00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 29-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a complaint of intense itching...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a complaint of intense itching that has developed over the past few weeks. She is currently 32 weeks pregnant and has had an uncomplicated pregnancy thus far. The patient reports that the itch is particularly bothersome on her palms and soles. She denies any recent illness or fever and states that she otherwise feels well. On examination, there is no evidence of a rash. Blood tests reveal elevated levels of bilirubin, ALT, AST, and ALP. What should be discussed with the patient?

      Your Answer: Induction of labour at 37 weeks

      Explanation:

      When a pregnant woman presents with pruritus, the possibility of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy should be considered. This condition is characterized by elevated levels of bile acids and liver enzymes, and can increase the risk of stillbirth if the pregnancy continues. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy is another potential diagnosis, but it typically presents with additional symptoms such as abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. The recommended course of action is to induce labor at 37 weeks. Ursodeoxycholic acid is often used for symptom management, while dexamethasone should not be used as a first-line treatment due to concerns about its effects on the fetus. An MRCP is not necessary in this case, as the diagnosis is already supported by the patient’s history and blood test results. Elective caesarean is not an appropriate option for management.

      Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy: Symptoms and Management

      Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis, is a condition that affects approximately 1% of pregnancies in the UK. It is characterized by intense itching, particularly on the palms, soles, and abdomen, and may also result in clinically detectable jaundice in around 20% of patients. Raised bilirubin levels are seen in over 90% of cases.

      The management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy typically involves induction of labor at 37-38 weeks, although this practice may not be evidence-based. Ursodeoxycholic acid is also widely used, although the evidence base for its effectiveness is not clear. Additionally, vitamin K supplementation may be recommended.

      It is important to note that the recurrence rate of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy in subsequent pregnancies is high, ranging from 45-90%. Therefore, close monitoring and management are necessary for women who have experienced this condition in the past.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You are summoned to attend to a 26-year-old woman who is 9 weeks...

    Correct

    • You are summoned to attend to a 26-year-old woman who is 9 weeks pregnant and has arrived at the Emergency Department with complaints of heavy vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain. Her vital signs are stable and she has no fever. An ultrasound reveals that the fetal heart rate is still present and the size of the uterus is as expected. Upon examination, her cervical os is closed. How would you categorize her miscarriage?

      Your Answer: Threatened

      Explanation:

      It should be noted that a significant percentage of women who experience threatened miscarriages will ultimately miscarry. Additionally, it is crucial to consider the possibility of an ectopic pregnancy in pregnant patients who present with both pain and bleeding.

      Miscarriage is a common complication that can occur in up to 25% of all pregnancies. There are different types of miscarriage, each with its own set of symptoms and characteristics. Threatened miscarriage is painless vaginal bleeding that occurs before 24 weeks, typically at 6-9 weeks. The bleeding is usually less than menstruation, and the cervical os is closed. Missed or delayed miscarriage is when a gestational sac containing a dead fetus is present before 20 weeks, without the symptoms of expulsion. The mother may experience light vaginal bleeding or discharge, and the symptoms of pregnancy may disappear. Pain is not usually a feature, and the cervical os is closed. Inevitable miscarriage is characterized by heavy bleeding with clots and pain, and the cervical os is open. Incomplete miscarriage occurs when not all products of conception have been expelled, and there is pain and vaginal bleeding. The cervical os is open in this type of miscarriage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old patient who is currently 20 weeks pregnant presents to your clinic...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old patient who is currently 20 weeks pregnant presents to your clinic with an itchy rash on her back and legs, which began last night. She had been in contact with her nephew who was diagnosed with shingles. She is unsure if she has had chickenpox before. Upon examination, there are red spots and blisters on her back and legs. She reports feeling well and all vital signs are normal.
      What would be your next course of action?

      Your Answer: Commence an oral course of acyclovir

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women who are 20 weeks or more along and contract chickenpox should receive oral acyclovir if they seek treatment within 24 hours of the rash appearing. If a pregnant woman is exposed to chickenpox, she should contact her doctor immediately to determine if she is immune and to arrange for blood tests if necessary. If a rash appears and the woman seeks treatment within 24 hours, oral acyclovir should be administered. Oral antibiotics are not necessary as there is no evidence of secondary infection. VZIG is an option for treating pregnant women who are not immune to chickenpox, but it is not effective once a rash has appeared.

      Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral acyclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old woman from Chad complains of continuous dribbling incontinence following the birth...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman from Chad complains of continuous dribbling incontinence following the birth of her second child. She reports no other issues related to her pregnancies and is generally healthy. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Overactive bladder syndrome

      Correct Answer: Vesicovaginal fistula

      Explanation:

      If a patient has continuous dribbling incontinence after prolonged labor and comes from an area with limited obstetric services, it is important to consider the possibility of vesicovaginal fistulae.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department five days after giving birth...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department five days after giving birth without any complications. Her husband brings her in after noticing a sudden change in her behavior. He reports that she appears confused and agitated. During the mental state examination, she describes having racing thoughts, feeling depressed, and having suicidal thoughts. Additionally, she exhibits pressured speech. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Puerperal psychosis

      Explanation:

      Puerperal psychosis is a condition that manifests as a sudden onset of manic or psychotic symptoms shortly after giving birth. Any sudden change in mental state should be considered a warning sign for puerperal psychosis. On the other hand, the baby blues is a milder form of depression that typically lasts only a few days after childbirth. While postpartum depression can also involve psychosis, it usually appears within the first month after delivery. Furthermore, manic symptoms such as restlessness, racing thoughts, and pressured speech are unlikely to occur in a depressive episode.

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.

      ‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.

      Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      33.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old woman has recently delivered a baby in the labour ward. Following...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman has recently delivered a baby in the labour ward. Following the delivery, an evaluation is conducted to determine the amount of blood loss for recording purposes. The medical records indicate that she experienced a primary postpartum haemorrhage. Can you provide the accurate definition of primary postpartum haemorrhage (PPH)?

      Your Answer: The loss of 500 ml or more of blood from the genital tract within 24 hours after delivery of the placenta

      Correct Answer: The loss of 500 ml or more of blood from the genital tract within 24 hours of the birth of a baby

      Explanation:

      Maternal mortality rates are still high globally due to obstetric haemorrhage. Postpartum haemorrhage is characterized by blood loss of 500 ml after vaginal delivery, not including the placenta. If blood loss exceeds 1000mls, it is classified as major postpartum haemorrhage. It is crucial to evaluate the severity of the bleeding and seek appropriate management (as outlined below).

      Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage

      Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.

      In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.

      Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - During routine antenatal swabs, a mother is found to be colonised with Group...

    Incorrect

    • During routine antenatal swabs, a mother is found to be colonised with Group B Streptococcus. However, she did not receive adequate intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis and she delivers a healthy baby boy by vaginal delivery. Her baby does not require any resuscitation and remains well in the postnatal ward. The mother is keen to be discharged home. What is the best course of action for her child?

      Your Answer: Perform routine 6 hour post natal check and discharge with community midwife follow up.

      Correct Answer: Regular observations for 24 hours

      Explanation:

      If a mother is colonized with group B streptococcus, there is a slight risk of early onset sepsis in the newborn. If a newborn has only one minor risk factor for early onset sepsis, they should be kept in the hospital for at least 24 hours and monitored closely. If there are two or more minor risk factors or one red flag, the newborn should receive empirical antibiotic therapy with Benzylpenicillin and Gentamicin and undergo a full septic screen. Red flags include suspected or confirmed infection in another baby in the case of a multiple pregnancy, parenteral antibiotic treatment given to the woman for confirmed or suspected invasive bacterial infection during labor or in the 24-hour periods before and after birth (excluding intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis), respiratory distress starting more than 4 hours after birth, seizures, need for mechanical ventilation in a term baby, and signs of shock.

      Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is a common cause of severe infection in newborns. It is estimated that 20-40% of mothers carry GBS in their bowel flora, which can be passed on to their infants during labor and lead to serious infections. Prematurity, prolonged rupture of membranes, previous sibling GBS infection, and maternal pyrexia are all risk factors for GBS infection. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has published guidelines on GBS management, which include not offering universal screening for GBS to all women and not offering screening based on maternal request. Women who have had GBS detected in a previous pregnancy should be offered intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP) or testing in late pregnancy and antibiotics if still positive. IAP should also be offered to women with a previous baby with GBS disease, women in preterm labor, and women with a fever during labor. Benzylpenicillin is the preferred antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      37.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner four weeks after a positive...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner four weeks after a positive home pregnancy test. She has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis, generalised tonic–clonic seizures and hyperlipidaemia. Her obstetric history includes an elective termination of pregnancy at 19 weeks due to trisomy 18. She is currently taking hydroxychloroquine, phenytoin, atorvastatin and a herbal supplement. She drinks socially, consuming an average of one drink per week, and does not smoke. On physical examination, no abnormalities are noted.
      Considering her medical history, which fetal complication is most likely to occur?

      Your Answer: Seizures

      Correct Answer: Hypoplastic fingernail defects

      Explanation:

      Teratogenic Effects of Medications on Fetal Development

      Certain medications can have harmful effects on fetal development, leading to birth defects and other medical conditions. Phenytoin and carbamazepine, commonly used to treat seizures, are known to cause fetal hydantoin syndrome, which can result in intrauterine growth restriction, microcephaly, cleft lip/palate, intellectual disability, hypoplastic fingernails, distal limb deformities, and developmental delay. Meningomyelocele, a neural tube defect, can be associated with valproic acid use and folate deficiency. Omphalocele, an abdominal wall defect, is linked to chromosomal abnormalities but not medication use. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia can lead to pulmonary hypoplasia and pulmonary hypertension, but it is not caused by phenytoin use. While phenytoin and carbamazepine are used to treat seizures, they do not typically cause seizures in infants exposed to the drugs in utero. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of medication use during pregnancy to ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      44.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old woman diagnosed with gestational diabetes that was treated with a combination...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman diagnosed with gestational diabetes that was treated with a combination of metformin and insulin is on day three postpartum. Her medication has been discontinued, and she is ready to be discharged. You are asked to see her to discuss follow-up post-discharge.
      Which of the following best describes the follow-up of women with gestational diabetes?

      Your Answer: A fasting plasma glucose test should be performed every two years due to the increased risk of developing type 2 diabetes mellitus

      Correct Answer: A fasting plasma glucose test should be performed by the general practitioner (GP) at 6–13 weeks postpartum

      Explanation:

      After giving birth, women who had gestational diabetes and received medical treatment for it should have their medication stopped. Before leaving the hospital, a plasma glucose test should be done to check for persistent high blood sugar levels. Within 6-13 weeks after delivery, a fasting plasma glucose test should be performed by the GP to determine the risk of developing type 2 diabetes. Depending on the results, women may be advised on lifestyle changes or require further testing. It is important for women who had gestational diabetes to maintain healthy habits and have regular fasting blood glucose tests, as they are at an increased risk of developing type 2 diabetes. In future pregnancies, women with risk factors or a personal history of gestational diabetes should have a 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test at 24-28 weeks. In the postnatal period, a 2-hour glucose tolerance test should only be done if fasting glucose levels are abnormal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      34
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 26-year-old woman who is 25 weeks pregnant with her second child is...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman who is 25 weeks pregnant with her second child is scheduled for a blood glucose check at the antenatal clinic due to her history of gestational diabetes during her first pregnancy. After undergoing the oral glucose tolerance test, her fasting glucose level is found to be 7.2mmol/L and her 2hr glucose level is 8 mmol/L. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Correct Answer: Insulin

      Explanation:

      The correct answer for the management of gestational diabetes is insulin. If the fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/L at the time of diagnosis, insulin should be initiated. Diet and exercise/lifestyle advice alone is not sufficient for managing gestational diabetes and medication is necessary. Empagliflozin and glibenclamide are not appropriate treatments for gestational diabetes. Glibenclamide may only be considered if the patient has declined insulin.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 27-year-old woman presents to the GP clinic with complaints of abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presents to the GP clinic with complaints of abdominal pain. She missed her last menstrual period and had unprotected sexual intercourse 8 weeks ago. She denies any vaginal discharge or bleeding and has no urinary symptoms. On examination, her abdomen is soft with mild suprapubic tenderness. Her vital signs are stable with a heart rate of 72 beats per minute and blood pressure of 118/78 mmHg. A pregnancy test is performed and comes back positive. As per the current NICE CKS guidelines, what is the next appropriate step in management?

      Your Answer: Refer for an urgent outpatient transvaginal ultrasound scan this week

      Correct Answer: Arrange immediate referral to the early pregnancy assessment unit

      Explanation:

      Women with a positive pregnancy test and abdominal, pelvic or cervical motion tenderness should be referred for immediate assessment to exclude ectopic pregnancy, which could be fatal. Referral should be made even if an ultrasound cannot be arranged immediately, as the patient may require monitoring in hospital before their scan. Serial hCG measurements should not be done in secondary care, and referral to a sexual health clinic alone is not appropriate.

      Bleeding in the First Trimester: Understanding the Causes and Management

      Bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy is a common concern for many women. It can be caused by various factors, including miscarriage, ectopic pregnancy, implantation bleeding, cervical ectropion, vaginitis, trauma, and polyps. However, the most important cause to rule out is ectopic pregnancy, as it can be life-threatening if left untreated.

      To manage early bleeding, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2019. If a woman has a positive pregnancy test and experiences pain, abdominal tenderness, pelvic tenderness, or cervical motion tenderness, she should be referred immediately to an early pregnancy assessment service. If the pregnancy is over six weeks gestation or of uncertain gestation and the woman has bleeding, she should also be referred to an early pregnancy assessment service.

      A transvaginal ultrasound scan is the most important investigation to identify the location of the pregnancy and whether there is a fetal pole and heartbeat. If the pregnancy is less than six weeks gestation and the woman has bleeding but no pain or risk factors for ectopic pregnancy, she can be managed expectantly. However, she should be advised to return if bleeding continues or pain develops and to repeat a urine pregnancy test after 7-10 days and to return if it is positive. A negative pregnancy test means that the pregnancy has miscarried.

      In summary, bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy can be caused by various factors, but ectopic pregnancy is the most important cause to rule out. Early referral to an early pregnancy assessment service and a transvaginal ultrasound scan are crucial in identifying the location of the pregnancy and ensuring appropriate management. Women should also be advised to seek medical attention if they experience any worrying symptoms or if bleeding or pain persists.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      28.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 32-year-old woman is ready to leave the postnatal ward after giving birth...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is ready to leave the postnatal ward after giving birth to her daughter through normal vaginal delivery 12 hours ago. She asks about contraceptive options as she feels her family is complete. She has a clean medical history and had no complications during her pregnancy or labour. She has previously used the intrauterine system (IUS) and wishes to continue with it. What recommendations should she receive?

      Your Answer: She should wait a minimum of 6 weeks after delivery to have the IUS inserted. In the meantime she may use progesterone only oral contraception

      Correct Answer: She may have the IUS inserted up to 48 hours after delivery if she wishes

      Explanation:

      The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after a minimum of 4 weeks. However, it is important to note that insertion between 48 hours and 4 weeks after delivery should be avoided due to the increased risk of expulsion and lack of data on uterine perforation with newer models. In addition to general contraindications, contraindications to postpartum insertion within 48 hours include peripartum chorioamnionitis, endometritis, puerperal sepsis, or post-partum haemorrhage. Waiting a minimum of 6 weeks or 2 months after delivery is not necessary. If waiting the recommended minimum of 4 weeks, the progesterone-only pill may be used as an interim measure to reduce the risk of pregnancy.

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.

      The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      29.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 20-year-old woman presents with a positive pregnancy test and is diagnosed with...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old woman presents with a positive pregnancy test and is diagnosed with an ectopic pregnancy after ruling out an intrauterine pregnancy. She is asymptomatic and her serum beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (B-hCG) level is 877 IU/L. A transvaginal ultrasound shows a 24mm adnexal mass without a heartbeat and no free fluid in the abdomen. Although expectant management is an option, she declines. What is the recommended initial treatment?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), if a woman has an unruptured ectopic pregnancy measuring less than 35mm without visible heartbeat, a serum B-hCG level of less than 1500 IU/L, no intrauterine pregnancy, and no pain, the recommended first-line treatment is methotrexate, provided the patient is willing to attend follow-up appointments. However, if the woman declines expectant management, which is an option for a small number of women with low B-hCG, no symptoms, and a tubal ectopic pregnancy measuring less than 35mm without heartbeat, methotrexate is the preferred treatment option. Methotrexate is a chemotherapeutic drug that interferes with DNA synthesis and disrupts cell multiplication, preventing the pregnancy from developing. Laparoscopic salpingectomy (or salpingostomy if there is a risk of infertility) is the other treatment option, which should be offered if the ectopic pregnancy is larger than 35mm, causing severe pain, or if the B-hCG level is greater than 1500. However, there is a risk of infertility if a problem arises with the remaining Fallopian tube in the future. Misoprostol and mifepristone are not recommended for the management of ectopic pregnancy.

      Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy

      Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus. This condition is characterized by lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, typically occurring 6-8 weeks after the start of the last period. The pain is usually constant and may be felt on one side of the abdomen due to tubal spasm. Vaginal bleeding is usually less than a normal period and may be dark brown in color. Other symptoms may include shoulder tip pain, pain on defecation/urination, dizziness, fainting, or syncope. Breast tenderness may also be reported.

      During examination, abdominal tenderness and cervical excitation may be observed. However, it is not recommended to examine for an adnexal mass due to the risk of rupturing the pregnancy. Instead, a pelvic examination to check for cervical excitation is recommended. In cases of pregnancy of unknown location, serum bHCG levels >1,500 may indicate an ectopic pregnancy. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if ectopic pregnancy is suspected as it can be life-threatening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 26-year-old woman goes for her first ultrasound and discovers that she is...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman goes for her first ultrasound and discovers that she is carrying monochorionic twins. Her GP advises her to inform them immediately if she experiences sudden abdominal distension or shortness of breath. What is the complication of monochorionic multiple pregnancy that the GP is referring to?

      Your Answer: Umbilical cord compression

      Correct Answer: Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome

      Explanation:

      Multiple Pregnancies: Incidence, Types, and Complications

      Multiple pregnancies, such as twins and triplets, have different incidences. Twins occur in 1 out of 105 pregnancies, while triplets occur in 1 out of 10,000 pregnancies. Twins can be either dizygotic or monozygotic, with the former being more common at 80%. Monoamniotic monozygotic twins have higher risks of spontaneous miscarriage, perinatal mortality rate, malformations, intrauterine growth restriction, and prematurity. Twin-to-twin transfusions may occur, which require laser ablation of interconnecting vessels.

      Dizygotic twins are becoming more common due to infertility treatment, and predisposing factors include previous twins, family history, increasing maternal age, multigravida, induced ovulation, in-vitro fertilization, and race, particularly Afro-Caribbean. Antenatal complications may arise, such as polyhydramnios, pregnancy-induced hypertension, and anemia, while fetal complications include perinatal mortality, prematurity, light-for-date babies, and malformations.

      During labor, complications may occur, such as postpartum hemorrhage, malpresentation, cord prolapse, and entanglement. Management includes rest, ultrasound for diagnosis and monthly checks, additional iron and folate, more antenatal care, and precautions during labor, such as having two obstetricians present. Most twins deliver by 38 weeks, and if longer, most twins are induced at 38-40 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      41.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 23-year-old female, gravidity 1 and parity 0 at 12 weeks' gestation is...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old female, gravidity 1 and parity 0 at 12 weeks' gestation is in a car accident where her abdomen hits the dashboard. The mother's vital signs are stable, and there is no vaginal bleeding or uterine contractions. An ultrasound reveals an intact placenta. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Blood type and Rhesus testing

      Explanation:

      Rhesus testing should be promptly conducted for a pregnant woman who has experienced abdominal trauma, as those who are Rhesus-negative require anti-D administration to prevent Rhesus isoimmunization.

      Rhesus negative pregnancies can lead to the formation of anti-D IgG antibodies in the mother if she delivers a Rh +ve child, which can cause haemolysis in future pregnancies. Prevention involves testing for D antibodies and giving anti-D prophylaxis to non-sensitised Rh -ve mothers at 28 and 34 weeks. Anti-D immunoglobulin should be given within 72 hours in various situations. Tests should be done on all babies born to Rh -ve mothers, and affected fetuses may experience various complications and require treatment such as transfusions and UV phototherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 30-year-old asymptomatic woman comes to the hospital for an oral glucose tolerance...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old asymptomatic woman comes to the hospital for an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT). She is currently 16 weeks pregnant with her second child. During her first pregnancy, she had gestational diabetes and foetal macrosomia. Despite having a body mass index of 34 kg/m2, she is in good health.

      Her test results are as follows:
      - Fasting glucose: 8.5 mmol/L (<5.6 mmol/L)
      - 2 hour glucose: 12.8 mmol/L (<7.8 mmol/L)

      What is the recommended course of action for managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Insulin plus or minus metformin

      Explanation:

      If a woman is diagnosed with gestational diabetes and her fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/l, immediate treatment with insulin (with or without metformin) should be initiated. For women with a fasting glucose level below 7 mmol/l at diagnosis, lifestyle modifications such as diet and exercise should be recommended. If blood glucose targets are not achieved within 1-2 weeks using lifestyle modifications, metformin may be prescribed. Glibenclamide can be considered for women who do not reach their blood glucose targets with metformin or who refuse insulin therapy. Pioglitazone should be avoided during pregnancy as animal studies have shown it to be harmful.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 26-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with minimal vaginal bleeding. She...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with minimal vaginal bleeding. She reports her last menstrual period as having been 4 weeks ago. She denies pain but reports severe nausea and vomiting. She has no significant past medical history and her last check-up 6 months ago did not reveal any abnormalities. On examination, her blood pressure is 160/110 mmHg and her uterus measures 12 weeks’ size. A serum beta human chorionic gonadotropin (β-HCG) level is drawn and found to be in excess of 300 000 iu. An ultrasound does not identify any foetal parts. What is this patient at risk of developing?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary metastasis and thyroid dysfunction

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Gestational Trophoblastic Disease: Differential Diagnosis

      Gestational trophoblastic disease is a rare condition that can present with symptoms similar to other pregnancy-related complications. When evaluating a patient with suspected gestational trophoblastic disease, it is important to consider the differential diagnosis and rule out other potential causes.

      One common misdiagnosis is occlusion of the coronary vessels, as there is no association between gestational trophoblastic disease and coronary artery disease. Rupture of the fallopian tube may be a possibility if the patient had an ectopic pregnancy, but the history and examination are not suggestive of this. Septic miscarriage is also a possibility, but the symptoms and examination findings in this scenario are more typical of gestational trophoblastic disease.

      Twin or triplet pregnancy is unlikely due to the absence of foetal parts and the elevated blood pressure. Instead, gestational trophoblastic disease should be considered when a patient presents with bleeding in early pregnancy, severe hyperemesis, new-onset hypertension prior to 20 weeks’ gestation, and a uterus that is larger than expected. An extremely elevated β-HCG and a classical ultrasound appearance resembling a ‘snow storm’ are also indicative of gestational trophoblastic disease.

      It is important to note that gestational trophoblastic disease is strongly associated with thyroid dysfunction and that the lungs are among the first sites of metastatic disease. By considering the differential diagnosis and conducting appropriate testing, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose and treat gestational trophoblastic disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      55.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 27-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 5-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 5-day history of vomiting. She has vomited 6 times a day for the past 5 days. When asked about pregnancy, she states her periods are irregular. On examination, her chest is clear, heart sounds are normal and she has a non-tender but distended abdomen. Her temperature is 37ºC, oxygen saturation 98% on air, heart rate 110 beats per minute, respiratory rate 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 110/70 mmHg. Blood results: Hb 118 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160) Platelets 160 * 109/L (150 - 400) WBC 5.6 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0) CRP 4 mg/L (< 5) βhCG 453,000 mIU/ml. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Complete hydatidiform mole

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for a patient with a distended abdomen and abnormally high serum βhCG is a complete hydatidiform mole. The serum βhCG level of 453,000 mIU/ml is significantly higher than the upper limit of expected levels in an intrauterine pregnancy during weeks 9-12. Morning sickness may also be more severe in molar pregnancies. An ultrasound scan can confirm the diagnosis by showing a snowstorm appearance, and histology can be performed after evacuation.

      While acute appendicitis is a possibility, the patient’s non-tender abdomen and normal CRP and white cell count make it less likely. Appendicitis would not cause high serum βhCG. Ectopic pregnancy should also be ruled out, as it is a potential diagnosis in any woman of childbearing age with abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, or signs of shock. However, the serum βhCG level for an ectopic pregnancy is unlikely to be as high as in a molar pregnancy. An ultrasound scan can differentiate between a normal intrauterine pregnancy and a molar pregnancy.

      Characteristics of Complete Hydatidiform Mole

      A complete hydatidiform mole is a rare type of pregnancy where the fertilized egg develops into a mass of abnormal cells instead of a fetus. This condition is characterized by several features, including vaginal bleeding, an enlarged uterus size that is greater than expected for gestational age, and abnormally high levels of serum hCG. Additionally, an ultrasound may reveal a snowstorm appearance of mixed echogenicity.

      In simpler terms, a complete hydatidiform mole is a type of pregnancy that does not develop normally and can cause abnormal bleeding and an enlarged uterus. Doctors can detect this condition through blood tests and ultrasounds, which show a unique appearance of mixed echogenicity. It is important for women to seek medical attention if they experience any abnormal symptoms during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      64
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old patient visits the antenatal clinic after her 20-week scan reveals a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient visits the antenatal clinic after her 20-week scan reveals a low-lying placenta. She is concerned about what this means and if any action needs to be taken. This is her first pregnancy, and she has not experienced any complications thus far. She has no known medical conditions and does not take any regular medications. The patient mentions that her mother had a placenta-related issue that resulted in significant bleeding, and she is worried that the same may happen to her. What steps would you take to assist this patient?

      Your Answer: Book for an elective caesarean section at 37-weeks

      Correct Answer: Rescan at 32 weeks

      Explanation:

      In the event that a low-lying placenta is detected during the 20-week scan, it is recommended to undergo a follow-up scan at 32 weeks for further evaluation.

      Management and Prognosis of Placenta Praevia

      Placenta praevia is a condition where the placenta is located wholly or partially in the lower uterine segment. If a low-lying placenta is detected at the 20-week scan, a rescan is recommended at 32 weeks. There is no need to limit activity or intercourse unless there is bleeding. If the placenta is still present at 32 weeks and is grade I/II, then a scan every two weeks is recommended. A final ultrasound at 36-37 weeks is necessary to determine the method of delivery. For grades III/IV, an elective caesarean section is recommended between 37-38 weeks. However, if the placenta is grade I, a trial of vaginal delivery may be offered. If a woman with known placenta praevia goes into labour before the elective caesarean section, an emergency caesarean section should be performed due to the risk of post-partum haemorrhage.

      In cases where placenta praevia is accompanied by bleeding, the woman should be admitted and an ABC approach should be taken to stabilise her. If stabilisation is not possible, an emergency caesarean section should be performed. If the woman is in labour or has reached term, an emergency caesarean section is also necessary.

      The prognosis for placenta praevia has improved significantly, and death is now extremely rare. The major cause of death in women with placenta praevia is post-partum haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      69.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 32-year-old primiparous woman attends her first health visitor appointment. She is currently...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old primiparous woman attends her first health visitor appointment. She is currently exclusively breastfeeding, but she complains of sore, cracked nipples. Despite using nipple shields, her symptoms have not improved. The woman is also concerned that her baby is not feeding enough, as she frequently has to stop the feed due to tenderness.
      During nipple examination, you observe small surface cracks, but no exudate or erythema.
      What is the initial step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Prescribe miconazole topical cream

      Correct Answer: Advise the patient to consider expressing breast milk and feeding the baby from the bottle until the cracks heal

      Explanation:

      Managing Nipple Cracks During Breastfeeding

      Breastfeeding can be a challenging experience for new mothers, especially when they develop nipple cracks. To manage this condition, it is important to observe the breastfeeding technique and ensure correct positioning and latch. If the cracks persist, expressing breast milk and feeding the baby from a bottle may be necessary until the skin heals. Topical fusidic acid should be prescribed for bacterial infections, while miconazole cream is used for Candida infections. Nipple shields and breast shells should be avoided, and reducing the duration of feeds is not recommended. By following these guidelines, mothers can successfully manage nipple cracks and continue to breastfeed their babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      44.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 25-year-old woman at 37-week’s gestation presents to the labour ward with a...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman at 37-week’s gestation presents to the labour ward with a history of 4 hours of labour and uterine contractions occurring every 2 minutes. Her 34-week scan revealed grade III placenta praevia. On examination, her cervix is found to be dilated to 8 cm and effaced by 90%. Foetal cartography measurements are normal, and there is no vaginal bleeding. What should be the next course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Emergency caesarean section

      Explanation:

      If a woman with placenta praevia goes into labour, an emergency caesarean section should be performed regardless of whether there is bleeding or not. Placenta praevia is when the placenta is located partially or fully in the lower uterine segment, and it is more common in multiple and multiparous pregnancies. Sometimes it is detected incidentally during routine antenatal scanning, while in other cases, it may present with symptoms such as vaginal bleeding and haemodynamic shock. If placenta praevia is detected on routine imaging, an elective caesarean section should be considered at 37-38 weeks, especially for grade III and IV placenta praevia, due to the higher risk of postpartum haemorrhage. However, in this scenario, the patient has gone into labour spontaneously, and immediate action is necessary. Therefore, an emergency caesarean section is the correct course of action. Anti-D is recommended for pregnant women with negative rhesus status to prevent antibody production to foetal blood cells. Although the mother’s rhesus status is not given, anti-D is a sensible option when in doubt. Inducing labour with oxytocin is not recommended for patients with placenta praevia as it can stimulate vaginal delivery and increase the risk of postpartum haemorrhage. Discharging the patient to continue the pregnancy as normal is not advisable due to the serious risks involved. Tocolytics, such as nifedipine, are not routinely indicated for patients with placenta praevia in labour, and an emergency caesarean section should take priority.

      Management and Prognosis of Placenta Praevia

      Placenta praevia is a condition where the placenta is located wholly or partially in the lower uterine segment. If a low-lying placenta is detected at the 20-week scan, a rescan is recommended at 32 weeks. There is no need to limit activity or intercourse unless there is bleeding. If the placenta is still present at 32 weeks and is grade I/II, then a scan every two weeks is recommended. A final ultrasound at 36-37 weeks is necessary to determine the method of delivery. For grades III/IV, an elective caesarean section is recommended between 37-38 weeks. However, if the placenta is grade I, a trial of vaginal delivery may be offered. If a woman with known placenta praevia goes into labour before the elective caesarean section, an emergency caesarean section should be performed due to the risk of post-partum haemorrhage.

      In cases where placenta praevia is accompanied by bleeding, the woman should be admitted and an ABC approach should be taken to stabilise her. If stabilisation is not possible, an emergency caesarean section should be performed. If the woman is in labour or has reached term, an emergency caesarean section is also necessary.

      The prognosis for placenta praevia has improved significantly, and death is now extremely rare. The major cause of death in women with placenta praevia is post-partum haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 27-year-old woman named Priya, who moved to the UK from India 8...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman named Priya, who moved to the UK from India 8 years ago, visited her GP with her husband. She was 32 weeks pregnant with her first child. Priya had experienced mild hyperemesis until week 16 but had an otherwise uneventful pregnancy. She reported feeling slightly feverish and unwell, and had developed a rash the previous night.

      Upon examination, Priya appeared healthy, with a temperature of 37.8ºC, oxygen saturation of 99% in air, heart rate of 92 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 112/74 mmHg. She had a macular rash with some early papular and vesicular lesions.

      Further questioning revealed that Priya had attended a family gathering two weeks ago, where she spent time with her young cousins. One of her cousins was later diagnosed with chickenpox. Priya's husband confirmed that she had never had chickenpox before.

      What is the appropriate next step in managing chickenpox in this case?

      Your Answer: Organise admission for varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG)

      Correct Answer: Prescribe oral acyclovir

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women who are at least 20 weeks pregnant and contract chickenpox are typically treated with oral acyclovir if they seek medical attention within 24 hours of developing the rash. Women who were not born and raised in the UK are at a higher risk of contracting chickenpox when they move to the country. The RCOG recommends prescribing oral acyclovir to pregnant women with chickenpox who are at least 20 weeks pregnant and have developed the rash within 24 hours. acyclovir may also be considered for women who are less than 20 weeks pregnant. If a woman contracts chickenpox before 28 weeks of pregnancy, she should be referred to a fetal medicine specialist five weeks after the infection. The chickenpox vaccine cannot be administered during pregnancy, and VZIG is not effective once the rash has developed. In cases where there is clear clinical evidence of chickenpox infection, antibody testing is unnecessary. Pregnant women with chickenpox should be monitored daily, and if they exhibit signs of severe or complicated chickenpox, they should be referred to a specialist immediately. Adults with chickenpox are at a higher risk of complications such as pneumonia, hepatitis, and encephalitis, and in rare cases, death, so proper assessment and management are crucial.

      Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral acyclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      44.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - You are evaluating a 23-year-old female who is 8 weeks pregnant and experiencing...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a 23-year-old female who is 8 weeks pregnant and experiencing severe vomiting, making it difficult for her to retain fluids. What is the best method to determine the severity of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) scoring system

      Explanation:

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - As a result of her advanced maternal age, a 43-year-old pregnant woman undergoes...

    Incorrect

    • As a result of her advanced maternal age, a 43-year-old pregnant woman undergoes screening for chromosomal abnormalities. If her fetus is diagnosed with trisomy 21 (Down's syndrome), what outcomes would be anticipated?

      Your Answer: High oestriol

      Correct Answer: Low pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A)

      Explanation:

      The ‘triple test’ can be utilized at 16 weeks, but its accuracy is lower than the ‘combined test’. Therefore, it should only be employed when screening for trisomy is conducted after 14 weeks. The test involves conducting blood tests for AFP, -HCG, and oestriol. One should note that the false positive rate may be higher with this test.

      NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The test includes nuchal translucency measurement, serum B-HCG, and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). The quadruple test is offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results are interpreted as either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ of chromosomal abnormalities. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she may be offered a non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities. Private companies offer NIPT screening from 10 weeks gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 28-year-old woman comes to the clinic after two positive pregnancy tests and...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to the clinic after two positive pregnancy tests and seeks guidance on how to have a healthy pregnancy. She is in good health, takes folic acid, and smokes 20 cigarettes per day.

      You recognize the importance of quitting smoking for the well-being of the pregnancy and employ motivational interviewing techniques to address her smoking.

      What is the initial step in this process?

      Your Answer: Establish rapport and find out whether she wants to change

      Explanation:

      Best Practices for Motivational Interviewing in Smoking Cessation during Pregnancy

      Motivational interviewing is a patient-centered approach that aims to elicit and strengthen the patient’s own motivation and commitment to change. When it comes to smoking cessation during pregnancy, there are several best practices to follow.

      Firstly, it is important to establish rapport and assess the patient’s readiness to discuss behavior change. This involves determining which stage of change the patient is at and working accordingly from there.

      Next, it is important to assess the patient’s perceived difficulties and barriers to change, often using a numerical scale. However, this should not be done as the first step.

      Explaining and advising why smoking is harmful in pregnancy should also not be the first step. Instead, it is best to find out what the patient understands about the risks of smoking in pregnancy and then evoke the patient’s own motivations for change, if present.

      It is important to avoid trying to break down any resistance shown by the patient. Instead, a therapeutic relationship resembling a partnership or team should be used as the cornerstone from which changes can be explored or pursued.

      Finally, using a numerical scale to assess the patient’s confidence and willingness to quit smoking is an important step, but should not be done in the first instance. By following these best practices, healthcare providers can effectively use motivational interviewing to support smoking cessation during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old woman attends the Antenatal clinic for a check-up. She is 32...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman attends the Antenatal clinic for a check-up. She is 32 weeks into her pregnancy. Her blood pressure is recorded as 160/128 mmHg. She reports suffering from headaches over the last 2 days. A urine sample is immediately checked for proteinuria, which, together with hypertension, would indicate pre-eclampsia. Her urine sample shows ++ protein. The patient is admitted for monitoring and treatment.

      What is the meaning of proteinuria?

      Your Answer: Persistent urinary protein of >300 mg/24 h

      Explanation:

      Understanding Proteinuria in Pre-eclampsia: Screening and Management

      Proteinuria, defined as urinary protein of >300 mg in 24 hours, is a key indicator of pre-eclampsia in pregnant women. Regular screening for hypertension and proteinuria should take place during antenatal clinics to detect this unpredictable condition. If blood pressure is found to be elevated, pharmacological management with medications such as labetalol, methyldopa, or nifedipine may be necessary. The severity of pre-eclampsia is determined by blood pressure readings, with mild cases requiring monitoring only and severe cases requiring frequent monitoring and medication. Pre-eclampsia is a serious condition that can lead to complications for both mother and baby, and ultimately, delivery of the baby is the only cure. Understanding proteinuria and its management is crucial in the care of pregnant women with pre-eclampsia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 29-year-old pregnant woman presents at 40 weeks gestation for an artificial rupture...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old pregnant woman presents at 40 weeks gestation for an artificial rupture of the membranes. Following the procedure, a vaginal examination reveals a palpable umbilical cord. What position should she be advised to assume?

      Your Answer: Head-end of bed tilted downwards, with the legs separated

      Correct Answer: On all fours, on the knees and elbows

      Explanation:

      When a woman experiences cord prolapse, the correct position for her is on all fours, with her knees and elbows on the ground. This condition can be caused by artificial rupture of the membranes, and it is important to keep the cord warm and moist while preparing for a caesarian section. The Trendelenburg position, which involves tilting the head-end of the bed downwards, is used in abdominal surgery to shift abdominal contents upwards. The Lloyd Davis position, which involves separating the legs and tilting the head-end of the bed downwards, is used in rectal and pelvic surgery. The McRoberts manoeuvre, which involves hyperflexing the legs tightly to the abdomen, is used in cases of shoulder dystocia during delivery, but not for cord prolapse. The lithotomy position, which involves raising the legs in stirrups and separating them, is used in obstetrics and gynaecology for various procedures, but not for cord prolapse.

      Understanding Umbilical Cord Prolapse

      Umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that can occur during delivery. It happens when the umbilical cord descends ahead of the presenting part of the fetus, which can lead to compression or spasm of the cord. This can cause fetal hypoxia and potentially irreversible damage or death. Certain factors increase the risk of cord prolapse, such as prematurity, multiparity, polyhydramnios, twin pregnancy, cephalopelvic disproportion, and abnormal presentations like breech or transverse lie.

      Around half of all cord prolapses occur when the membranes are artificially ruptured. Diagnosis is usually made when the fetal heart rate becomes abnormal and the cord is palpable vaginally or visible beyond the introitus. Cord prolapse is an obstetric emergency that requires immediate management. The presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back into the uterus to avoid compression, and the cord should be kept warm and moist to prevent vasospasm. The patient may be asked to go on all fours or assume the left lateral position until preparations for an immediate caesarian section have been carried out. Tocolytics may be used to reduce uterine contractions, and retrofilling the bladder with saline can help elevate the presenting part. Although caesarian section is the usual first-line method of delivery, an instrumental vaginal delivery may be possible if the cervix is fully dilated and the head is low.

      In conclusion, umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that requires prompt recognition and management. Understanding the risk factors and appropriate interventions can help reduce the incidence of fetal mortality associated with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      41
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 33-year-old woman who is at 36 weeks gestation comes to the maternity...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old woman who is at 36 weeks gestation comes to the maternity unit for a routine check-up. Her pregnancy has been without any complications so far, and her blood pressure, urine dipstick, and fundal height are all normal. During a previous examination, a vertical scar from her previous pregnancy is visible on her abdomen, as the child was delivered via a caesarean section. She wants to discuss her delivery options and is interested in having a home birth. What is the most suitable delivery method for this patient?

      Your Answer: Planned caesarean section at 37 weeks gestation

      Explanation:

      A planned caesarean section at 37 weeks gestation is the appropriate course of action for a patient who has a classical caesarean scar. This type of scar, which is characterized by a vertical incision on the abdomen, is a contraindication for vaginal birth after caesarean due to the increased risk of uterine rupture. A vaginal delivery should not be considered in this scenario as it could be potentially fatal for both the mother and the baby. It is important to ensure that the caesarean section is performed in a hospital setting. A caesarean section at 36 weeks is not recommended, and guidelines suggest that the procedure should be performed at 37 weeks or later.

      Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks

      Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.

      C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.

      It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.

      Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 46-year-old primiparous woman, who is 37 weeks pregnant, presents to the emergency...

    Correct

    • A 46-year-old primiparous woman, who is 37 weeks pregnant, presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset of painful vaginal bleeding. She had been feeling unwell for a few days, experiencing lightheadedness upon standing. Despite being pregnant, she has not sought antenatal care, except for her initial booking visit. Upon examination, her heart rate is 130 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 21 breaths per minute, and blood pressure is 96/65 mmHg. Her abdomen is tense, with a firm and fixed uterus. What is the most likely risk factor for this complication in this pregnant woman?

      Your Answer: Older age

      Explanation:

      Placental abruption is a condition that occurs when the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal bleeding into the space between them. Although the exact cause of this condition is unknown, certain factors have been associated with it, including proteinuric hypertension, cocaine use, multiparity, maternal trauma, and increasing maternal age. Placental abruption is not a common occurrence, affecting approximately 1 in 200 pregnancies.

      The clinical features of placental abruption include shock that is disproportionate to the visible blood loss, constant pain, a tender and tense uterus, and a normal lie and presentation of the fetus. The fetal heart may be absent or distressed, and there may be coagulation problems. It is important to be aware of other conditions that may present with similar symptoms, such as pre-eclampsia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and anuria.

      In summary, placental abruption is a serious condition that can have significant consequences for both the mother and the fetus. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms of this condition is important for early detection and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant is admitted to the obstetric ward....

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant is admitted to the obstetric ward. She has been monitored for the past few weeks due to pregnancy-induced hypertension but has now developed proteinuria. Her blood pressure is 162/94 mmHg. What is the most appropriate antihypertensive to start?

      Your Answer: Nifedipine

      Correct Answer: Labetalol

      Explanation:

      Pregnancy-induced hypertension is typically treated with Labetalol as the initial medication.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, and age over 40. Aspirin may be recommended for women with high or moderate risk factors. Treatment involves emergency assessment, admission for observation, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      9.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (15/30) 50%
Passmed