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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old gentleman with Down's syndrome reports low mood and lethargy for the...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old gentleman with Down's syndrome reports low mood and lethargy for the past three months. He reports no thoughts of self-harm and has a supportive network of family and friends. There are no obvious social triggers for his new symptoms. He still enjoys his regular trips to the day centre and watching movies.

      Which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?

      Your Answer: Blood tests including TFTs

      Explanation:

      Hypothyroidism and Low Mood in Down’s Syndrome

      Although routine investigations are not necessary for individuals with low mood, it is important to note that the prevalence of hypothyroidism is increased in people with Down’s syndrome. This condition can manifest with nonspecific symptoms such as lethargy and low mood, or it may be asymptomatic. Therefore, it may be necessary to conduct investigations to rule out hypothyroidism as a potential cause of low mood in individuals with Down’s syndrome.

      There are no apparent safeguarding concerns or reasons to breach confidentiality in this situation. However, if investigations are normal, it is still possible that the individual is experiencing depression. In such cases, antidepressants, psychological therapy, and advice from psychiatry may be appropriate next steps. It is important to consider all potential causes of low mood in individuals with Down’s syndrome to ensure that they receive the appropriate care and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
      52.7
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  • Question 2 - A 49-year-old woman who breeds parrots presents with a dry cough, fever and...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old woman who breeds parrots presents with a dry cough, fever and myalgia. Upon examination, her temperature is 37.8°C and there are no other notable findings. You advise her to take fluids and paracetamol and to contact you if her symptoms do not improve. She returns after a week with a worsening cough that is now accompanied by blood and a severe headache. During the examination, you observe a faint macular rash on her face, and she has mild tachypnoea but minimal chest signs. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Psittacosis

      Explanation:

      Psittacosis: A Rare Illness Caused by Bird Exposure

      Psittacosis is a rare illness caused by Chlamydophila psittaci, which is carried by birds, particularly parrots. The incubation period is 1-4 weeks, and symptoms include myalgia, cough, headache, and flu-like symptoms. It presents as a community-acquired pneumonia with marked signs of systemic illness, including fever and lassitude. Other symptoms include a non-productive cough, dyspnoea, sore throat, nosebleeds, and occasionally pleuritic chest pain. Severe headache and photophobia are common, and gastrointestinal symptoms may occur. Rose spots, called Horder’s spots, can appear on the face. The chest x-ray may look worse than the clinical signs suggest, and bradycardia and splenomegaly are common. Treatment is with tetracycline, and the prognosis is good if early antibiotic therapy is given.

      Compared to influenza, which typically lasts for 3-5 days, psittacosis has a more gradual onset and lasts longer. L pneumophila is another possible cause of atypical pneumonia, but exposure to birds points to psittacosis. Typical community-acquired pneumonia, such as pneumococcal pneumonia, has a more acute onset and significant focal chest signs. Therefore, it is important to consider psittacosis in patients with bird exposure and atypical pneumonia symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor to discuss the results of some recent...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor to discuss the results of some recent blood tests she had done due to ongoing symptoms of chronic fatigue. She has a previous diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) from a few years ago, but is otherwise healthy and has never had her blood checked before. She reports experiencing intermittent abdominal bloating, constipation, and abdominal pains. She is not taking any medications, her weight is stable, and her blood tests show microcytic anemia with low ferritin levels. Which of the following tests is most likely to lead to an accurate diagnosis? Choose only ONE option.

      Your Answer: Tissue transglutaminase (TTG)

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for a Patient with Gastrointestinal Symptoms: A Case Study

      A 28-year-old female patient presents with intermittent abdominal bloating, constipation, abdominal pains, and persistent fatigue. She has never had any blood tests before. The following diagnostic tests are available:

      Tissue Transglutaminase (TTG) Test: This test is used to diagnose coeliac disease, an immune-mediated disorder triggered by exposure to dietary gluten. The patient’s symptoms and history suggest coeliac disease, and a TTG test should be requested. If the result suggests possible coeliac disease, the patient should be referred to gastroenterology for endoscopic intestinal biopsy.

      Faecal Immunochemical Testing (FIT): FIT testing can be used to look for occult faecal blood if colorectal cancer is suspected. However, the patient’s young age and stable weight make colorectal cancer less likely.

      Cancer-Antigen 125 (CA-125) Test: This test is used to diagnose ovarian cancer, which is difficult to diagnose due to nonspecific symptoms. However, the patient’s age makes ovarian cancer less likely than other options.

      Faecal Calprotectin Test: This test is used to distinguish between inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) and irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). However, the patient’s symptoms do not suggest IBD, and faecal calprotectin may not be the most likely test to lead to the correct diagnosis.

      Haemochromatosis Gene (HFE) Testing: This test is used to detect hereditary haemochromatosis, which presents with iron overload rather than deficiency. The patient’s symptoms suggest iron-deficiency anaemia, and HFE testing may not be necessary.

      In conclusion, based on the patient’s symptoms and history, a TTG test for coeliac disease is the most appropriate diagnostic test to request.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      70.4
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  • Question 4 - A 26-year-old man comes to you with complaints of a persistent sore throat...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old man comes to you with complaints of a persistent sore throat and occasional hoarseness that has been bothering him for a few months. He expresses concern that there may be something lodged in his throat, but he is able to swallow without difficulty. He denies any significant weight loss and has no notable medical or family history.

      During your examination, you observe mild redness in the oropharynx, but the neck appears normal and there are no palpable masses.

      What would be the best course of action in this case?

      Your Answer: Prescribe a trial of a proton pump inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Understanding Laryngopharyngeal Reflux

      Laryngopharyngeal reflux (LPR) is a condition that occurs when stomach acid flows back into the throat, causing inflammation in the larynx and hypopharynx mucosa. It is a common diagnosis, accounting for approximately 10% of ear, nose, and throat referrals. Symptoms of LPR include a sensation of a lump in the throat, hoarseness, chronic cough, dysphagia, heartburn, and sore throat. The external examination of the neck should be normal, with no masses, and the posterior pharynx may appear erythematous.

      Diagnosis of LPR can be made without further investigations in the absence of red flags. However, the NICE cancer referral guidelines should be reviewed for red flags such as persistent, unilateral throat discomfort, dysphagia, and persistent hoarseness. Lifestyle measures such as avoiding fatty foods, caffeine, chocolate, and alcohol can help manage LPR. Additionally, proton pump inhibitors and sodium alginate liquids like Gaviscon can also be used to manage symptoms.

      In summary, Laryngopharyngeal reflux is a common condition that can cause discomfort and inflammation in the throat. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention if red flags are present. Lifestyle measures and medication can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      40.7
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  • Question 5 - A 6-month-old boy has recurrent sticky eyes and has twice had a course...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old boy has recurrent sticky eyes and has twice had a course of topical antibiotics. A bead of pus is visible at the medial canthus of both eyes. The eyes are not red. He is afebrile and otherwise well.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer: Refer for nasolacrimal duct probing

      Correct Answer: Advice about nasolacrimal duct massage

      Explanation:

      Managing Nasolacrimal Duct Obstruction in Children: Advice on Massage and Referral

      Nasolacrimal duct obstruction, also known as dacryostenosis, is a common condition in neonates, affecting up to 70% of infants. However, only a small percentage of these infants exhibit symptoms. In most cases, the condition resolves spontaneously by the age of 12 months. In the meantime, parents can help manage the condition by cleaning the lids regularly and performing nasolacrimal duct massage.

      Nasolacrimal duct massage involves applying gentle pressure with a finger over the common canaliculus, located medial to the eye, and stroking downwards firmly to raise the pressure in the lacrimal sac and encourage opening of the valve. This can help clear excess tears and promote the development of the duct.

      If the obstruction persists beyond one year of age, referral for nasolacrimal duct probing may be necessary. However, this patient is too young for this procedure.

      Systemic antibiotics may be necessary if the obstruction leads to dacryocystitis, which is characterized by fever and a red, tender swelling over the duct and around the orbit. Topical antibiotics may be used for episodes of associated conjunctivitis, but this is not currently indicated in this patient.

      In summary, nasolacrimal duct obstruction is a common condition in infants that usually resolves spontaneously. Parents can help manage the condition by performing nasolacrimal duct massage, and referral for probing may be necessary if the obstruction persists beyond one year of age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      29.8
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  • Question 6 - A 40-year-old man with schizophrenia is prescribed a monthly zuclopenthixol depot injection in...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man with schizophrenia is prescribed a monthly zuclopenthixol depot injection in the community. He visits his General Practitioner two weeks after receiving the third dose, reporting an uncomfortable internal feeling of restlessness. He explains it as a strong urge to move and seems unable to stay still, which is causing him significant distress.
      What is the side-effect of antipsychotic medications that the patient is experiencing? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer: Akathisia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Common Side Effects of Antipsychotic Medications

      Antipsychotic medications are commonly used to treat a variety of mental health conditions, but they can also cause a range of side effects. It’s important for patients and healthcare providers to be aware of these potential side effects and how to manage them.

      One common side effect is akathisia, which is severe restlessness that can occur within the first few months of treatment. This can be distressing for patients and increase the risk of suicide, but it typically responds to dose reduction.

      Tardive dyskinesia is another potential side effect, which can present as abnormal movements such as sucking, chewing, and choreoathetosis. It’s more common in women and those with diffuse brain pathology, and only responds to cessation of medication in about 50% of cases.

      Acute dystonia is a type of stiffness and rigidity that can occur shortly after taking antipsychotics, particularly phenothiazines and butyrophenones. It’s more common in young men.

      Anticholinergic side effects can also occur with antipsychotics, including constipation, urinary retention, dry mouth, blurred vision, and cognitive impairment.

      Finally, Parkinsonism can present as rigidity, tremors, stooped posture, and a shuffling gait. It may not appear for several months and can occasionally resolve on its own.

      By understanding these potential side effects and how to manage them, patients and healthcare providers can work together to ensure the best possible outcomes for those taking antipsychotic medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      17.3
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  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old teacher comes to see you because she feels depressed. She was recently...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old teacher comes to see you because she feels depressed. She was recently given a new class to teach and feels overwhelmed. She believes that her colleagues think she is not capable of handling the class and that her teaching is not up to par. She has started to wake up in the early hours and then worry about her job. Her reason for coming to the clinic is that she has been feeling irritable and short-tempered with her students, and her partner thinks she should seek help. She doesn't smoke or drink alcohol. How would you evaluate her symptoms of depression?

      Your Answer: A PHQ-9 questionnaire

      Explanation:

      Questionnaires are commonly used in general practice to detect and assess the severity of illnesses. One such questionnaire is the PHQ-9, which is a nine-item depression scale that assists general practitioners in diagnosing depression and monitoring treatment. The PHQ-2, a two-item questionnaire, is also used for screening depression.

      The CAGE questionnaire, on the other hand, is a screening test for alcohol problem drinking and is not used to assess depression. The GPCOG assessment is a screening tool for symptoms of dementia, while the GPPAQ questionnaire is a validated short measure of physical activity commissioned by the Department of Health.

      It is important to note that the IPSS questionnaire, which is an international prostate symptom score questionnaire, is not relevant to the assessment of depression. Overall, these questionnaires serve as powerful tools for general practitioners in diagnosing and monitoring various illnesses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old schoolteacher is admitted with headache, photophobia and neck stiffness.

    His temperature is...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old schoolteacher is admitted with headache, photophobia and neck stiffness.

      His temperature is 39.0°C, pulse rate 120 beats/min and he has no skin rash or focal neurological signs. His Glasgow coma scale is 15/15.

      A CT scan shows no contraindication to lumbar puncture. CSF is obtained and Gram stain shows Gram-positive cocci, subsequent culture confirms a pneumococcal meningitis.

      What chemoprophylaxis should be offered to his pupils?

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone

      Correct Answer: Rifampicin

      Explanation:

      Chemoprophylaxis for Meningitis Close Contacts

      Chemoprophylaxis is not typically recommended for individuals who have been in close contact with someone who has pneumococcal meningitis. However, for those who have been in close contact with someone who has meningococcal meningitis, chemoprophylaxis with rifampicin, ceftriaxone, ciprofloxacin, or azithromycin is often used. For individuals who have been in close contact with someone who has Haemophilus influenza meningitis, rifampicin is recommended. Additionally, children under the age of two should receive a vaccination for Haemophilus influenza meningitis. Proper chemoprophylaxis and vaccination can help prevent the spread of meningitis and protect individuals who have been in close contact with those who have the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      48.4
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  • Question 9 - A 38-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a dry cough and...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a dry cough and difficulty breathing for the past three days. She reports having flu-like symptoms prior to this. During the physical examination, a symmetrical rash with 'target' lesions is observed all over her body. What is the probable causative agent responsible for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Erythema multiforme can be caused by Mycoplasma and pneumococcus.

      Comparison of Legionella and Mycoplasma pneumonia

      Legionella and Mycoplasma pneumonia are both causes of atypical pneumonia, but they have some differences. Legionella is associated with outbreaks in buildings with contaminated water systems, while Mycoplasma pneumonia is more common in younger patients and is associated with epidemics every 4 years. Both diseases have flu-like symptoms, but Mycoplasma pneumonia has a more gradual onset and a dry cough. On x-ray, both diseases show bilateral consolidation. However, it is important to recognize Mycoplasma pneumonia as it may not respond to penicillins or cephalosporins due to it lacking a peptidoglycan cell wall.

      Complications of Mycoplasma pneumonia include cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, erythema multiforme, meningoencephalitis, and other immune-mediated neurological diseases. In contrast, Legionella can cause Legionnaires’ disease, which is a severe form of pneumonia that can lead to respiratory failure and death.

      Diagnosis of Legionella is generally by urinary antigen testing, while diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumonia is generally by serology. Treatment for Legionella includes fluoroquinolones or macrolides, while treatment for Mycoplasma pneumonia includes doxycycline or a macrolide. Overall, while both diseases are causes of atypical pneumonia, they have some distinct differences in their epidemiology, symptoms, and complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      18.5
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  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old patient presents five days after abruptly discontinuing diazepam, which he had...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient presents five days after abruptly discontinuing diazepam, which he had been taking for more than two years. He reports feeling generally unwell. What symptom would indicate a condition other than benzodiazepine withdrawal syndrome?

      Your Answer: Perceptual disturbances

      Correct Answer: Hypothermia

      Explanation:

      Benzodiazepine withdrawal syndrome doesn’t include hypothermia as a symptom.

      Benzodiazepines are drugs that enhance the effect of the neurotransmitter GABA, which has an inhibitory effect on the brain. This makes them useful for a variety of purposes, including sedation, anxiety relief, muscle relaxation, and as anticonvulsants. However, patients can develop a tolerance and dependence on these drugs, so they should only be prescribed for short periods of time. When withdrawing from benzodiazepines, it is important to do so gradually, reducing the dose every few weeks. If patients withdraw too quickly, they may experience benzodiazepine withdrawal syndrome, which can cause a range of symptoms including insomnia, anxiety, and seizures. Other drugs, such as barbiturates, work in a similar way but have different effects on the duration or frequency of chloride channel opening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      34.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is the correct approach to managing head lice (Pediculosis capitis) in schools...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct approach to managing head lice (Pediculosis capitis) in schools and other childcare settings?

      Your Answer: All close contacts should be treated to prevent spread

      Correct Answer: Regular detection by combing should be carried out by parents

      Explanation:

      Head Lice Treatment and Prevention

      Head lice are a common problem, especially among children. However, it is important to note that children should not be excluded from school if they have head lice. Treatment is only necessary if live lice have been seen. Hatched eggs or nits are not a sign of infestation.

      Plastic combs are designed to be used with conditioner and have been shown to have a 38-57% cure rate after 14 days of treatment. Close contacts should also be checked, but only treated if live lice are present.

      If chemical or physical insecticides are being used, such as malathion 0.5% or dimethicone 4%, at least two applications are needed, seven days apart, to effectively kill the lice that emerge from eggs after the first treatment.

      Overall, it is important to take preventative measures, such as avoiding head-to-head contact and sharing personal items, to reduce the risk of head lice infestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      25.1
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  • Question 12 - A 72-year-old man presents with complaints of erectile dysfunction. You suggest a trial...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents with complaints of erectile dysfunction. You suggest a trial of a phosphodiesterase inhibitor (such as sildenafil) after discussing his condition. What would be a contraindication to prescribing this medication?

      Your Answer: Blood pressure 165/100 mmHg

      Correct Answer: Recent chest pain awaiting cardiology opinion

      Explanation:

      The use of PDE 5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, is contraindicated in individuals who have recently experienced a myocardial infarction or unstable angina. However, in the case of someone experiencing chest pain and awaiting cardiology opinion, caution should also be exercised before prescribing these medications due to the potential cardiac nature of the symptoms. Additionally, patients with known angina who use a GTN spray should wait at least 24 hours after taking sildenafil or vardenafil, or 48 hours after taking tadalafil, to avoid the risk of excessive hypotension leading to a myocardial infarction.

      Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      9
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  • Question 13 - A 70-year-old man is diagnosed with moderate Alzheimer’s disease after displaying signs of...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man is diagnosed with moderate Alzheimer’s disease after displaying signs of cognitive decline. There have been no episodes of aggression. His General Practitioner receives a letter from the memory clinic asking them to prescribe a medication to help him.
      Which drug is the patient most likely to be commenced on in an attempt to slow their cognitive decline?

      Your Answer: Donepezil

      Explanation:

      Common Medications for Alzheimer’s Disease: Uses and Indications

      Alzheimer’s disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects cognitive function and memory. While there is no cure for the disease, medications can be used to manage symptoms and slow down cognitive decline. Here are some common medications used in the treatment of Alzheimer’s disease and their indications:

      Donepezil: This medication is an anticholinesterase inhibitor that is used to treat mild to moderate dementia. It works by inhibiting the breakdown of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that is important for memory and learning.

      Carbamazepine: This medication is an anticonvulsant that is used to treat seizure disorders, bipolar disorder, and diabetic neuropathy. It is not indicated for use in Alzheimer’s disease.

      Citalopram: This medication is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor that is used as an antidepressant and mood stabilizer. While it is not used to slow cognitive decline or preserve memory function in Alzheimer’s disease, it may be needed to treat depression that often co-exists with the condition.

      Lithium: This medication is a mood stabilizer that is used to treat bipolar disorder and recurrent depression. It is not indicated for use in cases of cognitive decline or Alzheimer’s disease.

      Risperidone: This medication is an antipsychotic drug that is indicated for short-term treatment of persistent aggression in patients with moderate to severe Alzheimer’s dementia unresponsive to non-pharmacological interventions. While it may be needed as cognitive function declines, it is not indicated at this point in treatment for patients without episodes of aggressive behavior.

      In conclusion, medication management is an important aspect of Alzheimer’s disease treatment. It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the appropriate medications and dosages for each individual patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 14 - An 80-year-old patient presents with lower urinary tract symptoms. Which of the following...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old patient presents with lower urinary tract symptoms. Which of the following statements about benign prostatic hyperplasia is not true?

      Your Answer: Goserelin is licensed for refractory cases

      Explanation:

      The use of Goserelin (Zoladex) is not recommended for treating benign prostatic hyperplasia.

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects older men, with around 50% of 50-year-old men showing evidence of BPH and 30% experiencing symptoms. The risk of BPH increases with age, with around 80% of 80-year-old men having evidence of the condition. Ethnicity also plays a role, with black men having a higher risk than white or Asian men. BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which can be categorised into obstructive (voiding) symptoms and irritative (storage) symptoms. Complications of BPH can include urinary tract infections, retention, and obstructive uropathy.

      Assessment of BPH may involve dipstick urine testing, U&Es, and PSA testing if obstructive symptoms are present or if the patient is concerned about prostate cancer. A urinary frequency-volume chart and the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) can also be used to assess the severity of LUTS and their impact on quality of life. Management options for BPH include watchful waiting, alpha-1 antagonists, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors, combination therapy, and surgery. Alpha-1 antagonists are considered first-line for moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and can improve symptoms in around 70% of men, but may cause adverse effects such as dizziness and dry mouth. 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may slow disease progression and reduce prostate volume, but can cause adverse effects such as erectile dysfunction and reduced libido. Combination therapy may be used for bothersome moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and prostatic enlargement. Antimuscarinic drugs may be tried for persistent storage symptoms. Surgery, such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), may also be an option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 15 - A 55-year-old woman comes to you for her annual medication review. She expresses...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to you for her annual medication review. She expresses worry about her likelihood of developing cancer since her father had a history of bladder cancer.

      What is the most significant factor that increases a person's chances of developing bladder cancer?

      Your Answer: Alcohol consumption of >21 units a week

      Correct Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Bladder Cancer Risk Factors

      Understanding the risk factors associated with bladder cancer is crucial for early detection and prevention. While family history may be a concern for some, lifestyle and environmental factors play a more significant role in the majority of cases. Smoking, for instance, is responsible for 37% of bladder cancers, with smokers being 3.8 times more likely to develop the disease than non-smokers. A family history of bladder cancer in a first-degree relative increases the risk by 1.8 times, while HPV infection is associated with a 2.8 times higher risk. Obesity, with a body mass index of 30 or more, can cause a 9% higher risk of developing bladder cancer than in someone of healthy weight. However, alcohol consumption has not been shown to be a risk factor. Additionally, occupational and environmental factors can also increase the risk of bladder cancer. For more information on these factors, Cancer Research UK provides a useful resource on bladder cancer risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
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  • Question 16 - You get a call from the wife of a 60-year-old patient of yours...

    Incorrect

    • You get a call from the wife of a 60-year-old patient of yours who has been stented in the previous week for inoperable pancreatic carcinoma.

      He was recovering well from his procedure, with resolving obstructive jaundice, but he has had rigors all night long, with a drenching fever, measured at 38.4°C. According to his wife his jaundice has got worse again.

      You see him and he looks very unwell, pale with rigors and a cold sweat. He is tender in the epigastrium and the right upper quadrant.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ascending cholangitis

      Correct Answer: Cholecystitis

      Explanation:

      Antibiotic Treatment for Bacterial Infection after Stenting Procedure

      After a stenting procedure, it is possible for bacteria to enter the body. The most common pathogens that cause infection in this case are Escherichia coli, Klebsiella, enterococcus, and Bacteroides. To treat this bacterial infection, an antibiotic with sufficient coverage for gram-negative bacteria and the ability to penetrate the bile duct is necessary. Ciprofloxacin is the recommended drug of choice for this type of infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 17 - A childcare assistant is setting up the nursery equipment. One set of thermometers...

    Incorrect

    • A childcare assistant is setting up the nursery equipment. One set of thermometers consistently measures temperature 5% lower than the actual value.

      What is the issue with this set of thermometers?

      Your Answer: Reliability

      Correct Answer: Validity

      Explanation:

      In statistics, reliability refers to the degree of consistency in a measurement, while validity pertains to the accuracy of a test.

      Understanding Reliability and Validity in Statistics

      Reliability and validity are two important concepts in statistics that are used to determine the accuracy and consistency of a measure. Reliability refers to the consistency of a measurement, while validity refers to whether a test accurately measures what it is supposed to measure.

      It is important to note that reliability and validity are independent of each other. This means that a measurement can be valid but not reliable, or reliable but not valid. For example, if a pulse oximeter consistently records oxygen saturations 5% below the true value, it is considered reliable because the value is consistently 5% below the true value. However, it is not considered valid because the reported saturations are not an accurate reflection of the true values.

      In summary, reliability and validity are crucial concepts in statistics that help to ensure accurate and consistent measurements. Understanding the difference between these two concepts is important for researchers and statisticians to ensure that their data is reliable and valid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old man has long-standing treated hypertension. He has had his estimated glomerular...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has long-standing treated hypertension. He has had his estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) measured on an annual basis. Last year, his eGFR was estimated at 56 ml/minute/1.73 m². This year, he has an unexplained fall in eGFR to 41 ml/minute/1.73 m². This is confirmed by a second blood sample. He feels otherwise well.
      What is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer: Arrange renal ultrasound and refer to renal team if the ultrasound is abnormal

      Correct Answer: Routine outpatient referral to the renal team

      Explanation:

      Referral and Management of Chronic Kidney Disease Patients

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a common condition that requires appropriate management to prevent progression and complications. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines on when to refer CKD patients for specialist assessment. Patients with a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) less than 30 ml/min/1.73 m2, albumin creatinine ratio (ACR) of 70 mg/mmol or more, sustained decrease in GFR, poorly controlled hypertension, rare or genetic causes of CKD, or suspected renal artery stenosis should be referred for review by a renal team.

      In addition to referral, patients with CKD may require further investigations such as renal ultrasound. An ultrasound is indicated in patients with rapid deterioration of eGFR, visible or persistent microscopic haematuria, symptoms of urinary tract obstruction, family history of polycystic kidney disease, or GFR drops to under 30. However, the results of an ultrasound should not determine referral.

      Patients with CKD require regular monitoring, but the frequency of monitoring depends on the stage and progression of the disease. Patients with a rapid drop in eGFR, like the patient in this case, require specialist input and should not continue with annual monitoring. However, urgent medical review is only necessary in cases of severe complications such as hyperkalaemia, severe uraemia, acidosis, or fluid overload.

      In summary, appropriate referral and management of CKD patients can prevent complications and improve outcomes. NICE guidelines provide clear indications for referral and investigations, and regular monitoring is necessary to track disease progression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 19 - It has been suggested that cystic fibrosis (CF) (autosomal recessive) has a high...

    Incorrect

    • It has been suggested that cystic fibrosis (CF) (autosomal recessive) has a high prevalence in some populations because heterozygotes are resistant to the effects of chloride-secreting diarrhoea.

      This is best described as an example of which of the following?

      Your Answer: Gene flow

      Correct Answer: Natural selection

      Explanation:

      Key Concepts in Genetics

      Natural selection is a process where organisms with advantageous traits are more likely to survive and reproduce, passing on those traits to future generations. In the case of cystic fibrosis, it appears that being heterozygous for the gene may offer protection against certain illnesses.

      Gene flow, or genetic migration, occurs when alleles or genes are transferred from one population to another. This often happens when populations migrate and interbreed, leading to a mixing of genetic traits.

      Genetic drift refers to the random fluctuations in gene frequencies that occur over time in a population. This can happen due to chance events, such as a small group of individuals breaking off from a larger population and starting a new colony.

      Linkage disequilibrium is the non-random occurrence of certain combinations of alleles in a population. This can happen when certain genes are physically close together on a chromosome and are therefore more likely to be inherited together.

      Mutation is a change in the genetic sequence of an organism. These changes can be beneficial, harmful, or neutral, and can occur spontaneously or as a result of environmental factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      23
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  • Question 20 - An 18-year-old, non-pregnant, asymptomatic woman with no past medical history is discovered to...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old, non-pregnant, asymptomatic woman with no past medical history is discovered to have >100,000 colony-forming units of Escherichia coli/ml urine during a routine health examination.
      What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Treat with oral trimethoprim for 10 days

      Correct Answer: No antibiotics are indicated

      Explanation:

      Asymptomatic Bacteriuria and Treatment Considerations

      Asymptomatic bacteriuria is a common occurrence in non-pregnant women, affecting approximately 3% of the population. While it doesn’t require treatment as it poses no risk of morbidity or mortality, treatment may increase the frequency of symptomatic infections. However, treatment is necessary if there are comorbid factors such as diabetes, renal transplantation, invasive GU investigations, or a renal stone.

      Pregnancy is an absolute indication for treatment as asymptomatic bacteriuria increases the risk of pyelonephritis, pre-eclampsia, prematurity, and perinatal death. However, a single finding of asymptomatic bacteriuria is not an indication for renal tract investigation.

      For individuals with long-term urinary catheters in place, administering antibiotics may cause additional problems. These patients invariably have bacteriuria, and the bacteria may be more difficult to treat, leading to the development of a yeast infection. Therefore, treatment considerations should be carefully evaluated in such cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 56-year-old woman comes to you with complaints of post-coital bleeding. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman comes to you with complaints of post-coital bleeding. She has been in menopause for two years. Upon conducting a full pelvic examination, you find everything to be normal, including the cervix. She has been experiencing these symptoms for the past eight weeks. The patient has a history of breast cancer and is currently taking tamoxifen. What would be your next course of action?

      Your Answer: Carry out a cervical smear test

      Correct Answer: Refer her urgently for a specialist opinion

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral Needed for postmenopausal Bleeding and Tamoxifen Use

      You need to urgently refer the patient for a specialist opinion as she is experiencing postmenopausal bleeding and is taking tamoxifen, which increases the risk of endometrial cancer. It is important to note that waiting for the results of a cervical smear test or considering hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is not appropriate in this situation.

      This question is testing your understanding of important alarm symptoms, such as postmenopausal bleeding, and the associated risk factors, such as tamoxifen use. It also assesses your knowledge of referral guidelines and the urgency of seeking specialist opinion in such cases. Remember to always prioritize patient safety and seek appropriate medical advice when necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      40.9
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  • Question 22 - A 5-year-old girl who is in good health is placed in foster care....

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl who is in good health is placed in foster care. There is no known medical history of any significant illnesses in her biological family.

      What can be said about her situation?

      Your Answer: He will require yearly medical examinations by a nurse or doctor

      Correct Answer: He will require 6-monthly medical examinations by a doctor

      Explanation:

      All children who are in long-term foster care must undergo a medical examination every six months. This is a legal requirement. It is important to note that once a child reaches the age of five, a yearly examination is sufficient. The Fostering Services 2002 Regulation 6 and Review of Children’s Cases Regulations 1991 state that the responsible authority must arrange for the child to receive a health assessment by a registered medical practitioner or registered nurse under the supervision of a registered medical practitioner. The assessment must be carried out at least once every six months before the child’s fifth birthday and at least once every twelve months after the child’s fifth birthday, unless the child refuses the assessment and is of sufficient understanding. It is important to follow these regulations to ensure the health and well-being of children in foster care.

      Foster care is a system in which children who cannot live with their birth families are placed with foster families who provide them with a safe and nurturing environment. According to Schedule 7 of the Children Act 1989, there is a limit of three foster children per family. Additionally, all children in long-term foster care require a medical examination every six months to ensure their physical and emotional well-being. This system aims to provide children with stability and support while their birth families work towards resolving any issues that led to their placement in foster care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 23 - A 44-year-old man is being evaluated on the psychiatric ward due to a...

    Correct

    • A 44-year-old man is being evaluated on the psychiatric ward due to a worsening of his mental health condition. Upon admission, the patient was diagnosed with a major depressive disorder accompanied by hallucinations.

      Lately, the patient has been persistently expressing the belief that he is deceased. Consequently, he has ceased eating and is exhibiting signs of self-neglect. The patient has no known medical conditions other than his mental health problems.

      What is the name of the syndrome that this patient is experiencing?

      Your Answer: Cotard syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cotard syndrome is a psychiatric disorder that is characterized by a person’s belief that they are dead or do not exist. This rare condition is often associated with severe depression or psychotic disorders and can lead to self-neglect and withdrawal from others. Treatment options include medication and electroconvulsive therapy.

      Capgras syndrome is a delusion of misidentification where patients believe that a loved one has been replaced by an identical impostor. This condition is typically associated with schizophrenia, but it can also occur in patients with brain trauma or dementia.

      Charles Bonnet syndrome is a visual disorder that causes patients with significant vision loss to experience vivid visual hallucinations. These hallucinations can be simple or complex, but patients are aware that they are not real and do not experience other types of hallucinations or delusions.

      De Clérambault syndrome, also known as erotomania, is a rare delusional disorder where patients believe that someone is in love with them, even if that person is imaginary, deceased, or someone they have never met. Patients may perceive messages from their supposed admirer through everyday events, such as number plates or television messages.

      Understanding Cotard Syndrome

      Cotard syndrome is a mental illness that is characterized by the belief that one is either dead or doesn’t exist. This rare disorder is often associated with severe depression and psychotic disorders. Patients with Cotard syndrome may stop eating or drinking as they believe it is not necessary. This delusion can be challenging to treat and can result in significant problems for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 24 - A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after taking an overdose of...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after taking an overdose of paracetamol. He has taken around 30 tablets while alone at home and left a letter for his family. He was intoxicated but managed to call an ambulance after he had taken the tablets.
      Which of the following features would most strongly suggest that there is an ongoing risk of suicide?

      Your Answer: The fact that he took precautions to avoid discovery

      Explanation:

      Factors that Increase the Risk of Suicide After an Attempt

      When assessing a patient who has attempted suicide, certain factors can indicate a higher risk of future attempts. These include planning and taking precautions to avoid discovery, not seeking help after the attempt, using a dangerous method, and leaving final acts such as making a will or leaving a note. While a family history of suicide is more common among those who complete suicide, it doesn’t increase the immediate risk of self-harm. Alcohol use can lower inhibitions and increase the risk of deliberate self-harm, but being intoxicated at the time of the attempt doesn’t necessarily mean a higher risk of future attempts. Stressful life events in the preceding months can predispose to depression and increase the likelihood of self-harm, but do not necessarily indicate a higher risk of future attempts. Finally, taking a large amount of a dangerous substance may increase the risk of harm, but doesn’t confer a higher ongoing risk of suicide after the initial attempt. Overall, a comprehensive assessment of the patient’s mental state and risk factors is necessary to determine the appropriate level of care and support.

      Factors to Consider When Assessing the Risk of Suicide After an Attempt

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      55.1
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  • Question 25 - A 25-year-old male patient complains of feeling unwell for the past three days...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient complains of feeling unwell for the past three days with a low-grade fever. He has developed painful ulcers in his mouth and gums. During examination, submandibular lymphadenopathy is observed. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lichen planus

      Correct Answer: Herpes simplex virus infection

      Explanation:

      Primary herpes simplex virus infection is indicated by gingivostomatitis, which this man is experiencing.

      The herpes simplex virus (HSV) comes in two strains: HSV-1 and HSV-2. It was once believed that HSV-1 caused cold sores and HSV-2 caused genital herpes, but there is now significant overlap between the two. Symptoms of a primary infection may include severe gingivostomatitis, while cold sores and painful genital ulceration are also common. Treatment options include oral aciclovir and chlorhexidine mouthwash for gingivostomatitis, topical aciclovir for cold sores (although the evidence for its effectiveness is limited), and oral aciclovir for genital herpes. Pregnant women with herpes should be treated with suppressive therapy, and those who experience a primary attack during pregnancy after 28 weeks gestation should have an elective caesarean section. The risk of transmission to the baby is low for women with recurrent herpes. Pap smear images can show the cytopathic effect of HSV, including multinucleation, marginated chromatin, and molding of the nuclei.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 26 - A middle-aged couple attend clinic seeking advice on contraception. They are currently using...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged couple attend clinic seeking advice on contraception. They are currently using condoms.

      Which of the following topical agents would you recommend as safe to use with latex condoms?

      Your Answer: KY jelly

      Correct Answer: Dalacin cream

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Proper Condom Use

      The use of condoms is crucial in reducing the risk of venereal infections, especially in controlling the spread of HIV. However, occasional failures may occur due to defective sheaths, not wearing them in the earlier phases of coitus, or slipping from the penis after ejaculation. It is also important to note that spermicides should not be used with latex condoms as they do not offer additional contraceptive efficacy. Moreover, certain topical, vaginal, and rectal preparations can destroy the integrity of latex condoms, rendering them ineffective. For instance, baby oil can destroy 90% of a latex condom’s strength within 15 minutes. Therefore, it is essential to be aware of the potential interaction between latex condoms and certain topical preparations, such as dalacin and clotrimazole. Professor John Guillebaud’s book Contraception: Your Questions Answered provides a more exhaustive list of preparations that should be avoided and are regarded as unsafe to use with latex condoms. Proper condom use is crucial in protecting oneself and one’s partner from sexually transmitted infections and unwanted pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      48.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 26-year-old male attends your morning surgery five days after an insect bite....

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old male attends your morning surgery five days after an insect bite. He has presented today as the area surrounding the bite is becoming increasingly red and itchy.

      On examination, you notice a 3-4 cm area of erythema surrounding the bite area and excoriation marks. The is some pus discharging from the bite mark. Observations are all within the normal range. You decide to prescribe antibiotics to cover for infection and arrange a repeat review in 48 hours.

      On reviewing his medical records you note he is on isotretinoin for acne and has a penicillin allergy.

      Which of the following antibiotics would you consider prescribing?

      Your Answer: Clindamycin

      Explanation:

      Combining oral isotretinoin with tetracyclines is not recommended as it may lead to benign intracranial hypertension. Trimethoprim is not suitable for treating skin or soft tissue infections. Clindamycin, a lincomycin antibiotic, can be used for such infections, especially if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Co-amoxiclav doesn’t interact with isotretinoin, but it cannot be used in patients with penicillin allergy. Doxycycline, a tetracycline antibiotic, should be avoided when a patient is taking isotretinoin due to the risk of benign intracranial hypertension.

      Understanding Isotretinoin and its Adverse Effects

      Isotretinoin is a type of oral retinoid that is commonly used to treat severe acne. It has been found to be effective in providing long-term remission or cure for two-thirds of patients who undergo a course of treatment. However, it is important to note that isotretinoin also comes with several adverse effects that patients should be aware of.

      One of the most significant adverse effects of isotretinoin is its teratogenicity, which means that it can cause birth defects in fetuses if taken during pregnancy. For this reason, females who are taking isotretinoin should ideally be using two forms of contraception to prevent pregnancy. Other common adverse effects of isotretinoin include dry skin, eyes, and lips/mouth, low mood, raised triglycerides, hair thinning, nosebleeds, and photosensitivity.

      It is also worth noting that there is some controversy surrounding the potential link between isotretinoin and depression or other psychiatric problems. While these adverse effects are listed in the British National Formulary (BNF), further research is needed to fully understand the relationship between isotretinoin and mental health.

      Overall, while isotretinoin can be an effective treatment for severe acne, patients should be aware of its potential adverse effects and discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      38
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  • Question 28 - You encounter a 30-year-old mother of two who is experiencing recurrent Meniere's disease....

    Correct

    • You encounter a 30-year-old mother of two who is experiencing recurrent Meniere's disease. She has been suffering from tinnitus and mild hearing loss on the right side for nearly 2 years. Every 2 months, she has an episode of vertigo accompanied by nausea and vomiting, which lasts up to 7 days and causes her significant distress. While under the care of the ENT team, she is curious about any available treatments to prevent Meniere's disease attacks.

      What would be your initial recommendation?

      Your Answer: Betahistine

      Explanation:

      To prevent recurrent attacks of Meniere’s disease, doctors often prescribe betahistine. While prochlorperazine and promethazine teoclate can be used to treat acute attacks, they are not effective in preventing them. Betahistine, taken at an initial dose of 16 mg three times a day, can help reduce the frequency and severity of symptoms such as hearing loss, tinnitus, and vertigo. Diuretics are not recommended for treating Meniere’s disease in primary care. Although some other drugs, such as corticosteroids, have been used historically to treat Meniere’s disease, there is limited evidence to support their use and they should only be used under the supervision of an ENT specialist.

      Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is unknown. It is more commonly seen in middle-aged adults but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally. The condition is characterized by the excessive pressure and progressive dilation of the endolymphatic system. The main symptoms of Meniere’s disease are recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. Vertigo is usually the most prominent symptom, but patients may also experience a sensation of aural fullness or pressure, nystagmus, and a positive Romberg test. These episodes can last from minutes to hours and are typically unilateral, but bilateral symptoms may develop over time.

      The natural history of Meniere’s disease is that symptoms usually resolve in the majority of patients after 5-10 years. However, most patients will be left with some degree of hearing loss, and psychological distress is common. ENT assessment is required to confirm the diagnosis, and patients should inform the DVLA as the current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved. Acute attacks can be managed with buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine, and admission to the hospital may be required. Prevention strategies include the use of betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises, which may be beneficial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      17.6
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  • Question 29 - A 32-year-old traveller returned from the tropics 5 days ago. She felt unwell...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old traveller returned from the tropics 5 days ago. She felt unwell on the plane, complaining of headache, loss of appetite and sweats. Her temperature was 39.5°C 2 days ago; however, it is now normal.
      Select the most appropriate investigation.

      Your Answer: Repeated thick and thin blood smears

      Explanation:

      Malaria: Diagnosis and Management

      Malaria is a febrile illness caused by Plasmodium species, which can lead to periodic febrile paroxysms every 48 or 72 hours, with asymptomatic intervals and a tendency to relapse. The symptoms and signs of malaria are nonspecific, making it difficult to diagnose. Therefore, it is important to exclude malaria by conducting repeated thick and thin blood smears in patients with acute fever and a history of exposure. If the patient is severely ill or symptoms persist, a therapeutic trial of antimalarial chemotherapy should not be delayed. This article discusses the diagnosis and management of malaria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      13.1
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  • Question 30 - A 72-year-old obese woman presents with a leg ulcer. This followed a superficial...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old obese woman presents with a leg ulcer. This followed a superficial traumatic abrasion a month ago that never healed. She has a past history of ischaemic heart disease. Examination reveals a 5cm ulcer over the left shin; it is superficial with an irregular border and slough in the base. There is mild pitting oedema and haemosiderin deposition bilaterally on the legs. The ipsilateral foot pulses are weakly palpable.
      Which diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Venous ulcer

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Venous Ulcers from Other Types of Leg Ulcers

      Venous leg ulcers are a common type of leg ulcer in the UK, accounting for around 3% of all new cases attending dermatology clinics. These ulcers are typically large and superficial, and are accompanied by signs of chronic venous insufficiency. This condition leads to venous stasis and increased capillary pressure, resulting in secondary skin changes whose mechanisms are not well understood. Predisposing factors to venous insufficiency include obesity, history of varicose veins, leg trauma, and deep vein thrombosis.

      In contrast, arterial ulcers are typically small and punched out, occurring most commonly over a bony prominence such as a malleolus or on the toes. Bowen’s disease, a form of squamous cell carcinoma in situ, commonly occurs on the legs in women but would not reach a size of 5cm in only a month. Neuropathic ulcers, on the other hand, occur on the feet in the context of peripheral neuropathy. Vasculitic ulcers are also a possibility, but there are no clues in the history or findings to suggest their presence.

      To differentiate venous ulcers from other types of leg ulcers, it is important to look for corroborating signs of chronic venous insufficiency, such as peripheral edema, venous eczema, haemosiderin deposition, lipodermatosclerosis, and atrophie blanche. Workup should include measurement of the ankle brachial pressure indices (ABPIs) to exclude coexistent arterial disease. If the ABPIs are satisfactory, the cornerstone of management is compression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      18.2
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability (1/1) 100%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (3/6) 50%
Allergy And Immunology (1/1) 100%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (2/2) 100%
Eyes And Vision (0/1) 0%
Mental Health (4/5) 80%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Kidney And Urology (1/3) 33%
People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (0/1) 0%
Genomic Medicine (0/1) 0%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/1) 0%
Children And Young People (0/1) 0%
Sexual Health (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (2/2) 100%
Passmed