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Question 1
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A 4-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father due to pain in her left hip. She has been complaining of pain and is hesitant to put weight on her left leg. She has a normal range of movement in both legs. Her father reports that she has been feeling sick with cold symptoms for the past few days and she currently has a temperature of 37.8 ÂșC.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Transient synovitis
Explanation:Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is a common cause of hip pain in children aged 3-8 years. It typically occurs following a recent viral infection and presents with symptoms such as groin or hip pain, limping or refusal to weight bear, and occasionally a low-grade fever. However, a high fever may indicate other serious conditions such as septic arthritis, which requires urgent specialist assessment. To exclude such diagnoses, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend monitoring children in primary care with a presumptive diagnosis of transient synovitis, provided they are aged 3-9 years, well, afebrile, mobile but limping, and have had symptoms for less than 72 hours. Treatment for transient synovitis involves rest and analgesia, as the condition is self-limiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 3-month-old infant is brought in with progressive noisy breathing that is particularly noticeable during feeding. The baby is below average in weight gain and has a poor appetite. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Laryngomalacia
Explanation:The primary reason for stridor in infants is laryngomalacia, which is characterized by a soft epiglottis that collapses into the airway during inhalation. Although it typically resolves on its own, if the stridor worsens and causes respiratory distress or hinders feeding, surgery may be necessary to enhance the airway.
Stridor in Children: Causes and Symptoms
Stridor is a high-pitched, wheezing sound that occurs during breathing and is commonly seen in children. There are several causes of stridor in children, including croup, acute epiglottitis, inhaled foreign body, and laryngomalacia. Croup is a viral infection that affects the upper respiratory tract and is characterized by stridor, barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms. Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B, which can lead to airway obstruction. Inhaled foreign body can cause sudden onset of coughing, choking, vomiting, and stridor, depending on the site of impaction. Laryngomalacia is a congenital abnormality of the larynx that typically presents at 4 weeks of age with stridor.
It is important to recognize the symptoms of stridor in children and seek prompt medical attention, especially if the child appears unwell or toxic. Treatment may include medications, such as corticosteroids or nebulized epinephrine, or in severe cases, intubation or tracheostomy. Prevention measures, such as vaccination against Haemophilus influenzae type B, can also help reduce the incidence of acute epiglottitis. Overall, early recognition and management of stridor in children can help prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 3
Correct
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A premature infant is born at 30 weeks gestation through a spontaneous vaginal delivery. The amniotic fluid did not show any signs of meconium staining. However, the baby develops sternal recession, tachypnea, grunting, and cyanosis shortly after birth. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS)
Explanation:When answering questions about respiratory issues in newborns, it is important to consider the risk factors involved. Prematurity is the primary risk factor for neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS), while caesarean section increases the risk of tachypnea of the newborn (TTN). Meconium staining is a significant risk factor for aspiration pneumonia.
Symptoms of NRDS typically include respiratory distress that worsens over the first few days after birth. TTN, on the other hand, is characterized by rapid breathing shortly after birth, which often resolves within the first day of life. A chest X-ray can be helpful in diagnosing these conditions. NRDS is typically indicated by a diffuse ground glass appearance in the lungs, low lung volumes, and a bell-shaped thorax. TTN, on the other hand, may show a pattern similar to heart failure on the X-ray, with interstitial edema and pleural effusions, but with a normal heart size and rapid resolution of the pattern within a few days.
Surfactant Deficient Lung Disease in Premature Infants
Surfactant deficient lung disease (SDLD), previously known as hyaline membrane disease, is a condition that affects premature infants. It occurs due to the underproduction of surfactant and the immaturity of the lungs’ structure. The risk of SDLD decreases with gestation, with 50% of infants born at 26-28 weeks and 25% of infants born at 30-31 weeks being affected. Other risk factors include male sex, diabetic mothers, Caesarean section, and being the second born of premature twins.
The clinical features of SDLD are similar to those of respiratory distress in newborns, including tachypnea, intercostal recession, expiratory grunting, and cyanosis. Chest x-rays typically show a ground-glass appearance with an indistinct heart border.
Prevention during pregnancy involves administering maternal corticosteroids to induce fetal lung maturation. Management of SDLD includes oxygen therapy, assisted ventilation, and exogenous surfactant given via an endotracheal tube. With proper management, the prognosis for infants with SDLD is generally good.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 4
Correct
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A father brings his 4-month-old daughter to the emergency department worried about her vomiting green liquid. Moreover, she has been crying and pulling her legs up on and off for the past day. The father mentions that she has always been fussy during feeding, but she has not eaten anything in the last 24 hours and has not had a bowel movement. What is the probable diagnosis for this infant?
Your Answer: Intestinal malrotation
Explanation:It is highly probable that the infant is suffering from intestinal malrotation, which has led to a volvulus. This condition is characterized by symptoms such as bilious vomiting, abdominal pain and cramping, lethargy, poor appetite, and infrequent bowel movements. Upon examination, the infant may have a swollen, firm abdomen, and possibly a fever, with reduced urine output. Acute appendicitis is rare in children under three years old and would not cause bilious vomiting. Hirschsprung disease would have been evident at birth, with delayed passage of meconium and abdominal distension. Mesenteric adenitis, on the other hand, is inflammation of the lymph nodes in the abdomen and is typically preceded by an upper respiratory tract infection. It would not result in bilious vomiting but may cause abdominal pain and fever, usually in an older child or teenager.
Paediatric Gastrointestinal Disorders
Pyloric stenosis is more common in males and has a 5-10% chance of being inherited from parents. Symptoms include projectile vomiting at 4-6 weeks of life, and diagnosis is made through a test feed or ultrasound. Treatment involves a Ramstedt pyloromyotomy, either open or laparoscopic.
Acute appendicitis is uncommon in children under 3 years old, but when it does occur, it may present atypically. Mesenteric adenitis causes central abdominal pain and URTI, and is treated conservatively.
Intussusception occurs in infants aged 6-9 months and causes colicky pain, diarrhea, vomiting, a sausage-shaped mass, and red jelly stool. Treatment involves reduction with air insufflation.
Intestinal malrotation is characterized by a high caecum at the midline and may be complicated by the development of volvulus. Diagnosis is made through an upper GI contrast study and ultrasound, and treatment involves laparotomy or a Ladd’s procedure.
Hirschsprung’s disease occurs in 1/5000 births and is characterized by delayed passage of meconium and abdominal distension. Treatment involves rectal washouts and an anorectal pull through procedure.
Oesophageal atresia is associated with tracheo-oesophageal fistula and polyhydramnios, and may present with choking and cyanotic spells following aspiration. Meconium ileus is usually associated with cystic fibrosis and requires surgery to remove plugs. Biliary atresia causes jaundice and increased conjugated bilirubin, and requires an urgent Kasai procedure. Necrotising enterocolitis is more common in premature infants and is treated with total gut rest and TPN, with laparotomy required for perforations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Correct
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A 14-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents due to experiencing left-sided hip pain over the past few days. Upon examination, X-rays reveal a slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE). What is the definitive treatment for this condition?
Your Answer: Internal fixation across the growth plate
Explanation:When a slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SCFE) occurs, it is crucial to seek immediate medical attention as there is a risk of avascular necrosis of the femoral head. Referral to paediatric orthopaedics is necessary, and the child should not bear weight and should be given pain relief to ensure comfort. The most effective treatment for SCFE is internal fixation surgery, which prevents the slip from worsening. The Ponseti method, which involves a series of manipulations and casts over several weeks, is typically used to treat clubfoot.
Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis: A Rare Hip Condition in Children
Slipped capital femoral epiphysis, also known as slipped upper femoral epiphysis, is a rare hip condition that primarily affects children between the ages of 10 and 15. It is more commonly seen in obese boys. This condition is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly, which may present acutely following trauma or with chronic, persistent symptoms.
The most common symptoms of slipped capital femoral epiphysis include hip, groin, medial thigh, or knee pain and loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion. In some cases, a bilateral slip may occur. Diagnostic imaging, such as AP and lateral (typically frog-leg) views, can confirm the diagnosis.
The management of slipped capital femoral epiphysis typically involves internal fixation, which involves placing a single cannulated screw in the center of the epiphysis. However, if left untreated, this condition can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, chondrolysis, and leg length discrepancy.
In summary, slipped capital femoral epiphysis is a rare hip condition that primarily affects children, especially obese boys. It is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly and can present with various symptoms. Early diagnosis and management are crucial to prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 6
Correct
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A 7-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her mother. The mother reports that her daughter has been running a fever for the past 5 days and has been acting differently. Despite giving her paracetamol, the fever has not subsided.
During the examination, the girl presents with cracked, bright red lips, conjunctival injection, palpable lymph nodes in the cervical area, and redness on the palms of her hands and soles of her feet.
What medication should be given based on the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: High-dose aspirin
Explanation:Kawasaki disease requires the use of high-dose aspirin, despite it being generally not recommended for children due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome. This is because the child presents with a persistent fever lasting more than 5 days, along with other characteristic symptoms such as injected conjunctiva, swollen mucosal linings around the mouth, and red, swollen hands and feet. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also recommended for treatment.
Benzylpenicillin (penicillin G) is not indicated for this child as they do not exhibit symptoms of meningitis or endocarditis. Ibuprofen is also not appropriate for Kawasaki disease, as it is typically used for other conditions such as juvenile idiopathic arthritis and soft-tissue injuries. Low-dose aspirin may be given to low-risk patients who present more than 10 days after symptom onset and have normal ESR/CRP results and initial echocardiogram results.Understanding Kawasaki Disease
Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.
Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.
Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 3-month-old baby girl has just been registered with the surgery. Her parents have recently arrived in the UK from Syria, seeking refuge. She received a Hepatitis B vaccination before leaving Syria.
What other vaccinations should she be provided with now?Your Answer: Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, Haemophilus influenzae type b, hepatitis B and meningitis C
Correct Answer: Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, Haemophilus influenzae type b, hepatitis B, rotavirus and meningitis B
Explanation:Paediatric Vaccination Schedule for 2-Month-Old Babies in the UK
The correct vaccination regime for a 2-month-old baby in the UK includes diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, Haemophilus influenzae type b, hepatitis B, rotavirus and meningitis B. However, the guidelines have been updated since 2015, and now include pneumococcus (PCV) vaccination at 12 weeks. Meningitis B is vaccinated against at 8 weeks, 16 weeks, and one year, while meningitis C and PCV are vaccinated against at 12 months. Rotavirus and meningitis B are also recommended in the vaccination schedule at 8 weeks old, but meningitis C is not included in this particular regime.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 24-month-old child is brought to see you with concerns about his development.
Which of the following sets of findings on history and examination reflects age-appropriate development for this child?Your Answer: Runs, walks up and down steps holding on, copies a vertical line, builds a tower of six blocks, points to several body parts, combines two different words, says 30 clear words, helps with simple tasks, uses a spoon and helps with dressing and undressing
Correct Answer: Stands and walks confidently, bends or crouches to pick up an object, makes a tower of 2â3 blocks, scribbles, tries to sing, says six clear words, points to named pictures, plays games, enjoys sitting and looking at books, points to body parts, clothing and objects and helps with dressing
Explanation:Developmental Milestones for Children: What to Expect at Different Ages
As children grow and develop, they reach certain milestones that indicate their progress and abilities. Here are some of the expected developmental milestones for children at different ages:
9 months: At this age, a child should be able to sit unsupported, crawl, hold objects with a pincer grip, babble with two syllables, and develop stranger anxiety.
10-12 months: A child at this age should be able to walk alone, use a pincer grip, say a few words like mama and dada, and play pattercake.
18 months: By this age, a child should be able to walk confidently, build a tower of 2-3 blocks, say six clear words, and point to named pictures.
2 years: At this age, a child should be able to climb stairs, build a tower of 6-7 blocks, use a spoon, and combine 2-3 words into sentences.
3 years: By this age, a child should be able to ride a tricycle, draw a circle and a cross, use a fork and spoon, and follow three-step instructions.
These milestones are important for parents and caregivers to be aware of, as they can help identify any potential developmental delays or concerns. It’s important to remember that every child develops at their own pace, and some may reach these milestones earlier or later than others. If you have any concerns about your child’s development, it’s always best to consult with a healthcare professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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What are the typical vaccines administered to adolescents aged 12-19 years?
Your Answer: Tetanus/diphtheria/polio + Men C
Correct Answer: Tetanus/diphtheria/polio + Men ACWY
Explanation:The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at certain intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, and PCV vaccines are given, along with Men B. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.
It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine will also be offered to new students (up to the age of 25 years) at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine. Students going to university or college for the first time as freshers, including overseas and mature students up to the age of 25, should contact their GP to have the Men ACWY vaccine, ideally before the start of the academic year.
It is worth noting that the Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued. This is because the success of the Men C vaccination programme means there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK any longer. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old female visits her GP seeking to begin taking the contraceptive pill. The GP takes into account the Fraser Guidelines before approving the prescription. What is one of the requirements that must be met?
Your Answer: It is in the young person's best interest to receive contraceptive advice with a relative or friend present
Correct Answer: The young person's physical or mental health, or both, are likely to suffer if the contraceptive pill is not prescribed
Explanation:If a young person is denied access to contraception, their physical and mental health may be negatively impacted. While it is not mandatory for them to inform their parents, it is recommended to encourage them to seek support from their parents. The age of 16 is not a requirement for the young person to stop having sex. While providing information leaflets is not a Fraser guideline, it can still be helpful for the young person. It is not necessary to have a relative or friend present when determining the best interests of the young person.
Understanding the Fraser Guidelines for Consent to Treatment in Minors
The Fraser guidelines are a set of criteria used to determine whether a minor under the age of 16 is competent to give consent for medical treatment, particularly in relation to contraception. To be considered competent, the young person must demonstrate an understanding of the healthcare professional’s advice and cannot be persuaded to inform or involve their parents in the decision-making process. Additionally, the young person must be likely to engage in sexual activity with or without contraception, and their physical or mental health is at risk without treatment. Ultimately, the decision to provide treatment without parental consent must be in the best interest of the young person. These guidelines are important in ensuring that minors have access to necessary medical care while also protecting their autonomy and privacy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 11
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman has just had her 34 week check. The patient reported reduced fetal movements 3 days ago, but they are now back to normal. An ultrasound was performed to investigate any potential issues. The obstetrician informs her that a defect in the abdominal wall has been detected and the baby's intestines are outside the body but enclosed in a membrane. Despite this, the baby is healthy. What is the best course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: Plan a caesarean section at 37 weeks
Explanation:If the unborn baby has exomphalos, it is recommended to opt for a caesarean section to minimize the chances of sac rupture. The presence of a membrane containing the abdominal content suggests that the baby is likely to have exomphalos. While vaginal delivery is possible, a caesarean section is the safest delivery option. There is no need for an emergency caesarean section as the baby is not experiencing any distress. Inducing labor for vaginal delivery is not advisable, and a caesarean section is a better option. Additionally, IM corticosteroids are not necessary as there is no risk of premature delivery at present. These steroids are typically used when women are at risk of or experience premature labor.
Gastroschisis and exomphalos are both types of congenital visceral malformations. Gastroschisis refers to a defect in the anterior abdominal wall located just beside the umbilical cord. In contrast, exomphalos, also known as omphalocoele, involves the protrusion of abdominal contents through the anterior abdominal wall, which are covered by an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.
When it comes to managing gastroschisis, vaginal delivery may be attempted, but newborns should be taken to the operating theatre as soon as possible after delivery, ideally within four hours. As for exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to reduce the risk of sac rupture. In cases where primary closure is difficult due to lack of space or high intra-abdominal pressure, a staged repair may be undertaken. This involves allowing the sac to granulate and epithelialise over several weeks or months, forming a shell. As the infant grows, the sac contents will eventually fit within the abdominal cavity, at which point the shell can be removed and the abdomen closed.
Overall, both gastroschisis and exomphalos require careful management to ensure the best possible outcome for the newborn. By understanding the differences between these two conditions and the appropriate steps to take, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support to both the infant and their family.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 12
Correct
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A 14-year-old male from the Roma community presents to his GP with symptoms of cough, rhinorrhoea, sore throat, fever and a rash. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications. He recently arrived from Romania. On examination, he has a maculopapular rash on his face, serous discharge from his eyes, and small white lesions on his buccal mucosa. There is no tonsillar exudate or evidence of meningism. Cardio-respiratory and abdominal examinations are unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Measles
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms, including cough, conjunctivitis, fever, and a rash with Koplik spots, suggest a diagnosis of measles. Measles is characterized by these symptoms, as well as a maculopapular rash that starts behind the ears. The presence of Koplik spots is a key indicator of measles. It is worth noting that some groups, such as the Roma community, have lower rates of vaccination against measles, mumps, and rubella.
Epstein Barr virus is an incorrect answer. While it can cause fever and sore throat, it is less likely to present with a rash and Koplik spots. Instead, cervical lymphadenopathy is a more prominent feature. Palatal petechiae may be visible early on.
Rubella is also an incorrect answer. While it can cause a rash on the face, there is no presence of Koplik spots. Additionally, fever tends to be less severe. Post-auricular and suboccipital lymphadenopathy may be present.
Scarlet fever is another incorrect answer. The rash associated with scarlet fever typically starts on the abdomen and spreads to the back and limbs. Sore throat is a prominent symptom, and there may be tonsillar exudate. Cough is not typically present, and a strawberry tongue may be visible.
Measles: A Highly Infectious Viral Disease
Measles is a viral disease caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is one of the most infectious known viruses and is spread through aerosol transmission. The disease has an incubation period of 10-14 days and is infective from the prodromal phase until four days after the rash starts. Measles is now rare in developed countries due to immunization programs, but outbreaks can occur when vaccination rates drop, such as during the MMR controversy of the early 2000s.
The disease is characterized by a prodromal phase, which includes irritability, conjunctivitis, fever, and Koplik spots. The latter typically develop before the rash and are white spots on the buccal mucosa. The rash starts behind the ears and then spreads to the whole body, becoming a discrete maculopapular rash that may become blotchy and confluent. Desquamation may occur after a week, typically sparing the palms and soles. Diarrhea occurs in around 10% of patients.
Measles is mainly managed through supportive care, and admission may be considered in immunosuppressed or pregnant patients. The disease is notifiable, and public health should be informed. Complications of measles include otitis media, pneumonia (the most common cause of death), encephalitis (typically occurring 1-2 weeks following the onset of the illness), subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (very rare, may present 5-10 years following the illness), febrile convulsions, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis.
If an unimmunized child comes into contact with measles, MMR should be offered within 72 hours. Vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 13
Correct
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A mother brings her 8-week-old baby to the GP clinic for their routine 7-week check-up. The baby appears happy and responsive during the assessment. During the examination, you observe weak femoral pulses on both sides. The rest of the examination is normal.
What is the most suitable course of action to take?Your Answer: Same day discussion with paediatrics
Explanation:If a baby’s femoral pulses are absent or weak during their 6-8 week check, it is important to discuss this immediately with paediatrics. Any signs of a critical or major congenital heart abnormality should also be seen urgently by a specialist. Advising the mother that these findings are normal would be inappropriate, as they are abnormal. While safety netting is important, the child should still be seen urgently by the appropriate specialist. Taking the child to the emergency department is not the best option, as they may not be equipped to deal with this issue and will likely refer to the paediatrics team themselves. Referring routinely to paediatrics or making an appointment in 2 weeks would waste valuable time in a potentially unwell child who needs urgent referral.
Congenital heart disease can be categorized into two types: acyanotic and cyanotic. Acyanotic heart diseases are more common and include ventricular septal defects (VSD), atrial septal defect (ASD), patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), coarctation of the aorta, and aortic valve stenosis. VSD is the most common acyanotic heart disease, accounting for 30% of cases. ASDs are less common than VSDs, but they are more frequently diagnosed in adult patients as they tend to present later. On the other hand, cyanotic heart diseases are less common and include tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries (TGA), and tricuspid atresia. Fallot’s is more common than TGA, but TGA is the more common lesion at birth as patients with Fallot’s generally present at around 1-2 months. The presence of cyanosis in pulmonary valve stenosis depends on the severity and any other coexistent defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old girl presents to the Emergency department with a three day history of limping. She has been experiencing illness recently. Upon examination, she has no fever and shows discomfort when moving her hip. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Perthes' disease
Correct Answer: Transient synovitis
Explanation:Transient Synovitis in Childhood: the Causes and Diagnosis
Transient synovitis is a prevalent cause of hip pain in children, but it is crucial to rule out other more severe causes before diagnosing it. The exact cause of this condition is still unknown, but it is believed to be associated with viral infections, allergic reactions, or trauma.
Transient synovitis is a self-limiting condition that typically resolves within a few days to weeks. However, it is essential to differentiate it from other conditions that may require urgent medical attention, such as septic arthritis or Legg-Calve-Perthes disease. Therefore, a thorough medical history, physical examination, and imaging studies are necessary to make an accurate diagnosis.
In conclusion, transient synovitis is a common cause of hip pain in childhood, but it is crucial to exclude other more serious conditions before diagnosing it. Parents should seek medical attention if their child experiences hip pain, limping, or difficulty walking to ensure prompt and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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You are summoned to the neonatal ward to assess a 12 hour old infant delivered via elective caesarian section at 38 weeks gestation. Upon reviewing the medical records, you come across the administration of maternal labetalol for hypertension. During the physical examination, you observe that the baby displays tremors and decreased muscle tone. What would be the most suitable course of action to take next?
Your Answer: Perform full septic screen
Correct Answer: Measure blood glucose levels
Explanation:If a baby appears nervous and has low muscle tone, it could indicate neonatal hypoglycemia. It is important to check the baby’s blood glucose levels, especially if the mother has been taking labetalol. Additionally, if the mother has used opiates or illegal drugs during pregnancy, the baby may also exhibit symptoms of neonatal abstinence syndrome.
Neonatal Hypoglycaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Neonatal hypoglycaemia is a common condition in newborn babies, especially in the first 24 hours of life. While there is no agreed definition, a blood glucose level of less than 2.6 mmol/L is often used as a guideline. Transient hypoglycaemia is normal and usually resolves on its own, but persistent or severe hypoglycaemia may be caused by various factors such as preterm birth, maternal diabetes mellitus, IUGR, hypothermia, neonatal sepsis, inborn errors of metabolism, nesidioblastosis, or Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome.
Symptoms of neonatal hypoglycaemia can be autonomic, such as jitteriness, irritability, tachypnoea, and pallor, or neuroglycopenic, such as poor feeding/sucking, weak cry, drowsiness, hypotonia, and seizures. Other features may include apnoea and hypothermia. Management of neonatal hypoglycaemia depends on the severity of the condition and whether the newborn is symptomatic or not. Asymptomatic babies can be encouraged to feed normally and have their blood glucose monitored, while symptomatic or severely hypoglycaemic babies may need to be admitted to the neonatal unit and receive intravenous infusion of 10% dextrose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 4-month-old boy is being seen by his GP for an undescended testi. During the NIPE at birth, his right testi was found to be undescended. On examination today, only one testi is palpated in the scrotum. The patient is referred to the surgeons for further evaluation. What potential complication is this patient at an elevated risk of experiencing if the undescended testi is not addressed?
Your Answer: Orchitis
Correct Answer: Testicular torsion
Explanation:Undescended testicles can lead to testicular torsion, infertility, and testicular cancer if left untreated. It is recommended to wait up to three months for spontaneous descent, but intervention should occur by six months of age. Femoral hernias are rare in childhood, but undescended testicles may increase the risk of an inguinal hernia. Hydroceles are common at birth and resolve on their own, without known association to undescended testicles. While orchitis can occur in an undescended testis, there is no increased risk of orchitis due to lack of descent.
Undescended Testis: Causes, Complications, and Management
Undescended testis is a condition that affects around 2-3% of male infants born at term, but it is more common in preterm babies. Bilateral undescended testes occur in about 25% of cases. This condition can lead to complications such as infertility, torsion, testicular cancer, and psychological issues.
To manage unilateral undescended testis, NICE CKS recommends considering referral from around 3 months of age, with the baby ideally seeing a urological surgeon before 6 months of age. Orchidopexy, a surgical procedure, is typically performed at around 1 year of age, although surgical practices may vary.
For bilateral undescended testes, it is crucial to have the child reviewed by a senior paediatrician within 24 hours as they may require urgent endocrine or genetic investigation. Proper management of undescended testis is essential to prevent complications and ensure the child’s overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Liam is an 8-year-old boy brought in by his father with a 2 day history of fever and sore throat. Today he has developed a rash on his torso. He is eating and drinking well, but has not been to school for the last 2 days and has been feeling tired.
On examination, Liam is alert, smiling and playful. He has a temperature of 37.8°C. His throat appears red with petechiae on the hard and soft palate and his tongue is covered with a white coat through which red papillae are visible. There is a blanching rash present on his trunk which is red and punctate with a rough, sandpaper-like texture.
What is the appropriate time for Liam to return to school, given the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Once she has completed a course of antibiotics
Correct Answer: 24 hours after commencing antibiotics
Explanation:If a child has scarlet fever, they can go back to school after 24 hours of starting antibiotics. The symptoms described are typical of scarlet fever, including a strawberry tongue and a rough-textured rash with small red spots on the palate called Forchheimer spots. Charlotte doesn’t need to be hospitalized but should take a 10-day course of phenoxymethylpenicillin (penicillin V). According to NICE, the child should stay away from school, nursery, or work for at least 24 hours after starting antibiotics. It’s also important to advise parents to take measures to prevent cross-infection, such as frequent handwashing, avoiding sharing utensils and towels, and disposing of tissues promptly.
Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more prevalent in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease spreads through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges, especially during sneezing and coughing. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, nausea/vomiting, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. The rash has a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture and desquamation occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes.
To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be initiated immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves administering oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Although usually a mild illness, scarlet fever may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, or necrotizing fasciitis, which may present acutely with life-threatening illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy is brought into the Emergency Department by his mother. He is known to have haemophilia B and has fallen while playing basketball. His ankle is very swollen and bruised.
Which of the following would be the best treatment option for this patient?Your Answer: Recombinant factor XI
Correct Answer: Recombinant factor IX
Explanation:Treatment Options for Haemophilia B: Recombinant Factor IX and Cryoprecipitate
Haemophilia B, also known as Christmas disease, is a rare genetic disorder caused by a deficiency in factor IX. While it shares similar inheritance patterns and clinical features with haemophilia A, its incidence is much lower. Treatment for haemophilia B involves factor IX concentrates, with recombinant factor IX being the most commonly used. Prophylactic doses may be given twice a week for patients with severe disease or a history of significant bleeding, but there is a risk of developing inhibitors against the factor.
Cryoprecipitate, on the other hand, does not contain factor IX but rather fibrinogen, von Willebrandâs factor, and factors VIII and XIII. It may be used in certain situations, but it is not a primary treatment for haemophilia B.
It is important to note that recombinant factor VIII is not indicated for haemophilia B, as it is specific to haemophilia A. Similarly, factor XI is not a treatment option for haemophilia B.
While factor IX is a vitamin K-dependent clotting factor, the deficiency in haemophilia B is not caused by a lack of vitamin K. Understanding the appropriate treatment options for haemophilia B is crucial for managing this rare disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 19
Correct
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You are reviewing a 12-hour-old neonate on the Postnatal Ward. During your examination, you notice a swelling over the occipital region of the skull. It is soft and does not appear tender. On further examination, you feel that the swelling is crossing the cranial sutures. Neurologically, the child appears normal. She was born by forceps due to failure to progress. There is no family history of note.
What is the most appropriate initial investigation?Your Answer: Cranial ultrasound scan
Explanation:Investigations for Cranial Swellings in Neonates
Cranial swellings in neonates can be a cause for concern, and prompt investigation is necessary to rule out serious conditions such as subgaleal haemorrhage. The following are some common investigations used to diagnose cranial swellings in neonates:
Cranial Ultrasound Scan
This is the investigation of choice and can be done quickly and safely by Neonatal Consultants and most Paediatric Registrars on Neonatal placement. The scan can provide a significant amount of information, and the key finding to look for is whether the swelling crosses the cranial suture lines. If it does, this should be a cause for concern as it may indicate subgaleal haemorrhage.Cerebral Function Monitoring
This investigation is used to monitor a neonate’s neurological state and identify seizure activity. However, it is not necessary in cases where the baby appears neurologically normal, as in the case of cranial swellings.Cranial Computed Tomography (CT) Scan
This investigation exposes the baby to unnecessary radiation and is not recommended as the first choice. If the findings from the cranial ultrasound scan are unclear, an MRI scan is the next investigation of choice.Cranial Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) Scan
This investigation is not the first choice and is only done after a cranial ultrasound scan. It provides detailed information about the cranial swelling and can help diagnose conditions such as subgaleal haemorrhage.Liver Function Tests
Liver function tests are not part of the initial workup for cranial swellings. However, they may be done at some point during admission for other reasons, such as the risk of jaundice secondary to possible extra-/intracranial haemorrhage. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the following is least commonly associated with constipation in toddlers?
Your Answer: Anal fissure
Correct Answer: Addison's disease
Explanation:Understanding and Managing Constipation in Children
Constipation is a common problem in children, with the frequency of bowel movements decreasing as they age. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis and management of constipation in children. A diagnosis of constipation is suggested by two or more symptoms, including infrequent bowel movements, hard stools, and associated distress or pain. Most cases of constipation in children are idiopathic, but other causes such as dehydration, low-fiber diet, and medication use should be considered and excluded.
If a diagnosis of constipation is made, NICE recommends assessing for faecal impaction before starting treatment. Treatment for faecal impaction involves using polyethylene glycol 3350 + electrolytes (Movicol Paediatric Plain) as the first-line treatment, with the addition of a stimulant laxative if necessary. Maintenance therapy involves a similar regime, with adjustments to the starting dose and the addition of other laxatives if necessary.
It is important to note that dietary interventions alone are not recommended as first-line treatment, although ensuring adequate fluid and fiber intake is important. Regular toileting and non-punitive behavioral interventions should also be considered. For infants, extra water, gentle abdominal massage, and bicycling the legs can be helpful for constipation. If these measures are not effective, lactulose can be added.
In summary, constipation in children can be managed effectively with a combination of medication, dietary adjustments, and behavioral interventions. It is important to follow NICE guidelines and consider the individual needs of each child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which of the following features is not typically associated with patent ductus arteriosus?
Your Answer: Wide pulse pressure
Correct Answer: Bisferiens pulse
Explanation:A collapsing pulse is linked to PDA.
Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.
The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 22
Correct
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A 13-year-old boy was hospitalized due to a two-week history of high-grade fever and bleeding gums. Upon examination of his peripheral blood, multiple blasts were observed, some of which displayed Auer rods. Which congenital condition is most strongly linked to this presentation?
Your Answer: Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)
Explanation:Congenital syndromes associated with acute myeloblastic leukemia
Acute myeloblastic leukemia (AML) can be associated with various congenital syndromes, including severe congenital neutropenia (Kostmann syndrome), Bloom syndrome, Fanconi anemia, Diamond-Blackfan syndrome, neurofibromatosis type 1, and Li Fraumeni syndrome. However, Gardner syndrome, or familial colorectal polyposis, is not linked to AML. Trisomy 18 (Edward syndrome) is a chromosomal abnormality that has a poor prognosis but is not typically associated with AML. Klinefelter syndrome, a genetic disorder characterized by an extra X chromosome in males, may increase the risk of breast cancer and germ cell tumors, but the evidence for an association with AML is inconclusive. Haemophilia, a bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency in clotting factors, does not predispose to AML or mucosal bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 23
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl comes to the GP with a pink spotted rash on her torso that has spread to all her limbs. Her mother reports that she had a high fever for three days before the rash appeared, and that she seemed to be improving before that. The girl is now without a fever.
During the examination, the GP observes a maculopapular red rash on the girl's trunk and limbs. All other aspects of the examination are normal, and her vital signs are stable.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Roseola infantum
Explanation:Roseola infantum begins with a high fever that disappears before the rash appears. The rash starts suddenly after the temperature drops and usually starts on the trunk before spreading to the limbs. It is a non-itchy maculopapular rash.
Measles rash occurs with other systemic symptoms and usually starts on the face before spreading to other parts of the body. The characteristic ‘koplik spots’ are a classic sign of this illness.
Chickenpox starts as a red, itchy papular rash that becomes vesicular and can appear anywhere on the body.
Erythema multiforme is not caused by a virus but is a hypersensitivity reaction to herpes 7 virus. The macules are typically larger than other rashes and can progress to plaque-like lesions.
Hand, foot, and mouth disease is caused by the Coxsackie A6 virus and is characterized by painful vesicular lesions on the palms, soles, and buccal mucosa.
Understanding Roseola Infantum
Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpes virus 6 (HHV6). This disease has an incubation period of 5-15 days and is typically seen in children aged 6 months to 2 years. The most common symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms may include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea.
In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of children with roseola infantum. While this can be concerning for parents, it is important to note that this is a common occurrence and typically resolves on its own. Additionally, HHV6 infection can lead to other possible consequences such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis.
It is important to note that school exclusion is not necessary for children with roseola infantum. While this illness can be uncomfortable for infants, it is typically not serious and resolves on its own within a few days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 24
Correct
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Sophie is a 15-year-old who has visited her GP seeking advice on contraception. She discloses that she has been sexually active with a 15-year-old male partner for the past 3 months. Sophie has done her research on various contraceptive methods and expresses her interest in trying the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She has a history of depression due to childhood abuse and is currently receiving treatment from the Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services. However, she reports feeling much better since starting her relationship with her partner. Sophie's parents are unaware of the situation, and she is unwilling to inform them. What is the appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Prescribe the COCP, providing there are no contraindications
Explanation:The Fraser guidelines state that if a child meets the criteria, they can be prescribed the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) without parental knowledge or consent. It is important to maintain confidentiality and not breach it by discussing with the child’s parents. The child’s age or lack of consent for sexual intercourse should not affect their entitlement to contraception. While a full STI screen and pregnancy test are important aspects of holistic care, they are not necessary to prescribe the COCP. The GMC’s guidance on contraception, abortion, and STIs for those aged 0-18 also allows for providing such advice and treatment to young people under 16 without parental knowledge or consent if certain criteria are met.
Guidelines for Obtaining Consent in Children
The General Medical Council has provided guidelines for obtaining consent in children. According to these guidelines, young people who are 16 years or older can be treated as adults and are presumed to have the capacity to make decisions. However, for children under the age of 16, their ability to understand what is involved determines whether they have the capacity to decide. If a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorize investigation or treatment that is in the child’s best interests.
When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years of age, the Fraser Guidelines must be followed. These guidelines state that the young person must understand the professional’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without contraceptive treatment. Additionally, the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent.
Some doctors use the term Fraser competency when referring to contraception and Gillick competency when referring to general issues of consent in children. However, rumors that Victoria Gillick removed her permission to use her name or applied copyright have been debunked. It is important to note that in Scotland, those with parental responsibility cannot authorize procedures that a competent child has refused.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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At what age do children typically begin to play alongside their peers without actively engaging with them?
Your Answer: 6 months
Correct Answer: 2 years
Explanation:The table summarizes developmental milestones for social behavior, feeding, dressing, and play. Milestones include smiling at 6 weeks, using a spoon and cup at 12-15 months, and playing with other children at 4 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A ten-year-old boy with a history of asthma and eczema visits the urgent GP clinic due to a cough. Upon entering the room, he appears to be in good health and is able to speak in complete sentences. His oxygen saturation level is 97% in air, peak expiratory flow is 60% of expected, heart rate is 115/min, and respiratory rate is 28/min. During chest examination, widespread wheezing is observed. What is the appropriate course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: Salbutamol via a spacer: one puff every 30-60 seconds to a maximum of 10 puffs
Correct Answer: Oral prednisolone and salbutamol via a spacer: one puff every 30-60 seconds to a maximum of 10 puffs
Explanation:His respiratory rate and heart rate are both within normal limits, with a respiratory rate of less than 30 breaths per minute and a heart rate of less than 125 beats per minute. The appropriate treatment for his asthma attack is oral prednisolone and salbutamol via a spacer, with one puff administered every 30-60 seconds up to a maximum of 10 puffs. It is important to administer steroid therapy to all children experiencing an asthma attack. The use of high flow oxygen and a salbutamol nebuliser is not necessary, as his SP02 is already at 97%.
Managing Acute Asthma Attacks in Children
When it comes to managing acute asthma attacks in children, it is important to assess the severity of the attack and take appropriate action. For children between the ages of 2 and 5, those with severe or life-threatening asthma should be immediately transferred to the hospital. For moderate attacks, children should have a SpO2 level above 92% and no clinical features of severe asthma. However, for severe attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, be too breathless to talk or feed, have a heart rate above 140/min, and use accessory neck muscles. For life-threatening attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, agitation, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.
For children over the age of 5, it is recommended to attempt to measure PEF in all cases. For moderate attacks, children should have a SpO2 level above 92%, a PEF level above 50% best or predicted, and no clinical features of severe asthma. For severe attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level between 33-50% best or predicted, and be unable to complete sentences in one breath or too breathless to talk or feed. For life-threatening attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level below 33% best or predicted, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.
For children with mild to moderate acute asthma, bronchodilator therapy should be given via a beta-2 agonist and spacer (or close-fitting mask for children under 3 years old). One puff should be given every 30-60 seconds up to a maximum of 10 puffs. If symptoms are not controlled, the beta-2 agonist should be repeated and the child should be referred to the hospital. Steroid therapy should also be given to all children with an asthma exacerbation for 3-5 days, with the usual prednisolone dose varying based on age and weight.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 27
Correct
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A 4-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father with bruising after a fall. During assessment, it is noted that she has a global developmental delay. She walks with difficulty, has some fine motor skills, and is playing with toys during the consultation. There are bruises on her back, right elbow, and right thigh, at different stages of healing.
Her father reports that these bruises are from her being clumsy for the past few months and he himself once had bruising which required oral steroids and thinks she has developed the same condition.
What would be the most appropriate next step in her management?Your Answer: Immediately contact safeguarding lead
Explanation:The presence of multiple bruises at different stages of healing in an infant who has been brought a few months after the injuries occurred should raise suspicion of non-accidental injury. This is because it is unlikely for a child to have so many bruises from clumsiness alone. A delayed presentation may also suggest non-accidental injury. Therefore, the correct course of action is to immediately contact the safeguarding lead. While coagulation screen and coagulopathy testing may be performed later, they are not the first priority. Similarly, oral prednisolone is not the first-line treatment for children with immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) and is not relevant in this case. The priority is to assess the infant for non-accidental injury.
Recognizing Child Abuse: Signs and Symptoms
Child abuse is a serious issue that can have long-lasting effects on a child’s physical and emotional well-being. It is important to be able to recognize the signs and symptoms of child abuse in order to intervene and protect the child. One possible indicator of abuse is when a child discloses abuse themselves. However, there are other factors that may point towards abuse, such as an inconsistent story with injuries, repeated visits to A&E departments, delayed presentation, and a frightened, withdrawn appearance known as frozen watchfulness.
Physical presentations of child abuse can also be a sign of abuse. These may include bruising, fractures (especially metaphyseal, posterior rib fractures, or multiple fractures at different stages of healing), torn frenulum (such as from forcing a bottle into a child’s mouth), burns or scalds, failure to thrive, and sexually transmitted infections like Chlamydia, gonorrhoeae, and Trichomonas. It is important to be aware of these signs and symptoms and to report any concerns to the appropriate authorities to ensure the safety and well-being of the child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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When do most children begin to say mama and dada? Is there a typical age range for this milestone?
Your Answer: 3 months
Correct Answer: 9-10 months
Explanation:Developmental milestones for speech and hearing are important indicators of a child’s growth and development. These milestones can help parents and caregivers track a child’s progress and identify any potential issues early on. At three months, a baby should be able to quieten to their parents’ voice and turn towards sound. They may also start to squeal. By six months, they should be able to produce double syllables like adah and erleh. At nine months, they may say mama and dada and understand the word no. By 12 months, they should know and respond to their own name and understand simple commands like give it to mummy.
Between 12 and 15 months, a child may know about 2-6 words and understand more complex commands. By two years old, they should be able to combine two words and point to parts of their body. Their vocabulary should be around 200 words by 2 1/2 years old. At three years old, they should be able to talk in short sentences and ask what and who questions. They may also be able to identify colors and count to 10. By four years old, they may start asking why, when, and how questions. These milestones are important to keep in mind as a child grows and develops their speech and hearing abilities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician as her mother has noticed her limping for the past day. She is up to date with her vaccinations and has no past medical history, although she did have symptoms of a cold a few days ago.
During the examination, the girl appears to be in good health. Her temperature is 38.3ÂșC, her heart rate is 110 beats per minute, her respiratory rate is 25 breaths per minute, and her oxygen saturation is 100% on air. There is no redness, swelling, or erythema to her hip joint, and she allows slight movement of the hip, although she becomes upset with excessive movement.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Refer routinely to paediatric orthopaedics
Correct Answer: Refer for a same-day hospital assessment
Explanation:If a child is experiencing hip pain or a limp and also has a fever, it is important to refer them for same-day assessment, even if the suspected diagnosis is transient synovitis.
Based on the child’s age, overall health (aside from the fever), recent cold, and examination findings (limited movement but a normal-looking joint without significant restriction), transient synovitis is the most likely cause of the hip pain. While this condition can be managed with pain relief and typically resolves on its own, any child with hip pain and a fever should be assessed immediately to rule out septic arthritis.
In secondary care, the Kocher criteria are used to determine the likelihood of a septic joint based on a combination of signs and symptoms (fever and non-weight bearing) and blood tests (ESR and white cell count).
A routine hip ultrasound is not necessary in this case, as it is typically used to screen for developmental dysplasia of the hip in newborns or those with risk factors. Bilateral hip x-rays are also not required, as they are used to investigate suspected Perthes’ disease, which presents differently and is more common in slightly older children.
Conservative management is appropriate for transient synovitis, but it is important to have a low threshold for referral to secondary care given the potential for septic arthritis. A routine referral to paediatric orthopaedics is not necessary for either transient synovitis or septic arthritis.
Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is a common cause of hip pain in children aged 3-8 years. It typically occurs following a recent viral infection and presents with symptoms such as groin or hip pain, limping or refusal to weight bear, and occasionally a low-grade fever. However, a high fever may indicate other serious conditions such as septic arthritis, which requires urgent specialist assessment. To exclude such diagnoses, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend monitoring children in primary care with a presumptive diagnosis of transient synovitis, provided they are aged 3-9 years, well, afebrile, mobile but limping, and have had symptoms for less than 72 hours. Treatment for transient synovitis involves rest and analgesia, as the condition is self-limiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 30
Correct
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A 16-week-old infant is brought to the GP by their mother due to regurgitation and vomiting after most feeds, ongoing diarrhea with significant amounts of mucous, and difficulty settling. The mother also reports that the infant often pulls their legs up to their chest during crying episodes. The infant was born at full term, had a healthy weight at birth, and is formula-fed. They have a history of eczema managed with emollients. What is the recommended next step in management?
Your Answer: Trial of extensively hydrolysed formula
Explanation:In case of mild-moderate cow’s milk protein intolerance in a baby who is fed with formula, it is recommended to switch to an extensively hydrolyzed formula.
Understanding Cow’s Milk Protein Intolerance/Allergy
Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects around 3-6% of children, typically presenting in the first 3 months of life in formula-fed infants. Both immediate and delayed reactions can occur, with CMPA used for immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms include regurgitation, vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms, wheeze, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis. Diagnosis is often clinical, with investigations including skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein.
Management for formula-fed infants includes using extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk as the first-line replacement formula for mild-moderate symptoms and amino acid-based formula (AAF) for severe CMPA or if no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants are also intolerant to soya milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should eliminate cow’s milk protein from their diet and consider prescribing calcium supplements to prevent deficiency. eHF milk can be used when breastfeeding stops until at least 6 months and up to 12 months of age.
The prognosis for CMPI is usually good, with most children becoming milk tolerant by the age of 3-5 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur. It is important to refer infants with severe symptoms to a pediatrician for management. Understanding CMPI/CMPA and its management can help parents and healthcare providers provide appropriate care for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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