the diagnostic investigation of choice

      Explanation:

      Pancreatic cancer is best diagnosed through high-resolution CT scanning. Although chronic pancreatitis increases the risk, neither alcohol nor gallstone disease are significant independent risk factors. Radiotherapy is not effective for surgical resection. Unfortunately, most patients are diagnosed with unresectable lesions.

      Understanding Pancreatic Cancer: Risk Factors, Symptoms, and Management

      Pancreatic cancer is a type of cancer that is often diagnosed late due to its non-specific symptoms. Adenocarcinomas, which occur at the head of the pancreas, make up over 80% of pancreatic tumors. Risk factors for pancreatic cancer include increasing age, smoking, diabetes, chronic pancreatitis, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, and genetic mutations such as BRCA2 and KRAS.

      Symptoms of pancreatic cancer can include painless jaundice, pale stools, dark urine, pruritus, anorexia, weight loss, epigastric pain, loss of exocrine and endocrine function, and atypical back pain. Migratory thrombophlebitis, also known as Trousseau sign, is more common in pancreatic cancer than in other cancers.

      Diagnosis of pancreatic cancer can be made through ultrasound or high-resolution CT scanning, which may show the double duct sign – simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts. However, less than 20% of patients are suitable for surgery at diagnosis. A Whipple’s resection, or pancreaticoduodenectomy, may be performed for resectable lesions in the head of the pancreas. Adjuvant chemotherapy is usually given following surgery, and ERCP with stenting may be used for palliation.

      In summary, pancreatic cancer is a serious disease with non-specific symptoms that can be difficult to diagnose. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms can help with early detection and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 9 - A 62-year-old man with a history of hypertension presents to the emergency department...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old man with a history of hypertension presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of abdominal pain, vomiting and diarrhoea. On examination, his abdomen is distended and tender, with generalised guarding. Vital signs show heart rate 110 beats/min, BP 120/80 mmHg. Bloods show lactate 3.5 mmol/l, urea 10 mmol/l, creatinine 150 µmol/l and bicarbonate 14 mmol/l.
      Blood test
      Reference range
      Lactate
      <2 mmol/l
      Urea
      2.5–7.1 mmol/l
      Creatinine
      44–97 µmol/l
      Bicarbonate
      22–29 mmol/l.
      Based on the history, what is the most likely diagnosis?
      Choose the SINGLE most likely diagnosis from the options below.

      Your Answer: Mesenteric ischaemia

      Explanation:

      Acute mesenteric ischaemia (AMI) is a rare but potentially life-threatening condition caused by inadequate blood flow through the mesenteric vessels, leading to ischaemia and gangrene of the bowel wall. It can be classified as either arterial or venous, with embolic phenomena being the most common cause. Symptoms include sudden and severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and diarrhoea, with physical signs developing late in the disease process. Early and aggressive diagnosis and treatment are crucial to reduce mortality, but once bowel wall infarction has occurred, the mortality rate may be as high as 90%. Appendicitis, diverticulitis, pseudomembranous colitis, and ruptured AAA are important differential diagnoses to consider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 10 - A 50 year old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of cramp-like...

    Correct

    • A 50 year old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of cramp-like abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting that started 4 hours ago. She describes the pain as intermittent and has experienced similar pain before, but not as severe as this time. The patient has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, which is well-controlled with inhalers, and has been a smoker for 25 pack years.

      Her vital signs are heart rate 110/min, respiratory rate 20/min, blood pressure 130/84 mmHg, temperature 38.6ºC, and oxygen saturation of 99% on room air. Upon examination, the patient appears very ill and sweaty, with some yellowing of the eyes. Palpation of the abdomen reveals tenderness in the right upper quadrant.

      What is the most likely cause of this woman's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Ascending cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Cholangitis can occur even in the absence of stones, although they are commonly associated with the condition. ERCP can be used to drain the biliary tree, but surgical exploration of the common bile duct may be necessary in certain cases.

      Understanding Ascending Cholangitis

      Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.

      To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.

      Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 11 - A 62-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of a 3-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of a 3-day history of acute left-sided abdominal pain, diarrhoea and fever. She has a history of chronic constipation. On examination she is tachycardic and there is localised peritonism in the left iliac fossa.
      What would be the next most appropriate step in this patient’s management?

      Your Answer: Analgesia and fluids and review in 24 hours

      Correct Answer: Admit to hospital under the surgical team for investigation and management

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Appropriate Management Strategies for Diverticulitis: A Guide for Healthcare Professionals

      Diverticulitis is a common condition that can lead to serious complications if not managed appropriately. As a healthcare professional, it is important to understand the different management strategies available and when they are appropriate. Here are some scenarios and the recommended management strategies:

      1. Admit to hospital under the surgical team for investigation and management: This is the recommended management strategy for a patient with peritonitis secondary to diverticulitis. The surgical team may choose to use imaging investigations first or proceed straight to surgery for operative management.

      2. Admit to hospital for urgent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) enterography: MRI enterography is not usually used in diverticular disease. A CT scan would be quicker and would provide the required information needed to evaluate whether or not the patient needs emergency surgery.

      3. Analgesia and fluids and review in 24 hours: This management strategy is not appropriate for a patient with severe diverticulitis and peritonism. Urgent intravenous antibiotics and fluid management in the hospital are needed.

      4. Arrange a stool sample and commence antibiotics in the community: A stool sample is unlikely to provide any additional information in this scenario. Urgent admission to the hospital for further management is needed.

      5. Admit to hospital for urgent colonoscopy: Performing a colonoscopy on an inflamed bowel would be inappropriate since the risk of perforation would be high. A colonoscopy is sometimes used to evaluate the patient after the diverticulitis is present, to exclude other intramural pathology.

      In conclusion, appropriate management strategies for diverticulitis depend on the severity of the condition and the presence of complications. Healthcare professionals should be aware of the different options available and choose the most appropriate one for each patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 12 - A 72-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with a blocked stoma bag....

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with a blocked stoma bag. She had surgery for bowel cancer recently, which involved removing a section of her bowel. The stoma bag is situated in the upper left quadrant of her abdomen. The bag is entirely empty, and you can see that the proximal part of the resected bowel is flush with the skin. Her abdomen is swollen, and you can hear tinkling bowel sounds. What kind of stoma does this patient have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: End colostomy

      Explanation:

      The correct type of stoma in this case is an end colostomy. This is because the stoma is flush to the skin, indicating that the large bowel contents are not irritant. To differentiate between a colostomy and a small intestine stoma, one can look at the location and output. Ileostomies are typically located on the right iliac fossa and have spouted output, while colostomies are usually on the left iliac fossa and have flush output. An end ileostomy is used after complete colon excision or when an ileocolic anastomosis is not planned, and it would have spouted output. A loop ileostomy involves taking a loop of the ileum and bringing it up to the skin, and it is used to defunction the colon and can be reversed. It would also have spouted output. A loop jejunostomy is used as a high output stoma and would also have spouted output. A percutaneous jejunostomy involves a feeding tube directly inserted into the jejunum and would not have a stoma bag.

      Abdominal stomas are created during various abdominal procedures to bring the lumen or contents of organs onto the skin. Typically, this involves the bowel, but other organs may also be diverted if necessary. The type and method of construction of the stoma will depend on the contents of the bowel. Small bowel stomas should be spouted to prevent irritant contents from coming into contact with the skin, while colonic stomas do not require spouting. Proper siting of the stoma is crucial to reduce the risk of leakage and subsequent maceration of the surrounding skin. The type and location of the stoma will vary depending on the purpose, such as defunctioning the colon or providing feeding access. Overall, abdominal stomas are a necessary medical intervention that requires careful consideration and planning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 13 - A 32-year-old woman with a 9-month history of weight loss, intermittent bloody mucus...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman with a 9-month history of weight loss, intermittent bloody mucus stools and abdominal pain undergoes a colonoscopy, which shows a mucosal ‘cobblestone’ pattern and skip lesions. She drinks approximately four units of alcohol a week and has a smoking history of five pack years.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate lifestyle advice for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop smoking

      Explanation:

      Lifestyle Advice for Patients with Inflammatory Bowel Disease

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a chronic inflammatory process that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract. Patients with IBD may experience symptoms such as diarrhoea, abdominal pain, and bleeding. Here are some lifestyle advice for patients with IBD:

      Stop smoking: Research suggests that smoking can make Crohn’s disease worse. Smokers with Crohn’s disease have more severe symptoms and complications, require more medication, and are more likely to need surgery.

      Eat a balanced diet: Patients with IBD may need to be careful about the amount and type of fibre in their diet. During flare-ups, it may be helpful to reduce the amount of insoluble fibre consumed, but, once the flare-up is over, it is important to increase fibre intake again.

      Avoid alcohol: Although there is no evidence that alcohol consumption worsens IBD symptoms, alcohol can affect the lining of the gastrointestinal tract and interact with certain medications.

      Quit smoking: Although smoking may delay or even prevent ulcerative colitis, the health risks of smoking outweigh any benefits seen in UC, and strongly discourage smoking in everyone, whether or not they have IBD.

      Consider probiotics: The role of probiotics in IBD is not fully understood, but their use can be discussed with a General Practitioner or dietitian. More research is needed on their general effectiveness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 14 - A 30-year-old woman visits her GP after a staging CT revealed the presence...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman visits her GP after a staging CT revealed the presence of gallstones in her gallbladder, following her recent diagnosis of renal cell carcinoma (RCC). She is interested in discussing the available management options. The patient reports no history of abdominal pain and is in good health otherwise. She is scheduled to undergo a left-sided nephrectomy for her RCC in three weeks. During the examination, the GP notes tenderness over the left flank, but no palpable masses. What is the appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassurance

      Explanation:

      If you have been diagnosed with asymptomatic gallbladder stones, there is no need to worry. These stones are often found incidentally during imaging tests that are unrelated to gallstone disease. As long as you have not experienced any symptoms for at least a year before the diagnosis and the stones are located in a normal gallbladder and biliary tree, no intervention is necessary.

      However, if you are experiencing symptoms or if the stones are located in the common bile duct, intervention is required. This can be done through surgical removal during laparoscopic cholecystectomy or through endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) before or during the surgery. Rest assured that with proper intervention, you can effectively manage your gallbladder stones and prevent any complications.

      Gallstones: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Gallstones are a common condition, with up to 24% of women and 12% of men affected. Local infection and cholecystitis may develop in up to 30% of cases, and 12% of patients undergoing surgery will have stones in the common bile duct. The majority of gallstones are of mixed composition, with pure cholesterol stones accounting for 20% of cases. Symptoms typically include colicky right upper quadrant pain that worsens after fatty meals. Diagnosis involves abdominal ultrasound and liver function tests, with magnetic resonance cholangiography or intraoperative imaging used to confirm the presence of stones in the bile duct. Treatment options include expectant management for asymptomatic gallstones, laparoscopic cholecystectomy for symptomatic gallstones, and early ERCP or surgical exploration for stones in the bile duct. Intraoperative cholangiography or laparoscopic ultrasound may be used to confirm anatomy or exclude CBD stones during surgery. ERCP carries risks such as bleeding, duodenal perforation, cholangitis, and pancreatitis.

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      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 15 - Which of the following causes of gastroenteritis has the lengthiest incubation period? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following causes of gastroenteritis has the lengthiest incubation period?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Giardiasis

      Explanation:

      Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling, known as travelers’ diarrhea. This condition is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, accompanied by abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of travelers’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Acute food poisoning is another pattern of illness that results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea after ingesting a toxin. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, or Clostridium perfringens are typically responsible for acute food poisoning.

      There are several types of infections that can cause gastroenteritis, each with its own typical presentation. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea, while cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration leading to weight loss. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, while Staphylococcus aureus results in severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter typically starts with a flu-like prodrome and progresses to crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus can cause two types of illness, vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, or diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.

      The incubation period for gastroenteritis varies depending on the type of infection. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 16 - A 62-year-old male presents to the liver clinic with persistently abnormal liver function...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old male presents to the liver clinic with persistently abnormal liver function tests over the past 2 months. He recently completed a course of co-amoxiclav for a respiratory tract infection. The patient has a history of intravenous drug use, hypertension, and type two diabetes mellitus. His BMI is 31 kg/m², and he consumes 15 units of alcohol per week. A liver ultrasound showed increased hepatic echogenicity. The following liver function tests and virology report were obtained:

      - Bilirubin: 22 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      - ALP: 118 u/L (30 - 100)
      - ALT: 170 u/L (5 - 30)
      - AST: 63 u/L (10 - 40)
      - γGT: 52 u/L (8 - 60)
      - Albumin: 32 g/L (35 - 50)
      - HBsAg: Negative
      - Anti-HBs: Positive
      - Anti-HBc: Negative
      - Anti-HCV: Negative
      - HCV PCR: Negative

      What is the most likely cause of this patient's abnormal liver function tests?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease

      Explanation:

      Abnormal liver function tests in the context of obesity may suggest the presence of non-alcoholic fatty liver disease.

      Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management

      Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It encompasses a range of conditions, from simple steatosis (fat accumulation in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. Insulin resistance is believed to be the primary mechanism leading to steatosis, making NAFLD a hepatic manifestation of metabolic syndrome. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a type of liver damage similar to alcoholic hepatitis but occurs in the absence of alcohol abuse. It affects around 3-4% of the general population and may be responsible for some cases of cryptogenic cirrhosis.

      NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels are common features. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score, in combination with a FibroScan, may be used to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.

      The mainstay of NAFLD treatment is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. Research is ongoing into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, NICE guidelines recommend the management of incidental NAFLD findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 17 - A 32-year-old teacher presents with bloody diarrhoea; he says that he has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old teacher presents with bloody diarrhoea; he says that he has been passing up to 10 motions a day for the past 3–4 weeks. He now presents to the Emergency Department, complaining of abdominal pain and bloating. On examination, he is dehydrated with a clearly distended, tender abdomen. There is anaemia with raised plasma viscosity; potassium level is mildly decreased at 3.3 mmol/l (reference range 3.5–5.1 mmol/l), and urea level is raised, in keeping with dehydration. Liver function testing reveals a decreased albumin level. Autoantibody screen is positive for c-ANCA (cytoplasmic anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody). Colonoscopy shows friable mucosa with a uniform pattern of inflammation and loss of normal mucosa. Stool culture is negative.
      Which one of these diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ulcerative colitis

      Explanation:

      Ulcerative colitis is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that affects only the large bowel. Symptoms include rectal bleeding, frequent stools, and mucus discharge from the rectum. Diagnosis is confirmed through sigmoidoscopy, which reveals continuous inflammation with loss of normal mucosa and intense infiltration of the mucosa and submucosa with various immune cells. The presence of p-ANCA is highly associated with UC. Crohn’s disease, coeliac disease, ischaemic colitis, and diverticulitis have different clinical presentations and diagnostic criteria, which do not match the symptoms and test results of this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 18 - What advice should you give a young adult (who is NOT pregnant) if...

    Incorrect

    • What advice should you give a young adult (who is NOT pregnant) if they ask what is the recommended amount of alcohol they can consume?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No more than 14 units of alcohol per week. If you do drink as much as 14 units per week, it is best to spread this evenly over 3 days or more

      Explanation:

      Alcohol consumption guidelines were revised in 2016 by the Chief Medical Officer, based on recommendations from an expert group report. The most significant change was a reduction in the recommended maximum number of units of alcohol for men from 21 to 14, aligning with the guidelines for women. The government now advises that both men and women should not exceed 14 units of alcohol per week, and if they do, it is best to spread it evenly over three or more days. Pregnant women are advised not to drink alcohol at all, as it can cause long-term harm to the baby. One unit of alcohol is equivalent to 10 mL of pure ethanol, and the strength of a drink is determined by its alcohol by volume (ABV). Examples of one unit of alcohol include a 25ml single measure of spirits with an ABV of 40%, a third of a pint of beer with an ABV of 5-6%, and half a 175ml standard glass of red wine with an ABV of 12%. To calculate the number of units in a drink, multiply the number of millilitres by the ABV and divide by 1,000.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 19 - A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with worsening epigastric pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with worsening epigastric pain and water brash for the past few weeks. He has been taking ibandronic acid tablets for osteoporosis. There is no history of food sticking or significant weight loss.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oesophagitis

      Explanation:

      Common Gastrointestinal Conditions and Their Symptoms

      Gastrointestinal conditions can present with a variety of symptoms, making diagnosis challenging. Here are some common conditions and their associated symptoms:

      Oesophagitis: Inflammation of the oesophagus can cause asymptomatic, epigastric or substernal burning pain, dysphagia, and increased discomfort when lying down or straining. It is often caused by gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, alcohol, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, bisphosphonates, smoking, or Candida albicans infection. Treatment involves eliminating precipitating causes and using proton-pump inhibitors.

      Oesophageal carcinoma: This type of cancer typically presents with worsening dysphagia, weight loss, heartburn, and changes in voice due to compression of the recurrent laryngeal nerve.

      Gastric carcinoma: Symptoms of gastric cancer are often non-specific and include weight loss, anorexia, and fatigue. Heartburn and indigestion are rare.

      Duodenal ulcer: Pain associated with duodenal ulcers is typically improved with eating and severe enough to impact nutritional intake, leading to weight loss. Patients at high risk of gastric ulceration due to medication use may be prescribed a proton-pump inhibitor.

      Pancreatic carcinoma: This type of cancer often presents very late with painless jaundice and weight loss, which are not seen in the presented case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 20 - A 57-year-old accountant has presented to her GP with a 5-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old accountant has presented to her GP with a 5-day history of heartburn, nausea and a metallic taste in her mouth. She has a good appetite and has lost 2kg in the last month. She has a past medical history of hypertension, gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and osteoporosis. She takes amlodipine 5mg OD, risedronate 35 mg OD and lansoprazole 30 mg OD.

      On examination, her abdomen is soft and nontender and there are no palpable masses. Her observations are normal.

      What is the most appropriate management for this patient from the following options?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent upper gastrointestinal endoscopy

      Explanation:

      An urgent referral is warranted when weight loss is a prominent symptom in dyspepsia.

      Management of Dyspepsia and Referral for Possible Cancer

      Dyspepsia is a common symptom that can be caused by various factors, including medication and lifestyle choices. However, it can also be a sign of underlying conditions such as stomach or oesophageal cancer. The 2015 NICE guidelines provide updated advice on when urgent referral for endoscopy is necessary. Patients with dysphagia or an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer should be referred urgently. Patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should also be referred urgently. Non-urgent referrals include patients with haematemesis or those with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with other symptoms.

      For patients with undiagnosed dyspepsia, a step-wise approach is recommended. First, medications should be reviewed for possible causes. Lifestyle advice should also be given. If symptoms persist, a trial of full-dose proton pump inhibitor for one month or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried. If symptoms persist after either approach, the alternative should be attempted. Testing for H. pylori infection can be done using a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms resolve following test and treat, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 21 - A 50-year-old man who takes omeprazole 20 mg for gastroesophageal reflux disease has...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man who takes omeprazole 20 mg for gastroesophageal reflux disease has reported a recent worsening of his indigestion and an unintentional weight loss of 5kg over the past 2 months. He has been referred for a 2-week wait and scheduled for an endoscopy in 3 weeks. What guidance should he receive regarding his omeprazole usage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop taking omeprazole 2 weeks before endoscopy

      Explanation:

      To avoid the possibility of masking serious underlying pathology like gastric cancer, patients who are taking proton pump inhibitors or H2 receptor blockers should discontinue their use at least two weeks before undergoing an endoscopy.

      Management of Dyspepsia and Referral for Possible Cancer

      Dyspepsia is a common symptom that can be caused by various factors, including medication and lifestyle choices. However, it can also be a sign of underlying conditions such as stomach or oesophageal cancer. The 2015 NICE guidelines provide updated advice on when urgent referral for endoscopy is necessary. Patients with dysphagia or an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer should be referred urgently. Patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should also be referred urgently. Non-urgent referrals include patients with haematemesis or those with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with other symptoms.

      For patients with undiagnosed dyspepsia, a step-wise approach is recommended. First, medications should be reviewed for possible causes. Lifestyle advice should also be given. If symptoms persist, a trial of full-dose proton pump inhibitor for one month or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried. If symptoms persist after either approach, the alternative should be attempted. Testing for H. pylori infection can be done using a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms resolve following test and treat, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.

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      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 22 - A 56-year-old woman complains of dysphagia for the past 3 months, affecting both...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman complains of dysphagia for the past 3 months, affecting both solids and liquids, accompanied by heartburn symptoms. What could be the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Achalasia

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest achalasia, as they have experienced difficulty swallowing both solids and liquids from the beginning.

      Understanding Achalasia: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Achalasia is a medical condition characterized by the failure of oesophageal peristalsis and relaxation of the lower oesophageal sphincter (LOS) due to the degenerative loss of ganglia from Auerbach’s plexus. This results in a contracted LOS and a dilated oesophagus above it. It is a condition that typically presents in middle-age and is equally common in men and women.

      The clinical features of achalasia include dysphagia of both liquids and solids, heartburn, regurgitation of food, and variation in the severity of symptoms. If left untreated, it may lead to cough, aspiration pneumonia, and even malignant change in a small number of patients. To diagnose achalasia, oesophageal manometry is considered the most important diagnostic test. It shows excessive LOS tone that doesn’t relax on swallowing. A barium swallow may also be used to show a grossly expanded oesophagus with a fluid level and a ‘bird’s beak’ appearance. A chest x-ray may reveal a wide mediastinum and fluid level.

      The treatment of achalasia involves pneumatic (balloon) dilation, which is increasingly becoming the preferred first-line option. It is less invasive and has a quicker recovery time than surgery. However, patients should be a low surgical risk as surgery may be required if complications occur. Surgical intervention with a Heller cardiomyotomy should be considered if recurrent or persistent symptoms occur. In some cases, an intra-sphincteric injection of botulinum toxin may be used in patients who are a high surgical risk. Drug therapy, such as nitrates and calcium channel blockers, may also have a role but is limited by side-effects. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of achalasia is crucial in managing this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 23 - An 80-year-old male has been diagnosed with upper rectal cancer. The cancer is...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old male has been diagnosed with upper rectal cancer. The cancer is confined to the area and the medical team has decided to perform an anterior resection to remove it. The surgeon believes that to achieve the best long-term outcome, it is necessary to temporarily divert the colon to safeguard the colorectal anastomosis. What type of stoma would be most suitable?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Loop ileostomy

      Explanation:

      A loop ileostomy is the appropriate procedure for defunctioning the colon to protect an anastomosis. This involves taking a loop of ileum, making a horizontal incision, and bringing it up to the skin. It is commonly used after rectal cancer surgery and can be reversed at a later time.

      An end colostomy is performed when an anastomosis is not possible or desirable, and the colon needs to be diverted or resected. The distal part of the colon is brought up to the skin in this procedure.

      An end ileostomy is typically done after the complete removal of the colon or when an ileocolic anastomosis is not planned. While it can be used to defunction the colon, it is more challenging to reverse.

      A gastrostomy is used for gastric decompression or feeding.

      A loop jejunostomy is used as a high-output stoma and may be performed after an emergency laparotomy with planned early closure.

      Abdominal stomas are created during various abdominal procedures to bring the lumen or contents of organs onto the skin. Typically, this involves the bowel, but other organs may also be diverted if necessary. The type and method of construction of the stoma will depend on the contents of the bowel. Small bowel stomas should be spouted to prevent irritant contents from coming into contact with the skin, while colonic stomas do not require spouting. Proper siting of the stoma is crucial to reduce the risk of leakage and subsequent maceration of the surrounding skin. The type and location of the stoma will vary depending on the purpose, such as defunctioning the colon or providing feeding access. Overall, abdominal stomas are a necessary medical intervention that requires careful consideration and planning.

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      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 24 - Each one of the following is a recognised complication of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease,...

    Incorrect

    • Each one of the following is a recognised complication of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Achalasia

      Explanation:

      Managing Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux Disease

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is a condition where gastric contents cause symptoms of oesophagitis. If GORD has not been investigated with endoscopy, it should be treated according to dyspepsia guidelines. However, if oesophagitis is confirmed through endoscopy, a full dose proton pump inhibitor (PPI) should be given for 1-2 months. If there is a positive response, low dose treatment may be given as required. If there is no response, double-dose PPI should be given for 1 month.

      On the other hand, if endoscopy shows negative reflux disease, a full dose PPI should be given for 1 month. If there is a positive response, low dose treatment may be given on an as-required basis with a limited number of repeat prescriptions. If there is no response, H2RA or prokinetic should be given for one month.

      Complications of GORD include oesophagitis, ulcers, anaemia, benign strictures, Barrett’s oesophagus, and oesophageal carcinoma. Therefore, it is important to manage GORD effectively to prevent these complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 25 - A 55-year-old man visits the clinic with concerns about his worsening haemorrhoids. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man visits the clinic with concerns about his worsening haemorrhoids. He reports having to manually push them back in after bowel movements.
      Which class of haemorrhoids is most likely present?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Grade III

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Grading System for Hemorrhoids

      Hemorrhoids are a common condition that affects many people. To help diagnose and treat this condition, clinicians use a grading system to classify the severity of the hemorrhoids. The grading system proposed by Banov et al. in 1985 is the most commonly used system.

      Grade I hemorrhoids are the mildest form and only project into the anal canal. They often bleed but do not prolapse. Grade II hemorrhoids may protrude beyond the anal verge with straining or defecating, but reduce spontaneously when straining ceases. Grade III hemorrhoids protrude spontaneously or with straining and require manual reduction. Grade IV hemorrhoids are the most severe and chronically prolapse. They cannot be reduced and may present with acute thrombosis or strangulation. These lesions usually contain both internal and external components.

      The grading system helps clinicians correlate symptoms with therapeutic approaches. For example, grade I and II hemorrhoids may be treated with conservative measures such as dietary changes and topical medications. Grade III and IV hemorrhoids may require more invasive treatments such as rubber band ligation or surgery.

      In conclusion, understanding the grading system for hemorrhoids is important for both patients and clinicians. It helps guide treatment decisions and ensures the best possible outcome for those affected by this condition.

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      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 26 - You are evaluating a patient with Crohn's disease. Which of the following non-intestinal...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a patient with Crohn's disease. Which of the following non-intestinal symptoms of Crohn's disease is associated with disease activity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythema nodosum

      Explanation:

      Understanding Crohn’s Disease

      Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that affects various parts of the digestive tract, from the mouth to the anus. Although the exact cause of Crohn’s disease is unknown, there is a strong genetic susceptibility. The disease is characterized by inflammation in all layers of the digestive tract, which can lead to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions. Symptoms of Crohn’s disease typically appear in late adolescence or early adulthood and may include non-specific symptoms such as weight loss and lethargy, diarrhea, abdominal pain, and perianal disease. Extra-intestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and osteoporosis, are also common in patients with Crohn’s disease.

      To diagnose Crohn’s disease, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers, increased faecal calprotectin, anemia, and low levels of vitamin B12 and vitamin D. It is important to note that Crohn’s disease shares some extra-intestinal features with ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease. Arthritis is the most common extra-intestinal feature in both Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis, while primary sclerosing cholangitis is much more common in ulcerative colitis. Understanding the symptoms and features of Crohn’s disease can help with early diagnosis and management of the disease.

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      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 27 - A 28-year-old pregnant woman presents to the GP with jaundice and itchy skin...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old pregnant woman presents to the GP with jaundice and itchy skin for the past 2 weeks. She claims that is a lot worse during this pregnancy compared to her last one. History reveals that she is currently 30 weeks pregnant with no complications up until presentation.

      On examination, the only notable findings are mild jaundice seen in the sclerae, as well as excoriations around the umbilicus and flanks. She denies any tenderness in her abdomen during the examination. Blood tests show the following:

      ALT 206 U/L
      AST 159 U/L
      ALP 796 umol/l
      GGT 397 U/L
      Bilirubin (direct) 56 umol/L
      Bile salts 34 umol/L
      Bile salts reference range 0 - 14 umol/L

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Obstetric cholestasis

      Explanation:

      Obstetric cholestasis, also known as intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, is a condition that occurs when the flow of bile is impaired, resulting in a buildup of bile salts in the skin and placenta. The cause of this condition is believed to be a combination of hormonal, genetic, and environmental factors. While the pruritic symptoms can be distressing for the mother, the buildup of bile salts can also harm the fetus. The fetus’s immature liver may struggle to break down the excessive levels of bile salts, and the vasoconstricting effect of bile salts on human placental chorionic veins may lead to sudden asphyxial events in the fetus, resulting in anoxia and death.

      Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy: Symptoms and Management

      Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis, is a condition that affects approximately 1% of pregnancies in the UK. It is characterized by intense itching, particularly on the palms, soles, and abdomen, and may also result in clinically detectable jaundice in around 20% of patients. Raised bilirubin levels are seen in over 90% of cases.

      The management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy typically involves induction of labor at 37-38 weeks, although this practice may not be evidence-based. Ursodeoxycholic acid is also widely used, although the evidence base for its effectiveness is not clear. Additionally, vitamin K supplementation may be recommended.

      It is important to note that the recurrence rate of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy in subsequent pregnancies is high, ranging from 45-90%. Therefore, close monitoring and management are necessary for women who have experienced this condition in the past.

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      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 28 - A 23-year-old woman visits the GP clinic to receive the results of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman visits the GP clinic to receive the results of her recent blood tests. She has been experiencing fatigue, bloating, and flatulence. The blood test results are as follows:

      - Hb: 110 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160 g/L)
      - Platelets: 201 * 10^9/L (normal range: 150-400 * 10^9/L)
      - WBC: 10.2 * 10^9/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 10^9/L)
      - Ferritin: 25 ug/L (normal range: 15-200 ug/L)
      - Deaminated gliadin IgG: 14 U/mL (normal range: <7 U/mL)
      - Tissue transglutaminase IgA: 21 U/mL (normal range: <7 U/mL)

      What additional tests or criteria would be necessary to make a definitive diagnosis of her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endoscopic intestinal biopsy without dietary modification

      Explanation:

      In order to diagnose coeliac disease, endoscopic intestinal biopsy is considered the most reliable method and should be performed on all patients who show signs of the condition based on serology. A young patient with non-specific symptoms that suggest coeliac disease has been found to have mild anaemia and elevated coeliac serology. While these results are suggestive, they are not conclusive, and putting the patient on a gluten-free diet without further testing could be detrimental to their quality of life. Therefore, an intestinal biopsy without dietary modification is necessary to confirm the diagnosis. If the patient excludes gluten prior to the biopsy, the results may not be significant, so it is important to continue or reintroduce gluten for at least 6 weeks before the procedure. The expected results of a biopsy for coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, increased intraepithelial lymphocytes, and lymphocyte infiltration in the lamina propria. It is incorrect to assume that the patient does not require further testing, as the antibody results are not conclusive. Repeating antibody tests without dietary modification or advising the patient to exclude gluten and repeat the tests are also unnecessary. However, repeating antibody tests after a confirmed diagnosis may be useful in assessing patient adherence to a gluten-free diet. The patient should be referred to a gastroenterologist for an intestinal biopsy to confirm the diagnosis.

      Investigating Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is a condition caused by sensitivity to gluten, which can lead to villous atrophy and malabsorption. It is often associated with other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis of coeliac disease is made through a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy. The gold standard for diagnosis is the biopsy, which should be performed in all patients with suspected coeliac disease to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. The biopsy traditionally takes place in the duodenum, but jejunal biopsies are also sometimes performed. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, an increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes, and lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes. Serology tests for coeliac disease include tissue transglutaminase antibodies and endomyseal antibodies, while anti-gliadin antibodies are not recommended. Patients who are already on a gluten-free diet should reintroduce gluten for at least six weeks prior to testing. Rectal gluten challenge is not widely used. A gluten-free diet can reverse villous atrophy and immunology in patients with coeliac disease.

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      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 29 - As the medical doctor on call, a 23-year-old woman presents to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • As the medical doctor on call, a 23-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 4-day history of loose stools, abdominal pain, and fatigue. She reports having bowel movements an average of 8 times a day, and in the last 24 hours, she has noticed blood mixed in with the stools. The patient has a medical history of ulcerative colitis, which is typically well controlled with rectal mesalazine. She has no allergies or other medical conditions.

      Upon examination, the patient's blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg, heart rate is 95 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 16/min, oxygen saturation is 96%, and temperature is 37.9 ºC. Heart sounds are normal, chest is clear, and the abdomen is soft with localized tenderness in the left iliac fossa. There is no guarding or peritonism, and bowel sounds are audible.

      The patient's Hb is 102 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160), platelets are 398 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400), WBC is 13.2 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0), Na is 140 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145), K is 3.8 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0), urea is 4.6 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0), creatinine is 95 µmol/L (normal range: 55-120), and CRP is 35 mg/L (normal range: <5). Based on these findings, a flare of ulcerative colitis is suspected.

      What is the appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit + IV hydrocortisone

      Explanation:

      Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools and presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Extensive disease may require a high-dose oral aminosalicylate and topical treatment. Severe colitis should be treated in a hospital with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin. Maintaining remission can involve using a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate or oral azathioprine/mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended, but probiotics may prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 30 - A 60-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with mild central abdominal discomfort....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with mild central abdominal discomfort. She also reports unintentional weight loss over the past four months. However, she denies any rectal bleeding or fatigue and has no significant family history.
      What is the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2-week wait referral to the colorectal services

      Explanation:

      Referral for Investigation of Colorectal Cancer with a 2-Week Wait

      According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, patients aged 40 or over who present with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain should be referred for investigation of colorectal cancer with a 2-week wait. Other criteria for a 2-week wait referral include patients with unexplained rectal bleeding, iron-deficiency anaemia, change in bowel habit, positive faecal occult blood tests, rectal or abdominal mass, unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, and patients under 50 years with rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms or findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss or iron-deficiency anaemia.

      Doing nothing and just following up with the patient, prescribing analgesia and following up in one month, referring the patient routinely, or taking urgent bloods and following up in two weeks would not be appropriate in the presence of red-flag symptoms and can create a serious delay in diagnosis and treatment. Therefore, referral for investigation of colorectal cancer with a 2-week wait is the recommended course of action. However, taking urgent bloods and following up the patient in two weeks can still be done while the patient is waiting for the referral appointment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology/Nutrition (6/11) 55%
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