00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - An 85-year-old female presents to the emergency department with complaints of pain in...

    Correct

    • An 85-year-old female presents to the emergency department with complaints of pain in the left hemithorax after a fall at home. The patient has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and osteoarthritis. Upon examination, there is visible bruising and tenderness upon palpation over the left hemithorax. A chest x-ray confirms a complete disruption of the bony contour of the left 6th rib, without disruption of the pleura or lung parenchyma. What is the most appropriate management for this injury?

      Your Answer: Conservative management with adequate analgesia

      Explanation:

      Simple rib fractures are typically treated conservatively, with appropriate pain relief measures such as NSAIDs, opioids, and intercostal nerve blocks. It is crucial to manage pain effectively to prevent breathing difficulties and complications like atelectasis and pneumonia. Rib belts should not be used as they can hinder respiratory function. Chest x-rays do not reveal any intrathoracic complications like haemothorax or pneumothorax, so chest drains are unnecessary. IV bisphosphonates are not useful in treating traumatic rib fractures, but oral bisphosphonates may be considered later on to address any loss of bone mineral density in the patient.

      A rib fracture is a break in any of the bony segments of a rib. It is commonly caused by blunt trauma to the chest wall, but can also be due to underlying diseases that weaken the bone structure of the ribs. Rib fractures can occur singly or in multiple places along the length of a rib and may be associated with soft tissue injuries to the surrounding muscles or the underlying lung. Risk factors include chest injuries in major trauma, osteoporosis, steroid use, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and cancer metastases.

      The most common symptom of a rib fracture is severe, sharp chest wall pain, which is often more severe with deep breaths or coughing. Chest wall tenderness over the site of the fractures and visible bruising of the skin may also be present. Auscultation of the chest may reveal crackles or reduced breath sounds if there is an underlying lung injury. In some cases, pain and underlying lung injury can result in a reduction in ventilation, causing a drop in oxygen saturation. Pneumothorax, a serious complication of a rib fracture, can present with reduced chest expansion, reduced breath sounds, and hyper-resonant percussion on the affected side. Flail chest, a consequence of multiple rib fractures, can impair ventilation of the lung on the side of injury and may require treatment with invasive ventilation and surgical fixation to prevent complications.

      Diagnostic tests for rib fractures include a CT scan of the chest, which shows the fractures in 3D as well as the associated soft tissue injuries. Chest x-rays may provide suboptimal views and do not provide any information about the surrounding soft tissue injury. In cases of pathological fractures secondary to tumour metastases, a CT scan to look for a primary (if not already identified) is also required. Management of rib fractures involves conservative treatment with good analgesia to ensure breathing is not affected by pain. Inadequate ventilation may predispose to chest infections. Nerve blocks can be considered if the pain is not controlled by normal analgesia. Surgical fixation can be considered to manage pain if this is still an issue and the fractures have failed to heal following 12 weeks of conservative management. Flail chest segments are the only form of rib fractures that should be urgently discussed with cardiothoracic surgery as they can impair ventilation and result in significant lung trauma. Lung complications such as pneumothorax or haemothorax should be managed as necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 21-year-old presents to the emergency department after taking an overdose of paracetamol...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old presents to the emergency department after taking an overdose of paracetamol and half a bottle of rum following a recent breakup. Their medical history includes epilepsy treated with carbamazepine and depression treated with citalopram. They smoke 10 cigarettes a day and typically consume 4 units of alcohol per week. What aspect of their medical history places them at the greatest risk for liver damage?

      Your Answer: Alcohol intake

      Correct Answer: Epilepsy treatment

      Explanation:

      Paracetamol overdose can lead to hepatotoxicity, which is influenced by various factors such as liver function, medication use, and nutrition. Carbamazepine, a liver enzyme-inducing drug, is known to increase the risk of hepatotoxicity following an overdose. Contrary to popular belief, acute alcohol intake does not increase the risk of hepatotoxicity and may even have a protective effect. Citalopram treatment does not affect the hepatotoxicity of paracetamol overdose. Smoking history does not have any long-term impact on liver damage. The impulsive nature of the overdose is more of a psychiatric concern than a medical one related to hepatotoxicity.

      Risk Factors for Paracetamol Overdose

      Paracetamol overdose can lead to hepatotoxicity, especially in certain groups of patients. Those taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs such as rifampicin, phenytoin, carbamazepine, or those with chronic alcohol excess or who take St John’s Wort are at an increased risk. Malnourished patients, such as those with anorexia nervosa, or those who have not eaten for a few days are also at a higher risk. Interestingly, acute alcohol intake does not increase the risk of hepatotoxicity, and may even have a protective effect. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors when treating patients who have overdosed on paracetamol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      38.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old woman complains of tingling in her left hand that sometimes disturbs...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman complains of tingling in her left hand that sometimes disturbs her sleep. She usually shakes her hand to alleviate the symptoms, which disappear entirely. She has a history of uncontrolled type 2 diabetes and breast cancer. During the examination, there is no evidence of deformity or wasting, and she has good power throughout her hand. The symptoms are reproduced when forced wrist flexion is performed.

      What is the best initial course of action?

      Your Answer: Steroid injection

      Correct Answer: Wrist splinting

      Explanation:

      For patients with mild-moderate symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome, conservative treatment with a wrist splint, with or without steroid injection, should be attempted first. This woman’s symptoms suggest carpal tunnel syndrome, and therefore, first-line management should involve conservative measures before symptoms worsen. While amitriptyline may be useful for neuropathic pain, it is not the first-line treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome. Paracetamol and topical NSAIDs may be appropriate for osteoarthritis involving the hands, but this presentation does not suggest osteoarthritis. Surgical decompression may eventually be necessary if symptoms worsen, but it is not the first-line treatment for mild-moderate symptoms, and conservative management is more appropriate initially. While a steroid injection may be appropriate as a first-line treatment when used in conjunction with wrist splinting, steroid treatment alone is generally not the first-line treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome.

      Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. Patients with this condition typically experience pain or pins and needles in their thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even ascend proximally. Patients often shake their hand to obtain relief, especially at night.

      During an examination, doctors may observe weakness of thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence (not the hypothenar). Tapping on the affected area may cause paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist may also cause symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by a variety of factors, including idiopathic reasons, pregnancy, oedema (such as heart failure), lunate fracture, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may show prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves.

      Treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome may include a 6-week trial of conservative treatments, such as corticosteroid injections and wrist splints at night. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression (flexor retinaculum division) may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      39
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 49-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden painless loss...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden painless loss of vision on the left side. He reports experiencing dark 'floaters' in his vision and a 'red hue' before losing vision completely on the affected side. The symptoms were most severe when lying flat. The patient has a medical history of poorly controlled type 1 diabetes, proliferative diabetic retinopathy, hypertension, and a metallic aortic valve for which he takes warfarin. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vitreous haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Vitreous haemorrhage should be considered as a possible cause of sudden visual loss in diabetic patients. This patient’s symptoms, including painless loss of vision with floaters and a red hue, are typical of vitreous haemorrhage. The worsening of symptoms when lying flat is also consistent with this diagnosis. The patient has several risk factors for vitreous haemorrhage, such as proliferative retinal disease, hypertension, and anticoagulant use.

      Acute angle-closure glaucoma, which presents with painful loss of vision, red-eye, halos around lights, and a semi-dilated non-reactive pupil, is less likely in this case as the patient denies pain and there is no mention of a red eye.

      Central retinal vein occlusion is unlikely as it does not typically present with floaters and a red hue preceding sudden loss of vision. Additionally, symptoms would not worsen when lying flat.

      Posterior vitreous detachment, which presents with flashes of light and floaters in the peripheral field of vision, does not cause loss of sight.

      Understanding Vitreous Haemorrhage

      Vitreous haemorrhage is a condition where there is bleeding into the vitreous humour, which can cause sudden painless loss of vision. This disruption to vision can range from floaters to complete visual loss. The bleeding can come from any vessel in the retina or extend through the retina from other areas. Once the bleeding stops, the blood is typically cleared from the retina at a rate of approximately 1% per day.

      The incidence of spontaneous vitreous haemorrhage is around 7 cases per 100,000 patient-years. The incidence by age and sex varies according to the underlying causes. The most common causes, which collectively account for 90% of cases, include proliferative diabetic retinopathy, posterior vitreous detachment, and ocular trauma (which is the most common cause in children and young adults).

      Patients with vitreous haemorrhage typically present with an acute or subacute onset of painless visual loss or haze, a red hue in the vision, or floaters or shadows/dark spots in the vision. Signs of the condition include decreased visual acuity (depending on the location, size, and degree of vitreous haemorrhage) and visual field defects if the haemorrhage is severe.

      Investigations for vitreous haemorrhage include dilated fundoscopy, slit-lamp examination, ultrasound (useful to rule out retinal tear/detachment and if haemorrhage obscures the retina), fluorescein angiography (to identify neovascularization), and orbital CT (used if open globe injury is suspected).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      55.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 17-year-old boy visits his doctor complaining of low mood. He has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old boy visits his doctor complaining of low mood. He has been experiencing this for the past 5 weeks along with fatigue, anhedonia, and oversleeping. The doctor orders a set of blood tests and his PHQ-9 score indicates moderate depression. The patient has no medical history. He is not interested in cognitive behavioural therapy and wants to begin medication. What is the best medication for him to start with?

      Your Answer: Citalopram

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Fluoxetine is the preferred SSRI for treating depression in children and adolescents.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of fatigue and weakness. She has...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of fatigue and weakness. She has been experiencing difficulty getting up from chairs, lifting objects, and climbing stairs for the past 2 months. However, she has no issues with other movements like knitting or writing. Upon examination, she has bilateral hip and shoulder weakness. Blood tests reveal the following results: calcium 2.4 mmol/L (2.1-2.6), thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 4.5 mU/L (0.5-5.5), free thyroxine (T4) 12.4 pmol/L (9.0 - 18), creatine kinase (CK) 1752 U/L (35 - 250), and ESR 62 mm/hr (< 40). What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polymyositis

      Explanation:

      Polymyositis: An Inflammatory Disorder Causing Muscle Weakness

      Polymyositis is an inflammatory disorder that causes symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness. It is believed to be a T-cell mediated cytotoxic process directed against muscle fibers and can be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders. This condition is often associated with malignancy and typically affects middle-aged women more than men.

      One variant of the disease is dermatomyositis, which is characterized by prominent skin manifestations such as a purple (heliotrope) rash on the cheeks and eyelids. Other features of polymyositis include Raynaud’s, respiratory muscle weakness, dysphagia, and dysphonia. Interstitial lung disease, such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia, is seen in around 20% of patients and indicates a poor prognosis.

      To diagnose polymyositis, doctors may perform various tests, including an elevated creatine kinase, EMG, muscle biopsy, and anti-synthetase antibodies. Anti-Jo-1 antibodies are seen in a pattern of disease associated with lung involvement, Raynaud’s, and fever.

      The management of polymyositis involves high-dose corticosteroids tapered as symptoms improve. Azathioprine may also be used as a steroid-sparing agent. Overall, polymyositis is a challenging condition that requires careful management and monitoring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      36.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A patient presents with jaundice. The following results are available:
    HBsAg +ve, HBeAg +ve,...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with jaundice. The following results are available:
      HBsAg +ve, HBeAg +ve, HBeAb −ve, HBc IgM +ve
      Which one of the following interpretations is correct for a patient who is slightly older?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic hepatitis B with high infectivity

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatitis B Test Results

      Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. Testing for hepatitis B involves several blood tests that can provide information about the patient’s current infection status, susceptibility to the virus, and immunity. Here are some key points to understand about hepatitis B test results:

      Chronic Hepatitis B with High Infectivity
      If a patient tests positive for HBsAg and HBeAg, it indicates a current infection with high infectivity. This means that the virus is highly active and can easily spread to others.

      Susceptible to Hepatitis B
      If a patient tests negative for HBsAg, anti-HBc, IgM anti-HBc, and anti-HBs, it indicates that they are susceptible to hepatitis B and have not been infected or vaccinated against it.

      Chronic Hepatitis B with Low Infectivity
      If a patient tests positive for HBeAg but negative for HBeAb, it indicates a chronic carrier state with low infectivity. This means that the virus is less active and less likely to spread to others.

      Previous Immunisation Against Hepatitis B
      If a patient tests positive for HBV surface antibody, it indicates immunity to hepatitis B either through vaccination or natural infection. However, if they also test positive for HBsAg and HBeAg, it indicates an active infection rather than immunisation.

      Natural Immunity Against Hepatitis B
      If a patient tests positive for HBV surface antibody, it indicates immunity to hepatitis B either through vaccination or natural infection. This means that they have been exposed to the virus in the past and have developed immunity to it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old gentleman has been under your care for an acute exacerbation of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old gentleman has been under your care for an acute exacerbation of COPD. It is his second admission for his COPD in the last twelve months and has had one previous ITU admission.

      So far on the ward, he has received treatment with back-to-back salbutamol and ipratropium nebulisers, oral prednisolone and intravenous theophylline. He is also receiving a course of intravenous co-amoxiclav and clarithromycin due to a suspected infectious cause.

      His latest results are as follows:

      Obs:
      BP 140/92 mmHg
      HR 90/min
      RR 24/min
      SaO2 80%
      Temp 38.2ºC

      Arterial Blood Gas:
      pH 7.30
      PaO2 7.8 kPa
      PaCO2 9.5 kPa
      HCO3- 36 mmol/L
      BE +5

      What is the main indicator for initiating non-invasive ventilation in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      When a patient with an acute exacerbation of COPD shows signs of respiratory acidosis (PaCO2>6 kPa, pH <7.35 ≥7.26) that persist despite immediate maximum standard medical treatment, it is recommended to consider the use of non-invasive ventilation (NIV). This is particularly important in cases where the patient is severely ill, as in the case of this patient with an infectious exacerbation of COPD. The British Thoracic Society guidelines suggest that NIV should be considered after maximal medical therapy, which in this case includes nebulisers, steroids, and theophylline. While there are other concerning features of this patient's condition, the PaCO2 and pH levels are the key indicators for the use of NIV. Guidelines for Non-Invasive Ventilation in Acute Respiratory Failure The British Thoracic Society (BTS) and the Royal College of Physicians have published guidelines for the use of non-invasive ventilation (NIV) in acute respiratory failure. NIV can be used in patients with COPD and respiratory acidosis with a pH of 7.25-7.35. However, patients with a pH lower than 7.25 require greater monitoring and a lower threshold for intubation and ventilation. NIV is also recommended for type II respiratory failure due to chest wall deformity, neuromuscular disease, or obstructive sleep apnea, as well as for cardiogenic pulmonary edema unresponsive to continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) and weaning from tracheal intubation. For patients with COPD, the recommended initial settings for bi-level pressure support include an expiratory positive airway pressure (EPAP) of 4-5 cm H2O, an inspiratory positive airway pressure (IPAP) of 10-15 cm H2O, a back-up rate of 15 breaths/min, and a back-up inspiration-to-expiration ratio of 1:3. These guidelines aim to improve patient outcomes and reduce the need for invasive mechanical ventilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old man visits his GP complaining of increased frequency of urination for...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man visits his GP complaining of increased frequency of urination for the past 3 months, particularly at night. He also reports dribbling while urinating and a sensation of incomplete bladder emptying. He denies any weight loss. Upon examination, his abdomen is soft and non-tender. The digital rectal examination reveals a smooth unilateral enlargement of the lateral lobe of the prostate.

      What is the initial management strategy that should be employed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tamsulosin

      Explanation:

      Tamsulosin is the preferred initial treatment for patients with bothersome symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), particularly those experiencing voiding symptoms such as weak urine flow, difficulty starting urination, straining, incomplete bladder emptying, and dribbling at the end of urination. Despite the potential for ejaculatory dysfunction, the benefits of tamsulosin in relieving symptoms outweigh the drawbacks. It is not necessary to wait for a biopsy before starting treatment, as the patient’s symptoms and physical exam findings suggest BPH rather than prostate cancer. Finasteride may be considered for patients at high risk of disease progression or those who do not respond to tamsulosin. Oxybutynin is not indicated for this patient, as it is used to treat urge incontinence, which he does not have.

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects older men, with around 50% of 50-year-old men showing evidence of BPH and 30% experiencing symptoms. The risk of BPH increases with age, with around 80% of 80-year-old men having evidence of the condition. BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which can be categorised into voiding symptoms (obstructive) and storage symptoms (irritative). Complications of BPH can include urinary tract infections, retention, and obstructive uropathy.

      Assessment of BPH may involve dipstick urine tests, U&Es, and PSA tests. A urinary frequency-volume chart and the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) can also be used to assess the severity of LUTS and their impact on quality of life. Management options for BPH include watchful waiting, alpha-1 antagonists, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors, combination therapy, and surgery. Alpha-1 antagonists are considered first-line treatment for moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms, while 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may be indicated for patients with significantly enlarged prostates and a high risk of progression. Combination therapy and antimuscarinic drugs may also be used in certain cases. Surgery, such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), may be necessary in severe cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 72-year-old female visits her GP due to concerns about memory loss. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old female visits her GP due to concerns about memory loss. She has been experiencing forgetfulness and absent-mindedness for the past three weeks. She cannot recall conversations that occurred earlier in the day and has forgotten to lock her front door. Additionally, she has been feeling fatigued and has lost interest in her usual activities, such as going out for walks. Living alone, she is worried about the potential risks associated with her memory loss. Although initially appearing cheerful, she becomes emotional and starts crying while discussing her symptoms. The following blood test result is obtained: TSH 2 mU/L. What is the most probable cause of her presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Depression

      Explanation:

      Depression and dementia can be distinguished based on their respective characteristics. Depression typically has a short history and a sudden onset, which can cause memory loss due to lack of concentration. Other symptoms include fatigue and loss of interest in usual activities. Hypothyroidism can be ruled out if TSH levels are normal. On the other hand, dementia progresses slowly and patients may not notice the symptoms themselves. It is usually others who notice the symptoms, and memory loss is not a concern for patients with dementia. Finally, there is no indication of bipolar disorder as there is no history of manic episodes.

      Differentiating between Depression and Dementia

      Depression and dementia are two conditions that can have similar symptoms, making it difficult to distinguish between the two. However, there are certain factors that can suggest a diagnosis of depression over dementia.

      One of the key factors is the duration and onset of symptoms. Depression often has a short history and a rapid onset, whereas dementia tends to develop slowly over time. Additionally, biological symptoms such as weight loss and sleep disturbance are more commonly associated with depression than dementia.

      Patients with depression may also express concern about their memory, but they are often reluctant to take tests and may be disappointed with the results. In contrast, patients with dementia may not be aware of their memory loss or may not express concern about it.

      The mini-mental test score can also be variable in patients with depression, whereas in dementia, there is typically a global memory loss, particularly in recent memory.

      In summary, while depression and dementia can have overlapping symptoms, careful consideration of the duration and onset of symptoms, biological symptoms, patient concerns, and cognitive testing can help differentiate between the two conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old man is brought to the emergency room by his friends, who...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is brought to the emergency room by his friends, who found him vomiting and surrounded by empty packets of pain medication. The patient is unable to identify which medication he took, but reports feeling dizzy and experiencing ringing in his ears. An arterial blood gas test reveals the following results:
      pH: 7.52
      paCO2: 3.1 kPa
      paO2: 15.2 kPa
      HCO3: 18 mEq/l
      Based on these findings, what is the most likely pain medication the patient ingested?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Common Overdose Symptoms and Risks of Pain Medications

      Pain medications are commonly used to manage various types of pain. However, taking too much of these medications can lead to overdose and serious health complications. Here are some common overdose symptoms and risks associated with different types of pain medications:

      Aspirin: Mild aspirin overdose can cause tinnitus, nausea, and vomiting, while severe overdose can lead to confusion, hallucinations, seizures, and pulmonary edema. Aspirin can also cause ototoxicity and stimulate the respiratory center, leading to respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis.

      Paracetamol: Paracetamol overdose may not show symptoms initially, but can lead to hepatic necrosis after 24 hours. Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms, and acidosis can be seen early on arterial blood gas. A paracetamol level can be sent to determine if acetylcysteine treatment is necessary.

      Ibuprofen: NSAID overdose can cause nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. Severe toxicity is rare, but large doses can lead to drowsiness, acidosis, acute kidney injury, and seizure.

      Codeine: Codeine overdose can cause opioid toxicity, leading to symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, drowsiness, and respiratory depression. Codeine is often combined with other pain medications, such as paracetamol, which can increase the risk of mixed overdose.

      Naproxen: NSAID overdose can cause nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. Severe toxicity is rare, but large doses can lead to drowsiness, acidosis, acute kidney injury, and seizure.

      It is important to be aware of the potential risks and symptoms of pain medication overdose and seek medical attention immediately if an overdose is suspected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 62-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of bothersome tinnitus that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of bothersome tinnitus that has been going on for 6 weeks. He reports hearing a ringing noise in his left ear only and experiencing hearing loss on the left side. The noise is intrusive and is causing him to have trouble sleeping at night. He denies experiencing any vertigo, headache, or other neurological symptoms. He has a medical history of hypertension and takes atenolol for it.
      Upon examination, his ears appear normal.
      What is the best course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to ENT

      Explanation:

      Unilateral Tinnitus: Red Flags and Treatment Options

      Unilateral tinnitus is a rare but concerning symptom that should always warrant urgent referral to an ENT specialist. It may indicate an underlying condition such as acoustic neuroma, cerebellopontine angle tumor, glomus tumor, or Ménière’s disease. Other red flag symptoms include pulsatile tinnitus, tinnitus with significant vertigo or asymmetric hearing loss, tinnitus causing psychological distress, and tinnitus with significant neurological symptoms or signs.

      Vestibular retraining, an exercise-based treatment program, can help manage vertigo in patients with tinnitus. However, medication has no direct role in treating tinnitus, although it can be used to alleviate associated symptoms such as anxiety or depression.

      It is important to note that there is no conventional or complementary medication that has been proven to have specific tinnitus-ameliorating qualities. In fact, repeatedly trying unsuccessful therapies may worsen tinnitus. Therefore, it is crucial to seek prompt medical attention and follow the recommended treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 26-year-old man with chronic renal failure received a renal transplant from a...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man with chronic renal failure received a renal transplant from a matched related donor. After being discharged with a functioning graft, he returned to the nephrology clinic a month later with a high fever and was admitted for further investigation. During his first evening in the hospital, his condition rapidly worsened, and he became dyspneic. A full blood count revealed significant leukopenia, and his liver function tests were severely abnormal. What is the probable cause of his illness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      CMV Infection and Organ Transplantation

      Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality in patients who have undergone organ transplantation. The likelihood of developing CMV infection after transplantation depends on two primary factors: whether the donor or recipient has a latent virus that can reactivate after transplantation and the degree of immunosuppression after the procedure.

      The most severe type of post-transplant CMV infection is primary disease, which occurs in individuals who have never been infected with CMV and receive an allograft that contains latent virus from a CMV-seropositive donor. This type of infection is the most common and can be particularly dangerous for patients who have undergone organ transplantation. Proper monitoring and management of CMV infection are essential for ensuring the best possible outcomes for these patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 60-year-old man with a 10-year history of type 2 diabetes comes in...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with a 10-year history of type 2 diabetes comes in for his annual check-up. He is currently taking ramipril, pioglitazone, metformin, simvastatin, and acarbose. During previous examinations, he has been found to have microalbuminuria and a decreasing eGFR. His most recent eGFR measurement was 29 ml/minute/1.73 m2. He has an average build and height.

      Which medication should be discontinued?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Using eGFR to Determine Dose Adjustments in Renal Impairment

      Published information on the effects of renal impairment on drug elimination often uses creatinine clearance as a measure of glomerular filtration rate. However, in patients of average build and height, laboratories may report estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) based on the modification of diet in renal disease (MDRD) formula. This can be used to determine appropriate dose adjustments for medications.

      The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends avoiding metformin if the eGFR is less than 30 ml/minute/1.73 m2 due to the risk of lactic acidosis. This is a serious condition that can occur when metformin accumulates in the body due to impaired renal function. By using eGFR to guide dose adjustments, healthcare providers can help prevent adverse drug reactions and ensure safe and effective medication use in patients with renal impairment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 55-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a change in the shape...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a change in the shape of her left breast and a lump under her left armpit. She has previously undergone breast augmentation surgery which makes examination difficult, but there is a noticeable difference in the appearance of her breasts. She has no family history or other risk factors for breast cancer. The GP refers her to a specialist who performs an ultrasound of her breast and axilla. The ultrasound reveals a 'snowstorm' sign in the left breast and axillary lymph node. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Implant rupture

      Explanation:

      The presence of the ‘snowstorm’ sign on ultrasound of axillary lymph nodes is indicative of extracapsular breast implant rupture. This occurs when silicone leaks out of the implant and travels through the lymphatic system, resulting in the ‘snowstorm appearance’ in both the breast and lymph nodes. The absence of infection or systemic illness suggests that an abscess is not the cause. While the presence of an axillary lump with any breast change raises suspicion of malignancy, implant rupture is the more probable diagnosis. To confirm whether it is LC, DC, or lymphoma, a biopsy for histology would be necessary.

      Non-Malignant Breast Conditions

      Duct ectasia is a common condition that affects up to 25% of normal female breasts. It is a variant of breast involution and is not the same as periductal mastitis. Patients with duct ectasia typically present with nipple discharge, which may be from single or multiple ducts and is often thick and green. This condition is usually seen in women over the age of 50.

      Periductal mastitis, on the other hand, is more commonly seen in younger women and may present with features of inflammation, abscess, or mammary duct fistula. It is strongly associated with smoking and is usually treated with antibiotics. An abscess will require drainage.

      Intraductal papilloma is a growth of papilloma in a single duct and usually presents with clear or blood-stained discharge originating from a single duct. There is no increase in the risk of malignancy.

      Breast abscesses are common in lactating women and are usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus infection. On examination, there is usually a tender fluctuant mass. Treatment is with antibiotics and ultrasound-guided aspiration. Overlying skin necrosis is an indication for surgical debridement, which may be complicated by the development of a subsequent mammary duct fistula.

      Tuberculosis is a rare condition in western countries and is usually secondary TB. It affects women later in their childbearing period, and a chronic breast or axillary sinus is present in up to 50% of cases. Diagnosis is by biopsy culture and histology.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A clinical trial compared the effectiveness of two anti-anginal medications in reducing stable...

    Incorrect

    • A clinical trial compared the effectiveness of two anti-anginal medications in reducing stable angina pain while walking on flat ground. The study found that 65% of patients who took drug A and 60% of patients who took drug B achieved the primary outcome.

      If a patient wants to avoid stable angina pain while walking on flat ground, how many more patients need to be treated with drug A compared to drug B?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 20

      Explanation:

      Number Needed to Treat (NNT)

      When analyzing the results of a randomized controlled clinical trial, the number needed to treat (NNT) is a useful metric to consider. It is calculated by taking 100 divided by the absolute risk reduction (ARR). For example, if the ARR is 5%, then the NNT would be 20 (100/5).

      The NNT provides a more intuitive of the results compared to other metrics such as relative risk reduction (RRR) or ARR. It represents the number of patients who need to be treated in order to prevent one additional negative outcome. In the example above, for every 20 patients treated, one negative outcome would be prevented.

      Overall, the NNT is a valuable tool for clinicians and researchers to evaluate the effectiveness of treatments and interventions. It allows for a more practical interpretation of study results and can aid in making informed decisions about patient care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic reporting bone pains and fatigue that...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic reporting bone pains and fatigue that have persisted for the past year. He has also experienced a gradual decline in his hearing. Upon examination, the doctor notes bossing of the skull. An X-ray of the skull reveals significant thickening of the vault with a combination of lytic and sclerotic lesions. What laboratory finding is most probable in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone

      Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities. Predisposing factors include increasing age, male sex, northern latitude, and family history.

      Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. The stereotypical presentation is an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Classical, untreated features include bowing of the tibia and bossing of the skull. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, which show raised ALP, and x-rays, which reveal osteolysis in early disease and mixed lytic/sclerotic lesions later.

      Treatment is indicated for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fracture, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, either oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are the preferred treatment. Calcitonin is less commonly used now. Complications of Paget’s disease include deafness, bone sarcoma (1% if affected for > 10 years), fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.

      Overall, understanding Paget’s disease of the bone is important for early diagnosis and management of symptoms and complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 16-year-old girl has been admitted to the acute medical unit for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl has been admitted to the acute medical unit for a mild exacerbation of her asthma. She has recovered well, and her peak flow measurements have almost returned to normal. After being seen on the ward round, she asks an FY1 for contraceptive advice. She mentions that she is sexually active with one partner, her 19-year old boyfriend.
      What is the first most appropriate action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Determine if the Fraser guideline criteria are met and ask questions about her relationship to ascertain if there are any safeguarding concerns

      Explanation:

      Providing Contraceptive Advice to Young Girls: Following Fraser Guidelines and Safeguarding Protocols

      Explanation:

      When a young girl under the age of 16 requests contraception, doctors must follow the Fraser guidelines to ensure that they meet the criteria for providing contraceptive advice and treatment without informing their parents. Additionally, if the partner is over 16 years old, doctors must also exclude any safeguarding concerns before providing contraceptive advice.

      It is crucial to sensitively ask the patient about their relationship to ascertain if there are any safeguarding issues. If both Gillick competence and the Fraser guidelines are met, then providing contraceptive advice is appropriate. However, it is prudent to involve senior members of the medical team.

      If the patient is below the age of 13, the doctor must escalate the case to their child protection lead, as the partner would be committing a criminal offence.

      It is inappropriate to decline providing contraceptive advice by telling the patient that it is illegal to have sex at their age. This could potentially antagonize the patient and make any assessment relating to the Fraser guidelines and safeguarding issues much more difficult.

      Informing the parents or escalating the case to the child protection lead without first assessing the Fraser guidelines and safeguarding concerns would be a breach of doctor-patient confidentiality and inappropriate.

      Instead, doctors should explain the various contraceptive options available and arrange an appointment with the patient’s GP to discuss these options further. By following the Fraser guidelines and safeguarding protocols, doctors can provide appropriate contraceptive advice to young girls while ensuring their safety and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 70-year-old man presents with fatigue, pallor and shortness of breath. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with fatigue, pallor and shortness of breath. He has been battling with an indolent colon carcinoma for the past 5 years. He also suffers from insulin-dependent diabetes, hypertension, coronary artery disease and rheumatoid arthritis. He has been feeling unwell for the past few weeks. He denies any history of melaena or haematochezia and has been amenorrhoeic for decades. A bedside stool guaiac test is negative for any blood in the stool. He is well nourished, reports taking daily supplements and is not a vegetarian. He reports that his haematocrit is 0.28 (0.35–0.55) and haemoglobin level 100 g/l (115–155 g/l).
      What additional findings would you expect to observe in his full blood count?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased ferritin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Anaemia of Chronic Disease: Increased Ferritin and Decreased TIBC

      Anaemia of chronic disease is a type of anaemia that is commonly seen in patients with chronic inflammatory conditions. It is characterised by a low haemoglobin level and low haematocrit, but unlike iron deficiency anaemia, it is associated with increased ferritin levels and decreased total iron-binding capacity (TIBC). This is because ferritin is a serum reactive protein that is elevated in response to the underlying inflammatory process.

      Diagnosis of anaemia of chronic disease requires the presence of a chronic inflammatory condition and anaemia, which can be either normocytic or microcytic. It is important to note that a haemoglobin level of <80 g/l is very rarely associated with this type of anaemia. Treatment involves addressing the underlying disorder causing the anaemia and monitoring the haemoglobin level. Blood transfusion is only used in severe cases. It is important to differentiate anaemia of chronic disease from other types of anaemia. For example, it is characterised by a low reticulocyte count, and not reticulocytosis. Serum transferrin receptor is not affected in anaemia of chronic disease and would therefore be normal. Additionally, TIBC is reduced in anaemia of chronic disease, whereas it is increased in iron deficiency anaemia. Finally, anaemia of chronic disease is associated with either microcytosis or normocytosis, whereas macrocytosis is associated with other types of anaemia such as folate deficiency, vitamin B12 deficiency, alcohol excess, and myelodysplastic disease. In summary, understanding the unique features of anaemia of chronic disease, such as increased ferritin and decreased TIBC, can aid in its diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 75-year-old man with atrial fibrillation presented 9 months after discharge from hospital,...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man with atrial fibrillation presented 9 months after discharge from hospital, following a myocardial infarction. He had no further chest pain but had developed swelling of the breasts, which was uncomfortable on occasion. Upon examination, tender bilateral gynaecomastia was observed.
      Which medication he is currently taking is most likely responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      Digoxin is a medication used to treat atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, and congestive heart failure. However, it has a narrow therapeutic window, meaning that even small changes in dosage can cause significant side effects. Common side effects include dizziness, skin reactions, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Gynaecomastia, or breast enlargement in males, is a rare side effect of digoxin. Signs of digoxin toxicity include drowsiness, confusion, bradycardia, shortness of breath, and blurred vision. Other medications that can cause gynaecomastia include anti-androgens, 5-a reductase inhibitors, exogenous estrogens, and certain chemotherapy agents.

      Bisoprolol is a beta-blocker used to control heart rate in atrial fibrillation, treat hypertension and congestive heart failure, and prevent secondary heart attacks. Side effects of bisoprolol and beta-blockers in general include vivid dreams, mood changes, bronchospasm in asthmatics, dizziness, and nausea.

      Aspirin is an anti-platelet medication that can cause gastrointestinal bleeding, tinnitus, and Reye’s syndrome.

      Eplerenone is a potassium-sparing diuretic used to treat heart failure and post-MI. It can cause hyperkalemia, diarrhea, constipation, dizziness, hypotension, and hyponatremia. Unlike spironolactone, another aldosterone antagonist, eplerenone does not have anti-androgenic, estrogenic, or progestogenic properties.

      Simvastatin is an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor used to lower cholesterol. Side effects include muscle cramps, rhabdomyolysis, hepatitis, hair thinning, abdominal pain, and tiredness. Other cardiovascular drugs that may cause gynaecomastia include spironolactone, ACE inhibitors, amiodarone, and calcium channel blockers. Many drugs can cause gynaecomastia, including anti-androgens, antimicrobial medications, anti-ulcer drugs, hormonal therapies, psychoactive drugs, and drugs of abuse. Aspirin is generally well-tolerated at anti-platelet dosages, with bleeding being the main adverse effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal (2/3) 67%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Passmed