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  • Question 1 - A 44-year-old woman has contacted you for a phone consultation regarding her recent...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old woman has contacted you for a phone consultation regarding her recent cervical smear test results. She has undergone her first cervical smear test as part of the routine screening programme and is currently not experiencing any symptoms. She has no significant medical history but is a smoker, consuming 10 cigarettes per day. Additionally, she is not sexually active. Her test results indicate a negative high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) status. What would be the appropriate next step in managing her case?

      Your Answer: Repeat cervical smear in 12 months

      Correct Answer: Repeat cervical smear in 3 years

      Explanation:

      If the cervical cancer screening sample is negative for hrHPV, the patient can return to routine recall and should have a repeat cervical smear in 3 years. It is important for individuals, even if they are not sexually active, to attend routine cervical smear tests. No further cervical smears are required if the patient has no previous relevant history. A repeat cervical smear in 12 months is not necessary as the routine recall for this age group is every 3 years. Similarly, a repeat cervical smear in 5 years is not appropriate for this patient as routine cervical smear tests are every 5 years for individuals between the ages of 50 and 64 years.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening Results

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved significantly in recent years, with the introduction of HPV testing allowing for further risk stratification. The NHS now uses an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.

      If the hrHPV test is negative, individuals can return to normal recall, unless they fall under the test of cure pathway, untreated CIN1 pathway, or require follow-up for incompletely excised cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia (CGIN) / stratified mucin producing intraepithelial lesion (SMILE) or cervical cancer. If the hrHPV test is positive, samples are examined cytologically, and if the cytology is abnormal, individuals will require colposcopy.

      If the cytology is normal but the hrHPV test is positive, the test is repeated at 12 months. If the repeat test is still hrHPV positive and cytology is normal, a further repeat test is done 12 months later. If the hrHPV test is negative at 24 months, individuals can return to normal recall, but if it is still positive, they will require colposcopy. If the sample is inadequate, it will need to be repeated within 3 months, and if two consecutive samples are inadequate, colposcopy will be required.

      For individuals who have previously had CIN, they should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample in the community 6 months after treatment. The most common treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is large loop excision of transformation zone (LLETZ), which may be done during the initial colposcopy visit or at a later date depending on the individual clinic. Cryotherapy is an alternative technique.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      33.1
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  • Question 2 - A study looks at the risk of myocardial infarction in 2 groups of...

    Incorrect

    • A study looks at the risk of myocardial infarction in 2 groups of patients with different ages. There are 1000 patients in the group aged 50 and above, and 1000 in the group aged below 50. In the group aged below 50, there were 20 myocardial infarctions, while in the group aged 50 and above there were 80 myocardial infarctions.
      Select from the list the risk of a myocardial infarction in the group aged below 50.

      Your Answer: 2

      Correct Answer: 0.2

      Explanation:

      Understanding Risk: Calculating the Proportion of Patients Developing a Condition

      Risk is a term used to describe the likelihood of an event occurring. In the context of healthcare, risk is often used to calculate the proportion of patients who develop a specific condition. For example, if 200 out of 1000 patients develop a certain condition, the risk of that condition is 0.2 or 20%. Understanding risk is important in healthcare as it helps healthcare professionals make informed decisions about treatment options and preventative measures. By calculating the risk of a particular condition, healthcare providers can identify patients who may be at higher risk and take steps to mitigate that risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      36.8
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  • Question 3 - What is true about acute post-infective polyneuropathy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is true about acute post-infective polyneuropathy?

      Your Answer: It is an upper motor neurone lesion

      Correct Answer: Cranial nerves are not involved

      Explanation:

      Guillain-Barré Syndrome: A Brief Overview

      Guillain-Barré Syndrome is a polyneuropathy that can affect cranial nerves, particularly the facial nerves. It is a lower motor neurone lesion that is often preceded by lumbar or intracapsular pain. While full recovery is possible, some residual weakness is common. In the acute phase, muscle wasting doesn’t occur, but it may develop in the long term. Respiratory muscle involvement can cause reduced peak flow, which may require ventilation. Additionally, sensory disturbance is typically present. Overall, Guillain-Barré Syndrome is a complex condition that requires careful management and monitoring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      11.8
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  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old man comes in with complaints of an itchy and irritated foreskin...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes in with complaints of an itchy and irritated foreskin that has been bothering him for the past 2 weeks. He admits to feeling embarrassed about seeking medical attention. The patient denies any recent sexual activity or new sexual partner and has never experienced this issue before. Upon examination, the foreskin appears slightly swollen and erythematous, with no signs of urethral discharge or other rashes in the groin or penis area.

      What is the recommended initial treatment for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydrocortisone 1% and clotrimazole cream daily

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from nonspecific balanitis and should be treated with a combination of hydrocortisone and antifungal cream. This treatment may help improve the condition, and if it fails, it can provide diagnostic clues to the underlying cause. Betamethasone dipropionate is not necessary for this condition, but it may be appropriate for more severe conditions like lichen sclerosis. Clotrimazole cream alone may not be effective in relieving the irritation, and hydrocortisone cream alone may not treat a potential fungal cause. Mupirocin is not useful in this situation as it is an antibacterial product used for gram-positive skin infections like impetigo.

      Understanding Balanitis: Causes, Assessment, and Treatment

      Balanitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the glans penis and sometimes extending to the underside of the foreskin. It can be caused by a variety of factors, including bacterial and candidal infections, autoimmune conditions, and poor hygiene. Proper assessment of balanitis involves taking a thorough history and conducting a physical examination to determine the cause and severity of the condition. In most cases, diagnosis is made clinically based on the history and examination, but in some cases, a swab or biopsy may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis.

      Treatment of balanitis involves a combination of general and specific measures. General treatment includes gentle saline washes and proper hygiene practices, while specific treatment depends on the underlying cause of the condition. For example, candidiasis is treated with topical clotrimazole, while bacterial balanitis may be treated with oral antibiotics. Dermatitis and circinate balanitis are managed with mild potency topical corticosteroids, while lichen sclerosus and plasma cell balanitis of Zoon may require high potency topical steroids or circumcision.

      Understanding the causes, assessment, and treatment of balanitis is important for both children and adults who may be affected by this condition. By taking proper hygiene measures and seeking appropriate medical treatment, individuals with balanitis can manage their symptoms and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 5 - A 28-year-old woman seeks your advice regarding her risk of passing on Duchenne...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman seeks your advice regarding her risk of passing on Duchenne muscular dystrophy to her future children. Her brother has the condition and genetic testing has confirmed that she is a carrier. She is aware that the disorder is inherited as an X linked recessive trait. Her partner, who is 31 years old, has no significant medical or family history of genetic disease. What guidance do you provide her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Daughters of a female carrier have a 50% chance of being a carrier

      Explanation:

      Understanding X Linked Recessive Inheritance

      X linked recessive conditions are caused by a mutation in a gene on the X chromosome. This type of inheritance affects males more than females because men only have one gene copy. Females, on the other hand, are typically unaffected but carry the condition.

      One of the key characteristics of X linked recessive inheritance is that there is no male-to-male disease transmission. This means that a father must pass his Y chromosome to all his sons, which makes it impossible for a father to pass on the condition to his son. However, daughters of an affected male must all be carriers because the father must pass his X chromosome to all daughters.

      If a female is a carrier of an X linked recessive condition, her male offspring have a 50% chance of being affected. Female offspring of a female carrier also have a 50% chance of being carriers. Understanding X linked recessive inheritance is important for genetic counseling and family planning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 6 - A 5-year-old girl presents with intermittent leg pains, which have been occurring for...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl presents with intermittent leg pains, which have been occurring for four weeks. They occur at night and wake her from sleep. The pain is relieved when her mother rubs her legs. The girl is otherwise well and examination is normal.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Growing pains

      Explanation:

      Understanding Childhood Musculoskeletal Conditions: Differential Diagnosis

      Childhood musculoskeletal conditions can present with a variety of symptoms, making it important to differentiate between them for proper diagnosis and treatment. One common condition is growing pains, which are episodic muscular pains that typically affect the legs and wake children from sleep. Another condition, Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP), can cause joint pain, abdominal pain, and a purpuric rash on the legs and buttocks, as well as renal involvement. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia may also cause bone and joint pain, but patients usually deteriorate rapidly and become unwell. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis is characterized by joint inflammation persisting for at least six weeks. Perthes’ disease, on the other hand, presents with pain in the hip and limited movement. Understanding the differences between these conditions can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old man complains of frequent palpitations. These usually occur when he eats...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man complains of frequent palpitations. These usually occur when he eats and subside abruptly after he finishes eating. They are not accompanied by chest pain, but, on occasion, he also feels lightheaded. He has no reflux symptoms or dyspepsia. He is otherwise well and on presentation his blood pressure is 136/84 mmHg, his pulse is in sinus rhythm, and examination of his heart and abdomen are normal. His electrocardiogram (ECG) is normal.
      What is the most appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 24 hour portable electrocardiogram (ECG)

      Explanation:

      The Most Appropriate Investigation for Palpitations and Dizziness: A Cardiac Investigation

      When a patient presents with palpitations and dizziness, a cardiac cause is often suspected. While the association with food may be a red herring, the combination of symptoms suggests a need for further investigation. An ECG or examination of the pulse may not reveal an underlying cause unless the patient is experiencing symptoms at that exact moment. Therefore, a 24 hour portable ECG is often recommended to assess the cardiac rhythm over a longer period of time.

      A chest X-ray is unlikely to be helpful in the absence of chest pain or respiratory symptoms. Similarly, an endoscopy may be indicated for dyspeptic symptoms, but the history of palpitations and dizziness suggests a cardiac cause. H. pylori testing is only relevant for dyspeptic symptoms, and thyroid function tests are important for anyone experiencing palpitations, as hyperthyroidism can be a cause.

      In summary, when a patient presents with palpitations and dizziness, a cardiac investigation is the most appropriate first step. A 24 hour portable ECG can provide valuable information about the cardiac rhythm over a longer period of time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 8 - A 68-year-old non-smoker complains of bone pain, constipation and malaise. Initial tests show...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old non-smoker complains of bone pain, constipation and malaise. Initial tests show an increased serum calcium level. The physical examination is unremarkable. What is the most beneficial tumour marker investigation for this patient? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostate specific antigen (PSA)

      Explanation:

      Tumour Markers and their Clinical Applications

      Monoclonal antibodies are utilized to detect serum antigens associated with specific malignancies. These tumour markers are most useful for monitoring response to therapy and detecting early relapse. However, with the exception of PSA, tumour markers do not have sufficient sensitivity or specificity for use in screening.

      PSA, or prostate specific antigen, is a useful marker for screening for prostate cancer, although population screening is controversial. It can also be used to detect recurrence of the malignancy and is useful in the investigation of adenocarcinoma of unknown primary. Hypercalcaemia and bone pain may suggest metastatic carcinoma, which is common in prostate cancer.

      CA 19-9, AFP, beta-HCG, and CEA are other tumour markers that are used for different types of cancer. CA 19-9 is helpful in establishing the nature of pancreatic masses, AFP is a marker for hepatocellular carcinoma, beta-HCG is used in the diagnosis and management of gestational trophoblastic disease and non-seminomatous germ-cell tumours of the testes, and CEA is used to detect relapse of colorectal cancer.

      In conclusion, tumour markers have various clinical applications in the diagnosis, treatment, and monitoring of cancer. However, their sensitivity and specificity may vary, and they should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tools for accurate diagnosis and management of cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old has just been diagnosed with hypertension and you have commenced treatment...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old has just been diagnosed with hypertension and you have commenced treatment with an ACE inhibitor (ACE-I).

      As per NICE guidelines, what are the monitoring obligations after initiating an ACE-I?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No monitoring required

      Explanation:

      Monitoring Recommendations for ACE-I Treatment

      After initiating ACE-I treatment, it is recommended by NICE to monitor renal function and serum electrolytes within 1-2 weeks. However, if the patient is at a higher risk of hyperkalaemia or deteriorating renal function, such as those with Peripheral Vascular Disease, diabetes, or the elderly, it is suggested to check within 1 week. Blood pressure should be checked 4 weeks after each dose titration. After the initial monitoring, renal function and serum electrolytes only need to be checked annually unless there are abnormal blood test results or clinical judgement indicates a need for more frequent testing. By following these monitoring recommendations, healthcare professionals can ensure the safety and efficacy of ACE-I treatment for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 10 - A 42-year-old pregnant woman is curious about why she has been recommended to...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old pregnant woman is curious about why she has been recommended to undergo an oral glucose tolerance test. She has had four previous pregnancies, and her babies' birth weights have ranged from 3.4-4.6kg. She has no history of diabetes, but both her parents have hypertension, and her grandfather has diabetes. She is of white British ethnicity and has a BMI of 29.6kg/m². What makes her eligible for an oral glucose tolerance test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Previous macrosomia

      Explanation:

      It is recommended that pregnant women with a family history of diabetes undergo an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) for gestational diabetes between 24 and 28 weeks of pregnancy.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.

      To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.

      For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.

      Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 11 - Samantha brings her 18-month-old daughter to the clinic for her routine immunisations. The...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha brings her 18-month-old daughter to the clinic for her routine immunisations. The healthcare provider informs her that her daughter will require four different vaccines, including a pneumococcal booster. Samantha inquires about when her daughter received the pneumococcal vaccine previously in the schedule.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      The pneumococcal vaccine is now administered at 3 months and 12-13 months, instead of the previous schedule of 8 weeks. The 8 week vaccines now include DTaP/IPV/Hib/HepB, Men B, and rotavirus, while the 12 week vaccines include DTaP/IPV/Hib/HepB, pneumococcal vaccine, and rotavirus. There are no vaccines given at 6 weeks.

      The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at specific intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, PCV, and Men B vaccines are given. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 Preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.

      It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine is also offered to new students up to the age of 25 years at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine, while students going to university or college for the first time should contact their GP to have the vaccine before the start of the academic year.

      The Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued as there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 12 - A 32-year-old patient is newly registered at a General Practice Surgery. The General...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old patient is newly registered at a General Practice Surgery. The General Practitioner notes that the patient has previously been under the care of a Community Team but has not had a health check for three years. Her father states that she had been experiencing some vomiting for one month, but this is currently being managed symptomatically with cyclizine, as a change in location causes her distress and disorientation.
      Which of the following is the best management option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Encourage annual health checks to identify serious conditions

      Explanation:

      Improving Healthcare for People with Learning Disabilities

      People with learning disabilities often face barriers when accessing mainstream healthcare services. However, introducing health checks specifically for this group has led to the identification of previously undetected health conditions, including serious and life-threatening ones such as cancer, heart disease, and dementia. It is important to assess both physical and mental health, and medication should only be given with the patient’s consent or following a best interest decision. Medication should not be used as the sole treatment for challenging behavior without a proper assessment and clear reason for its use. Doctors should provide the same level of care to all patients, without making assumptions about quality of life or the appropriateness of medical and social care interventions. However, patients with learning disabilities may be exempt from national screening programs due to low uptake. Referral to a Community Learning Disability Team can also facilitate access to mainstream services and provide specialist assessment and intervention for issues such as challenging behavior and mental health problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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  • Question 13 - A 35-year-old woman has chronic pancreatitis. She has lost weight and has diarrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman has chronic pancreatitis. She has lost weight and has diarrhoea that has become troublesome.
      Select from the list the single most suitable preparation to relieve her diarrhoea.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancreatin

      Explanation:

      Gastrointestinal Medications: Pancreatin, Cholestyramine, Loperamide, Co-Phenotrope, and Ispaghula Husk

      Pancreatin is a combination of digestive enzymes produced by the pancreas that aid in the breakdown of protein, fat, and starch. It is commonly used to treat conditions where the pancreas is not producing enough enzymes, such as pancreatitis, cystic fibrosis, or after surgical removal of the pancreas. Pancreatin should be taken with food or with medications that reduce stomach acid.

      Cholestyramine is a medication that binds to bile in the gut, preventing its reabsorption. It is primarily used to treat itching in patients with advanced liver disease and to prevent diarrhea in individuals with Crohn’s disease who have had a portion of their small intestine removed.

      Loperamide and co-phenotrope are anti-motility drugs that can be used to treat uncomplicated acute diarrhea in adults. These medications slow down the movement of the gut, allowing for more water to be absorbed and reducing the frequency of bowel movements.

      Ispaghula husk is a bulk-forming laxative that absorbs water in the gut, increasing the bulk of stool and promoting regular bowel movements. It is commonly used to treat constipation and other bowel irregularities.

      Overall, these medications can be effective in treating a variety of gastrointestinal conditions and symptoms. However, it is important to consult with a healthcare provider before starting any new medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 14 - A 70-year-old man visits his General Practitioner requesting a repeat prescription for his...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man visits his General Practitioner requesting a repeat prescription for his glaucoma eye drops, which were recently changed at the hospital. He also asks for an additional salbutamol inhaler due to his mild asthma becoming more problematic lately. What eye drops is this patient likely to have been prescribed? Choose one answer.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Timolol

      Explanation:

      Managing Primary Open-Angle Glaucoma: Treatment Options and Considerations

      Primary open-angle glaucoma is the most common form of glaucoma, characterized by restricted drainage of aqueous humour through the trabecular meshwork, resulting in ocular hypertension and gradual visual field loss. To manage this condition, drugs are available that reduce ocular hypertension through different mechanisms. Typically, a topical β blocker like timolol or a prostaglandin analogue such as latanoprost is the first-line treatment. However, it may be necessary to combine these drugs or add others like sympathomimetics (brimonidine), carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (dorzolamide), or miotics (pilocarpine) later on. It’s important to note that topical β blockers should not be used in patients with asthma or obstructive airways disease unless there are no other suitable treatment options due to the risk of systemic absorption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 15 - A 14-year-old boy presents with lethargy, abdominal bloating and loose stools. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy presents with lethargy, abdominal bloating and loose stools. He has lost 5 kg in weight over the last six months. Examination confirms a thin teenager with obvious pallor.
      What is the most appropriate test to investigate possible malabsorption?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgA tissue transglutaminase antibodies (tTGAs)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Coeliac Disease Testing: Differentiating Between IgA tTGAs, IgA Gliadin Antibodies, IgA EMAs, HLA Genetic Testing, and IgG tTGAs

      Coeliac disease is a condition that affects the small intestine and is caused by an intolerance to gluten. While small-bowel biopsy is the most reliable way to diagnose coeliac disease, IgA tissue transglutaminase antibodies (tTGAs) are the preferred initial investigation. This test is highly specific and sensitive for untreated coeliac disease, but should not be performed on children younger than two years as it may give a false negative result.

      It is important to note that around 0.4% of the population has selective IgA deficiency, which can lead to a false-negative result. In such cases, the laboratory should measure IgA levels. Some laboratories may do this routinely when measuring tTGAs.

      IgA gliadin antibodies are not commonly used to diagnose coeliac disease. Instead, IgA EMAs are autoantibodies against tissue transglutaminase type 2 (tTGA2) and are highly specific and sensitive for untreated coeliac disease. However, IgA EMAs should be measured if IgA tTG is only weakly positive.

      HLA genetic testing is not recommended for diagnosing coeliac disease in primary care. Coeliac disease is strongly associated with the genes HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8, but testing for these genes is not necessary for diagnosis.

      Finally, IgG tTGAs should only be considered in people who are IgA deficient to avoid the risk of a false-negative IgA tTGA result.

      In summary, understanding the differences between these tests is crucial in accurately diagnosing coeliac disease and providing appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old woman presents with complaints of a dull ache and numbness in...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with complaints of a dull ache and numbness in her right hand. She reports that her symptoms are more severe at night and she has to hang her arm out of bed and shake it to get relief. On examination, forced flexion of the wrist and pressure over the proximal wrist crease with thumbs reproduces the paraesthesia in her thumb, index finger, and middle finger. What is the most appropriate initial management strategy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Local corticosteroid injection

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that affects many people, and it can be quite debilitating. However, there are several treatment options available to help manage the symptoms. It is important to note that anti-inflammatories may exacerbate symptoms, and there is no significant evidence behind using a diuretic or amitriptyline as a treatment option. Instead, treatment options include avoiding precipitating causes, simple advice about minimizing activities that trigger symptoms, nocturnal wrist splintage, and corticosteroid injection. Referral for nerve conduction studies is appropriate in some cases where there is diagnostic doubt, but if there is a clear clinical diagnosis, further investigation is not needed, and treatment can be initiated. Corticosteroid injection is a first-line treatment option and can be performed based on a clinical diagnosis in primary care by an adequately trained and competent clinician. Surgery, which would not be an appropriate initial management, would clearly need referral to secondary care. By understanding these treatment options, individuals with carpal tunnel syndrome can work with their healthcare provider to find the best approach for managing their symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 17 - A 48-year-old man comes to your GP clinic complaining of feeling generally unwell...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man comes to your GP clinic complaining of feeling generally unwell and lethargic. His wife notes that he has been eating less than usual and gets tired easily. He has a history of hypertension but no other significant medical history. He drinks alcohol socially and has a stressful job as a banker, which led him to start smoking 15 cigarettes a day for the past 13 years. He believes that work stress is the cause of his symptoms and asks for a recommendation for a counselor to help him manage it. What should be the next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for an urgent Chest X-Ray

      Explanation:

      If a person aged 40 or over has appetite loss and is a smoker, an urgent chest X-ray should be offered within two weeks, according to the updated 2015 NICE guidelines. This is because appetite loss is now considered a potential symptom of lung cancer. While counseling, smoking cessation, and a career change may be helpful, investigating the possibility of lung cancer is the most urgent action required. It is important to address each issue separately, as trying to tackle all three at once could be overwhelming for the patient.

      Referral Guidelines for Lung Cancer

      Lung cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. The 2015 NICE cancer referral guidelines provide clear advice on when to refer patients for suspected lung cancer. According to these guidelines, patients should be referred using a suspected cancer pathway referral for an appointment within 2 weeks if they have chest x-ray findings that suggest lung cancer or are aged 40 and over with unexplained haemoptysis.

      For patients aged 40 and over who have 2 or more unexplained symptoms such as cough, fatigue, shortness of breath, chest pain, weight loss, or appetite loss, an urgent chest x-ray should be offered within 2 weeks to assess for lung cancer. This recommendation also applies to patients who have ever smoked and have 1 or more of these unexplained symptoms.

      In addition, patients aged 40 and over with persistent or recurrent chest infection, finger clubbing, supraclavicular lymphadenopathy or persistent cervical lymphadenopathy, chest signs consistent with lung cancer, or thrombocytosis should be considered for an urgent chest x-ray within 2 weeks to assess for lung cancer.

      Overall, these guidelines provide clear and specific recommendations for healthcare professionals to identify and refer patients with suspected lung cancer for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 18 - A 10-year-old girl presents for an urgent review. She has been experiencing wheezing...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl presents for an urgent review. She has been experiencing wheezing and coughing for the past 24 hours despite regular use of a salbutamol inhaler. She is otherwise healthy. The patient was diagnosed with asthma two years ago and has been managing it well with occasional reliever therapy.

      Upon examination, the patient appears well and is able to communicate without difficulty. There are no signs of respiratory distress. Mild wheezing is present throughout the chest with no crackles. Vital signs are as follows: respiratory rate 20, pulse 100 bpm, blood pressure 110/60mmHg, oxygen saturation 96%, and temperature 37°C. Peak flow is measured at 290L/min (315L/min expected).

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10 puffs of salbutamol with spacer (repeat as required) + prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Corticosteroid therapy should be administered to all children experiencing an asthma exacerbation. The appropriate treatment for this child, who is presenting with a mild exacerbation of asthma without signs of infection, is 10 puffs of salbutamol with spacer (to be repeated as necessary) and prednisolone. Antibiotics are not necessary in this case. It is important to increase the short-acting beta agonist dose and deliver it through a spacer to ensure effective medication delivery. Two puffs of salbutamol with spacer (to be repeated as necessary) is not sufficient for treating an asthma exacerbation.

      The management of acute asthma attacks in children depends on the severity of the attack. Children with severe or life-threatening asthma should be immediately transferred to the hospital. For children with mild to moderate acute asthma, bronchodilator therapy and steroid therapy should be given. The dosage of prednisolone depends on the age of the child. It is important to monitor SpO2, PEF, heart rate, respiratory rate, use of accessory neck muscles, and other clinical features to determine the severity of the attack.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 19 - A 13-year-old boy has been experiencing pain in his left hip and knee,...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old boy has been experiencing pain in his left hip and knee, causing him to stop playing rugby for the past month. There was no known injury, but his symptoms have worsened in the last 24 hours. Despite having an upper respiratory tract infection the week before, he is currently feeling well with no fever. He took one of his mother's co-codamol 30/500 an hour ago, which provided some relief. However, he is unable to walk without assistance.

      During the examination, his knee appears normal, but his hip tends to externally rotate when flexed. He is in the 95th percentile for weight, but all other observations are normal. He is currently taking 50 mcg of levothyroxine daily for hypothyroidism.

      What would be the appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange emergency admission under orthopaedics

      Explanation:

      Slipped Upper Epiphysis: Diagnosis and Treatment

      Slipped upper epiphyses are more common in overweight boys aged 10-15 and are associated with obesity and hypothyroidism. Patients often present with pain, which may be referred to the knee, and it is important to examine the hips thoroughly. On examination, abduction and internal rotation may both be reduced, and the affected leg may be shortened. The key findings supporting the diagnosis are the presence of risk factors and gait abnormalities.

      Slipped epiphyses can be classified as acute, chronic, or acute on chronic, and as unstable or stable. In the case of unstable slipped epiphysis, urgent surgical repair is necessary to prevent avascular necrosis. Stable slipped epiphysis is usually treated with in situ screw fixation, and prophylactic fixation of the contralateral hip may also be considered.

      In the primary care setting, emergency admission under orthopaedics is necessary for patients with acute and unstable slipped epiphysis. For chronic and stable cases, x-ray is the first line investigation, and U&Es, serum TFTs, and serum growth hormone may also be considered.

      In summary, early diagnosis and appropriate treatment are crucial in managing slipped upper epiphysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 20 - A 23-year-old woman urgently schedules an appointment due to a two-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman urgently schedules an appointment due to a two-day history of increasing soreness, redness, and discharge from her left eye. She describes a gritty sensation in the affected eye but denies any foreign body exposure. The patient is otherwise healthy and admits to wearing contact lenses for up to 16 hours daily. She has stopped using contact lenses since the onset of symptoms and is currently wearing glasses.

      During the examination, the left eye appears inflamed and red with excessive tearing, while the right eye is normal. No abnormalities are observed in the periorbital tissues, and the patient's visual acuity is normal with glasses.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for same day ophthalmology assessment

      Explanation:

      If a contact lens wearer complains of a painful red eye, it is important to refer them to an eye casualty department to rule out microbial keratitis. While conjunctivitis is the most common cause of a red eye, it can be managed with antibiotics in primary care. However, contact lens wearers are at a higher risk of developing microbial keratitis, which can lead to serious complications such as visual loss. It can be difficult to distinguish between the two conditions, and a slit-lamp examination is necessary. Therefore, immediate referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary. Contact lenses should not be used, and medical treatment is required. It is important to note that steroid eye drops should not be prescribed for acute red eye from primary care. While artificial tears can be helpful for uncomplicated dry eyes, they are not recommended in cases of infection.

      Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea

      Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea, which is the clear, dome-shaped surface that covers the front of the eye. While there are various causes of keratitis, microbial keratitis is a particularly serious form of the condition that can lead to vision loss if left untreated. Bacterial keratitis is often caused by Staphylococcus aureus, while Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic keratitis are also possible, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections, environmental factors like photokeratitis, and contact lens-related issues like contact lens acute red eye (CLARE).

      Symptoms of keratitis typically include a painful, red eye, photophobia, and a gritty sensation or feeling of a foreign body in the eye. In some cases, hypopyon may be seen. If a person is a contact lens wearer and presents with a painful red eye, an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp, meaning same-day referral to an eye specialist is usually required to rule out microbial keratitis.

      Management of keratitis typically involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics like quinolones and cycloplegic agents for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. It is important to seek urgent evaluation and treatment for microbial keratitis to prevent these potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 21 - A study is conducted to determine the normal range of IgE levels in...

    Incorrect

    • A study is conducted to determine the normal range of IgE levels in elderly individuals. Assuming that IgE levels are normally distributed, what proportion of elderly individuals will have an IgE level greater than 2 standard deviations from the mean?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2.30%

      Explanation:

      The normal distribution, also known as the Gaussian distribution or ‘bell-shaped’ distribution, is commonly used to describe the spread of biological and clinical measurements. It is symmetrical, meaning that the mean, mode, and median are all equal. Additionally, a large percentage of values fall within a certain range of the mean. For example, 68.3% of values lie within 1 standard deviation (SD) of the mean, 95.4% lie within 2 SD, and 99.7% lie within 3 SD. This is often reversed, so that 95% of sample values lie within 1.96 SD of the mean. The range of the mean plus or minus 1.96 SD is called the 95% confidence interval, meaning that if a repeat sample of 100 observations were taken from the same group, 95 of them would be expected to fall within that range. The standard deviation is a measure of how much dispersion exists from the mean, and is calculated as the square root of the variance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 22 - A 28-year-old woman visits her GP at 37 weeks of pregnancy complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her GP at 37 weeks of pregnancy complaining of urinary frequency and urgency. She reports feeling generally well, with good fetal movements and no vaginal bleeding. Her vital signs are within normal limits, with a temperature of 37.4ºC, heart rate of 85 bpm, respiratory rate of 18/min, and blood pressure of 120/75 mmHg.

      Upon performing a urine dipstick test, leukocytes are detected while nitrites, blood, and ketones are absent.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treat with seven days of amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      For a pregnant woman in the third trimester with a UTI, the recommended antibiotic treatment is amoxicillin for seven days. Nitrofurantoin is the first-line antibiotic, but it should be avoided later in pregnancy due to potential harm to the baby. Cefalexin is also an appropriate second-line option. It is important to obtain a urine sample for testing before starting treatment and to confirm cure with a follow-up test. Hospital admission is not necessary unless there are signs of sepsis or pyelonephritis or pregnancy complications. Empirical therapy should be initiated promptly, and treatment can be adjusted based on sensitivity results if necessary.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 23 - A 24-year-old male patient complains of a painless scrotal swelling on the right...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old male patient complains of a painless scrotal swelling on the right side that has been present for two weeks. Upon examination, a soft non-tender swelling is observed on the right side of the scrotum that transilluminates with a pen torch. Palpation of the testicle reveals an irregular, hard swelling. The patient is afebrile and there is no erythema. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for urgent scrotal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      An ultrasound is the recommended first-line investigation for a testicular mass. It is important to note that a new hydrocele could be a sign of testicular malignancy, especially in males aged 20-40 years old who are at the highest risk. Therefore, NICE guidelines state that urgent scrotal ultrasound is necessary for investigating new hydroceles in this age group. It is not appropriate to simply reassure the patient or request a routine ultrasound or outpatient review, as this could delay the diagnosis of malignancy. Blood tests to check for tumour markers may be appropriate after the identification of suspected testicular malignancy.

      Testicular cancer is a common type of cancer that affects men between the ages of 20 and 30. The majority of cases (95%) are germ-cell tumors, which can be further classified as seminomas or non-seminomas. Non-germ cell tumors, such as Leydig cell tumors and sarcomas, are less common. Risk factors for testicular cancer include infertility, cryptorchidism, family history, Klinefelter’s syndrome, and mumps orchitis. Symptoms may include a painless lump, pain, hydrocele, and gynaecomastia.

      Tumour markers can be used to diagnose testicular cancer. For germ cell tumors, hCG may be elevated in seminomas, while AFP and/or beta-hCG are elevated in non-seminomas. LDH may also be elevated in germ cell tumors. Ultrasound is the first-line diagnostic tool.

      Treatment for testicular cancer depends on the type and stage of the tumor. Orchidectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy may be used. Prognosis is generally excellent, with a 5-year survival rate of around 95% for Stage I seminomas and 85% for Stage I teratomas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 24 - A young female patient in her early twenties comes to see you in...

    Incorrect

    • A young female patient in her early twenties comes to see you in surgery and you notice that she is taking the oral contraceptive pill.

      In which one of the following conditions, occurring in isolation, would you consider stopping her pill immediately?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Body mass index of 30 kg/m2

      Explanation:

      Understanding Contraception Cautions and Reasons for Stopping the Pill

      Contraception questions are common in the MRCGP exam, but candidates often make mistakes by not carefully reading the question. To answer these questions correctly, it is important to understand the reasons for immediately stopping the pill and paying attention to specific details in the options.

      For instance, a blood pressure reading of over 160/100 would be a reason to stop taking the combined oral contraceptive pill. However, age 35, family history of arterial disease, and migraine controlled as above are cautions and would not be a reason alone to stop the pill. It is only necessary to stop the pill if more than one caution applies.

      Additionally, a cough would only be relevant if the patient is coughing blood-stained sputum, in which case she should stop taking the pill. By understanding these cautions and reasons for stopping the pill, candidates can improve their chances of answering contraception questions correctly on the MRCGP exam.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 25 - A 71-year-old man presents with progressive gait disturbance and fluctuating confusion. His symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • A 71-year-old man presents with progressive gait disturbance and fluctuating confusion. His symptoms began about six months ago when he noticed a heaviness in his legs on walking to work. Since then, his handwriting has become more untidy. His wife reports that he has become increasingly forgetful at home, although he denies this. Over the last two months, he has become restless at night and has reported seeing unidentified objects moving on the walls and in the room. On examination, his Mini-Mental State Examination score is 24/30. He is symmetrically rigid and slow, with a mild, jerky tremor in the upper limbs. Cranial nerve examination is unremarkable. His gait is shuffling, with mildly impaired postural reflexes.
      The accumulation of which protein causes the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha-synuclein

      Explanation:

      Neurodegenerative Disorders and Associated Proteins

      Dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB) is a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by cognitive decline, visual hallucinations, and sleep disturbances. It is caused by the accumulation of alpha-synuclein into Lewy bodies in vulnerable neurons.

      Beta-amyloid plaques are insoluble and associated with Alzheimer’s disease. They can be detected in the brain before diagnosis and have subtle effects on cognition.

      Prions are abnormal proteins that induce abnormal folding of other proteins. They are difficult to inactivate and can cause Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, a rapidly progressive neurodegenerative disorder.

      Tau proteins are microtubule-binding proteins associated with local neurodegeneration and cognitive impairment. They are seen in Alzheimer’s disease as flame-shaped neurofibrillary tangles.

      Overall, DLB is a good differential diagnosis for vascular dementia, but the clinical picture is more suggestive of DLB.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 26 - Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who has a routine urine culture sent at...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who has a routine urine culture sent at her gynecologist appointment. She is asymptomatic but has had a history of post-coital cystitis in the past. Sarah is currently 8 weeks pregnant.

      The urine culture comes back showing the growth of Escherichia coli.

      What should be the next course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treat with 7 days of nitrofurantoin

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women who have a UTI should be treated promptly, regardless of whether they have symptoms or not. This is because leaving a UTI untreated can increase the risk of pyelonephritis and premature delivery. Therefore, doing nothing is not an option.

      The recommended treatment for a UTI in pregnant women is a 7-day course of antibiotics. The choice of antibiotics depends on the trimester of pregnancy.

      Trimethoprim is not recommended during the first trimester due to its effect on folate metabolism. However, it is safe to use during the second and third trimesters.

      Nitrofurantoin is often the first-line treatment and is safe to use during pregnancy. However, it should be avoided at term (40 weeks) due to the small risk of neonatal haemolysis.

      In this case, since the patient is in her first trimester, a 7-day course of nitrofurantoin is the recommended treatment.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 27 - Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who presents to you with a 1 week...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who presents to you with a 1 week history of fever, right sided abdominal pain and general malaise. She has no significant past medical history and has recently travelled to South America, returning 4 weeks ago. During examination, Sarah is found to be pyrexial. She complains of pain in the right upper quadrant of her abdomen and there is hepatomegaly.

      Upon further questioning, Sarah states that she is not sexually active and denies any history of intravenous drug use. Liver function tests reveal a significantly raised alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and alkaline phosphatase (ALP). A full liver screen confirms the diagnosis.

      Sarah is prescribed medication for symptomatic management and she makes a full recovery within 3 months.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis A

      Explanation:

      Acute hepatitis A is characterized by symptoms similar to those of other forms of acute viral hepatitis, including flu-like symptoms, RUQ pain, tender hepatomegaly, and abnormal liver function tests. It is difficult to differentiate hepatitis A from other forms of viral hepatitis based on medical history, physical examination, or routine laboratory tests. However, a history of exposure or risk factors, such as travel to regions with high prevalence, can increase suspicion. Unlike hepatitis C and D, which are transmitted through blood, hepatitis A is transmitted through the fecal-oral route.

      Understanding Hepatitis A: Symptoms, Transmission, and Prevention

      Hepatitis A is a viral infection that affects the liver. It is usually a mild illness that resolves on its own, with serious complications being rare. The virus is transmitted through the faecal-oral route, often in institutions. The incubation period is typically 2-4 weeks, and symptoms include a flu-like prodrome, abdominal pain (usually in the right upper quadrant), tender hepatomegaly, jaundice, and deranged liver function tests.

      While complications are rare, there is no increased risk of hepatocellular cancer. An effective vaccine is available, and it is recommended for people travelling to or residing in areas of high or intermediate prevalence, those with chronic liver disease, patients with haemophilia, men who have sex with men, injecting drug users, and individuals at occupational risk (such as laboratory workers, staff of large residential institutions, sewage workers, and people who work with primates).

      It is important to note that the vaccine requires a booster dose 6-12 months after the initial dose. By understanding the symptoms, transmission, and prevention of hepatitis A, individuals can take steps to protect themselves and others from this viral infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old patient presents to you for a contraceptive pill review. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient presents to you for a contraceptive pill review. She is considering discontinuing her pill to start a family and seeks your guidance on folic acid intake. She has no other medical conditions and is not taking any other medications.

      What recommendations would you make regarding the dosage and duration of folic acid supplementation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 400 micrograms daily, to be taken before conception and until week 12 of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Folic Acid Supplements for Women

      Taking folic acid supplements before conception can be beneficial for women. It is important to note that the correct dose for women without risk factors is 400mcg, not 5mg. While 400mcg tablets are available over the counter, 5mg tablets require a prescription. Women should continue taking the supplements until 12 weeks of pregnancy. It is important to start taking folic acid before becoming pregnant to reap the benefits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old man presents with classic symptoms of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents with classic symptoms of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) and is concerned about the likelihood of recurrence. He reports multiple episodes of the room spinning when he moves his head, lasting 30 seconds to 1 minute. You explain that while symptoms often resolve without treatment over several weeks, the Epley manoeuvre can be offered to alleviate symptoms. The patient, who is a driver, is disabled by his symptoms and would like to know the chances of recurrence over the next 3-5 years.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Approximately 50% of individuals diagnosed with BPPV will experience a relapse of symptoms within 3 to 5 years.

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common cause of vertigo that occurs suddenly when there is a change in head position. It is more prevalent in individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. Symptoms of BPPV include dizziness and vertigo, which can be accompanied by nausea. Each episode typically lasts for 10-20 seconds and can be triggered by rolling over in bed or looking upwards. A positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, which is indicated by vertigo and rotatory nystagmus, can confirm the diagnosis of BPPV.

      Fortunately, BPPV has a good prognosis and usually resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Treatment options include the Epley manoeuvre, which is successful in around 80% of cases, and vestibular rehabilitation exercises such as the Brandt-Daroff exercises. While medication such as Betahistine may be prescribed, it tends to have limited effectiveness. However, it is important to note that around half of individuals with BPPV may experience a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after their initial diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old diabetic woman would like to discuss a copper IUCD device. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old diabetic woman would like to discuss a copper IUCD device. She is a nulliparous lady who has had fertility problems and endometriosis in the past, but would like a reliable form of contraception after a recent divorce.

      One week before seeing you, she mentioned to the nurse that she had been getting some intermenstrual bleeding and it was suggested that she makes an appointment to see you. You note that she had pelvic inflammatory disease when she was 20, but this was successfully treated as an inpatient.

      Which one of the conditions given in the history is a contraindication to having a copper IUCD fitted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endometriosis

      Explanation:

      Contraception Contraindications and Cautions

      Contraception questions are commonly featured in the MRCGP exam, and it is essential to have a good understanding of the contraindications and cautions listed in the British National Formulary (BNF). In the BNF, unexplained uterine bleeding is listed as a contraindication, while the other items mentioned in the history are listed as cautions. It is important to note that there are other contraindications not mentioned in the history, such as pregnancy, current sexually transmitted infection, current pelvic inflammatory disease, and distorted uterine cavity. Familiarizing oneself with these contraindications and cautions is crucial in providing safe and effective contraception to patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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Population Health (0/1) 0%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
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