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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old man with a learning disability has challenging behaviour. His previous carers...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man with a learning disability has challenging behaviour. His previous carers described him as being calm and settled in general, although he would sometimes refuse to co-operate with carers. Since moving to a new residential home, staff report that he has been refusing to eat and refusing to allow staff to help with personal hygiene.
      What is the most likely cause for this change in his behaviour?

      Your Answer: A change of environment

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Behavioural Changes in Individuals with Cognitive Disabilities

      Behavioural changes in individuals with cognitive disabilities can be caused by various factors. One common reason is a change of environment, as seen in the case of a person who recently moved to a new residential home. Having familiar items around them can help them feel more comfortable and reduce problematic behaviours.

      Pain and urinary tract infections are also potential causes of behavioural changes, but the history provided in the case suggests that the recent change of environment is more likely. Medication is another common cause of behavioural changes, particularly opiates and sedatives. However, there is no history of medication changes in this case, and the change of environment remains the more likely cause.

      Constipation can also cause changes in behaviour for individuals with cognitive disabilities, but again, the history suggests an alternative cause. When assessing behavioural changes in individuals with cognitive disabilities, it is important to consider all possible factors and their timing to determine the most likely cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
      65.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. She tells you she is going to attend a carbohydrate counting course. She asks you what that involves.
      Select from this list the single correct statement about carbohydrate counting.

      Your Answer: It means eating foods with a low glycaemic index

      Correct Answer: It is suitable for those who inject insulin with each meal

      Explanation:

      Carbohydrate Counting for Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus Management

      Carbohydrate counting is a recommended method for managing blood glucose levels in adults with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. It involves counting the grams of carbohydrates in a meal and matching it with an individual’s insulin-to-carbohydrate ratio to determine the necessary insulin dose. This method is particularly useful for those who inject insulin with each meal or use an insulin pump. While foods with a low glycaemic index can help manage glucose levels in Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus, there is less evidence for Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. Carbohydrate counting doesn’t mean total freedom to eat whatever one wishes, as food excesses are unhealthy for anyone. However, most ready meals indicate the amount of carbohydrate on the food label, making carbohydrate counting easier. It is important for adult patients with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus to receive advice on issues beyond blood glucose control, such as weight control and cardiovascular risk management, and to increase the amount of fiber in their diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      45.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old nulliparous lady presents with a discharging left nipple for the last...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old nulliparous lady presents with a discharging left nipple for the last two weeks. She takes off her bra to show you and there is a small amount of staining of the inside of the bra. She squeezes the nipple and you see a small amount of blood stained mucoid discharge leak from the duct at 6 o'clock.

      You examine her and there is no mass palpable, nor is there any pain. There are no cervical or axillary lymph nodes and she appears otherwise well.

      What should you do?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently to breast clinic

      Explanation:

      Management of Unilateral Spontaneous Bloody Nipple Discharge

      When a patient presents with unilateral spontaneous bloody nipple discharge, it is important to rule out breast cancer before assuming it is duct ectasia. Reassuring the patient without proper investigation is inappropriate. Prescribing antibiotics or sending a sample for culture without evidence of cellulitis can delay a diagnosis and is not the correct management. Advising the patient to express the discharge again is also inappropriate.

      If a non-lactational abscess is suspected, it is best to refer the patient to the emergency department for proper drainage. However, if infection is less likely, an urgent referral for suspected cancer is appropriate. According to NICE guidelines, patients aged 50 and over with any symptoms in one nipple only, such as discharge, retraction, or other changes of concern, should be referred for an appointment within 2 weeks. However, regardless of age, a patient presenting with unilateral spontaneous bloody discharge should have an urgent referral.

      In summary, proper investigation and referral are crucial in managing unilateral spontaneous bloody nipple discharge to ensure timely diagnosis and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      302.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old woman has been referred to the hospital with several asymmetrically distributed...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has been referred to the hospital with several asymmetrically distributed patches of what was thought to be eczema on the buttocks and trunk. However, there was only minimal improvement with potent topical corticosteroids. The diagnosis after a biopsy is mycosis fungoides.
      Which of the following best describes mycosis fungoides?

      Your Answer: A fungal rash

      Correct Answer: Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Understanding Mycosis Fungoides: A Type of Cutaneous T-Cell Lymphoma

      Mycosis fungoides, also known as cutaneous T-cell lymphoma, is a type of lymphoma that primarily affects the skin. It is the most common form of cutaneous lymphoma and typically presents with eczematous or dermatitis skin lesions that can persist for years before a diagnosis is confirmed.

      This disease is more common in men and black people, with a median age of onset around 50 years. The lymphoma first appears as superficial skin lesions that thicken and eventually ulcerate. In advanced stages, it can involve lymph nodes and other organs.

      Patients with stage IA disease who undergo treatment have a normal life expectancy. However, the median survival is 11 years for patients with more extensive patch and/or plaque (stage IB or IIA) and less for those with advanced disease.

      It is important to note that mycosis fungoides is not a fungal infection, despite its misleading name. It is also distinct from cutaneous B-cell lymphoma, which has a different growth pattern and presentation.

      Overall, understanding mycosis fungoides is crucial for early diagnosis and effective treatment of this type of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      36.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old primiparous woman is brought to the General Practice surgery by her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old primiparous woman is brought to the General Practice surgery by her concerned partner. She delivered a healthy baby born seven days ago.
      Within two days of delivery, she told her husband that she thought he was poisoning her food. She thinks someone is watching her and they want to take her baby away. She has heard voices telling her she doesn't deserve to have a family. She has not had a bath in six days.
      Which is the most appropriate intervention?

      Your Answer: Refer to secondary Mental Health services for urgent assessment within seven days

      Correct Answer: Refer to secondary Mental Health services for immediate assessment within four hours

      Explanation:

      Management of Postnatal Psychosis

      Postnatal psychosis is a serious mental health condition that requires urgent assessment and management. It is characterized by positive symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions, as well as negative symptoms like emotional apathy and social withdrawal. The recommended treatment for postnatal psychosis is cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), which can help manage depression and other symptoms. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) like sertraline are not typically used to treat postnatal psychosis. Midwives can provide additional support for women experiencing postnatal depression, but urgent referral to secondary mental health services is necessary for those with postnatal psychosis. Immediate assessment within four hours is recommended for those with severe symptoms, while urgent assessment within seven days is necessary for those with less severe symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      98.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 68-year-old non-smoker complains of bone pain, constipation and malaise. Initial tests show...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old non-smoker complains of bone pain, constipation and malaise. Initial tests show an increased serum calcium level. The physical examination is unremarkable. What is the most beneficial tumour marker investigation for this patient? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer: Cancer antigen 19-9 (CA 19-9)

      Correct Answer: Prostate specific antigen (PSA)

      Explanation:

      Tumour Markers and their Clinical Applications

      Monoclonal antibodies are utilized to detect serum antigens associated with specific malignancies. These tumour markers are most useful for monitoring response to therapy and detecting early relapse. However, with the exception of PSA, tumour markers do not have sufficient sensitivity or specificity for use in screening.

      PSA, or prostate specific antigen, is a useful marker for screening for prostate cancer, although population screening is controversial. It can also be used to detect recurrence of the malignancy and is useful in the investigation of adenocarcinoma of unknown primary. Hypercalcaemia and bone pain may suggest metastatic carcinoma, which is common in prostate cancer.

      CA 19-9, AFP, beta-HCG, and CEA are other tumour markers that are used for different types of cancer. CA 19-9 is helpful in establishing the nature of pancreatic masses, AFP is a marker for hepatocellular carcinoma, beta-HCG is used in the diagnosis and management of gestational trophoblastic disease and non-seminomatous germ-cell tumours of the testes, and CEA is used to detect relapse of colorectal cancer.

      In conclusion, tumour markers have various clinical applications in the diagnosis, treatment, and monitoring of cancer. However, their sensitivity and specificity may vary, and they should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tools for accurate diagnosis and management of cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      25.5
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  • Question 7 - You are a GP working in general practice. Aisha is a 3-year-old girl...

    Correct

    • You are a GP working in general practice. Aisha is a 3-year-old girl who is seen on your emergency list with her dad. She has a three-day history of runny nose, dry cough and a low-grade fever. During the examination, you observe a palpable abdominal mass. The rest of her examination is normal.

      What would be your next course of action?

      Your Answer: Urgent referral to paediatrics (within 48 hours)

      Explanation:

      Wilms’ Tumour: A Common Childhood Malignancy

      Wilms’ tumour, also known as nephroblastoma, is a prevalent type of cancer in children, with a median age of diagnosis at 3 years old. It is often associated with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome, hemihypertrophy, and a loss-of-function mutation in the WT1 gene on chromosome 11. The most common presenting feature is an abdominal mass, which is usually painless, but other symptoms such as haematuria, flank pain, anorexia, and fever may also occur. In 95% of cases, the tumour is unilateral, and metastases are found in 20% of patients, most commonly in the lungs.

      If a child presents with an unexplained enlarged abdominal mass, it is crucial to arrange a paediatric review within 48 hours to rule out Wilms’ tumour. The management of this cancer typically involves nephrectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy if the disease is advanced. Fortunately, the prognosis for Wilms’ tumour is good, with an 80% cure rate.

      Histologically, Wilms’ tumour is characterized by epithelial tubules, areas of necrosis, immature glomerular structures, stroma with spindle cells, and small cell blastomatous tissues resembling the metanephric blastema. Overall, early detection and prompt treatment are essential for a successful outcome in children with Wilms’ tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      55.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A mother brings in her 5-year-old son, who has developed an itchy, red...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings in her 5-year-old son, who has developed an itchy, red rash over the last few weeks which has been gradually worsening. It is mostly affecting the flexures and the face. The child’s mother suffers from atopic eczema and suspects that this is the problem with her son’s skin.
      What is the most appropriate management option in the treatment of atopic eczema in children?

      Your Answer: Only mildly potent corticosteroids should be used

      Correct Answer: Emollients should be continued after the eczema clears

      Explanation:

      Best Practices for Managing Eczema: Key Recommendations

      Eczema is a chronic skin condition that can cause significant discomfort and distress. While there is no cure for eczema, there are several strategies that can help manage symptoms and reduce the frequency of flare-ups. Here are some key recommendations for managing eczema:

      1. Emollients should be continued after the eczema clears: Using emollients frequently can help reduce the frequency of flare-ups and the need for steroid treatment.

      2. Only mildly potent corticosteroids should be used: While both mildly and moderately potent topical steroids can be used in children if needed for short courses, very potent preparations should only be used under specialist guidance.

      3. Antihistamines should not be prescribed routinely: While antihistamines may provide some relief from itching, they are not recommended for routine use in the management of eczema.

      4. Oral antibiotics should only be used when necessary: Antibiotics are only indicated where there is clinical suspicion of superimposed bacterial infection.

      5. Topical tacrolimus should be used as a second-line treatment: Topical tacrolimus should only be used in cases that are not controlled with maximum corticosteroid therapy, or where there is high risk of side-effects from steroid use.

      By following these recommendations, patients with eczema can better manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      32.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 56-year-old patient has been attending a nurse-led epilepsy clinic to monitor the...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old patient has been attending a nurse-led epilepsy clinic to monitor the withdrawal of her epilepsy medication. She is a group 1 driver and has been free from seizures for over a year whilst taking medication and investigations have not revealed any underlying causes for ongoing seizures.
      During the process of withdrawal, for how long should she avoid driving?

      Your Answer: Whilst anti-epilepsy medication is being withdrawn and for 12 months after the last dose

      Explanation:

      Driving and Epilepsy Medication

      Individuals who are taking anti-epilepsy medication should not drive while the medication is being withdrawn and for six months after the last dose. If a seizure occurs due to a physician-directed reduction or change in medication, the epilepsy regulations require that the driver’s license be revoked for 12 months. However, if the previously effective medication is reinstated for at least six months and the driver remains seizure-free for at least six months, earlier relicensing may be considered. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety of both the driver and others on the road.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      78.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You see a 65-year-old gentleman who you have recently diagnosed with heart failure...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 65-year-old gentleman who you have recently diagnosed with heart failure and an ejection fraction of 35%. You have titrated him up to the maximum dose of ACE-I and his renal function, sodium and potassium have all remained within normal limits for the past three months.

      According to NICE, how often should he now have his treatment monitored?

      Your Answer: Every 3 months

      Correct Answer: No further monitoring required

      Explanation:

      Monitoring ACE-I Treatment

      According to NICE guidelines, it is recommended to monitor ACE-I treatment every 6 months once the maximum tolerated dose has been reached. This ensures that the treatment is still effective and that any potential side effects are identified and managed promptly. Additionally, it is important to review the treatment if the person becomes acutely unwell. This allows for adjustments to be made to the treatment plan as needed. Regular monitoring and review of ACE-I treatment can help improve patient outcomes and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      53.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 40-year-old woman is HIV positive and takes antiretroviral therapy. What should she...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman is HIV positive and takes antiretroviral therapy. What should she be offered annually in primary care?

      Your Answer: All of the options listed

      Explanation:

      Managing HIV in Primary Care: Guidelines and Considerations

      Patients with HIV are at an increased risk of cardiovascular disease, and antiretroviral therapy can further increase the risk of diabetes and dyslipidaemia. Women with HIV are also more susceptible to human papillomavirus-related diseases and should undergo annual cervical screening. To ensure good sexual health and maintain protective sexual behavior, patients should have access to staff trained to carry out a sexual history and sexual health assessment, as well as counseling and support. Additionally, patients should be offered a full sexual health screen annually. Despite concerns about contraindications, the influenza vaccine is safe for patients with HIV as it is an inactivated virus. These guidelines aim to support primary care teams in managing the unique considerations and risks associated with HIV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      65.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A rare disease occurs quite randomly in 1 in 10000 of the population....

    Incorrect

    • A rare disease occurs quite randomly in 1 in 10000 of the population. A test has been developed for this disease that has a sensitivity of 99% and a specificity of 99%. A patient who is 50 years old has the test and the result is positive.
      Given this positive test, which of the following is the approximate likelihood of this patient having the disease?

      Your Answer: 0.09

      Correct Answer: 0.01

      Explanation:

      Understanding Positive Predictive Value in Disease Testing

      Positive predictive value (PPV) is the likelihood that a person who tests positive for a disease truly has the disease. PPV depends on the prevalence of the disease in the population. For rare diseases, like the one in question, the PPV is low. For example, if 1 million people were tested, only about 100 would have the disease and 99 of those would be correctly diagnosed (99% sensitivity). However, about 9999 of the 999,900 people without the disease would falsely test positive (99% specificity). Therefore, the PPV would be approximately 0.0098 or <1%. The likelihood of a randomly selected person having the disease before testing is 0.0001, as the prevalence is 1 in 10,000. Sensitivity and specificity do not determine PPV. A higher prevalence of the disease in the population would result in a higher PPV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      1357.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Your next appointment is with a 48-year-old man. He has come for the...

    Incorrect

    • Your next appointment is with a 48-year-old man. He has come for the results of his ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM). This was arranged as a clinic reading one month ago was noted to be 150/94 mmHg. The results of the ABPM show an average reading of 130/80 mmHg. What is the most suitable plan of action?

      Your Answer: Make the final decision based on a clinic blood pressure reading today

      Correct Answer: Offer to measure the patient's blood pressure at least every 5 years

      Explanation:

      If the ABPM indicates an average blood pressure below the threshold, NICE suggests conducting blood pressure measurements on the patient every 5 years.

      NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.

      To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.

      If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.

      ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.

      Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      72.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 51-year-old man with poorly controlled diabetes presents to his General Practitioner with...

    Correct

    • A 51-year-old man with poorly controlled diabetes presents to his General Practitioner with periorbital and pedal oedema and ‘frothy urine'. A urine dipstick is positive for protein.
      Which of the following is the most characteristic finding you could expect from a blood test in this patient?

      Your Answer: Increased serum cholesterol

      Explanation:

      Understanding Abnormal Lab Results in Nephrotic Syndrome

      Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by excessive protein loss in the urine, leading to hypoalbuminemia and edema. Abnormal lipid metabolism is common in patients with renal disease, particularly in nephrotic syndrome. This can result in marked elevations in the plasma levels of cholesterol, LDL, triglycerides, and lipoprotein A. However, fibrinogen levels tend to be increased rather than decreased in nephrotic syndrome. Hypocalcemia is also more common in patients with nephrotic syndrome due to loss of 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 in the urine. The ESR is typically elevated in patients with nephrotic syndrome or end-stage renal disease. It is important to understand these abnormal lab results in order to properly diagnose and manage nephrotic syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      122.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A study is being planned to investigate the association between environmental exposure to...

    Incorrect

    • A study is being planned to investigate the association between environmental exposure to pesticides and the incidence of cancer in elderly individuals. The researchers have limited funding for the study and need to keep the length and cost of the trial to a minimum.
      What is the most appropriate study design?

      Your Answer: Case series

      Correct Answer: Case-control study

      Explanation:

      Different Study Designs and Their Suitability for Investigating Pesticide Exposure and Cancer Risk

      When investigating the potential link between pesticide exposure and cancer risk, various study designs can be used. A case-control study involves comparing the history of pesticide exposure in a group of cancer patients (cases) with that in a group of individuals without cancer (controls). This design is useful for answering the study question without the need for a long and expensive follow-up.

      A cohort study, on the other hand, involves following up on an entire population over time, measuring exposure to pesticides and observing the incidence of cancer. While this design can provide valuable information, it is likely to be time-consuming and costly.

      A case series involves studying a group of cancer patients with a history of pesticide exposure, but this design provides a low level of evidence.

      A cross-sectional survey involves looking at data from a population at a specific point in time, providing information on the prevalence of a condition but not the incidence.

      Finally, a randomized controlled trial, which is considered the gold standard study design, is not suitable for investigating the link between pesticide exposure and cancer risk as it would be neither practical nor ethical to expose subjects to pesticides.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      36.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 65-year-old comes in with back pain that radiates to the left leg....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old comes in with back pain that radiates to the left leg. The patient reports decreased sensation over the lateral aspect of the left calf and lateral foot. Which nerve roots are likely affected in this case?

      Your Answer: S1-S3

      Correct Answer: S1-S2

      Explanation:

      Understanding L5 and S1 Radiculopathy

      L5 radiculopathy is the most common type of radiculopathy that affects the lumbosacral spine. It is characterized by back pain that radiates down the lateral aspect of the leg and into the foot. On the other hand, S1 radiculopathy presents with pain that radiates down the posterior aspect of the leg and into the foot from the back.

      When examining a patient with L5 radiculopathy, weakness may be observed in leg extension (gluteus maximus), foot eversion, plantar flexion, and toe flexion. Sensation is also reduced on the lateral foot and posterior aspect of the leg. Meanwhile, patients with S1 radiculopathy may exhibit weakness in foot plantar flexion and toe flexion. Sensation is generally reduced on the posterior aspect of the leg and the lateral foot.

      Understanding the differences between L5 and S1 radiculopathy is crucial in diagnosing and treating these conditions. Proper diagnosis and management can help alleviate symptoms and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      66.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 5-year-old boy presents with his first febrile convulsion.

    Which of the following is...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old boy presents with his first febrile convulsion.

      Which of the following is appropriate information for his parents?

      Your Answer: Most cases happen between 6 months and 3 years of age

      Explanation:

      Febrile Convulsions: A Common Occurrence in Young Children

      Febrile convulsions are a relatively common occurrence in young children, with a prevalence of 5% between the ages of 6 months and 5 years. Clinical experience has shown that most of these convulsions occur before the age of three. The convulsions are typically tonic-clonic in nature, and most children (75%) will only experience one seizure. A strong family history of febrile seizures is the most important factor in predicting whether a child will develop further seizures.

      Fortunately, epilepsy develops in only approximately 2% of children who experience febrile convulsions. After the first seizure, no treatment is required other than symptomatic care. It is important for parents and caregivers to be aware of the signs and symptoms of febrile convulsions and to seek medical attention if they occur. With proper management and care, most children will recover fully from febrile convulsions without any long-term effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      1302.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 25 year old male smoker presents with multiple, painful aphthous ulcers, he...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old male smoker presents with multiple, painful aphthous ulcers, he puts this down to stress at work. He only gets ulcers on his tongue and oral mucosa. He is otherwise well. He has never had any joint or bowel symptoms. He reports several previous episodes similar to this one, with painful oral ulceration lasting a week or two, dating back to when he was a teenager.

      What signs or symptoms should prompt an immediate referral to secondary care for this 25 year old male smoker with recurrent painful oral ulcers?

      Your Answer: No response to topical corticosteroids

      Correct Answer: Unexplained red and white patches of the oral mucosa that are painful, swollen, or bleeding

      Explanation:

      To identify potential oral ulceration red flags, one should look out for unexplained ulcers or masses in the oral mucosa that persist for more than three weeks, as well as red and white patches that are painful, swollen, or bleeding. If symptoms or signs related to the oral cavity persist for more than six weeks and a definitive diagnosis of a benign lesion cannot be made, this is also a red flag. While being a smoker is a risk factor for aphthous ulcers, first onset over the age of 30 is atypical and may warrant consideration of an alternative cause, such as trauma to the mouth. However, it is not necessarily an indication for referral. It is important to note that not all ulcers respond to corticosteroids, but if an ulcer has persisted for more than three weeks, an urgent referral is necessary as prolonged ulceration could be indicative of malignancy.

      Aphthous mouth ulcers are painful sores that are circular or oval in shape and are found only in the mouth. They are not associated with any systemic disease and often occur repeatedly, usually starting in childhood. These ulcers can be caused by damage to the mouth, such as biting the cheek or brushing too hard, or may be due to a genetic predisposition. Other factors that can trigger these ulcers include stress, certain foods, stopping smoking, and hormonal changes related to the menstrual cycle.

      Aphthous ulcers are characterized by their round or oval shape, a clearly defined margin, a yellowish-grey slough on the floor, and a red periphery. They usually appear on non-keratinized mucosal surfaces, such as the inside of the lips, cheeks, floor of the mouth, or undersurface of the tongue. In most cases, investigations are not necessary, but they may be considered if an underlying systemic disease is suspected.

      Treatment for aphthous ulcers involves avoiding any factors that may trigger them and providing symptomatic relief for pain, discomfort, and swelling. This may include using a low potency topical corticosteroid, an antimicrobial mouthwash, or a topical analgesic. Most ulcers will heal within two weeks without leaving any scars. However, if a mouth ulcer persists for more than three weeks, it is important to seek urgent referral to a specialist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      102.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 21-year-old man is worried about having asthma. What factor in his medical...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man is worried about having asthma. What factor in his medical history would decrease the likelihood of this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Smoking since age of 16 years

      Correct Answer: Peripheral tingling during episodes of dyspnoea

      Explanation:

      According to the British Thoracic Society, if a patient experiences peripheral tingling, it is less likely that they have asthma. However, the patient’s smoking history doesn’t rule out asthma as a diagnosis, and given his age, it is highly unlikely that he has COPD.

      Asthma diagnosis has been updated by NICE guidelines in 2017, which emphasizes the use of objective tests rather than subjective/clinical judgments. The guidance recommends the use of fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) test, which measures the level of nitric oxide produced by inflammatory cells, particularly eosinophils. Other established objective tests such as spirometry and peak flow variability are still important. All patients aged five and above should have objective tests to confirm the diagnosis. For patients aged 17 and above, spirometry with a bronchodilator reversibility (BDR) test and FeNO test should be performed. For children aged 5-16, spirometry with a BDR test and FeNO test should be requested if there is normal spirometry or obstructive spirometry with a negative BDR test. For patients under five years old, diagnosis should be made based on clinical judgment. The specific points about the tests include a FeNO level of >= 40 ppb for adults and >= 35 ppb for children considered positive, and a FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70% or below the lower limit of normal considered obstructive for spirometry. A positive reversibility test is indicated by an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more and an increase in volume of 200 ml or more for adults, and an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more for children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      4597.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 29-year-old, Afro-Caribbean woman was offered an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) to...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old, Afro-Caribbean woman was offered an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) to screen for gestational diabetes at 24 weeks gestation. She contacts you to discuss the outcome of her OGTT exam.

      What result indicates a diagnosis in accordance with NICE recommendations?

      Your Answer: A fasting glucose of 5.4 mmol/L and a 2-hour glucose of 7.6 mmol/L

      Correct Answer: A fasting glucose of 4.8 mmol/L and a 2-hour glucose of 7.8 mmol/L

      Explanation:

      To diagnose gestational diabetes, the fasting glucose level should be equal to or greater than 5.6 mmol/L or the 2-hour glucose level should be equal to or greater than 7.8 mmol/L. According to NICE guidance, either of these criteria can be used for OGTT diagnosis. Therefore, the correct diagnosis would be a fasting glucose level of 4.8 mmol/L and a 2-hour glucose level of 7.8 mmol/L. The other options are incorrect as they do not meet the diagnostic threshold, and NICE doesn’t consider 1-hour glucose results in their criteria. It is worth noting that SIGN guidance has different diagnostic criteria.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.

      To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.

      For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.

      Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      22.2
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  • Question 21 - A 50-year-old woman presents with jaundice and itching.
    Which of the following results would...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with jaundice and itching.
      Which of the following results would most strongly support the diagnosis of primary biliary cholangitis?

      Your Answer: Antimitochondrial antibodies

      Explanation:

      Understanding Primary Biliary Cholangitis: Diagnostic Tests and Markers

      Primary biliary cholangitis is an autoimmune disease that affects the biliary system, causing intrahepatic cholestasis and leading to cell damage, fibrosis, and cirrhosis. While there is no single definitive test for this condition, several markers can help diagnose and monitor it.

      Antimitochondrial antibodies are present in 90-95% of individuals with primary biliary cholangitis, but are only found in 0.5% of normal controls. Anti-smooth muscle antibodies are also nonspecific, as they can be positive in connective tissue disease and chronic infections. Similarly, around 35% of patients with primary biliary cholangitis have positive antinuclear antibodies, but this is not specific to the condition.

      Elevated levels of alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST) are common in primary biliary cholangitis, but significant elevations of alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and γ-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) are usually more prominent. Additionally, a polyclonal increase in IgM (sometimes associated with elevated IgG) is typical but not specific to this condition.

      Overall, a combination of these diagnostic tests and markers can help identify and monitor primary biliary cholangitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      66.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Sophie, who is interested in starting the copper coil for contraception, approaches you....

    Incorrect

    • Sophie, who is interested in starting the copper coil for contraception, approaches you. She is on day 12 of her menstrual cycle and is currently relying on condoms for protection. Sophie assures you that there is no possibility of her being pregnant. She wants to know if she needs to use additional protection if she gets the copper coil inserted today, and if so, for how long?

      Your Answer: She should use extra protection for 2 days

      Correct Answer: No extra protection needed

      Explanation:

      As the copper coil provides immediate effectiveness, there is no need for additional protection.

      New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      194
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 32-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner for a consultation. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner for a consultation. He has been diagnosed with Raynaud's phenomenon and is struggling to manage the symptoms during the colder months. He asks if there are any medications that could help alleviate his condition.
      Which of the following drugs has the strongest evidence to support its effectiveness in improving this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Correct Answer: Nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Raynaud’s Phenomenon

      Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition that causes the blood vessels in the fingers and toes to narrow, leading to reduced blood flow and pain. The most commonly used drug for treatment is nifedipine, which causes vasodilatation and reduces the number and severity of attacks. However, patients may experience side-effects such as hypotension, flushing, headache, and tachycardia.

      For those who cannot tolerate nifedipine, other agents such as nicardipine, amlodipine, or diltiazem can be tried. Limited evidence suggests that angiotensin receptor-blockers, fluoxetine, and topical nitrates may also provide some benefit. However, there is no evidence to support the use of antiplatelet agents.

      In secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon, management of the underlying cause may help alleviate symptoms. Treatment options are similar to primary Raynaud’s phenomenon, with the addition of the prostacyclin analogue iloprost, which has shown to be effective in systemic sclerosis.

      Overall, treatment options for Raynaud’s phenomenon aim to improve blood flow and reduce the frequency and severity of attacks. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to find the most effective treatment plan for each individual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      5993.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 30-year-old man presents with a headache. He has never experienced significant headaches...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents with a headache. He has never experienced significant headaches before but developed this one about a week ago.

      He describes a vague headache on the left side of his head, starting above his left eye and extending to the parietal area. The headache has been fairly constant, and he has taken paracetamol and ibuprofen, which have only provided slight relief and have not significantly reduced the pain.

      There is no history of vomiting, drowsiness, loss of consciousness, seizures, postural related headache, or tinnitus. There are no mental or cognitive changes.

      On clinical examination, all cranial nerves are normal, and there is no focal limb neurological deficit or cerebellar signs. ENT examination is normal, and there is no scalp or temporal tenderness. There is no neck stiffness or restriction of neck movements. Observations, including blood pressure and temperature, are normal, and there is no anxiety, depression, or psychological upset.

      Despite the lack of a clear cause for this new headache, which of the following statements is true regarding papilloedema?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The absence of papilloedema rules out the presence of a brain tumour

      Explanation:

      Importance of Fundal Examination in Headache Assessment

      Fundal examination is a crucial part of headache assessment, particularly in cases of new and unexplained headaches. It helps to check for papilloedema, which may indicate raised intracranial pressure and requires urgent action, even in the absence of other symptoms or normal examination results. However, the absence of papilloedema doesn’t rule out the possibility of a brain tumor, and papilloedema is not always a sign of a brain tumor.

      According to the latest NICE guidelines, the predictive value of symptoms is more important than clinical signs in referring patients for suspected cancer. However, they recommend an urgent direct access MRI scan of the brain (or CT scan if MRI is contraindicated) within two weeks for adults with progressive, subacute loss of central neurological function. This is to assess for brain or central nervous system cancer and to speed up the diagnostic process for patients with a tumor.

      Some GPs may have direct access to MRI, while others may need to coordinate with secondary care colleagues through locally arranged pathways. Regardless of the means of acquiring an MRI, the finding of papilloedema warrants urgent MRI, regardless of other factors in the history or examination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - You are tasked with completing a death certificate for an 85-year-old patient under...

    Incorrect

    • You are tasked with completing a death certificate for an 85-year-old patient under your care. She passed away yesterday due to pneumonia at home, following a joint decision made by her family and medical team not to admit her to the hospital for further treatment. The patient had a history of dementia and osteoporosis, and you had last assessed her two days prior.

      The patient had recently undergone surgery for a fractured neck of femur, which she sustained after tripping on a step at home. Although her surgery had been successful and she had been recovering well, she began experiencing respiratory symptoms shortly after being discharged from the hospital. What is the appropriate course of action regarding the completion of the death certificate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Speak to the coroner

      Explanation:

      It is probable that the patient passed away due to the initial fall, which necessitates referral to the coroner as per the guidance that mandates all deaths related to injury or poisoning.

      Death Certification in the UK

      There are no legal definitions of death in the UK, but guidelines exist to verify it. According to the current guidance, a doctor or other qualified personnel should verify death, and nurse practitioners may verify but not certify it. After a patient has died, a doctor needs to complete a medical certificate of cause of death (MCCD). However, there is a list of circumstances in which a doctor should notify the Coroner before completing the MCCD.

      When completing the MCCD, it is important to note that old age as 1a is only acceptable if the patient was at least 80 years old. Natural causes is not acceptable, and organ failure can only be used if the disease or condition that led to the organ failure is specified. Abbreviations should be avoided, except for HIV and AIDS.

      Once the MCCD is completed, the family takes it to the local Registrar of Births, Deaths, and Marriages office to register the death. If the Registrar decides that the death doesn’t need reporting to the Coroner, he/she will issue a certificate for Burial or Cremation and a certificate of Registration of Death for Social Security purposes. Copies of the Death Register are also available upon request, which banks and insurance companies expect to see. If the family wants the burial to be outside of England, an Out of England Order is needed from the coroner.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      0
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  • Question 26 - An 83-year-old man presents to your clinic complaining of breathlessness. He reports that...

    Incorrect

    • An 83-year-old man presents to your clinic complaining of breathlessness. He reports that a year ago he was able to do his gardening and play a round of golf, but in recent months he has been limited by breathlessness. He notes that the breathlessness settles with rest and denies any cough or chest pain. He doesn't take any prescribed medication but reports taking ibuprofen from the supermarket for his knees. He has a history of osteoarthritis of the knees and occasional gout.

      Upon examination, the patient appears well but mildly out of breath upon entering the room. His pulse is 86 bpm in sinus rhythm, and his blood pressure is 130/70 mmHg. Peak flow is 470 L/min, and heart sounds are normal. Chest auscultation reveals bilateral basal end-inspiratory crackles, and there is mild bilateral pitting edema to mid-shin.

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Measure serum natriuretic peptide

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Symptoms of Heart Failure

      This patient is presenting with symptoms and signs of heart failure, which could have occurred de novo or been exacerbated by the non-steroidals he has been taking for his knees. While a pulmonary embolus, asthma, or COPD could also be potential causes, the lack of certain symptoms and signs make heart failure the most likely diagnosis.

      To confirm this, the next step would be to measure serum natriuretic peptides. Checking spirometry is not incorrect, but it would not be the most appropriate next step. D-dimers and cardiac troponin are not appropriate investigations for heart failure, and there is no indication for emergency admission based on the information given in this scenario.

      In addition to natriuretic peptide, further tests would include a 12-lead ECG, chest x-ray, urea and electrolytes, creatinine, full blood count, thyroid function, liver function, glucose, lipids, and urinalysis. These tests will help to rule out other potential causes and guide further management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 55-year-old gentleman has uncontrolled hypertension. He is currently taking a calcium antagonist...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old gentleman has uncontrolled hypertension. He is currently taking a calcium antagonist and an ACE inhibitor.

      His U&Es are shown below. You would like to start a diuretic.
      Serum sodium 140 mmol/L (137-144)
      Serum potassium 4.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      Urea 5.0 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      Creatinine 60 µmol/L (60-110)

      According to the latest NICE guidance, which one would be your first choice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydrochlorothiazide

      Explanation:

      Navigating NICE Guidelines on Hypertension

      The management of hypertension is a crucial topic for general practitioners, and it is likely to be tested in various areas of the MRCGP exam, including the AKT. The most recent NICE guidelines on hypertension (NG136) recommend thiazide-like diuretics as the clear third-line choice, whereas they used to be an option first line in Afro-Caribbeans and the over 55s. However, it is important to note that this guidance has attracted criticism from some clinicians who argue that it is overcomplicated and insufficiently evidence-based, particularly regarding the use of ambulatory and home blood pressure monitoring.

      It is essential to have an awareness of this and maintain a balanced view, not just in hypertension but also in other areas of medicine. While NICE guidance is significant, there are other guidelines, and it is not without its criticism. It is unlikely that AKT questions will contradict NICE guidance, but it is crucial to bear in mind the bigger picture and remember that the college tests your knowledge of national guidance and consensus opinion, not just the latest NICE guidance.

      It is worth noting that if a patient is already taking bendroflumethiazide or hydrochlorothiazide, these agents should not be routinely changed. Indapamide and chlorthalidone are now recognized as the first-line agents over the latter two agents. All these medications are diuretics, and this man is already taking a calcium channel blocker and an ACE inhibitor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
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  • Question 28 - A father brings in his seven-month-old daughter who has been fussy lately and...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings in his seven-month-old daughter who has been fussy lately and he suspects she may be teething. He has been using over-the-counter pain relief and giving her teething rings to chew on, but he is worried that she may need additional treatment.

      Upon examination, the baby is found to have normal vital signs and no fever, and the diagnosis of teething is confirmed.

      What would be the best course of action at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure the mother and tell her to continue existing treatments

      Explanation:

      It is not recommended to prescribe oral choline salicylate gels to teething children as it may increase the risk of Reye’s syndrome. However, in this case, reassurance is appropriate as the child’s symptoms are mild and self-limiting. Simple measures such as allowing the child to bite on a cool, clean object and administering paracetamol/ibuprofen suspension for those aged three months and older can be helpful. It is not recommended to use topical anaesthetics or herbal teething powders as they may have adverse effects.

      Teething: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment Options

      Teething is the process of primary tooth eruption in infants, which typically begins around 6 months of age and is usually complete by 30 months of age. It is characterized by a subacute onset of symptoms, including gingival irritation, parent-reported irritability, and excessive drooling. These symptoms occur in approximately 70% of all children and are equally prevalent in boys and girls, although girls tend to develop their teeth sooner than boys.

      During examination, teeth can typically be felt below the surface of the gums prior to breaking through, and gingival erythema will be noted around the site of early tooth eruption. Treatment options include chewable teething rings and simple analgesia with paracetamol or ibuprofen. However, topical analgesics or numbing agents are not recommended, and oral choline salicylate gels should not be prescribed due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome.

      It is important to note that teething doesn’t cause systemic symptoms such as fevers or diarrhea, and these symptoms should be treated as warning signs of other systemic illness. Additionally, teething necklaces made from amber beads on a cord are a common naturopathic treatment for teething symptoms but represent a significant strangulation and choking hazard. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid their use.

      In conclusion, teething is a clinical diagnosis that can be managed with simple interventions. However, it is essential to be aware of potential hazards and to seek medical attention if systemic symptoms are present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0
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  • Question 29 - A 9-month-old baby is brought to the emergency department by her parents. They...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old baby is brought to the emergency department by her parents. They report that she has been experiencing a runny nose and cough for the past few days and has been more irritable than usual. The baby was born at full term and has no significant medical history.

      According to the parents, the baby has been refusing to eat but is managing to drink with encouragement. Upon examination, the baby's temperature is 37.7°C, and there are no signs of chest wall recession, nasal flaring, or grunting. The respiratory rate is 48/minute, and auscultation of the chest reveals fine inspiratory crackles and a slight high-pitched wheeze heard throughout both lung fields. Oxygen saturations are 97% in room air.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treat with paracetamol PRN and simple advice on symptom control

      Explanation:

      Managing Bronchiolitis in Babies

      Bronchiolitis is a common respiratory illness in babies that can usually be managed in the community. However, certain factors indicate more severe disease and require immediate hospital admission. These include reduced feeding, lethargy, history of apnoea, high respiratory rate, respiratory distress, cyanosis, and persistent low oxygen saturation. Babies under 3 months of age and those born prematurely should be closely monitored and may require admission at a lower threshold.

      In cases where there are no worrying features, community treatment is appropriate. Parents should be given advice on how to recognize deterioration and where to seek review if necessary. There is no specific treatment for bronchiolitis that can be managed in the community. Trials have shown that antibiotics, oral steroids, inhaled beta2 agonists, and nebulized ipratropium do not provide significant benefits in normal immunocompetent patients with bronchiolitis. Therefore, these treatments are not routinely recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0
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  • Question 30 - A 68-year-old female with a 12 year history of hypertension and diabetes.
    At annual...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old female with a 12 year history of hypertension and diabetes.
      At annual review her blood pressure is 138/82 mmHg, pulse 78, fundi reveal background diabetic retinopathy, foot pulses are normal but she has evidence of a peripheral sensory loss to the ankles in both feet.
      Her results show:
      HbA1c 55 mmol/mol (20-46)
      7.2% (3.8-6.4)
      Urea 12.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      eGFR 29 mL/min/1.73m2 Cholesterol 4.8 mmol/L (<5.2)
      According to the British National Formulary, which of the following medicines should be avoided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gliclazide

      Explanation:

      Caution with Metformin and Ramipril in Chronic Renal Impairment

      This patient shows signs of chronic renal impairment with elevated creatinine and urea levels. It is important to note that the British National Formulary (BNF) advises against the use of metformin if the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is less than 30mL/min/1.73m2. This is due to the potential risk of life-threatening lactic acidosis, which has a reported prevalence of one to five cases per 100,000 and a mortality rate of up to 50%.

      Metformin is excreted unchanged in the urine, and its half-life is prolonged with decreased renal clearance in proportion to any decrease in creatinine clearance. This can occur chronically in chronic renal impairment or acutely with dehydration, shock, and intravascular administration of iodinated contrast agents, all of which can alter renal function. Tissue hypoxia also plays a significant role, and acute or chronic conditions that may predispose to this condition, such as sepsis, acute myocardial infarction, pulmonary embolism, cardiac failure, and chronic liver disease, may act as triggers.

      In the case of Ramipril, the BNF advises a maximum daily dose of 5 mg if the eGFR is between 30-60 mL/minute/1.73 m2 and a maximum initial dose of 1.25 mg once daily (not exceeding 5 mg daily) if the eGFR is less than 30 mL/minute/1.73 m2. There are no such limitations with amlodipine, bisoprolol, or gliclazide. It is important to exercise caution when prescribing medications in patients with chronic renal impairment and to follow the BNF guidelines to minimize the risk of adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability (1/1) 100%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/2) 0%
Gynaecology And Breast (1/1) 100%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Mental Health (0/1) 0%
Children And Young People (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Health (1/3) 33%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (1/1) 100%
Population Health (0/1) 0%
Kidney And Urology (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal Health (0/1) 0%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Health (0/1) 0%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
End Of Life (1/1) 100%
Passmed