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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old patient with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia presents to the emergency department with haematemesis. Urgent blood tests are taken and blood products ordered from the laboratory.
A full blood count shows:
Hb 76 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 26 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 21.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Which blood product carries the highest risk for this immunocompromised patient?Your Answer: Whole blood
Correct Answer: Platelets
Explanation:Platelet transfusions have the highest risk of bacterial contamination due to their short shelf life and refrigeration. This patient requires both red blood cells and platelets, but caution should be taken with platelet transfusions due to the risk of contamination. Cryoprecipitate and plasma have lower contamination risks and can be stored for longer periods. Packed red cells can also be used and have a longer shelf life.
Platelet Transfusion Guidelines for Active Bleeding and Pre-Invasive Procedures
Platelet transfusions are recommended for patients with thrombocytopenia and clinically significant bleeding, such as haematemesis, melaena, or prolonged epistaxis, with a platelet count of less than 30 x 10 9. For severe bleeding or bleeding at critical sites, such as the CNS, platelet thresholds for transfusion are higher, with a maximum of less than 100 x 10 9. However, it should be noted that platelet transfusions have a higher risk of bacterial contamination compared to other types of blood products.
For pre-invasive procedures, platelet transfusions are recommended to maintain platelet levels of greater than 50 x 10 9/L for most patients, 50-75 x 10 9/L for those at high risk of bleeding, and greater than 100 x 10 9/L for surgeries at critical sites. However, if there is no active bleeding or planned invasive procedure, a threshold of 10 x 10 9/L is recommended, unless platelet transfusion is contraindicated or there are alternative treatments available for the patient’s condition.
It is important to note that platelet transfusions should not be performed for chronic bone marrow failure, autoimmune thrombocytopenia, heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, or thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura. These guidelines aim to provide appropriate and safe platelet transfusion practices for patients with thrombocytopenia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old male with a history of COPD and metastatic lung cancer is admitted with worsening shortness of breath. After consulting with family, it is determined that active treatment, including fluids and antibiotics, will be withdrawn as this admission is likely a terminal event. However, two days later, the patient becomes restless and agitated. What is the best course of action in managing this situation?
Your Answer: Oral lormetazepam
Correct Answer: Subcutaneous midazolam
Explanation:Palliative Care Prescribing for Agitation and Confusion
When dealing with agitation and confusion in palliative care patients, it is important to identify and treat any underlying causes such as hypercalcaemia, infection, urinary retention, or medication. If these specific treatments fail, medication can be used to manage symptoms. Haloperidol is the first choice for treating agitation and confusion, with chlorpromazine and levomepromazine as alternative options. In the terminal phase of the illness, midazolam is the preferred medication for managing agitation or restlessness. Proper management of these symptoms can greatly improve the quality of life for palliative care patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 3
Correct
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The physician is analyzing the routine blood test results for a 65-year-old woman who has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and giant cell arteritis. The following are some of the findings:
- Hemoglobin (Hb) level of 133 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160 g/L; males: 135-180 g/L)
- Mean cell volume (MCV) of 88 fl (normal range: 82-100 fl)
- Platelet count of 390 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L)
- White blood cell (WBC) count of 10.7 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L)
- Neutrophil count of 8.4 * 109/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0 * 109/L)
- Lymphocyte count of 1.4 * 109/L (normal range: 1.0-3.0 * 109/L)
What could be the possible cause of these abnormal results?Your Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:The slightly high neutrophil count of 8.4 could be attributed to the use of prednisolone, a corticosteroid commonly used in the treatment of giant cell arteritis. This medication is known to induce neutrophilia. On the other hand, amlodipine, an antihypertensive drug, is not associated with neutrophilia but may cause leucopenia as a rare side effect. Dapagliflozin, a medication used in managing type 2 diabetes mellitus, does not affect white cell count, but it may cause frequent urinary tract infections, dizziness, and rash. Similarly, exenatide, a subcutaneous injection used in managing type 2 diabetes mellitus, is not known to cause changes in white cell count, but it may cause nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.
Understanding Corticosteroids and Their Side-Effects
Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed therapies used to replace or augment the natural activity of endogenous steroids. They can be administered systemically or locally, depending on the condition being treated. However, the usage of corticosteroids is limited due to their numerous side-effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic therapy.
Glucocorticoid side-effects include impaired glucose regulation, increased appetite and weight gain, hirsutism, hyperlipidaemia, Cushing’s syndrome, moon face, buffalo hump, striae, osteoporosis, proximal myopathy, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, immunosuppression, increased susceptibility to severe infection, reactivation of tuberculosis, insomnia, mania, depression, psychosis, peptic ulceration, acute pancreatitis, glaucoma, cataracts, suppression of growth in children, intracranial hypertension, and neutrophilia.
On the other hand, mineralocorticoid side-effects include fluid retention and hypertension. It is important to note that patients on long-term steroids should have their doses doubled during intercurrent illness. Longer-term systemic corticosteroids suppress the natural production of endogenous steroids, so they should not be withdrawn abruptly as this may precipitate an Addisonian crisis. The British National Formulary suggests gradual withdrawal of systemic corticosteroids if patients have received more than 40mg prednisolone daily for more than one week, received more than three weeks of treatment, or recently received repeated courses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 4
Correct
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An 87-year-old woman presents to the Haematology Clinic to review her latest blood test results. These show that her international normalised ratio (INR) is 8.9 (normal range: 2â3). She usually takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation. The patient's General Practitioner has telephoned her to advise that she stop taking the warfarin. The patient says that she feels well and is asymptomatic.
What is the most appropriate next step in this patient's management?Your Answer: Give a dose of vitamin K immediately and re-check her INR in 24 hours
Explanation:Managing High INR Levels in Patients on Warfarin: Treatment Options
When a patient on warfarin presents with a high INR level, it is important to take immediate action to prevent spontaneous bleeding and haemorrhage. Here are some treatment options and their implications:
1. Give a dose of vitamin K immediately and re-check her INR in 24 hours: Administering vitamin K is necessary to reverse the effects of warfarin, which is a vitamin K antagonist. In this situation, it is important to act quickly to reduce the INR level and prevent haemorrhage.
2. Give intramuscular (IM) vitamin K immediately and re-check her INR in 24 hours: While IM vitamin K can be given in cases where peripheral access is difficult, it is slower acting. In a situation with a high INR level, it is important to reduce the INR as soon as possible to prevent haemorrhage.
3. Give vitamin K immediately and re-check her INR in one week: While giving vitamin K is necessary to prevent spontaneous haemorrhage, it is important to recheck the INR relatively soon to ensure it has dropped below the required range. Waiting a week would be too long, and the INR should be rechecked within 24 hours of administering vitamin K.
4. Stop warfarin for life: If the patient has no actual side-effects from warfarin, such as anaphylaxis, they can continue to use it long-term with tighter control.
5. Switch from warfarin to aspirin: Aspirin cannot be used as a substitute for warfarin as it does not prevent thrombosis.
In conclusion, managing high INR levels in patients on warfarin requires prompt action to prevent haemorrhage. Vitamin K administration is necessary, and the INR level should be rechecked within 24 hours to ensure it has dropped below the required range.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 45-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a past medical history of type 2 diabetes and a newly diagnosed non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. He has significantly changed his diet and has been reading a lot about liver disease. He realises that he is at increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) due to his liver disease and wanted to know what can be done to monitor him for HCC.
How is HCC screened for in high-risk patients?Your Answer: Abdominal ultrasound (US) is routinely ordered at 6-month intervals
Explanation:Screening for Hepatocellular Carcinoma: Recommended Tests and Intervals
Regular screening for hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is recommended in high-risk patients. Abdominal ultrasound (US) is the primary screening tool, with 6-month intervals for follow-up if a lesion of < 1 cm is detected. If there is no growth over 1-2 years, routine 6-monthly surveillance can continue. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) levels may be used in conjunction with US, but are not reliable on their own. A triphasic contrast computed tomography (CT) scan is recommended every two years for high-suspicion cases. This article provides an overview of the recommended tests and intervals for HCC screening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 32-year-old patient who is a vegan and very active has been experiencing fatigue and difficulty breathing for the past two months. During examination, she appears to be anaemic.
What is the most probable vitamin deficiency causing her anaemia?
Your Answer: Vitamin B12
Explanation:Vegan Nutrition: Understanding the Availability of Vitamins
As a vegan, it is important to understand the availability of vitamins in your diet. One vitamin that vegans are at risk of deficiency in is vitamin B12, which is primarily found in animal products such as meat, fish, eggs, and milk. However, there are vegan-friendly sources of vitamin B12 such as fortified cereals and plant-based milks.
Contrary to popular belief, vitamin B6, vitamin A, vitamin B1, and vitamin C are all readily available in vegan-friendly foods. Vitamin B6 can be found in bread, whole grains, vegetables, peanuts, and potatoes. Vitamin A can be found in yellow, red, and green vegetables as well as yellow fruits. Vitamin B1 can be found in peas, fruit, whole grain bread, and fortified cereals. Vitamin C is predominantly found in fruits and vegetables such as oranges, peppers, strawberries, broccoli, potatoes, and Brussels sprouts.
By understanding the availability of vitamins in vegan-friendly foods, vegans can ensure they are meeting their nutritional needs and maintaining a healthy diet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 28-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with pallor, fatigue, weakness, palpitations and dyspnoea on exertion. His symptoms have come on quickly over the last three weeks. A full blood count is ordered and is suggestive of acute lymphoblastic myeloid leukaemia (AML).
What Is the next most appropriate investigation for this patient?
Your Answer: Bone marrow biopsy
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Acute Myeloid Leukaemia
Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) is a type of blood cancer that affects the bone marrow. To diagnose AML, several diagnostic tests may be performed. The most common tests include a bone marrow biopsy, ultrasound scan of the abdomen, chest X-ray, computerised tomography (CT) scan of chest, abdomen and pelvis, and lumbar puncture.
Bone Marrow Biopsy: This is the most important test for diagnosing AML. It involves extracting cells from the bone marrow and examining them under a microscope. AML is characterised by the presence of primitive myeloblasts and Auer rods in the bone marrow.
Ultrasound Scan of the Abdomen: This test is used to check for enlarged lymph nodes in the abdomen or spleen. If any enlarged lymph nodes are found, they may be biopsied to determine the extent of the leukaemia.
Chest X-ray: This test is used to check for enlarged lymph nodes in the mediastinum.
CT Scan of Chest, Abdomen and Pelvis: This test is not usually used as a first-line investigation for AML. However, once the diagnosis is confirmed, a CT scan may be used to assess for the presence of enlarged lymph nodes or for planning purposes if radiotherapy is going to form part of the treatment.
Lumbar Puncture: This test is not usually used in the diagnosis of AML unless it is suspected that the leukaemia cells are also present in the cerebrospinal fluid.
In conclusion, a bone marrow biopsy is the most important test for diagnosing AML. Other tests may be used to determine the extent of the leukaemia or for planning purposes if radiotherapy is going to form part of the treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with symptoms of petechiae, purpura, and epistaxis. She had a cold 6 weeks ago and has no known family history of bleeding disorders. Her lab results show a platelet count of 80 * 109/L (normal range: 150 - 400). What is the recommended first-line treatment for her likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Oral prednisolone
Explanation:Understanding Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) in Adults
Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) is a condition where the immune system attacks and reduces the number of platelets in the blood. This is caused by antibodies targeting the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib-V-IX complex. While children with ITP usually experience acute thrombocytopenia after an infection or vaccination, adults tend to have a more chronic form of the condition. ITP is more common in older females and may be detected incidentally during routine blood tests. Symptoms may include petechiae, purpura, and bleeding, but catastrophic bleeding is not a common presentation.
To diagnose ITP, a full blood count and blood film are typically performed. While a bone marrow examination is no longer routinely used, antiplatelet antibody testing may be done, although it has poor sensitivity and does not affect clinical management. The first-line treatment for ITP is oral prednisolone, but pooled normal human immunoglobulin (IVIG) may also be used if active bleeding or an urgent invasive procedure is required. Splenectomy is now less commonly used as a treatment option.
In some cases, ITP may be associated with autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA), which is known as Evan’s syndrome. It is important for individuals with ITP to work closely with their healthcare provider to manage their condition and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 55-year-old man is reviewed on the Oncology Ward. He has metastatic lung cancer and a potassium (K+) level of 6.1 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5â5.0 mmol/l). The lab report indicates that there was a delay in processing this sample. His last K+ level recorded two days ago was 4.2 mmol/l. An electrocardiogram (ECG), urine output and observations all provide normal results.
What is the most appropriate initial step in this patientâs management?Your Answer: Repeat sample immediately
Explanation:Management of Suspected Hyperkalaemia
Hyperkalaemia is a serious medical condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. In cases where hyperkalaemia is suspected, it is important to verify whether the elevated potassium levels are due to true hyperkalaemia or an erroneous result. This can be caused by a delay in sample processing, venepuncture technique, or haemolysis of the blood sample.
If hyperkalaemia is confirmed, treatment should be initiated without delay. Calcium gluconate or calcium chloride may be given to protect the myocardium in cases of severe hyperkalaemia. Insulin and dextrose are usually given to drive potassium into the cells.
However, before prescribing any medications, it is crucial to repeat the sample immediately to confirm the diagnosis of true hyperkalaemia. Delaying treatment may lead to fatal arrhythmia. Therefore, it is essential to manage suspected hyperkalaemia with urgency and accuracy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman is being evaluated one week after being diagnosed with a deep vein thrombosis in her left leg. She has been administered low-molecular weight heparin for five days and has now been prescribed warfarin. The patient has a medical history of osteoporosis, breast cancer, type 2 diabetes, and depression. Which medication she is currently taking is most likely to have contributed to her increased risk of developing a deep vein thrombosis?
Your Answer: Tamoxifen
Explanation:Prior to initiating tamoxifen treatment, women should be informed about the elevated risk of VTE, which is one of the most significant side effects of the medication. Additionally, tamoxifen has been linked to an increased risk of endometrial cancer.
Venous Thromboembolism: Common Risk Factors
Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a condition where blood clots form in the veins, which can lead to serious complications such as pulmonary embolism (PE). While there are many factors that can increase the risk of VTE, some are more common than others. These include malignancy, pregnancy, and the period following an operation. Other general risk factors include advancing age, obesity, family history of VTE, immobility, hospitalization, anaesthesia, and the use of central venous catheters. Underlying conditions such as heart failure, thrombophilia, and antiphospholipid syndrome can also increase the risk of VTE. Additionally, certain medications like the combined oral contraceptive pill, hormone replacement therapy, raloxifene, tamoxifen, and antipsychotics have been shown to be risk factors.
It is important to note that while these factors can increase the risk of VTE, around 40% of patients diagnosed with a PE have no major risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old man, currently admitted to a medical ward for acute pancreatitis, experiences intermittent episodes of epistaxis. Blood tests are conducted and reveal the following results:
- Platelets: 52 * 109/L (normal range: 150 - 400)
- Prothrombin time (PT): 23 seconds (normal range: 10-14 seconds)
- Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT): 46 seconds (normal range: 25-35 seconds)
- Fibrinogen: 0.8 g/L (normal range: 2 - 4)
- D-Dimer: 1203 ng/mL (normal range: < 400)
Based on the probable diagnosis, what would be the expected findings on a blood film?Your Answer: HowellâJolly bodies
Correct Answer: Schistocytes
Explanation:The presence of schistocytes is indicative of microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, which is associated with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). DIC is a condition where the coagulation pathways are activated, leading to a procoagulant state. It can be triggered by various factors, including acute illness. The patient’s blood tests show a depletion of platelets and coagulation factors, which is typical of DIC. However, elliptocytes, Heinz bodies, and Howell-Jolly bodies are not expected in DIC. Elliptocytes are usually seen in conditions like iron deficiency and thalassemia, while Heinz bodies are associated with alpha-thalassemia and glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency. Howell-Jolly bodies are characteristic of decreased splenic function, such as post-splenectomy.
Understanding Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) Diagnosis
Under normal conditions, coagulation and fibrinolysis work together to maintain homeostasis. However, in DIC, these processes become dysregulated, leading to widespread clotting and bleeding. One key factor in the development of DIC is the release of tissue factor (TF), a glycoprotein found on the surface of various cell types. Normally, TF is not in contact with the general circulation, but it is exposed after vascular damage or in response to certain cytokines. Once activated, TF triggers the extrinsic pathway of coagulation, which then triggers the intrinsic pathway. DIC can be caused by various factors, including sepsis, trauma, obstetric complications, and malignancy.
To diagnose DIC, a typical blood picture will show decreased platelets and fibrinogen, increased fibrinogen degradation products, and the presence of schistocytes due to microangiopathic hemolytic anemia. Additionally, both the prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time are prolonged, while bleeding time and platelet count are often low. Understanding the diagnosis of DIC is crucial for prompt and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 38-year-old man presents to the infertility clinic with a low sperm count and suspected left varicocele, as noted by his GP. He also has a history of hypertension treated with ramipril and has been experiencing night sweats intermittently over the past few months. His FBC shows anaemia and his ESR is markedly raised. Additionally, haematuria is present on urinalysis. What is the most likely diagnosis for this clinical presentation?
Your Answer: Renal cell carcinoma
Explanation:Renal Cell Carcinoma: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Prognosis
Renal cell carcinoma is a type of kidney cancer that often presents with haematuria, loin pain, and a flank mass. However, other symptoms such as weight loss, fatigue, and pyrexia may also occur. In some cases, paraneoplastic symptoms like a raised ESR may be present. Diagnosis involves FBC to check for anaemia or polycythaemia. Left-sided varicocele may also occur due to tumour invasion of the left renal vein. Prognosis depends on the tumour stage at diagnosis, with a 5-year survival rate of 60-70% for tumours confined to the renal parenchyma, 15-35% for lymph node involvement, and only 5% for distant metastases. It is important to differentiate renal cell carcinoma from other conditions such as lymphoma, multiple myeloma, testicular carcinoma, and chronic urinary tract infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman, who is a non-smoker, presents with back pain. A bone scan shows multiple lesions highly suggestive of metastases. Clinical examination is normal apart from unilateral axillary lymphadenopathy. Excision biopsy of an affected lymph node shows adenocarcinoma. Which of the following investigations should be prioritised to find the site of the primary?
Your Answer: Mammography
Explanation:When a patient presents with metastatic bone disease from an unknown primary, it is important to identify the primary source in order to guide treatment and determine prognosis. Tumours that commonly metastasize to bone include those of the lungs, prostate, breast, kidney, and thyroid.
In cases where the patient has unilateral axillary lymphadenopathy, metastatic breast carcinoma is highly likely. Other potential causes of unilateral axillary lymphadenopathy include lymphoma, primary malignancy, melanoma, or metastases from non-breast primary malignancy.
While there are various investigations that can be performed, mammography should be the first examination of choice. If the mammogram is negative, other investigations may be pursued to identify alternative occult sites.
It is important to note that identifying the primary source is useful even in cases of metastatic disease, as it can guide treatment and provide insight into prognosis. Therefore, mammography plays a crucial role in the diagnosis of metastatic breast cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP because she is worried about her ability to conceive. She has experienced three miscarriages in the past five years and has also had an unprovoked deep vein thrombosis. The GP orders various blood tests and suspects that one of them may show a positive result for a potential cause of her issues.
Which of the following antibody tests is the most likely to be positive? Choose only ONE option.Your Answer: Anti-phospholipid antibodies
Explanation:Autoimmune Antibodies and Their Associated Conditions
Autoimmune disorders are conditions in which the immune system mistakenly attacks the body’s own tissues. One way to diagnose autoimmune disorders is by testing for specific antibodies that are associated with certain conditions. Here are some common autoimmune antibodies and the conditions they are associated with:
1. Anti-phospholipid antibodies: These antibodies are linked to anti-phospholipid syndrome (APS), also known as Hughes’ syndrome. APS can cause blood clots and pregnancy-related complications.
2. Anti-endomysial antibodies: These antibodies are associated with coeliac disease, an autoimmune disorder that affects the small intestine.
3. Anti-histone antibodies: These antibodies are linked to drug-induced systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), another autoimmune disorder.
4. Anti-mitochondrial antibodies: These antibodies are associated with primary biliary cholangitis, autoimmune hepatitis, and idiopathic cirrhosis, all of which affect the liver.
5. Anti-nuclear antibodies: These antibodies are associated with several autoimmune disorders, including SLE, autoimmune hepatitis, Sjögren’s syndrome, systemic sclerosis, and rheumatoid arthritis.
Testing for these antibodies can help diagnose autoimmune disorders and guide treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 68-year-old man presents with complaints of weight loss and fatigue that have been ongoing for several months. Upon examination, the only notable finding is pallor. A blood film reveals the presence of immature blasts, and genetic testing shows the presence of a chromosomal translocation t(9;22) - the Philadelphia chromosome. Further investigations reveal the following results: Hb of 95 g/l (normal range: 135-175 g/l), leukocytes of 62 Ă 109/l (normal range: 4.0-11.0 Ă 109/l), and PLT of 101 Ă 109/l (normal range: 150-400 Ă 109/l). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)
Explanation:Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) is a rare form of cancer that occurs due to the abnormal growth of myeloid precursors or blasts. This leads to an increase in white blood cells and a decrease in the normal functions of the bone marrow, resulting in anaemia and thrombocytopenia. CML is most commonly seen in people between the ages of 60 and 70 and has a slow onset that can last for months or even years. The majority of cases are caused by a genetic mutation called the Philadelphia chromosome, which produces a protein that promotes the growth of cancer cells. Symptoms of CML include fatigue, weight loss, night sweats, abdominal distension, and left upper quadrant pain. Treatment for CML involves inhibiting the genetic mutation with a drug called imatinib.
Acute lymphocytic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that occurs due to the abnormal growth of immature lymphocytes, which replace the normal cells of the bone marrow and lead to a decrease in blood cell production. ALL is most commonly seen in children and presents with symptoms such as anaemia, fever, and abdominal pain. Diagnosis is made through bone marrow biopsy and genetic analysis, which can reveal chromosomal abnormalities associated with the disease.
Hodgkin’s lymphoma (HL) is a type of cancer that typically presents with enlarged lymph nodes and is associated with the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, which are abnormal B cells. Multiple myeloma (MM) is a cancer that affects plasma cells in the bone marrow, leading to a decrease in blood cell production and other symptoms such as hypercalcemia and kidney dysfunction. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma (NHL) is a type of cancer that arises from the abnormal growth of B cells, T cells, or natural killer cells and can be caused by genetic mutations, infections, or chronic inflammation. Symptoms of NHL include enlarged lymph nodes throughout the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 49-year-old homeless man has been admitted to the emergency department after collapsing with sudden onset left side hemiparesis and facial droop. A CT scan has revealed a large intracerebral haemorrhage, which is likely to have occurred spontaneously. The patient's medical and family history is unknown, but you suspect that coagulopathy may be the cause of the spontaneous bleed. The clotting profile and specific clotting factor levels are as follows:
- PT prolonged
- APTT prolonged
- Factor VIII high
- Factor II low
- Factor V low
- Factor VII low
- Factor IX low
- Von Willebrand factor high
What is the most probable reason for the coagulopathy?Your Answer: Liver failure
Explanation:It is highly probable that the individual is suffering from liver failure as all clotting factors, except for factor VIII, are below normal levels. In cases of liver failure, both PT and APTT may be prolonged. Haemophilia A and B are unlikely as they result in deficiencies of specific clotting factors, whereas Von Willebrand disease may have low levels of Von Willebrand factor but the other factors remain unaffected. Disseminated intravascular coagulation, on the other hand, leads to depletion of all clotting factors.
Coagulopathy in Liver Disease: Paradoxical Supra-normal Factor VIII and Increased Thrombosis Risk
In liver failure, the levels of all clotting factors decrease except for factor VIII, which paradoxically increases. This is because factor VIII is synthesized not only in hepatic endothelial cells but also in endothelial cells throughout the body. Moreover, good hepatic function is required for the rapid clearance of activated factor VIII from the bloodstream, leading to further increases in circulating factor VIII. Despite conventional coagulation studies suggesting an increased risk of bleeding, patients with chronic liver disease are paradoxically at an increased risk of thrombosis formation. This is due to several factors, including reduced synthesis of natural anticoagulants such as protein C, protein S, and anti-thrombin, which are all essential for preventing thrombosis.
Reference
Tripodi et al. An imbalance of pro- vs anti-coagulation factors in plasma from patients with cirrhosis. Gastroenterology. 2009 Dec;137(6):2105-11. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is referred to the Haematology Clinic under the 2-week-wait rule with significant fatigue and frequent infections over the past six months. His blood results confirm a diagnosis of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) with a 17p chromosome deletion.
Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line treatment?Your Answer: Imatinib
Correct Answer: Acalabrutinib
Explanation:Treatment Options for Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia (CLL)
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released new guidelines for managing newly diagnosed CLL in adults. Acalabrutinib is recommended as a monotherapy option if the patient has a 17p deletion or TP53 mutation, or if fludarabine plus cyclophosphamide and rituximab (FCR) or bendamustine plus rituximab (BR) are unsuitable. Prednisolone, a glucocorticoid commonly used in treating lymphoma, has no role in managing CLL. If there is no 17p deletion or TP53 mutation, FCR or BR would be the most appropriate first-line treatment. Conservative management is not recommended as the patient has developed signs of bone marrow dysfunction. Imatinib, the first-line treatment for CML, would not be useful for CLL.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 72-year-old man with metastatic breast cancer presents to surgery with his wife. He has known bone metastases in his pelvis and ribs, but his pain is not adequately managed with paracetamol, diclofenac, and MST 30 mg bd. His wife reports that he is using 10mg of oral morphine solution approximately 6-7 times a day for breakthrough pain. The hospice palliative care team attempted to use a bisphosphonate, but it resulted in persistent myalgia and arthralgia. What is the next appropriate step?
Your Answer: Increase MST + refer for radiotherapy
Explanation:Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman visits her GP with a breast lump. The lump is painless and she reports first noticing it 3 weeks ago. During examination, a hard, non-mobile lump measuring 2cm x 2cm is detected in the upper, outer quadrant of her right breast. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Urgent suspected cancer referral to the breast team
Explanation:If a woman over the age of 30 presents with an unexplained breast lump, it is important to refer her urgently to the breast team using a suspected cancer pathway referral. It is important to inform the patient that they are being referred to a cancer service, but also explain that not all referrals to cancer services result in a cancer diagnosis. It is incorrect to perform a biopsy as an initial investigation, as this will be done in secondary care. While fibroadenoma is a common cause of breast lumps in young women, urgent referral to the breast team is necessary to rule out cancer in patients over 30 years old. It is not appropriate to schedule a GP review in 2 weeks, as this lump needs prompt investigation by the breast team.
In 2015, NICE released guidelines for referring individuals suspected of having breast cancer. If a person is 30 years or older and has an unexplained breast lump with or without pain, or if they are 50 years or older and have discharge, retraction, or other concerning changes in one nipple only, they should be referred using a suspected cancer pathway referral for an appointment within two weeks. If a person has skin changes that suggest breast cancer or is 30 years or older with an unexplained lump in the axilla, a suspected cancer pathway referral should also be considered. For individuals under 30 years old with an unexplained breast lump with or without pain, non-urgent referral should be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 70-year-old man with metastatic prostate cancer is experiencing increased pain and vomiting while taking morphine sulphate 60mg bd. It has been decided to switch to subcutaneous administration. What is the recommended 24-hour dose of morphine for continuous subcutaneous infusion?
Your Answer: 60mg
Explanation:In this scenario, the BNF suggests administering half of the oral dose of morphine when using the parenteral route (subcutaneous, intramuscular, or intravenous). If the patient is no longer able to swallow, a continuous subcutaneous infusion of morphine is typically given.
Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman who recently finished a round of chemotherapy reports experiencing tingling sensations and difficulty using her hands. Additionally, she has noticed hesitancy in her urinary function. Which specific cytotoxic medication is the likely culprit for these symptoms?
Your Answer: Cyclophosphamide
Correct Answer: Vincristine
Explanation:Peripheral neuropathy is a known side effect of Vincristine. Additionally, bladder atony may cause urinary hesitancy.
Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin, degrade preformed DNA and can lead to lung fibrosis. Anthracyclines, such as doxorubicin, stabilize the DNA-topoisomerase II complex and inhibit DNA and RNA synthesis, but can also cause cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, like methotrexate, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, leading to myelosuppression, mucositis, liver fibrosis, and lung fibrosis. Fluorouracil (5-FU) is a pyrimidine analogue that induces cell cycle arrest and apoptosis by blocking thymidylate synthase, but can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and dermatitis. Cytarabine is a pyrimidine antagonist that interferes with DNA synthesis specifically at the S-phase of the cell cycle and inhibits DNA polymerase, but can also cause myelosuppression and ataxia. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and vinblastine, inhibit the formation of microtubules and can cause peripheral neuropathy, paralytic ileus, and myelosuppression. Docetaxel prevents microtubule depolymerisation and disassembly, decreasing free tubulin, but can also cause neutropaenia. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA, but can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin, cause cross-linking in DNA and can lead to ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, and hypomagnesaemia. Hydroxyurea (hydroxycarbamide) inhibits ribonucleotide reductase, decreasing DNA synthesis, but can also cause myelosuppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 22
Correct
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Which cytotoxic agent is commonly linked to pulmonary fibrosis?
Your Answer: Bleomycin
Explanation:Pulmonary fibrosis is a potential side effect of bleomycin, a cytotoxic antibiotic commonly prescribed for metastatic germ cell cancer, squamous cell carcinoma, and non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. The severity of this adverse effect is directly proportional to the dosage administered.
Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin, degrade preformed DNA and can lead to lung fibrosis. Anthracyclines, such as doxorubicin, stabilize the DNA-topoisomerase II complex and inhibit DNA and RNA synthesis, but can also cause cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, like methotrexate, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, leading to myelosuppression, mucositis, liver fibrosis, and lung fibrosis. Fluorouracil (5-FU) is a pyrimidine analogue that induces cell cycle arrest and apoptosis by blocking thymidylate synthase, but can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and dermatitis. Cytarabine is a pyrimidine antagonist that interferes with DNA synthesis specifically at the S-phase of the cell cycle and inhibits DNA polymerase, but can also cause myelosuppression and ataxia. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and vinblastine, inhibit the formation of microtubules and can cause peripheral neuropathy, paralytic ileus, and myelosuppression. Docetaxel prevents microtubule depolymerisation and disassembly, decreasing free tubulin, but can also cause neutropaenia. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA, but can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin, cause cross-linking in DNA and can lead to ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, and hypomagnesaemia. Hydroxyurea (hydroxycarbamide) inhibits ribonucleotide reductase, decreasing DNA synthesis, but can also cause myelosuppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 23
Correct
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Which of the following may be linked to a higher risk of venous thromboembolism?
Your Answer: Behcet's syndrome
Explanation:Venous Thromboembolism: Common Risk Factors
Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a condition where blood clots form in the veins, which can lead to serious complications such as pulmonary embolism (PE). While there are many factors that can increase the risk of VTE, some are more common than others. These include malignancy, pregnancy, and the period following an operation. Other general risk factors include advancing age, obesity, family history of VTE, immobility, hospitalization, anaesthesia, and the use of central venous catheters. Underlying conditions such as heart failure, thrombophilia, and antiphospholipid syndrome can also increase the risk of VTE. Additionally, certain medications like the combined oral contraceptive pill, hormone replacement therapy, raloxifene, tamoxifen, and antipsychotics have been shown to be risk factors.
It is important to note that while these factors can increase the risk of VTE, around 40% of patients diagnosed with a PE have no major risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents with heavy menstrual bleeding and a haemoglobin level of 102 g/L. Iron studies are ordered to investigate for iron-deficiency anaemia. What result would support this diagnosis?
Your Answer: â Ferritin, â total iron-binding capacity, â serum iron, â transferrin saturation
Explanation:In cases of iron-deficiency anemia, it is common for both the total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) and transferrin levels to be elevated. However, it should be noted that the transferrin saturation level is typically decreased.
Iron deficiency anaemia is caused by a lack of iron, which is needed to make haemoglobin in red blood cells. It is the most common type of anaemia worldwide, with preschool-age children having the highest prevalence. Causes include excessive blood loss, inadequate dietary intake, poor intestinal absorption, and increased iron requirements. Symptoms include fatigue, shortness of breath, palpitations, and nail changes. Diagnosis is made through a full blood count and serum ferritin test. Treatment involves identifying and managing the underlying cause, as well as taking oral iron supplements and consuming an iron-rich diet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with worsening back pain over a period of several months. She also feels generally unwell. She is exhausted, has a dry mouth and is constipated.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 93 g/l 115â155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.4 Ă 109/l 4.0â11.0 Ă 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 380 Ă 109/l 150â400 Ă 109/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 100 fl 80â100 fl
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 94 mm/h < 15 mm/h
Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) 32 ml/min per 1.73 m2 > 90 ml/min per 1.73 m2
Corrected calcium (Ca2+) 2.8 mmol/l 2.2â2.6 mmol/l
What is the most appropriate initial investigation to confirm the diagnosis in this patient?
Your Answer: Serum electrophoresis
Explanation:Tumor Markers and Serum Electrophoresis: Their Role in Diagnosing Multiple Myeloma
Multiple myeloma is a malignant disease of plasma cells that can cause renal failure, normocytic anemia, hypercalcemia, and raised ESR. To diagnose multiple myeloma, serum electrophoresis, serum-free light-chain assay, and assessment of urinary Bence Jones protein are recommended. Serum electrophoresis confirms the presence of a paraprotein, which may be due to myeloma or MGUS. Further tests, such as bone marrow biopsy, magnetic resonance imaging, and immunofixation of serum and urine, are usually carried out in secondary care to confirm the diagnosis.
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA), CA 19-9, serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), and CA125 are tumor markers used to monitor disease progression in various cancers. However, there is no role for these markers in diagnosing multiple myeloma. CEA is mainly used to monitor the progress of treatment for colonic cancer, while CA 19-9 is used to monitor disease progression in pancreatic cancer. LDH is raised in lymphoma and certain types of testicular cancer, and CA125 is used in the diagnosis of ovarian cancer. Therefore, these markers are not useful in diagnosing multiple myeloma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of fatigue and lack of energy. She has a 1-year history of heavy menstrual bleeding with excessive blood loss. She is clinically anaemic.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 102 g/l 115â155 g/l
Haematocrit 28% 36â47%
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 70 fl 80â100 fl
Mean cell haemoglobin (MCH) 25 pg 28â32 pg
Mean corpuscular haemoglobin volume (MCHC) 300 g/l 320â350 g/d
White cell count (WCC) 7.5 Ă 109/l 4.0â11.0Ă 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 400Ă 109/l 150â400Ă 109/l
What is the most appropriate dietary advice for this patient?
Select the SINGLE advice option from the list below.Your Answer: She should increase her intake of vitamin C-rich and iron-rich food
Explanation:To address her iron-deficiency anaemia, the patient should consume more foods rich in vitamin C and iron. Vitamin C can increase iron absorption by up to 10 times and maintain iron in its ferrous form. However, she should avoid breakfast cereals and white breads as they are often fortified with iron. Tea should also be avoided during meals or when taking iron supplements as it contains tannin, which reduces iron absorption. While a vegetarian diet can still provide non-haem iron, it is important to consume a variety of iron-rich plant-based foods. A gluten-free diet is only necessary if coeliac disease is present, which is unlikely in this case as the patient’s iron-deficiency anaemia is likely due to menorrhagia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 27
Correct
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An 80-year-old man is receiving treatment at the Haematology Clinic for multiple myeloma (MM). He is a newly diagnosed non-transplant candidate.
Various blood tests are being conducted to monitor response to treatment and determine prognosis.
What is considered the most crucial factor for predicting survival and prognosis?Your Answer: Beta-2 microglobulin
Explanation:Prognostic Factors in Multiple Myeloma
Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that affects plasma cells in the bone marrow. Prognostic factors are important in determining the severity of the disease and predicting survival rates. Here are some key factors to consider:
Beta-2 microglobulin: This protein is found on the surface of all nucleated cells and is associated with the human leukocyte antigen (HLA)âhistocompatibility complex. Elevated levels of serum beta-2 microglobulin are linked to poor prognosis in multiple myeloma patients.
Serum creatinine: High levels of creatinine indicate renal impairment, which is common in multiple myeloma patients and is associated with a poor prognosis.
Albumin: Low levels of albumin are related to the extent of myeloma proliferation and are therefore of diagnostic and prognostic importance. An albumin level of 29.0 g/l or less is a sign of advanced disease.
C-Reactive protein (CRP): Elevated CRP levels before autologous stem-cell transplantation (ASCT) are associated with worse overall survival in multiple myeloma patients, especially those who had a transplant more than 12 months after diagnosis.
Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH): High LDH levels at the time of diagnosis are a marker of poor prognosis in multiple myeloma patients. Increased LDH is associated with worse overall survival, progression-free survival, aggressive disease, and high tumor burden.
Understanding these prognostic factors can help healthcare providers make informed decisions about treatment options and provide patients with more accurate information about their disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 47-year-old man is seen by his General Practitioner for his annual hypertension review. He agrees to be referred to the local smoking cessation service, as he is currently experiencing chest pain.
Which of the following medications will need to be monitored closely on cessation of smoking?Your Answer: Theophylline
Explanation:The Effect of Smoking Cessation on Asthma Medications
Smoking cessation can have a significant impact on the management of asthma and the use of certain medications. Here is a breakdown of how smoking cessation affects different asthma medications:
Theophylline: Smoking induces the hepatic enzyme CYP1A2, which plays a major role in metabolizing theophylline. Therefore, quitting smoking can lead to higher plasma levels of theophylline and potentially fatal arrhythmias. Patients need to have their plasma theophylline concentration levels monitored closely and may require a reduced dose after quitting smoking.
Budesonide/formoterol: Neither budesonide nor formoterol are metabolized by CYP1A2, so there is no need for close monitoring following smoking cessation. Asthma control should improve after quitting smoking, and the inhaler dose should be reviewed as part of stepwise management.
Montelukast: Montelukast is metabolized by the cytochrome P450 system but not CYP1A2, so smoking cessation does not affect its level.
Prednisolone: Prednisolone is metabolized by the cytochrome P450 system, but CYP1A2 is not involved. Therefore, smoking cessation does not affect its metabolism.
Salbutamol: Smoking cessation can improve asthma control, leading to less frequent use of salbutamol or other reliever inhalers. There is no need to monitor this closely as reducing the as-required use of this medication poses no risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 30-year-old male presents with progressive weakness and fatigue over the past year. He reports difficulty achieving and maintaining an erection with his new partner, which is a new symptom for him. Laboratory tests reveal elevated ferritin levels. The patient is started on a treatment plan that involves regular phlebotomies.
What is the most effective way to monitor the patient's response to treatment?Your Answer: Ferritin and transferrin saturation
Explanation:To monitor treatment in haemochromatosis, the most effective combination of iron tests is ferritin and transferrin saturation. These tests can track the response to treatment by measuring total iron stores and the amount of serum iron bound to proteins in the blood. However, serum transferrin and serum iron are not reliable indicators of treatment response as they fluctuate throughout the day and are affected by diet and phlebotomies. Therefore, using ferritin and serum transferrin or serum iron would not be the most useful combination for monitoring haemochromatosis. Similarly, using serum iron and serum transferrin together would not provide any insight into treatment monitoring. The most appropriate and effective combination is ferritin and transferrin saturation.
Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management
Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene on both copies of chromosome 6. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy with Perl’s stain. A typical iron study profile in a patient with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC.
The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis. It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 70-year-old retired car mechanic who is a smoker is diagnosed with lung cancer. Some fifteen years ago he was treated with surgery and adjuvant chemotherapy for bladder cancer. His brother had oesophageal cancer aged 66 and another brother had prostate cancer in his 70s. His 55-year-old daughter was recently diagnosed with breast cancer.
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the cancers in your patient?Your Answer: Exposure to tobacco smoke
Explanation:Understanding the Possible Causes of Multiple Cancers in an Individual
It is not uncommon for an individual to develop two different types of cancer over their lifetime. In a case where a man has been diagnosed with both bladder and lung cancer, the possible causes need to be explored.
Exposure to tobacco smoke is the most likely cause of both cancers in this case. Smoking is responsible for 85% of lung cancers and is also the biggest risk factor for developing bladder cancer.
Exposure to asbestos or aniline dyes are not likely causes of both cancers. While asbestos exposure is associated with mesothelioma, it is not linked to bladder cancer. Similarly, aniline dyes increase the risk of bladder cancer but not lung cancer.
A hereditary cancer predisposition syndrome is also an unlikely cause in this case. While it is possible for an individual to have a genetic predisposition to developing multiple cancers, there are no specific patterns in the family history that suggest this.
Finally, the second tumor is not a late complication of chemotherapy. While previous cancer treatment could potentially increase the risk of developing lung cancer, smoking is still the most likely cause in this case.
In conclusion, exposure to tobacco smoke is the most likely cause of both bladder and lung cancer in this individual. It is important to identify the possible causes of multiple cancers in an individual to ensure appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 31
Correct
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A 72-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of fatigue, back pain, and frequent urination and thirst for the past 3 months. Upon examination, the doctor orders a urine protein electrophoresis and a serum-free light-chain assay, which confirm the diagnosis. What is the most probable result on the patient's blood film?
Your Answer: Rouleaux formation
Explanation:Rouleaux formation is a characteristic finding in multiple myeloma, which is a condition that presents with symptoms such as hypercalcaemia, anaemia, and back pain. Diagnosis of myeloma involves urine protein electrophoresis and serum-free light-chain assay. Rouleaux formation is observed as stacked RBCs on a blood film, resulting from an increase in acute-phase proteins that are positively charged and attract negatively charged RBCs. It is important to note that rouleaux formation is not exclusive to myeloma and can be seen in various inflammatory conditions. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate blood test measures this mechanism clinically. Heinz bodies, which are caused by oxidative stress and denaturation of haemoglobin, are not associated with myeloma but are seen in G6PD deficiency. Howell-Jolly bodies, which are present in hyposplenic or asplenic disorders, and an increased number of reticulocytes, which indicate increased RBC turnover, are also not characteristic of myeloma.
Understanding Multiple Myeloma: Features and Investigations
Multiple myeloma is a type of blood cancer that occurs due to genetic mutations in plasma cells. It is commonly diagnosed in individuals over the age of 70. The disease is characterized by the acronym CRABBI, which stands for Calcium, Renal, Anaemia, Bleeding, Bones, and Infection. Patients with multiple myeloma may experience hypercalcemia, renal damage, anaemia, bleeding, bone pain, and increased susceptibility to infections. Other symptoms may include amyloidosis, carpal tunnel syndrome, neuropathy, and hyperviscosity.
To diagnose multiple myeloma, doctors may perform a variety of tests, including blood tests, protein electrophoresis, bone marrow aspiration, and imaging studies. Blood tests may reveal anaemia, elevated levels of M protein in the blood or urine, and renal failure. Protein electrophoresis can detect raised concentrations of monoclonal IgA/IgG proteins in the serum or urine. Bone marrow aspiration confirms the diagnosis if the number of plasma cells is significantly raised. Imaging studies, such as whole-body MRI or X-rays, can detect osteolytic lesions or the characteristic rain-drop skull pattern.
The diagnostic criteria for multiple myeloma require one major and one minor criteria or three minor criteria in an individual who has signs or symptoms of the disease. Major criteria include plasmacytoma, 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, and elevated levels of M protein in the blood or urine. Minor criteria include 10% to 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, minor elevations in the level of M protein in the blood or urine, osteolytic lesions, and low levels of antibodies not produced by the cancer cells in the blood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 32
Correct
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A 10-year-old girl became acutely ill last week with vomiting, high fevers (maximum temperature of 39.5 °C) and weakness. Her mother took the girl to the general practitioner (GP) on day two of the illness, and he suggested she had gastroenteritis and that it should resolve itself in a week. However, the girl continues to be very ill and has now developed a non-blanching petechial rash on her abdomen.
Blood tests show many blasts in the periphery, low platelets and severe anaemia.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)
Explanation:Types of Leukaemia: Characteristics and Symptoms
Leukaemia is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. There are different types of leukaemia, each with its own characteristics and symptoms. Here are some of the most common types:
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL): This is the most common type of leukaemia in children, usually presenting before the age of five. It is associated with a clonal expansion of immature lymphoid progenitor cells, leading to anaemia, thrombocytopenia, and increased susceptibility to infections. Symptoms include hepatosplenomegaly, generalised lymphadenopathy, new-onset bruising, fatigue, joint and bone pain, bleeding, and superimposed infections. Treatment is with pegaspargase.
Hairy-cell leukaemia: This is a B-cell leukaemia usually affecting middle-aged men. The malignant cells have cytoplasmic projections that make them look hairy, hence the name.
Acute myeloblastic leukaemia (AML): This is a type of leukaemia that is most commonly seen in adults. It can be of various types, but one that is commonly assessed is promyelocytic leukaemia M3 that is characterised by cells with dark, pink, needle-like intracytoplasmic inclusions called Auer rods. This is a very aggressive form of leukaemia.
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL): This is a disease most commonly seen in the elderly and is usually of B-cell origin. Blood smear findings commonly refer to âsmudge cellsâ, which is a result of the fragile cells breaking during preparation of the smear.
Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML): This is a disease most commonly seen in middle-aged adults and is associated with the Philadelphia chromosome, a chimeric chromosome formed by the translocation of part of chromosome 9 to chromosome 22.
In conclusion, leukaemia is a serious disease that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Knowing the characteristics and symptoms of each type can help in early detection and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 33
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman with a BMI of 34 kg/mÂČ presents to your GP clinic with a small lump in her right breast. She is worried about the possibility of breast cancer, although she has noticed that the lump has decreased in size over the past two weeks. She denies any direct injury but mentions playing rugby recently. There is no family history of breast or gynaecological cancer. On examination, a small, firm, poorly mobile lump is found in the lower quadrant of the right breast.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Traumatic breast fat necrosis
Explanation:Traumatic breast fat necrosis may develop following a minor or unnoticed injury in women with a high body mass index, although it is crucial to investigate any lump to exclude breast cancer. Nipple discharge is a common symptom of mammary duct ectasia, while a tender lymph node in the axilla is likely to be palpable. Paget’s disease is characterized by an eczema-like appearance of the nipple, not a lump. Fibroadenoma, also known as a breast mouse, is not attached.
Understanding Fat Necrosis of the Breast
Fat necrosis of the breast is a condition that affects up to 40% of cases and is often caused by trauma. This condition can be mistaken for breast cancer due to its physical features, such as a mass that may initially increase in size. It is important to understand that fat necrosis is not cancerous and can be treated with proper care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman is referred by her general practitioner due to complaints of headache, fatigue and weakness. Recently, she had a prolonged menstrual bleeding that only stopped after the application of compression for a long time. She also suffered from a urinary tract infection the previous month. She has no family history of a bleeding disorder.
On examination, she has pallor, hepatosplenomegaly and lymphadenopathy. Investigations reveal that she has a low haemoglobin level, a low white blood cell count and a low platelet count; numerous blast cells are visible on peripheral blood film. Bone marrow biopsy reveals 30% of blast cells. The blood film is shown below.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Hairy cell leukaemia
Correct Answer: Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML)
Explanation:Leukaemia is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. There are several types of leukaemia, including acute myeloid leukaemia (AML), acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL), chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL), chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML), and hairy cell leukaemia. AML is characterized by the rapid proliferation of immature myeloid cells called blasts, which can cause anaemia, thrombocytopenia, bleeding problems, and an increased risk of infections. ALL is caused by a clonal proliferation of lymphoid precursors, which can lead to pancytopenia and symptoms such as fever and abdominal pain. CLL is the most common type of leukaemia and is caused by the clonal proliferation of monoclonal B lymphocytes. CML is the rarest form of leukaemia and is caused by a chromosomal translocation involving chromosomes 9 and 22. Hairy cell leukaemia is characterized by the presence of abnormal white cells with hair-like cytoplasmic projections. Treatment for leukaemia typically involves chemotherapy and sometimes a bone marrow transplant, depending on the type of disease present. Prognosis varies depending on the type of leukaemia and the age of the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 12-month-old African-Caribbean boy is brought to see his General Practitioner by his mother with a 6-day history of fever, reduced feeding and increased irritability. His mother has also noticed this morning that his fingers and toes are swollen and tense and some of the skin is peeling. He is reluctant to play with toys or walk. On examination, he is pale, his lips are cracked and there are no rashes present. Ear, nose and throat (ENT) examinations reveal the presence of a red, swollen tongue he also has swollen, tender digits of his hands and feet.
He is admitted to hospital and his full blood count (FBC) result is shown below:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 88 g/l 100â135 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.2 Ă 109/l 3.8â11 Ă 109/l
Platelets 150 Ă 109/l 150â400 Ă 1109/l
Mean corpuscular volume 93 fl 85â105 fl
Reticulocytes 6% 0.2â2%
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Sickle cell disease
Correct Answer: Kawasaki disease
Explanation:Kawasaki disease is a condition that causes inflammation in small and medium blood vessels, particularly in the coronary vessels. Children with this disease typically experience a high fever lasting more than five days, along with symptoms such as a strawberry tongue, dry cracked lips, rashes, peeling skin on the hands and feet, conjunctivitis, and swollen and painful hands and feet.
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that can cause bone pain and swelling in children, as well as unexplained fever, lethargy, recurrent infections, headaches, petechiae or purpura, and splenomegaly. However, a high white blood cell count would be present in ALL, which would be absent in this patient. Anaemia and thrombocytopenia are also common in ALL.
Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by low levels of albumin and protein in the urine due to damage to the basement membrane of the renal glomerulus. Children with this condition typically experience swelling in the face, feet, abdomen, and genitals, but not in the fingers and toes as seen in this patient.
Rheumatic fever is a reaction to a bacterial infection, usually caused by group A streptococcus. Symptoms may include fever, abdominal pain, carditis, Sydenham’s chorea, and a rash, but joint pain typically affects the ankles, knees, elbows, and wrists rather than the hands and feet.
Sickle cell disease is an inherited condition that causes abnormal sickle-shaped red blood cells, leading to blockages in small blood vessels and chronic anemia. It is most common in Black African and Black Caribbean populations. Symptoms may include jaundice, anemia, and acute dactylitis, and screening is recommended for high-risk ethnic groups. A diagnosis of hemolysis is supported by a high reticulocyte count and normocytic anemia on FBC.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man has been admitted to the geriatric ward for the past 2 weeks. He has recently been diagnosed with metastatic lung cancer. During the morning ward round, he expresses dissatisfaction with his pain management. He is currently taking oral morphine sulphate 20 mg four times a day, codeine 30mg four times a day, and regular ibuprofen. What is the appropriate dose of oral morphine for breakthrough pain in this patient?
Your Answer: Morphine 30mg
Correct Answer: Morphine 15mg
Explanation:To calculate the breakthrough dose, we need to first convert oral codeine to oral morphine by dividing by 10. For example, 10mg of oral codeine is equivalent to 1mg of oral morphine.
If a person takes 30mg of oral codeine four times a day, this equals 12mg of oral morphine. If they also take 20mg of oral morphine four times a day, the total daily dose of morphine is 92mg (12mg + 80 mg).
To determine the breakthrough dose, we divide the total daily dose of morphine by 6. In this case, the breakthrough dose would be 15mg of morphine.
Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 37
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman comes to her GP with bloody discharge from her left nipple. She is extremely worried as she has discovered a small lump on the same breast while examining it after noticing the discharge. She has no medical history and does not take any regular medication. She mentions that her sister had breast cancer a few years ago. She denies any injury to the area. She has never given birth and still has regular periods. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Duct papilloma
Explanation:The presence of blood-stained discharge and a small lumpy mass in this patient suggests that they may have duct papilloma. This condition typically affects middle-aged women and develops in the lactiferous ducts beneath the nipple, causing a lumpy mass and bloody discharge. While fat necrosis can also occur in women with large breasts, it is less likely in this case as the patient has not reported any trauma. Fibroadenoma, on the other hand, is not associated with bloody nipple discharge and is typically found in younger women as a firm, non-tender mass. Fibroadenosis, which causes painful and lumpy breasts, is most commonly seen in middle-aged women and may worsen before menstruation.
Breast Disorders: Common Features and Characteristics
Breast disorders are a common occurrence among women of all ages. The most common breast disorders include fibroadenoma, fibroadenosis, breast cancer, Paget’s disease of the breast, mammary duct ectasia, duct papilloma, fat necrosis, and breast abscess. Fibroadenoma is a non-tender, highly mobile lump that is common in women under the age of 30. Fibroadenosis, on the other hand, is characterized by lumpy breasts that may be painful, especially before menstruation. Breast cancer is a hard, irregular lump that may be accompanied by nipple inversion or skin tethering. Paget’s disease of the breast is associated with a reddening and thickening of the nipple/areola, while mammary duct ectasia is characterized by dilatation of the large breast ducts, which may cause a tender lump around the areola and a green nipple discharge. Duct papilloma is characterized by local areas of epithelial proliferation in large mammary ducts, while fat necrosis is more common in obese women with large breasts and may mimic breast cancer. Breast abscess, on the other hand, is more common in lactating women and is characterized by a red, hot, and tender swelling. Lipomas and sebaceous cysts may also develop around the breast tissue.
Common Features and Characteristics of Breast Disorders
Breast disorders are a common occurrence among women of all ages. The most common breast disorders include fibroadenoma, fibroadenosis, breast cancer, Paget’s disease of the breast, mammary duct ectasia, duct papilloma, fat necrosis, and breast abscess. Each of these disorders has its own unique features and characteristics that can help identify them. Understanding these features and characteristics can help women identify potential breast disorders and seek appropriate medical attention. It is important to note that while some breast disorders may be benign, others may be malignant or premalignant, and further investigation is always warranted. Regular breast exams and mammograms can also help detect breast disorders early, increasing the chances of successful treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 38
Correct
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A 47-year-old woman from Nigeria complains of fatigue, back pain and excessive thirst. Her ESR is elevated and she has normocytic/normochromic anemia.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Multiple myeloma
Explanation:Distinguishing Multiple Myeloma from Other Bone Diseases
Multiple Myeloma: A Malignant Disease of Plasma Cells
Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that affects the plasma cells in the bone marrow. It is more common in black Africans and rare in Asians, with a median age of onset over 60. Patients may not show any symptoms and are often diagnosed through routine blood tests. However, they are more susceptible to infections and may have low white blood cell counts. Elevated levels of ESR and CRP are almost always present. Diagnosis is confirmed when two out of three of the following are present: paraproteinaemia or Bence Jones protein, radiological evidence of lytic bone lesions, and an increase in bone marrow plasma cells. Patients may experience bone pain, lethargy, thirst, and anaemia, which are all signs of multiple myeloma.
Calcium Pyrophosphate Arthropathy: Shedding of Crystals into Joints
Calcium pyrophosphate arthropathy, also known as pseudogout, is caused by the shedding of calcium pyrophosphate crystals into the joint. It typically presents as an acute-onset monoarticular arthritis, usually in the knee or wrist. The joint will be hot, red, tender, and swollen. Rhomboid-shaped crystals that are weakly positively birefringent under polarised light will be visible in synovial fluid.
Osteoporosis: Fragility Fractures
Osteoporosis is characterised by fragility fractures, such as vertebral crush fractures, Colles fractures, and fractures of the proximal femur. It is uncommon in men at this age, unless associated with hypogonadism. Anaemia and elevated ESR are not seen in osteoporosis.
Osteoarthritis: Joint Pain and Stiffness
Osteoarthritis presents with joint pain, stiffness, and reduced function. The weight-bearing joints, such as the hip and knee, and the small joints of the hand are commonly affected. Patients do not experience symptoms such as thirst and lethargy, which are due to hypercalcaemia. Blood biochemistry is normal in osteoarthritis.
Paget’s Disease of Bone: Bone Remodelling
Paget’s disease of the bone is rare in individuals under 40 years old. It is characterised by bone pain, deformity, fragility fractures, and complications from nerve compression
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 39
Correct
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In the UK, which malignancy is most frequently diagnosed in women?
Your Answer: Breast cancer
Explanation:Most Common Cancers in Women in the UK
Breast cancer is the most frequently diagnosed cancer in women in the UK, with approximately 54,800 cases in 2014. Lung cancer follows as the second most common cancer in women, with around 21,600 cases diagnosed in the same year. Bowel cancer ranks third, with approximately 18,400 cases diagnosed in 2014. Uterine cancer is the fourth most common cancer in women, with around 9,300 cases diagnosed. Leukaemia is the eleventh most common cancer in women, with approximately 3,800 cases diagnosed in 2014. These statistics are according to Cancer Research UK.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman receives a red blood cell transfusion in the emergency department after a car accident. She develops a fever and becomes anxious after 30 minutes. The transfusion is stopped and the following observations are made: respiratory rate 21 breaths per minute, heart rate 74 bpm, saturations 98% (room air), blood pressure 125/85 mmHg, temperature 39ÂșC. The patient is comfortable at rest and chest auscultation reveals no wheezing. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient's reaction?
Your Answer: Oxygen and fluids
Correct Answer: Paracetamol
Explanation:Complications of Blood Product Transfusion: Understanding the Risks
Blood product transfusion can lead to various complications that can be classified into different categories. Immunological complications include acute haemolytic reactions, non-haemolytic febrile reactions, and allergic/anaphylaxis reactions. Infective complications may also arise, including the transmission of vCJD. Other complications include transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI), transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO), hyperkalaemia, iron overload, and clotting.
Non-haemolytic febrile reactions are thought to be caused by antibodies reacting with white cell fragments in the blood product and cytokines that have leaked from the blood cell during storage. On the other hand, allergic reactions to blood transfusions are caused by hypersensitivity reactions to components within the transfusion. TRALI is a rare but potentially fatal complication of blood transfusion, while TACO is a relatively common reaction due to fluid overload resulting in pulmonary oedema.
It is important to understand the risks associated with blood product transfusion and to be aware of the different types of complications that may arise. Proper management and prompt treatment are crucial in preventing further harm to the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman is found to have a proximal deep vein thrombosis four weeks after undergoing surgery for a broken ankle. She is prescribed warfarin (initially accompanied by low molecular weight heparin) with a desired INR range of 2.0-3.0. What other treatment option should be presented to this patient?
Your Answer: Compression stockings
Correct Answer: No additional treatment other than routine care
Explanation:Post-Thrombotic Syndrome: A Complication of Deep Vein Thrombosis
Post-thrombotic syndrome is a clinical syndrome that may develop following a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). It is caused by venous outflow obstruction and venous insufficiency, which leads to chronic venous hypertension. Patients with post-thrombotic syndrome may experience painful, heavy calves, pruritus, swelling, varicose veins, and venous ulceration.
In the past, compression stockings were offered to patients with DVT to reduce the risk of post-thrombotic syndrome. However, current recommendations state that elastic graduated compression stockings should not be used to prevent post-thrombotic syndrome or VTE recurrence after a proximal DVT. This recommendation does not cover the use of elastic stockings for the management of leg symptoms after DVT.
Once post-thrombotic syndrome has developed, compression stockings are a recommended treatment. Other recommendations include keeping the leg elevated. It is important for healthcare providers to recognize the potential complications of DVT and to provide appropriate management to prevent the development of post-thrombotic syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 42
Correct
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A 7-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department in December because, for the past three days, he has had a high fever (up to 40 °C), vomiting and night sweats. For the last four weeks, he has been lethargic and has sweated through his pyjamas almost every night. He has had several nosebleeds in this time period, which his parents attributed to dry air from the heater. He has also been complaining that his back hurts.
On examination, his temperature is 39.5 °C, his heart rate 140 beats per minute, his blood pressure is 80/60 mmHg and his respiratory rate 20 breaths per minute. He appears acutely ill, and you notice small petechiae on his abdomen.
Which one of the following would an examination of peripheral lymphocytes most likely show?Your Answer: A clonal population of immature cells expressing terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT)
Explanation:Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) is a common pediatric cancer that occurs due to the clonal expansion of immature T lymphocytes expressing terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT). This protein is involved in gene rearrangements during T-cell receptor and immunoglobulin development and is no longer expressed after maturation. Symptoms include hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, bruising, fatigue, joint and bone pain, bleeding, and infections. Diagnosis is made through bone marrow aspirate and biopsy, and treatment involves pegaspargase, which interferes with malignant cell growth. Hairy cell leukemia is characterized by lymphocytes with thin cytoplasmic projections and is mostly seen in middle-aged men. Chronic myeloid leukemia is caused by a chromosomal translocation leading to a constitutively active tyrosine kinase, treated with imatinib. Promyelocytic leukemia is an aggressive form of acute myeloid leukemia with a clonal population of immature cells containing Auer rods. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia is characterized by a clonal population of mature B cells, often seen in the elderly population and referred to as smudge cells on peripheral smear.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 43
Correct
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A 72-year-old man has been admitted to the orthopaedic ward following a left hemiarthroplasty. He has a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes and chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML).
The nurse has requested an urgent review of the patient as he is displaying signs of confusion. His blood pressure is 96/54 mmHg and his heart rate is 135 bpm. The patient has been passing 10 ml of urine an hour through his catheter and the nurse has observed that the urine in the catheter bag is bright red.
Upon examination, the patient has petechial bruising over his arms and blood is slowly oozing from his peripheral cannula. What blood test results would you anticipate?Your Answer: Low platelets, low fibrinogen, raised APTT and PT and raised D-dimer
Explanation:The typical blood picture for DIC includes a decrease in platelets and fibrinogen levels, as well as an increase in PT and APTT, and fibrinogen degradation products. DIC can be triggered by trauma, malignancies, and other factors. The patient’s symptoms, such as oliguria, hypotension, and tachycardia, suggest circulatory collapse due to DIC. Bleeding at multiple sites, including haematuria, petechial bruising, and bleeding from a peripheral cannula, is also common in DIC. The release of procoagulants in DIC leads to widespread clotting activation, which consumes platelets and clotting factors, resulting in a low platelet count and prolonged bleeding times. Fibrinolysis is also activated, leading to low fibrinogen levels and high D-dimer levels. Additionally, haemoglobin levels may be low due to bleeding and lysis caused by fibrin strands in small blood vessels.
Understanding Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) Diagnosis
Under normal conditions, coagulation and fibrinolysis work together to maintain homeostasis. However, in DIC, these processes become dysregulated, leading to widespread clotting and bleeding. One key factor in the development of DIC is the release of tissue factor (TF), a glycoprotein found on the surface of various cell types. Normally, TF is not in contact with the general circulation, but it is exposed after vascular damage or in response to certain cytokines. Once activated, TF triggers the extrinsic pathway of coagulation, which then triggers the intrinsic pathway. DIC can be caused by various factors, including sepsis, trauma, obstetric complications, and malignancy.
To diagnose DIC, a typical blood picture will show decreased platelets and fibrinogen, increased fibrinogen degradation products, and the presence of schistocytes due to microangiopathic hemolytic anemia. Additionally, both the prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time are prolonged, while bleeding time and platelet count are often low. Understanding the diagnosis of DIC is crucial for prompt and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 44
Correct
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A 5-year-old boy has been diagnosed with sickle cell disease following his routine heel-prick screening test. His mother contacts the General Practitioner to discuss the implications of this diagnosis and would like more information about treatment.
Which of the following is the best choice of management?Your Answer: Lifelong antibiotic prophylaxis with penicillin
Explanation:Management of Sickle Cell Disease: Antibiotic Prophylaxis, B12 and Iron Supplementation, and Malaria Prophylaxis
Sickle cell disease is a condition that increases the risk of infections, particularly pneumococcal infections, respiratory tract infections, urinary tract infections, and osteomyelitis. To prevent severe infections or sepsis, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends lifelong antibiotic prophylaxis with penicillin V or amoxicillin for people with sickle cell disease, starting ideally at three months of age. Pneumococcal vaccination every five years is also crucial. Co-amoxiclav is not the antibiotic of choice for prophylaxis. B12 supplementation is indicated only if a person with sickle cell disease has B12 deficiency. Folate supplementation is recommended for all people with sickle cell anaemia due to high folate turnover associated with haemolysis. Lifelong iron supplementation is not recommended unless there is proven iron deficiency that would require 3-month supplements rather than lifelong treatment. Finally, sickle cell disease does not protect against malaria, and people with sickle cell disease planning to travel to an area where malaria is endemic should take the standard recommended malaria prophylaxis for that area.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 45
Correct
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A 42-year-old female presents to her primary care physician with a 2-month history of progressive fatigue. She has a medical history of type-1 diabetes mellitus. Her doctor orders a full blood count, which reveals a low Hb and high mean cell volume. The platelet and WBC counts are within normal limits. Which antibody test should be performed to assist in the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Intrinsic-factor antibodies
Explanation:When investigating vitamin B12 deficiency, intrinsic factor antibodies are more useful than gastric parietal cell antibodies due to the low specificity of the latter. Megaloblastic anaemia, characterized by low haemoglobin and raised mean cell volume, can be caused by B12 or folate deficiency and may indicate pernicious anaemia, an autoimmune condition that impairs B12 uptake. Intrinsic factor antibodies are more specific for pernicious anaemia and are commonly used to confirm the diagnosis along with a blood test. Anti-histone antibodies are involved in drug-induced lupus caused by certain drugs. Anti-TTG antibodies are used to screen for coeliac disease, which can cause microcytic anaemia due to iron deficiency from malabsorption. While gastric parietal cell antibodies are linked to pernicious anaemia, their low specificity makes them less reliable for diagnosis compared to intrinsic factor antibodies.
Understanding Pernicious Anaemia
Pernicious anaemia is a condition that results in vitamin B12 deficiency due to an autoimmune disorder affecting the gastric mucosa. The term pernicious means causing harm in a gradual or subtle way, and this is reflected in the often subtle symptoms and delayed diagnosis of the condition. While pernicious anaemia is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, other causes include atrophic gastritis, gastrectomy, and malnutrition.
The pathophysiology of pernicious anaemia involves antibodies to intrinsic factor and/or gastric parietal cells. These antibodies can bind to intrinsic factor, blocking the vitamin B12 binding site, or reduce acid production and cause atrophic gastritis. This leads to reduced intrinsic factor production and reduced vitamin B12 absorption, which can result in megaloblastic anaemia and neuropathy.
Risk factors for pernicious anaemia include being female, middle to old age, and having other autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s, rheumatoid arthritis, and vitiligo. It is also more common in individuals with blood group A.
Symptoms of pernicious anaemia include anaemia features such as lethargy, pallor, and dyspnoea, as well as neurological features such as peripheral neuropathy and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord. Neuropsychiatric features such as memory loss, poor concentration, confusion, depression, and irritability may also be present, along with mild jaundice and glossitis.
Diagnosis of pernicious anaemia involves a full blood count, vitamin B12 and folate levels, and testing for antibodies such as anti intrinsic factor antibodies and anti gastric parietal cell antibodies. Treatment involves vitamin B12 replacement, usually given intramuscularly, and folic acid supplementation may also be required. Complications of pernicious anaemia include an increased risk of gastric cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 46
Correct
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A 32-year-old patient presents with a month-long fever and occasional afebrile episodes. Blood cultures and infection screening have yielded negative results. During examination, the patient has a temperature of 38°C and nontender lymph nodes in the neck. What is the most crucial step in reaching a diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lymph node biopsy
Explanation:The Importance of Lymph Node Biopsy in Diagnosing Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
When it comes to diagnosing Hodgkin’s lymphoma, a lymph node biopsy is the most reliable method. Fine-needle aspiration should not be used as the sole method for diagnosis. In addition to the biopsy, a thorough evaluation should include a medical history and examination, blood tests, liver function tests, serum protein tests, HIV testing, chest radiograph, CT scans, and bone marrow biopsy. Gallium scans can also be performed to document radioisotope uptake by the tumor. Lymphangiography may be necessary if the presentation of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is subdiaphragmatic. While a raised ESR can indicate Hodgkin’s lymphoma, it is not the most important step in obtaining a diagnosis. Similarly, repeating a CRP test or blood cultures would not be appropriate if the initial results were negative. In summary, a lymph node biopsy is crucial in diagnosing Hodgkin’s lymphoma and should be the first step in the evaluation process.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 47
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner complaining of pallor, fatigue, weakness, palpitations and dyspnoea on exertion. Her symptoms have developed rapidly over the past two weeks. A blood test and bone marrow biopsy reveal a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukaemia (AML).
What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient's condition?Your Answer: Chemotherapy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Acute Leukaemia
Acute leukaemia, specifically acute myeloid leukaemia (AML), is characterized by an increase in undifferentiated blast cells in the bone marrow and blood, leading to marrow failure. The traditional treatment approach for AML involves three components: induction, consolidation, and maintenance chemotherapy. Combination chemotherapy is used to eradicate blast cells, with maintenance chemotherapy given to eliminate any remaining disease.
Iron transfusions may be necessary to treat anaemia or platelet deficiency, but they are not a direct treatment for acute leukaemia. Patients with leukaemia are at risk of graft-versus-host disease, so they are given irradiated blood components.
Intravenous immunoglobulins are not a treatment for acute leukaemia but may be used to prevent infection in patients with hypogammaglobulinaemia resulting from cancer treatment.
Radiotherapy is not a first-line treatment for acute leukaemia, but it may be used to treat disease that has spread to the brain or spinal cord. Total body radiotherapy can also be used before a stem-cell transplant to reduce the risk of transplant rejection.
Stem-cell transplants can be allogeneic (from a matched or partially matched donor) or autologous (from the patient’s own stem cells) and are used after remission induction with chemotherapy. The goal is to restore the body’s ability to produce normal blood cells and can be curative, but it is not a first-line treatment.
Understanding Treatment Options for Acute Leukaemia
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 48
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the antenatal clinic for her booking visit. She speaks very little English and is 20 weeks' pregnant in her first pregnancy. No medical history of note can be obtained.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal values
Haemoglobin (Hb) 101 g/l 115â155 g/l
Haematocrit 38% 40â54%
Red blood cell count (RBC) 5.24 Ă 1012/l 4.0â5.0 Ă 1012/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 63 fl 80â100 fl
Mean corpuscular Hb (McHb) 20 pg 27â32 pg
Mean corpuscular Hb concentration 32 g/dl 32â36 g/dl
White cell count (WCC) 6.9 Ă 109/l 4.0â11.0 Ă 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 241 Ă 109/l 150â400 Ă 109/l
Foetal Hb (HbF) 0.6% < 1%
Haemoglobin A2 (HbA2) 4.5% 1.5â3.5%
Which of the following is the most likely cause of her anaemia?Your Answer: ÎČ-Thalassaemia trait
Explanation:Understanding ÎČ-Thalassaemia Trait: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Implications for Pregnancy
ÎČ-Thalassaemia trait is a genetic condition that can cause microcytic/hypochromic anaemia with a raised RBC and normal MCHC. This condition is often asymptomatic and can be diagnosed through a blood test that shows raised HbA2 levels. It is important to distinguish ÎČ-thalassaemia trait from other conditions that can cause similar symptoms, such as folic acid deficiency, sickle-cell anaemia, α-thalassaemia trait, and iron deficiency.
If both parents have ÎČ-thalassaemia trait, there is a 25% chance of producing a child with ÎČ-thalassaemia major, a more severe form of the condition that can cause serious health problems. Therefore, it is important to screen both partners for ÎČ-thalassaemia trait before planning a pregnancy.
In summary, understanding ÎČ-thalassaemia trait and its implications for pregnancy can help individuals make informed decisions about their reproductive health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old school teacher presents with abdominal fullness and weight loss over the last six months. On examination, he is pale.
Investigations reveal the following:
Investigation Result Normal range
Haemoglobin (Hb) 102 g/l 135â175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 68.2 Ă 109/l 4.0â11.0 Ă 109/l
Neutrophil count 39.1 Ă 109/l 2.2â8.6 Ă109/l
Lymphocyte count 4.8 Ă 109/l 0.8â3.5 Ă 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 505 Ă 109/l 150â400 Ă 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 56 mm/hour 1â20 mm/hour
His peripheral blood picture is shown here:
Picture courtesy: Dr R Paul, MCH, Kolkata
What is the next most definitive step in diagnosis?Your Answer: Bone marrow study
Correct Answer: Genotype study
Explanation:Diagnostic Approaches for Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia
Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) is a type of blood cancer that can be diagnosed through various diagnostic approaches. A patient with elevated total leukocyte and neutrophil counts, mild anaemia, and an elevated platelet count, along with numerous myeloid line cells in different stages of differentiation, is likely to have CML. However, to confirm the diagnosis, a genotype study is necessary to demonstrate the cytogenetic hallmark of t(9:22). This can be done through molecular methods like fluorescence in situ hybridisation or cytogenetic analysis.
A bone marrow study can also be performed, which will show a greatly increased myeloid: erythroid ratio, but it will not help in confirming the diagnosis. Similarly, a low leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) score can differentiate from a leukemoid reaction but cannot confirm the diagnosis. Immunophenotyping can show cells of myeloid lineage but cannot provide a definitive diagnosis.
Iron kinetics studies are not necessary in this case as the increased total leukocyte count and peripheral smear picture suggest a chronic myeloproliferative state rather than iron deficiency. In conclusion, a genotype study is the most appropriate next step to confirm the diagnosis of CML.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 50
Correct
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A 32-year-old female presents with a purpuric rash on the back of her legs, frequent nose bleeds, and menorrhagia. She is currently taking Microgynon 30. A full blood count reveals Hb of 11.7 g/dl, platelets of 62 * 109/l, and WCC of 5.3 * 109/l. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
Explanation:A diagnosis of ITP is suggested by the presence of isolated thrombocytopenia in a healthy patient. Blood dyscrasias are not typically caused by the use of combined oral contraceptive pills.
Understanding Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) in Adults
Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) is a condition where the immune system attacks and reduces the number of platelets in the blood. This is caused by antibodies targeting the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib-V-IX complex. While children with ITP usually experience acute thrombocytopenia after an infection or vaccination, adults tend to have a more chronic form of the condition. ITP is more common in older females and may be detected incidentally during routine blood tests. Symptoms may include petechiae, purpura, and bleeding, but catastrophic bleeding is not a common presentation.
To diagnose ITP, a full blood count and blood film are typically performed. While a bone marrow examination is no longer routinely used, antiplatelet antibody testing may be done, although it has poor sensitivity and does not affect clinical management. The first-line treatment for ITP is oral prednisolone, but pooled normal human immunoglobulin (IVIG) may also be used if active bleeding or an urgent invasive procedure is required. Splenectomy is now less commonly used as a treatment option.
In some cases, ITP may be associated with autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA), which is known as Evan’s syndrome. It is important for individuals with ITP to work closely with their healthcare provider to manage their condition and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 51
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of fatigue and sudden shortness of breath. An urgent full blood count is performed and the patient is diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL).
What is the most probable first-line treatment option for this patient's leukemia?Your Answer: Chemotherapy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Acute Leukaemia: Chemotherapy, Stem-Cell Transplant, Blood Transfusion, Intravenous Immunoglobulins, and Radiotherapy
Acute leukaemias, such as acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL), are characterized by an increase in primitive undifferentiated blast cells in the bone marrow and blood, leading to marrow failure. The traditional treatment for ALL involves four components: induction, consolidation, maintenance, and central nervous system (CNS) prophylaxis. The first-line therapy for ALL is combination chemotherapy, which aims to eradicate the blast cells. Once remission is induced, maintenance chemotherapy is given to eliminate the disease that cannot be detected under the microscope.
Stem-cell transplants can be used to treat ALL once remission is induced using chemotherapy. This treatment can be allogeneic (the patient receives stem cells from a matched or partially mismatched related or unrelated donor) or autologous (the patient receives their own stem cells). The goal of a stem-cell transplant is to restore the body’s ability to produce normal blood cells. While it can be a curative treatment for patients with this disease, it is not used as a first-line treatment.
Blood transfusions are not a treatment for acute leukaemia, but they may be necessary to treat anaemia or platelet deficiency. Patients with leukaemia are at risk of graft-versus-host disease, so they are typically given irradiated blood components. Intravenous immunoglobulins are not used to treat acute leukaemia but may be used prophylactically against infection in patients with hypogammaglobulinaemia due to cancer treatment.
Radiotherapy is not a first-line treatment for acute leukaemia, but it may be used to treat the brain or spinal cord if the disease has spread there. Total body radiotherapy may also be used before a stem-cell transplant to suppress the immune system and reduce the risk of transplant rejection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 52
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman has just been diagnosed with Hodgkin's lymphoma and has started her first day of chemotherapy. However, she has been feeling unwell since then and her U&E results show abnormalities such as hyperkalaemia, hyperphosphataemia, and hypocalcaemia. What prophylaxis is used to prevent the complication that this woman has experienced?
Your Answer: Allopurinol
Explanation:Tumour lysis syndrome is characterized by high levels of potassium and phosphate, as well as low levels of calcium. This is evident in the case history of a lymphoma patient who has started chemotherapy. Allopurinol is the most commonly used prophylaxis, with rasburicase as an alternative. Diuretics are not recommended due to the potential to exacerbate acute kidney injury. It is important to note that steroids and radiotherapy are not common causes of tumour lysis syndrome.
Understanding Tumour Lysis Syndrome
Tumour lysis syndrome (TLS) is a life-threatening condition that can occur during the treatment of high-grade lymphomas and leukaemias. Although it can happen without chemotherapy, it is usually triggered by the introduction of combination chemotherapy. Patients at high risk of TLS should be given prophylactic medication such as IV allopurinol or IV rasburicase to prevent the potentially deadly effects of tumour cell lysis. Rasburicase is a recombinant version of urate oxidase, an enzyme that metabolizes uric acid to allantoin, which is more easily excreted by the kidneys. Patients in lower-risk groups should be given oral allopurinol during chemotherapy cycles to avoid the condition. However, rasburicase and allopurinol should not be given together in the management of tumour lysis syndrome as this reduces the effect of rasburicase.
TLS occurs when tumour cells break down and release chemicals into the body, leading to high levels of potassium and phosphate and a low level of calcium. It should be suspected in any patient presenting with an acute kidney injury in the presence of high phosphate and uric acid levels. From 2004, TLS has been graded using the Cairo-Bishop scoring system, which considers abnormality in two or more of the following within three days before or seven days after chemotherapy: uric acid, potassium, phosphate, and calcium. Clinical tumour lysis syndrome is when laboratory tumour lysis syndrome is present along with increased serum creatinine, cardiac arrhythmia or sudden death, or seizure.
In summary, understanding tumour lysis syndrome is critical in the treatment of high-grade lymphomas and leukaemias. Prophylactic medication can be given to prevent the potentially deadly effects of tumour cell lysis, and the Cairo-Bishop scoring system can be used to grade the severity of the condition. Early detection and management of TLS can improve patient outcomes and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 53
Correct
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A 30-year-old female who is 36 weeks pregnant comes in with a painful and swollen right calf. After a Doppler scan, it is confirmed that she has a deep vein thrombosis. What anticoagulant is recommended?
Your Answer: Subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin
Explanation:While the first trimester poses a higher risk of teratogenic effects from warfarin, most healthcare providers would opt for low molecular weight heparin in such cases. Additionally, the possibility of peripartum hemorrhage and the difficulty in reversing the effects of warfarin in such a scenario should also be taken into account.
During pregnancy, the body undergoes changes that make it more prone to blood clots. This is known as a hypercoagulable state and is most common in the last trimester. The increase in factors VII, VIII, X, and fibrinogen, along with a decrease in protein S, contribute to this state. Additionally, the growing uterus can press on the inferior vena cava, leading to venous stasis in the legs.
When it comes to managing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) or pulmonary embolism (PE) during pregnancy, warfarin is not recommended due to its potential harm to the fetus. Instead, subcutaneous low-molecular-weight heparin is preferred over intravenous heparin as it has a lower risk of bleeding and thrombocytopenia. It is important for pregnant women to be aware of the signs and symptoms of DVT/PE, such as leg swelling, pain, and shortness of breath, and to seek medical attention promptly if they experience any of these symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 54
Correct
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A 6-year-old boy is brought to see his General Practitioner by his father, who is concerned as his son has a 4-day history of abdominal pain and fever. He seems to have lost his appetite and has been waking in the night with night sweats for the last week.
On examination, there is a large palpable abdominal mass and hepatomegaly. A urine dipstick is negative for blood, protein, leukocytes and nitrates.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Burkittâs lymphoma
Explanation:Pediatric Abdominal Mass: Possible Causes and Symptoms
When a child presents with an abdominal mass, it can be a sign of various conditions, including malignancies. Here are some possible causes and symptoms to consider:
1. Burkittâs lymphoma: This aggressive non-Hodgkinâs lymphoma commonly affects children and presents with abdominal pain, an abdominal mass, splenomegaly, and B symptoms such as fever and weight loss.
2. Wilmsâ tumour: This malignant kidney tumour usually affects young children and presents with an asymptomatic abdominal mass, hypertension, haematuria, or urinary tract infection. Splenomegaly is not expected.
3. Hepatoblastoma: This rare malignant liver tumour usually presents with an asymptomatic abdominal mass in the right upper quadrant. However, if the child has symptoms and splenomegaly, it may suggest a haematological malignancy.
4. Neuroblastoma: This rare malignancy commonly affects children under five and presents with an abdominal mass. Symptoms are rare in early disease, but if present, may suggest a haematological malignancy.
5. Phaeochromocytoma: This rare tumour releases excessive amounts of catecholamines and commonly arises in the adrenal glands. It presents with headache, palpitations, tremor, and hyperhidrosis, but not with splenomegaly or a palpable abdominal mass.
In summary, a pediatric abdominal mass can be a sign of various conditions, including malignancies. It is important to consider the childâs symptoms and other clinical findings to determine the appropriate diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents with weight loss and anaemia. She has no significant medical history. Upon examination, she has massive splenomegaly and pale conjunctivae. Her full blood count shows a Hb of 10.9 g/dl, platelets of 702 * 109/l, and a WCC of 56.6 * 109/l. Leucocytosis is noted on her film, with all stages of granulocyte maturation seen. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute myeloid leukaemia
Correct Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia
Explanation:Massive splenomegaly can be caused by myelofibrosis, chronic myeloid leukemia, visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar), malaria, and Gaucher’s syndrome. Among these, chronic myeloid leukemia is the most probable diagnosis, as it is the most common cause.
Understanding Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia and its Management
Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. It is characterized by the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome in more than 95% of patients. This chromosome is formed due to a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22, resulting in the fusion of the ABL proto-oncogene and the BCR gene. The resulting BCR-ABL gene produces a fusion protein that has excessive tyrosine kinase activity.
CML typically affects individuals between 60-70 years of age and presents with symptoms such as anaemia, weight loss, sweating, and splenomegaly. The condition is also associated with an increase in granulocytes at different stages of maturation and thrombocytosis. In some cases, CML may undergo blast transformation, leading to acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) or acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL).
The management of CML involves various treatment options, including imatinib, which is considered the first-line treatment. Imatinib is an inhibitor of the tyrosine kinase associated with the BCR-ABL defect and has a very high response rate in the chronic phase of CML. Other treatment options include hydroxyurea, interferon-alpha, and allogenic bone marrow transplant. With proper management, individuals with CML can lead a normal life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 56
Correct
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A 35-year-old male is diagnosed with macrocytic anaemia. The patient is suspected to have a folate deficiency.
Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding folate deficiency?
Your Answer: It increases the risk of a neural tube defect in the foetus.
Explanation:Understanding Folic Acid Deficiency: Causes and Effects
Folic acid deficiency is a serious condition that can have detrimental effects on fetal development and overall health. In this article, we will explore the causes and effects of folic acid deficiency.
Causes of Folic Acid Deficiency
Reduced intake is the most common cause of folic acid deficiency. This can occur due to an inadequate diet or malabsorption. Excessive urinary production, drugs, and excessive requirements can also contribute to folic acid deficiency.
Effects of Folic Acid Deficiency
Folic acid deficiency is associated with neural tube defects in the fetus, which can lead to serious developmental issues. It can also increase the risk of abruption of the placenta and spontaneous abortion. In severe cases, megaloblastic anemia can develop, but this typically takes more than two years after complete cessation of folic acid intake.
Treatment of Folic Acid Deficiency
Methotrexate-induced folic acid deficiency can be corrected with concomitant folic acid therapy. Folinic acid is also effective in treating toxicity caused by methotrexate. Intestinal bacterial overgrowth is not a common cause of folic acid deficiency.
Distinguishing Folic Acid Deficiency from Vitamin B12 Deficiency
Abnormal neurological findings are associated with vitamin B12 deficiency, but not necessarily with folic acid deficiency. Patients with megaloblastic anemia typically do not exhibit neurological symptoms, which suggests that folic acid deficiency is the cause.
In conclusion, folic acid deficiency is a serious condition that can have significant effects on fetal development and overall health. It is important to understand the causes and effects of this condition in order to prevent and treat it effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 57
Correct
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A 36-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a lump in her left breast. She has recently lost approximately 1.5 stone in weight by attending a weight loss program. During the examination, a firm lump is detected in her left breast that is not mobile but not attached to the underlying muscle. She recalls being hit by a squash ball in this area a few months ago. What is the probable reason for her lump?
Your Answer: Fat necrosis
Explanation:When a woman presents with a breast lump, fat necrosis should be considered as a possible diagnosis if there is a history of trauma to the area. This condition typically presents as a firm lump that may be accompanied by bruising. Fibroadenomas, on the other hand, are more commonly seen in younger women and present as a mobile but firm lump that can be easily moved during examination. Breast cysts are fluid-filled masses that may be detected if they are large enough and can fluctuate or transilluminate. Breast abscesses are typically seen in breastfeeding women and present as a hot, tender swelling. While breast cancer is unlikely based on the clinical history, all women with a breast lump should be referred to a specialist for confirmation of diagnosis through triple assessment. It is important to note that intentional weight loss, as in this case, should not be considered a factor in the diagnosis.
Understanding Fat Necrosis of the Breast
Fat necrosis of the breast is a condition that affects up to 40% of cases and is often caused by trauma. This condition can be mistaken for breast cancer due to its physical features, such as a mass that may initially increase in size. It is important to understand that fat necrosis is not cancerous and can be treated with proper care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 58
Correct
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A 32-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner having been feeling unwell for a few days with a persistent cough.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 130 g/l 120â160 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 18 Ă 109/l 4.5â11.0 Ă 109/l
Neutrophils 12 Ă 109/l 2.0â7.5 Ă 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 450 Ă 109/l 150â400 Ă 109/l
A blood film shows atypical lymphocytes.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute bacterial infection
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Abnormal Full Blood Count Results
When a patient presents with abnormal full blood count (FBC) results, it is important to consider a range of potential diagnoses. In this case, the patient has neutrophilia and atypical lymphocytes, indicating an acute bacterial infection. Other potential diagnoses, such as chronic myeloid leukaemia, tuberculosis, cytomegalovirus infection, and pregnancy, can be ruled out based on the absence of key symptoms and blood film findings. Clinical prediction scores can be used to aid in antibiotic stewardship. It is important to consider all potential diagnoses and conduct further testing as needed to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 59
Incorrect
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What is the frequency of the cervical cancer screening program in England for women over 50 years old?
Your Answer: 20-49 years - 3-yearly screening; 50-69 years - 5-yearly screening
Correct Answer: 25-49 years - 3-yearly screening; 50-64 years - 5-yearly screening
Explanation:In England, cervical cancer screening is recommended every 3 years for women aged 25-49 and every 5 years for women aged 50-64.
Cervical Cancer Screening in the UK
Cervical cancer screening is a well-established program in the UK that aims to detect pre-malignant changes in the cervix. This program is estimated to prevent 1,000-4,000 deaths per year. However, it should be noted that around 15% of cervical adenocarcinomas are frequently undetected by screening.
The screening program has evolved significantly in recent years. Initially, smears were examined for signs of dyskaryosis, which may indicate cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. However, the introduction of HPV testing allowed for further risk stratification, and the NHS has now moved to an HPV first system. This means that a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.
All women between the ages of 25-64 years are offered a smear test. Women aged 25-49 years are screened every three years, while those aged 50-64 years are screened every five years. However, cervical screening cannot be offered to women over 64. In Scotland, screening is offered from 25-64 every five years.
In special situations, cervical screening in pregnancy is usually delayed until three months post-partum, unless there are missed screenings or previous abnormal smears. Women who have never been sexually active have a very low risk of developing cervical cancer and may wish to opt-out of screening.
It is recommended to take a cervical smear around mid-cycle, although there is limited evidence to support this advice. Overall, the UK’s cervical cancer screening program is an essential tool in preventing cervical cancer and promoting women’s health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 60
Correct
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A 12-year-old boy presents acutely with petechiae on his legs, severe abdominal pain, bloody faeces, haematuria and painful joint swelling. The haematology laboratory results are normal.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: HenochâSchönlein purpura
Explanation:Common Pediatric Diseases: Symptoms and Management
HenochâSchönlein purpura (HSP), Acute lymphocytic leukaemia, Alport’s syndrome, and Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) are some of the common pediatric diseases that require prompt diagnosis and management. HSP is an autoimmune hypersensitivity vasculitis that often affects children and is associated with IgA dominant immune complexes. ALL is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow, causing symptoms such as fatigue, fever, and joint pain. Alport’s syndrome is a hereditary nephritis that can lead to chronic kidney disease, hearing loss, and ocular abnormalities. JRA is characterized by swollen joints, fever, and joint pain. Prompt diagnosis and management are crucial in these diseases, which may require supportive treatment, pain relief, and monitoring for potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman is referred with fatigue. Her primary care physician observes that she has jaundice and suspects liver disease. She also presents with angular cheilitis. She has a history of taking steroid inhalers for asthma, but no other significant medical history. A blood smear shows signs of megaloblastic anemia, and her serum bilirubin level is elevated, but her other laboratory results are normal. There are no indications of gastrointestinal (GI) issues.
What is the most appropriate diagnosis for this clinical presentation?Your Answer: Autoimmune hepatitis
Correct Answer: Pernicious anaemia
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Anaemia: Understanding the Causes
Anaemia is a common condition that can be caused by a variety of factors. Here, we will discuss some of the possible causes of anaemia and their corresponding laboratory findings.
Pernicious Anaemia: This type of anaemia is caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12 due to impaired intrinsic factor (IF) production. It is usually seen in adults aged 40-70 years and is characterized by megaloblastic changes in rapidly dividing cells. Anti-parietal cell antibodies are present in 90% of patients with pernicious anaemia. The Schilling test is useful in confirming the absence of IF. Treatment involves parenteral administration of cyanocobalamin or hydroxycobalamin.
Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia: CML is a myeloproliferative disorder that results in increased proliferation of granulocytic cells. Symptoms include fatigue, anorexia, weight loss, and hepatosplenomegaly. Mild to moderate anaemia is usually normochromic and normocytic. Diagnosis is based on histopathological findings in the peripheral blood and Philadelphia chromosome in bone marrow cells.
Iron Deficiency Anaemia: This type of anaemia is primarily a laboratory diagnosis and is characterized by microcytic and hypochromic erythropoiesis. It is caused by chronic iron deficiency and can be due to multiple causes, including chronic inflammation, iron malabsorption, chronic blood loss, and malabsorption of vitamin B12 or folate.
Crohn’s Disease: This chronic inflammatory process can affect any part of the GI tract and can cause anaemia due to chronic inflammation, iron malabsorption, chronic blood loss, and malabsorption of vitamin B12 or folate. However, the lack of GI symptoms in the clinical scenario provided is not consistent with a history of inflammatory bowel disease.
Autoimmune Hepatitis: This chronic disease is characterized by continuing hepatocellular inflammation and necrosis, with a tendency to progress to cirrhosis. Elevated serum aminotransferase levels are present in 100% of patients at initial presentation. Anaemia, if present, is usually normochromic. However, this clinical picture and laboratory findings are not consistent with the scenario given.
In conclusion, understanding the different causes of anaemia and their corresponding laboratory findings is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 62
Correct
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A 5-year-old boy with sickle cell anaemia complains of abdominal pain. During the physical examination, the doctor observes splenomegaly and signs of anaemia. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Sequestration crisis
Explanation:In a sequestration crisis, the sickle cells lead to significant enlargement of the spleen, which causes abdominal pain as seen in this case. This is more prevalent in early childhood as repeated sequestration and infarction of the spleen during childhood can eventually lead to an auto-splenectomy. A sequestration crisis can result in severe anemia, noticeable pallor, and cardiovascular collapse due to the loss of effective circulating volume.
Sickle cell anaemia is a condition that involves periods of good health with intermittent crises. There are several types of crises that can occur, including thrombotic or painful crises, sequestration, acute chest syndrome, aplastic, and haemolytic. Thrombotic crises, also known as painful crises or vaso-occlusive crises, are triggered by factors such as infection, dehydration, and deoxygenation. These crises are diagnosed clinically and can result in infarcts in various organs, including the bones, lungs, spleen, and brain.
Sequestration crises occur when sickling occurs within organs such as the spleen or lungs, leading to pooling of blood and worsening of anaemia. This type of crisis is associated with an increased reticulocyte count. Acute chest syndrome is caused by vaso-occlusion within the pulmonary microvasculature, resulting in infarction in the lung parenchyma. Symptoms include dyspnoea, chest pain, pulmonary infiltrates on chest x-ray, and low pO2. Management involves pain relief, respiratory support, antibiotics, and transfusion.
Aplastic crises are caused by infection with parvovirus and result in a sudden fall in haemoglobin. Bone marrow suppression leads to a reduced reticulocyte count. Haemolytic crises are rare and involve a fall in haemoglobin due to an increased rate of haemolysis. It is important to recognise and manage these crises promptly, as they can lead to serious complications and even death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 63
Correct
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A 56-year-old man with a history of epilepsy and ischaemic heart disease presents to the clinic with a complaint of feeling lethargic for the past 3 months. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained: Hb 9.6 g/dl, MCV 123 fl, Plt 164 * 109/l, WCC 4.6 *109/l. Which medication is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Phenytoin: Mechanism of Action and Adverse Effects
Phenytoin is a medication used to manage seizures. Its mechanism of action involves binding to sodium channels, which increases their refractory period. However, the drug is associated with a large number of adverse effects, which can be categorized as acute, chronic, idiosyncratic, and teratogenic. Acute effects include dizziness, diplopia, nystagmus, slurred speech, ataxia, confusion, and seizures. Chronic effects include gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, coarsening of facial features, drowsiness, megaloblastic anemia, peripheral neuropathy, enhanced vitamin D metabolism causing osteomalacia, lymphadenopathy, and dyskinesia. Idiosyncratic effects include fever, rashes, hepatitis, Dupuytren’s contracture, aplastic anemia, and drug-induced lupus. Teratogenic effects are associated with cleft palate and congenital heart disease. Although routine monitoring of phenytoin levels is not necessary, trough levels should be checked before dosing in cases of dose adjustment, suspected toxicity, or non-adherence to the prescribed medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 64
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman of Afro-Caribbean origin presents to the Oncology Clinic under the 2-week-wait pathway. She has been noticing some lumps on her neck that are classified as painless, nontender, asymmetrical lymphadenopathy. She complains of increasing night sweats and has noticed some pain when drinking alcohol.
Given the likely diagnosis, which one of the following features is associated with a poor prognosis?Your Answer: Night sweats
Explanation:Understanding Hodgkin’s Lymphoma: Symptoms and Prognosis Factors
Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphatic system. One of the most common symptoms of this malignancy is painless, non-tender, asymmetrical lymphadenopathy. However, the presence of night sweats, fever, and weight loss can also indicate a diagnosis of Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Patients of Afro-Caribbean origin may have a worse prognosis in acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, but not in Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Alcohol-induced pain is a characteristic feature of some cases of Hodgkin’s lymphoma, but it has not been associated with a poor prognosis. Asymmetrical lymphadenopathy is a typical feature of Hodgkin’s lymphoma and has not been linked to a worse prognosis. Finally, while female sex has not been associated with poor prognosis, some studies suggest that male sex could be connected with a poorer outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 65
Correct
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A 43-year-old man is being evaluated for anemia by his primary care physician. He has been experiencing mild shortness of breath for the past 3 months. His medical history is significant for a previous diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica.
The results of his recent blood tests are as follows:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 98 g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160)
- Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV): 77 fl (76-95 fl)
- Ferritin: 195 ng/mL (20-230)
- Total Iron Binding Capacity: 610 ”g/dL (250-450)
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Iron deficient anaemia
Explanation:The patient’s anaemia is complex and could have multiple causes. The anaemia is microcytic/normocytic and is accompanied by normal ferritin levels and elevated TIBC. However, the patient also has polymyalgia rheumatica, an inflammatory disorder that can affect ferritin levels. Ferritin is an acute-phase reactant and can be elevated in inflammation, making it an unreliable measurement.
Iron-deficient anaemia typically presents as microcytic with high TIBC levels. The high TIBC is due to the body’s ability to transport iron despite low iron levels. Iron-deficient anaemia also has low ferritin levels, but this may not be the case in this patient due to their chronic inflammatory condition. Therefore, iron-deficient anaemia is the most likely diagnosis due to the high TIBC levels.
Anaemia of chronic disease is also normocytic but typically has low or normal TIBC levels. This is because iron is trapped in inflammatory tissue and not available for use, reducing the body’s ability to transport free iron.
B12 deficiency results in macrocytic anaemia, which is not the case in this patient. Haemolytic anaemia is a rare form of anaemia that results in normocytic anaemia and does not explain the abnormalities in iron studies seen in this patient.
Iron Studies: Understanding the Different Tests
Iron studies are a group of laboratory tests that help evaluate a person’s iron status. These tests include serum iron, total iron binding capacity (TIBC), transferrin, transferrin saturation, and ferritin. Serum iron measures the amount of iron in the blood, while TIBC measures the amount of iron that can bind to transferrin, a protein that transports iron in the blood. Transferrin saturation is calculated by dividing serum iron by TIBC, and it reflects the percentage of transferrin that is saturated with iron. Ferritin, on the other hand, is a protein that stores iron in the body, and its level in the blood can indicate the amount of iron stored in the body.
In iron deficiency anaemia (IDA), the levels of serum iron and transferrin saturation are low, while TIBC and transferrin are high. Ferritin levels are also low in IDA. However, in pregnancy and in the presence of oestrogen, transferrin levels may be elevated. Inflammatory disorders, on the other hand, can cause an increase in ferritin levels.
Other rarer tests that may be used to evaluate iron status include transferrin receptors, which are increased in IDA, and tests for anaemia of chronic disease, which is a normochromic/hypochromic, normocytic anaemia characterized by reduced serum and TIBC levels and normal or raised ferritin levels. Understanding these different tests can help healthcare providers diagnose and manage iron-related disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents to the breast clinic with an abnormal mammogram and a small fixed lump in her right breast. What type of breast cancer is most frequently encountered?
Your Answer: Invasive lobular carcinoma
Correct Answer: Invasive ductal carcinoma (no special type)
Explanation:The most prevalent form of breast cancer is invasive ductal carcinoma, without any distinctive features.
Breast Cancer: Understanding Types and Classification
Breast cancer can be classified based on the type of tissue it originates from, namely duct or lobular tissue. Ductal carcinoma and lobular carcinoma are the two main types of breast cancer, which can further be classified as either carcinoma-in-situ or invasive. Invasive ductal carcinoma, also known as No Special Type, is the most common type of breast cancer. Lobular carcinoma and other rare types of breast cancer are classified as Special Type.
Apart from the common types, there are several rarer types of breast cancer, including medullary breast cancer, mucinous breast cancer, tubular breast cancer, adenoid cystic carcinoma of the breast, metaplastic breast cancer, lymphoma of the breast, basal type breast cancer, phyllodes or cystosarcoma phyllodes, and papillary breast cancer. Paget’s disease of the nipple is another type of breast cancer that is associated with an underlying mass lesion. Inflammatory breast cancer is a rare type of breast cancer that results in an inflamed appearance of the breast due to cancerous cells blocking the lymph drainage.
Understanding the different types and classifications of breast cancer is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment. It is important to note that some types of breast cancer may be associated with underlying lesions seen in the common types, rather than being completely separate subtypes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 67
Correct
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A 14-year-old girl is referred to haematology due to heavy and prolonged periods that have not responded well to tranexamic acid and the combined oral contraceptive pill. Her blood tests reveal Hb of 10.3 g/dl, Plt of 239 * 109/l, WBC of 6.5 * 109/l, PT of 12.9 secs, and APTT of 37 secs. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Von Willebrand's disease
Explanation:Understanding Von Willebrand’s Disease
Von Willebrand’s disease is a common inherited bleeding disorder that is usually passed down in an autosomal dominant manner. It behaves like a platelet disorder, with symptoms such as nosebleeds and heavy menstrual bleeding being common, while joint and muscle bleeding are rare. The disease is caused by a deficiency or abnormality in von Willebrand factor, a large glycoprotein that promotes platelet adhesion to damaged endothelium and acts as a carrier molecule for factor VIII.
There are three types of Von Willebrand’s disease. Type 1 is the most common and is characterized by a partial reduction in von Willebrand factor. Type 2 is further divided into four subtypes, each with a different abnormality in the von Willebrand factor. Type 3 is the most severe form and is caused by a total lack of von Willebrand factor, inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.
Diagnosis of Von Willebrand’s disease involves tests such as a prolonged bleeding time, APTT, factor VIII levels, and platelet aggregation with ristocetin. Management options include tranexamic acid for mild bleeding, desmopressin to raise levels of von Willebrand factor, and factor VIII concentrate. While there is no clear correlation between symptomatic presentation and type of Von Willebrand’s disease, common themes among patients include excessive mucocutaneous bleeding, bruising in the absence of trauma, and menorrhagia in females.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 68
Correct
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A 30-year-old man presents with fatigue, joint pain, and abnormal liver function tests. After investigation, he is diagnosed with hereditary hemochromatosis. His wife undergoes genetic testing and is found to not carry the disease. What is the likelihood that their child will develop hemochromatosis?
Your Answer: 0%
Explanation:Understanding Haemochromatosis: Symptoms, Causes, and Complications
Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that affects iron absorption and metabolism, leading to the accumulation of iron in the body. It is caused by mutations in the HFE gene on both copies of chromosome 6. This disorder is more common in people of European descent, with a prevalence of 1 in 200.
In the early stages of haemochromatosis, symptoms are often non-specific, such as fatigue and joint pain. As the disease progresses, patients may develop bronze skin pigmentation, diabetes mellitus, liver disease, cardiac failure, hypogonadism, and arthritis.
Treatment for haemochromatosis involves regular phlebotomy to remove excess iron from the body. Reversible complications of haemochromatosis include cardiomyopathy, skin pigmentation, liver cirrhosis, diabetes mellitus, hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, and arthropathy. However, irreversible complications include cirrhosis, which can lead to liver failure and other serious health problems.
In conclusion, haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that affects iron metabolism and can lead to serious health complications if left untreated. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent irreversible damage and improve quality of life for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 69
Correct
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A 52-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner to discuss worsening symptoms of pruritus and weight loss over the last few weeks. He has a known diagnosis of ulcerative colitis (UC).
On examination, he is jaundiced. His abdomen is soft and nontender and there is a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Bilirubin 178 umol/l 0â21 umol/l
Alanine transaminase (ALT) 32 IU/l 10â45 IU/l
Aspartate transaminase (AST) 27 IU/l 15â42 IU/l
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 648 IU/l 30â130 IU/l
Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) 1042 IU/l 15â40 IU/l
Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) 8 IU/l 0â10 IU/l
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Select the SINGLE most likely diagnosis from the options below. Select ONE option only.Your Answer: Cholangiocarcinoma
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Obstructive Jaundice in a Patient with Ulcerative Colitis
Ulcerative colitis (UC) is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that increases the risk of developing hepatobiliary cancers. When a patient with UC presents with obstructive jaundice, the most likely diagnosis is cholangiocarcinoma, as evidenced by a raised bilirubin with normal transaminases but raised ALP and GGT.
Other potential causes of obstructive jaundice include gallstones, which typically present with right upper quadrant pain and fever, and gallbladder empyema if the patient is acutely unwell. Haemochromatosis, an inherited condition that causes liver damage due to excessive iron absorption, would present with raised transaminases rather than obstructive jaundice.
Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is another potential diagnosis in a patient with UC, but it is characterized by raised transaminases and ALP. Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD), which results from a build-up of fat in the liver, is more common in individuals who are obese, have type II diabetes, hyperlipidaemia, or metabolic syndrome, and would present with raised transaminases rather than ALP and GGT.
In summary, when a patient with UC presents with obstructive jaundice, cholangiocarcinoma should be the primary consideration, but other potential causes should also be evaluated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 70
Correct
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A 57-year-old woman with a long history of sun exposure presents to the accident and emergency department after a fracture of her right femur associated with a minor fall. On reviewing the films with the on-call radiographer you are concerned about a lytic lesion possibly being related to the fracture.
Which of the following primary tumours most commonly metastasises to bone?Your Answer: Bronchial carcinoma
Explanation:Metastasis Patterns of Common Carcinomas
Carcinomas are malignant tumors that can spread to other parts of the body through a process called metastasis. The patterns of metastasis vary depending on the type of carcinoma. Here are some common carcinomas and their typical metastasis patterns:
Bronchial Carcinoma: This type of carcinoma often spreads to the bone or brain. Symptoms may include difficulty breathing, coughing, chest pain, weight loss, and fatigue.
Brain Carcinoma: Primary malignant brain tumors rarely spread to other parts of the body, but they can spread to surrounding areas of the brain and spinal cord.
Renal Carcinoma: Renal cancers commonly metastasize to the lungs, producing lesions that appear like cannonballs on a chest X-ray. They can also spread to the bone, causing osteolytic lesions.
Gastric Carcinoma: Gastric cancers tend to spread to the liver, lung, and peritoneum. Tumors that have a preference for bone metastasis include those of the lung, prostate, breast, kidney, and thyroid.
Colorectal Carcinoma: Colorectal cancers commonly metastasize to the liver, lung, and peritoneum. Tumors that have a preference for bone metastasis include those of the lung, prostate, breast, kidney, and thyroid.
Understanding the patterns of metastasis for different types of carcinomas can help with early detection and treatment. If you experience any symptoms or have concerns, it’s important to speak with your healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman with sickle cell disease is admitted to the haematology unit after experiencing increasing fatigue and general malaise for the past week following a recent febrile illness. Upon examination, she appears pale and has multiple petechiae and bruises over her trunk and upper and lower limbs. Blood tests reveal a Hb of 82 g/L (135-180), platelets of 29 * 109/L (150 - 400), and WBC of 1.3 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0). What is the most likely cause of this patient's presentation?
Your Answer: Epstein-Barr virus infection
Correct Answer: Parvovirus B19 infection
Explanation:Pancytopenia may occur in patients with underlying haematological conditions who are infected with Parvovirus B19, which can also cause fever and rash.
Parvovirus B19: A Virus with Various Clinical Presentations
Parvovirus B19 is a DNA virus that can cause different clinical presentations. One of the most common is erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease or slapped-cheek syndrome. This illness may manifest as a mild feverish condition or a noticeable rash that appears after a few days. The rash is characterized by rose-red cheeks, which is why it is called slapped-cheek syndrome. It may spread to the rest of the body but rarely involves the palms and soles. The rash usually peaks after a week and then fades, but for some months afterwards, a warm bath, sunlight, heat, or fever may trigger a recurrence of the bright red cheeks and rash. Most children recover without specific treatment, and school exclusion is unnecessary as the child is not infectious once the rash emerges. However, in adults, the virus may cause acute arthritis.
Aside from erythema infectiosum, parvovirus B19 can also present as asymptomatic, pancytopenia in immunosuppressed patients, aplastic crises in sickle-cell disease, and hydrops fetalis. The virus suppresses erythropoiesis for about a week, so aplastic anemia is rare unless there is a chronic hemolytic anemia. In pregnant women, the virus can cross the placenta and cause severe anemia due to viral suppression of fetal erythropoiesis, which can lead to heart failure secondary to severe anemia and the accumulation of fluid in fetal serous cavities (e.g. ascites, pleural and pericardial effusions). This condition is treated with intrauterine blood transfusions.
It is important to note that the virus can affect an unborn baby in the first 20 weeks of pregnancy. If a woman is exposed early in pregnancy (before 20 weeks), she should seek prompt advice from her antenatal care provider as maternal IgM and IgG will need to be checked. The virus is spread by the respiratory route, and a person is infectious 3 to 5 days before the appearance of the rash. Children are no longer infectious once the rash appears, and there is no specific treatment. Therefore, the child need not be excluded from school as they are no longer infectious by the time the rash occurs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 72
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman comes to see her general practitioner with a lump in her right breast. She has no significant medical or family history. During the examination, a small, firm, non-painful lump is found in the upper left quadrant of her right breast. The rest of the breast examination is normal. What is the best course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: Urgent referral to breast clinic
Explanation:An urgent referral to a breast clinic is necessary for women over the age of 30 who have an unexplained breast lump, using a suspected cancer pathway referral. This is in accordance with NICE guidelines, as the lump may represent cancerous pathology and should be investigated promptly. Conservative management or routine referral to breast clinic is not appropriate in this case, as the potential for cancerous pathology requires urgent attention.
In 2015, NICE released guidelines for referring individuals suspected of having breast cancer. If a person is 30 years or older and has an unexplained breast lump with or without pain, or if they are 50 years or older and have discharge, retraction, or other concerning changes in one nipple only, they should be referred using a suspected cancer pathway referral for an appointment within two weeks. If a person has skin changes that suggest breast cancer or is 30 years or older with an unexplained lump in the axilla, a suspected cancer pathway referral should also be considered. For individuals under 30 years old with an unexplained breast lump with or without pain, non-urgent referral should be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 73
Correct
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A 25-year-old man presents to his doctor with a complaint of a lump in his testicle. During the examination, the lump disappears when he lies down. The scrotum shows dilated veins, while the abdominal examination is unremarkable. He expresses concern about his inability to conceive despite trying. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Varicocoele
Explanation:Common Causes of Testicular Lumps: Varicocele, Epididymitis, Hydrocele, Inguinal Hernia, and Testicular Teratoma
Testicular lumps can be a cause for concern and require medical attention. Here are some common causes of testicular lumps:
Varicocele: This is a painless swelling of the testes on the left side, which can be described as a bag of worms within the spermatic cord above the testis. It tends to occur in those aged 12+ years and is rare in pre-pubertal boys. Varicoceles are associated with male infertility, and a quarter of men with abnormal semen parameters will have a varicocele.
Epididymitis: This is inflammation of the testis and epididymis caused by infection such as chlamydia infection, gonorrhoea, mumps, bacterial coliforms or syphilis. It may present as acute testicular pain, swelling and tenderness, and associated symptoms include urethritis, increased urinary frequency and dysuria. Systemic symptoms may include fever and rigors.
Hydrocele: This is a non-tender, painless, cystic scrotal swelling below and anterior to the testes. It will normally transilluminate and does not tend to reduce on lying flat. Although hydroceles can fluctuate in size and are affected by movement, they are not usually a cause for concern.
Inguinal hernia: This is a condition where a part of the intestine or other tissue protrudes through a weak spot in the abdominal muscles, causing a lump in the groin or scrotum. If reducible, the lump may disappear on lying flat.
Testicular teratoma: This is a solid testicular lump within the testis, which is suggestive of a tumour. Testicular cancers can be subdivided into seminomas, teratomas and yolk-sac tumours. Over 95% of testicular cancers arise from the germ cells. Teratomas typically present at age 20â30 years, whereas seminomas typically present at age 35â45 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 74
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman with known ovarian cancer presented to the emergency department complaining of severe right leg pain since yesterday. She had a hysterectomy 1 month ago.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: DVT (deep-vein thrombosis)
Explanation:After undergoing surgery, a woman presents with leg pain. Several potential causes are considered, including deep-vein thrombosis (DVT), acute limb ischaemia, air embolus, lumbar disc herniation, and paradoxical embolus. Based on the patient’s risk factors and symptoms, DVT is deemed the most likely diagnosis. Other causes are ruled out due to lack of relevant history or low probability. Understanding the possible causes of leg pain after urological surgery can help healthcare providers make an accurate diagnosis and provide timely treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 75
Correct
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A 15-year-old Afro-Caribbean girl arrives at the emergency department with complaints of left hip pain. There is no history of recent trauma, but the patient has a medical history of sickle cell disease and has been admitted multiple times in the past with similar symptoms. What is the appropriate management plan for this patient?
Your Answer: Painkillers, oxygen and IV fluids
Explanation:To effectively manage sickle cell crisis, it is essential to administer analgesia, oxygen, and IV fluids. In addition, antibiotics may be necessary if an infection is suspected, and transfusion may be required if the patient’s Hb levels are low.
It is not advisable to simply monitor patients without providing any treatment, as this would result in significant pain and discomfort.
The most effective approach involves a combination of oxygen, fluids, and analgesia. Pain management is crucial, as the blockage of blood vessels by sickle-shaped red blood cells prevents the delivery of oxygen and blood to the tissues, resulting in pain. Oxygen supplementation is necessary to alleviate this pain, and IV fluids can help to slow or halt the sickling process. None of these components alone would be sufficient in managing pain, but together they form a comprehensive approach to pain management.
Managing Sickle-Cell Crises
Sickle-cell crises can be managed through various interventions. General management includes providing analgesia, rehydration, and oxygen. Antibiotics may also be considered if there is evidence of infection. Blood transfusion may be necessary for severe or symptomatic anemia, pregnancy, or pre-operative cases. However, it is important not to rapidly reduce the percentage of Hb S containing cells.
In cases of acute vaso-occlusive crisis, such as stroke, acute chest syndrome, multiorgan failure, or splenic sequestration crisis, exchange transfusion may be necessary. This involves rapidly reducing the percentage of Hb S containing cells. It is important to note that the management of sickle-cell crises should be tailored to the individual patient’s needs and medical history. Proper management can help alleviate symptoms and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 76
Incorrect
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An 85-year-old man complains of increasing back pain and overall weakness. An X-ray of his back reveals multiple vertebral collapses and lytic lesions.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Bone metastases
Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma
Explanation:Understanding Multiple Myeloma: A Malignant Disease of Plasma Cells
Multiple myeloma is a malignant disease of plasma cells that commonly affects adults aged over 60 years. It is characterized by the production of paraproteinaemia in the blood, which can affect multiple organs including the blood, bone, kidneys, and immune system. The most common symptoms of multiple myeloma include unexplained bone pain, hypercalcaemia, weight loss, hyperviscosity symptoms, spinal cord compression, and fever.
On the other hand, osteoporosis is a condition characterized by low bone mass and deterioration of the structure of the bone tissue, resulting in bone fragility and susceptibility to fracture. Multiple vertebral collapses and lytic lesions are more sinister in nature and are commonly associated with multiple myeloma.
Osteosarcoma, bone metastases, and chronic myeloblastic leukaemia (CML) are not related to multiple myeloma. Osteosarcoma is characterized by cortical destruction and the presence of a soft-tissue mass, while bone metastases usually lead to destruction of the cortex on plain radiographs. Symptoms of CML include fatigue, night sweats, weight loss, abdominal fullness, and left upper quadrant pain.
In summary, understanding the symptoms and characteristics of multiple myeloma is crucial in diagnosing and treating this malignant disease of plasma cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 77
Correct
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A 78-year-old man with known metastatic prostate cancer presents to his General Practitioner with generalised pain. He states that he has always had aches and pains from old age, but that this is different: he can feel the pain particularly in his back at night.
What is the most likely site to be involved in bone metastasis in this patient?Your Answer: Spine
Explanation:Common Sites of Metastatic Spread in Bone
Metastatic spread to the bone is a common occurrence in many types of cancer. The following are some of the most common sites of metastases in bone:
Spine: The spine is the most common site for bony metastases, with spread often found from a range of solid and haematological cancers, as well as infectious diseases such as tuberculosis.
Ribs: While breast cancer is known to spread to the ribs, this is not the case for many other cancers.
Pelvis: The pelvis is a prevalent site of metastatic spread occurring mostly from the prostate, breast, kidney, lung, and thyroid cancer.
Skull: Skull metastases are seen in 15-25% of all cancer patients and tend to include those from the breast, lungs, prostate, and thyroid, as well as melanoma.
Long bones: Localised bone pain is a red flag for metastatic spread to any of the long bones such as the femur and humerus. Breast, prostate, renal, thyroid, and lung cancers frequently metastasize to these areas.
Overall, understanding the common sites of metastatic spread in bone can help with early detection and treatment of cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 78
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of unexplained weight loss and vague symptoms. During the examination, the GP detects a suspicious lump on her neck and refers her urgently to ENT. To expedite the process, the GP conducts several investigations and observes a significant elevation in calcitonin levels. Which type of cancer is associated with calcitonin as a tumor marker?
Your Answer: Medullary thyroid cancer
Explanation:The presence of calcitonin in the blood can indicate the presence of medullary thyroid cancer, as this type of cancer originates from the parafollicular cells that produce calcitonin. Therefore, calcitonin is considered a tumor marker for medullary thyroid cancer.
Understanding Tumour Markers
Tumour markers are substances that can be found in the blood, urine, or tissues of people with cancer. They are often used to help diagnose and monitor cancer, as well as to determine the effectiveness of treatment. Tumour markers can be divided into different categories, including monoclonal antibodies against carbohydrate or glycoprotein tumour antigens, tumour antigens, enzymes, and hormones.
Monoclonal antibodies are used to target specific tumour antigens, which are proteins or other molecules that are found on the surface of cancer cells. Some common tumour markers include CA 125 for ovarian cancer, CA 19-9 for pancreatic cancer, and CA 15-3 for breast cancer. However, it is important to note that tumour markers usually have a low specificity, meaning that they can also be found in people without cancer.
Tumour antigens are proteins that are produced by cancer cells and can be detected in the blood or tissues of people with cancer. Some examples of tumour antigens include prostate specific antigen (PSA) for prostatic carcinoma, alpha-feto protein (AFP) for hepatocellular carcinoma and teratoma, and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) for colorectal cancer.
Enzymes and hormones can also be used as tumour markers. For example, alkaline phosphatase and neurone specific enolase are enzymes that can be elevated in people with cancer, while hormones such as calcitonin and ADH can be used to detect certain types of cancer.
In summary, tumour markers are an important tool in the diagnosis and monitoring of cancer. However, they should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests and imaging studies, as they are not always specific to cancer and can also be elevated in people without cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 79
Correct
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A 70-year-old man with a 12-year history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease presents with dysphagia. Upon endoscopy, an obstructive lesion is observed that is highly suspicious of oesophageal cancer. What is the expected result of the biopsy?
Your Answer: Adenocarcinoma
Explanation:Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GORD) or Barrett’s esophagus are linked to the development of oesophageal adenocarcinoma.
Oesophageal Cancer: Types, Risk Factors, Features, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Oesophageal cancer used to be mostly squamous cell carcinoma, but adenocarcinoma is now becoming more common, especially in patients with a history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) or Barrett’s. Adenocarcinoma is usually located near the gastroesophageal junction, while squamous cell tumours are found in the upper two-thirds of the oesophagus.
Risk factors for adenocarcinoma include GORD, Barrett’s oesophagus, smoking, achalasia, and obesity. Squamous cell cancer is more common in the developing world and is associated with smoking, alcohol, achalasia, Plummer-Vinson syndrome, and diets rich in nitrosamines.
The most common presenting symptom for both types of oesophageal cancer is dysphagia, followed by anorexia and weight loss. Other possible features include odynophagia, hoarseness, melaena, vomiting, and cough.
Diagnosis is done through upper GI endoscopy with biopsy, endoscopic ultrasound for locoregional staging, CT scanning for initial staging, and FDG-PET CT for detecting occult metastases. Laparoscopy may also be performed to detect occult peritoneal disease.
Operable disease is best managed by surgical resection, with the most common procedure being an Ivor-Lewis type oesophagectomy. However, the biggest surgical challenge is anastomotic leak, which can result in mediastinitis. Adjuvant chemotherapy may also be used in many patients.
Overall, oesophageal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the types, risk factors, features, diagnosis, and treatment options can help patients and healthcare providers make informed decisions about managing this disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 80
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman, who is currently four weeks into a course of postoperative radiotherapy for locally advanced cervical carcinoma, is admitted with abdominal pain and diarrhoea.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the clinical picture?Your Answer: Radiation enteritis
Explanation:Understanding Radiation Enteritis and Other Possible Causes of Bowel Symptoms
Radiation enteritis is a condition that occurs when the bowel becomes inflamed due to radiation therapy. It can manifest as ileitis, colitis, or proctitis, and can be acute or chronic. Acute radiation enteritis typically occurs during therapy and presents with symptoms such as anorexia, diarrhoea, and abdominal pain. Chronic radiation enteritis, on the other hand, can develop months or years after treatment and may cause weight loss, steatorrhoea, and small bowel obstruction.
While radiation enteritis is a likely cause of bowel symptoms in patients who have undergone radiation therapy, other conditions should also be considered. Bowel obstruction, for example, can cause nausea, vomiting, and bloating, but does not typically cause diarrhoea. Local malignant infiltration to the bowel may present with obstruction, while bowel perforation is a medical emergency that causes peritonitis and sepsis.
In summary, understanding the possible causes of bowel symptoms is important in determining the appropriate treatment for patients. While radiation enteritis is a common consequence of radiation therapy, other conditions such as bowel obstruction, local malignant infiltration, and bowel perforation should also be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 81
Correct
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A 55-year-old man comes to the Genetic Counselling Clinic after being diagnosed with colon cancer through the national bowel cancer screening programme. He was adopted as a child and has no knowledge of his biological family's medical history.
What is the most suitable genetic disorder to test for in this individual?Your Answer: Lynch syndrome
Explanation:Lynch syndrome is a genetic condition that increases the risk of developing colorectal cancer by over 80%. It also raises the risk of other cancers such as endometrial, stomach, breast, ovarian, small bowel, pancreatic, prostate, urinary tract, kidney, and liver cancer. Genetic testing is recommended for anyone diagnosed with colorectal cancer, regardless of age.
Breast cancer (BRCA) mutations are inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern and significantly increase the risk of developing breast, ovarian, prostate, and pancreatic cancer. These cancers tend to occur at a younger age than in the general population. While there is a possible link to colorectal pathology, other genetic syndromes should be considered first when looking for a genetic cause of cancer.
Cowden syndrome is a rare genetic condition characterized by benign growths called hamartomas on various parts of the body. It increases the risk of developing breast, thyroid, or endometrial cancer but has no association with colorectal cancer.
Familial adenomatous polyposis is an autosomal dominant condition that causes widespread colorectal adenomas, with polyps usually developing in late childhood. This greatly increases the risk of colorectal cancer, and prophylactic colectomy is often performed. Screening is recommended for those with an affected first-degree relative or multiple polyps detected on colonoscopy.
Von Hippel-Landau (VHL) syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition that causes multiple benign tumors and cysts in various parts of the body, including the brain, spinal cord, eyes, adrenals, kidneys, and pancreas. It increases the risk of renal and pancreatic cancer but has no association with colorectal cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 82
Correct
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A 16-year-old girl comes to the clinic with a palpable purpuric rash on her lower limbs and polyarthralgia after experiencing a recent sore throat. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Henoch-Schonlein purpura
Explanation:Understanding Henoch-Schonlein Purpura
Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP) is a type of small vessel vasculitis that is mediated by IgA. It is often associated with IgA nephropathy, also known as Berger’s disease. HSP is commonly observed in children following an infection.
The condition is characterized by a palpable purpuric rash, which is accompanied by localized oedema over the buttocks and extensor surfaces of the arms and legs. Other symptoms include abdominal pain, polyarthritis, and features of IgA nephropathy such as haematuria and renal failure.
Treatment for HSP involves analgesia for arthralgia, while management of nephropathy is generally supportive. There is inconsistent evidence for the use of steroids and immunosuppressants.
The prognosis for HSP is usually excellent, especially in children without renal involvement. The condition is self-limiting, but around one-third of patients may experience a relapse. It is important to monitor blood pressure and urinalysis to detect any progressive renal involvement.
Overall, understanding Henoch-Schonlein purpura is crucial for prompt diagnosis and management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 83
Correct
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A 62-year-old businessman presents with bilateral leg weakness that has suddenly become worse over the last 12 hours. Some 10 months ago he had a lobar resection for a stage II squamous cell carcinoma, followed by radiotherapy and adjuvant chemotherapy. On examination there is reduced power and altered sensation in both legs.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the current problem?Your Answer: Spinal cord compression as a result of vertebral metastases
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of spinal cord-related symptoms in cancer patients
Spinal cord-related symptoms can be a medical emergency in cancer patients, requiring prompt diagnosis and treatment. Several conditions can cause similar symptoms, including spinal cord compression, spinal tuberculosis, peripheral neuropathy secondary to carcinomatosis, paraneoplastic myelopathy, and secondary spinal tumor deposit.
Spinal cord compression is a common complication of metastatic cancer, especially from breast, bronchus, prostate, multiple myeloma, and high-grade non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. The classic triad of symptoms includes bilateral leg weakness, sensory loss, and bladder/bowel dysfunction, but back pain may be absent or delayed. Imaging studies, such as plain radiographs and MRI, are essential for diagnosis, and treatment options include steroids, neurosurgery, and radiotherapy.
Spinal tuberculosis is a rare but serious infection that can affect the spine and cause bone or joint pain, back pain, or swelling. It usually requires a combination of antibiotics and surgery to cure.
Peripheral neuropathy secondary to carcinomatosis is a gradual and often mild onset of nerve damage caused by cancer cells or cancer treatments. It can present with various sensory, motor, or autonomic symptoms, depending on the location and extent of nerve involvement.
Paraneoplastic myelopathy is a rare but potentially severe neurological disorder that can occur in some cancer patients, especially those with small-cell or squamous cell lung cancer. It is caused by an abnormal immune response to cancer cells, leading to inflammation and damage to the spinal cord.
Secondary spinal tumor deposit is a less common cause of spinal cord-related symptoms than spinal cord compression, but it can also occur in cancer patients with metastatic disease. It may present with similar symptoms and require similar diagnostic and therapeutic approaches.
In summary, cancer patients with spinal cord-related symptoms should undergo a thorough evaluation to determine the underlying cause and appropriate management. Early recognition and treatment can improve outcomes and quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 84
Correct
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A 4-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department with haemarthrosis in the knee and elbow after a trivial injury. She is otherwise fit and well. The patientâs mother suffers from Christmas disease.
What investigation should be organised to confirm this diagnosis in this patient?Your Answer: Factor IX activity level
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Haemophilia and Related Conditions
Haemophilia is a genetic disorder that affects the blood’s ability to clot properly, leading to spontaneous or excessive bleeding. To diagnose haemophilia and related conditions, several diagnostic tests are available.
Factor IX Activity Level: Lack of factor IX leads to Christmas disease, the second most common type of haemophilia. To diagnose haemophilia, the levels of clotting factor present in the blood must be measured.
Platelet Count: The platelet count is usually normal in patients with haemophilia. Reduced platelets would suggest an alternative diagnosis. However, it is still important to check the platelet count to exclude thrombocytopenia as a cause of unexplained bleeding.
Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT): Blood tests in haemophilia usually demonstrate a prolonged aPTT. However, patients with moderate disease can still have a normal aPTT if their factor activity level is > 15%.
Urinalysis: Urinalysis in patients with haemophilia may demonstrate the presence of haematuria, but by itself is not diagnostic of the condition.
von Willebrand Factor Antigen: The plasma von Willebrand factor antigen is normal in individuals with haemophilia. Reduced von Willebrand factor suggests the possibility of von Willebrand disease (VWD).
In conclusion, a combination of these diagnostic tests is necessary to diagnose haemophilia and related conditions accurately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents to the breast clinic with a complaint of a palpable mass in her left breast. The diagnostic mammogram shows a spiculated mass measuring 2.1 cm. Ultrasound detects a hypoechoic mass measuring 2.1 cm x 1.3 cm x 1.1 cm. Biopsy reveals a well-differentiated mucinous carcinoma which is negative for ER and HER2. The recommended course of treatment to prevent recurrence in this patient is:
Your Answer: Chemotherapy
Correct Answer: Whole breast radiotherapy
Explanation:Breast cancer management varies depending on the stage of the cancer, type of tumor, and patient’s medical history. Treatment options may include surgery, radiotherapy, hormone therapy, biological therapy, and chemotherapy. Surgery is typically the first option for most patients, except for elderly patients with metastatic disease who may benefit more from hormonal therapy. Prior to surgery, an axillary ultrasound is recommended for patients without palpable axillary lymphadenopathy, while those with clinically palpable lymphadenopathy require axillary node clearance. The type of surgery offered depends on various factors, such as tumor size, location, and type. Breast reconstruction is also an option for patients who have undergone a mastectomy.
Radiotherapy is recommended after a wide-local excision to reduce the risk of recurrence, while mastectomy patients may receive radiotherapy for T3-T4 tumors or those with four or more positive axillary nodes. Hormonal therapy is offered if tumors are positive for hormone receptors, with tamoxifen being used in pre- and peri-menopausal women and aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole in post-menopausal women. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial cancer, venous thromboembolism, and menopausal symptoms. Biological therapy, such as trastuzumab, is used for HER2-positive tumors but cannot be used in patients with a history of heart disorders. Chemotherapy may be used before or after surgery, depending on the stage of the tumor and the presence of axillary node disease. FEC-D is commonly used in the latter case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 86
Correct
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In patients with carcinoma of the prostate, which laboratory test is the most effective for screening and monitoring therapy?
Your Answer: Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
Explanation:Tumor Markers: Understanding Their Role in Cancer Diagnosis and Therapy Control
Tumor markers are substances produced by cancer cells or normal cells in response to cancer. They can be used in the diagnosis and therapy control of various types of cancer. However, it is important to note that tumor markers are non-specific and can also be elevated in non-cancerous conditions.
Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is a commonly used tumor marker for prostate cancer. It should be offered to those who request testing or for those who have symptoms suggestive of prostate cancer. PSA levels increase with age, so interpretation should take into account the age of the patient. However, PSA levels can also be elevated in benign prostatic enlargement and prostate inflammation, and can be normal in prostate carcinoma.
Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a tumor marker for hepatocellular carcinoma. However, AFP levels can also be normal in this type of cancer. Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)-1 isoenzyme levels can be elevated in testicular germ cell tumors, while alkaline phosphatase levels can be raised in cholestasis and Paget’s disease.
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a tumor marker for colon cancer, but it is non-specific. The introduction of the PSA test has led to earlier diagnosis of prostate cancer, before metastases into lymph nodes or bone are evident. Bone scans are unnecessary in patients with a PSA <20 ng/ml, and repeated scans during treatment are unnecessary in the absence of clinical indications. In summary, tumor markers can be useful in cancer diagnosis and therapy control, but their interpretation should take into account the patient’s age and other non-cancerous conditions that can elevate their levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 87
Correct
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A 7-year-old boy who has haemophilia A presents to the Emergency Department after falling off a skateboard and hitting his head. He is drowsy and confused with a Glasgow Coma Score of 9.
What would be the next most appropriate step in this patientâs management?
Your Answer: Immediate administration of factor VIII
Explanation:Immediate Treatment for Serious Bleeding in Patients with Haemophilia
Serious or life-threatening bleeding in patients with haemophilia requires immediate evaluation and therapy with replacement factor. The immediate goal is to raise the activity of the deficient factor to a level sufficient to achieve haemostasis. For patients with potentially serious or life-threatening bleeding, treatment should be initiated immediately, even before completing diagnostic assessment.
In the case of haemophilia A, factor VIII must be replaced. Waiting to find out factor VIII levels prior to administering it could lead to further bleeding. Therefore, immediate administration of factor VIII is the most appropriate option.
While obtaining imaging of the head may be useful, the main objective is to obtain rapid haemostasis. Thus, transferring the patient immediately for a CT scan of the head is not the first action to take.
In a patient with haemophilia, evacuation of a clot may lead to further potentially catastrophic bleeding. If surgery is required, the patient must have adequate levels of factor VIII present to achieve haemostasis. Therefore, transferring the patient to the theatre for evacuation of an intracranial haematoma should not be the first action taken.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 88
Correct
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A 47-year-old man visits his doctor for a routine follow-up blood test that reveals elevated levels of a tumour marker in his blood. Which of the following is most commonly linked to increased levels of serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)?
Your Answer: Hepatocellular carcinoma
Explanation:Tumour Markers for Common Cancers
Tumour markers are substances produced by cancer cells that can be detected in the blood. They are used to help diagnose and monitor the progression of cancer. Here are the most common tumour markers associated with some of the most prevalent cancers:
Hepatocellular carcinoma: Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is the most likely tumour marker associated with this type of liver cancer, which often develops in people with chronic liver diseases.
Breast cancer: Cancer antigen 15-3 (CA 15-3) is the most likely tumour marker associated with breast cancer, which affects both men and women.
Colorectal cancer: Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is the most likely tumour marker associated with colorectal cancer, which can develop from polyps in the colon or rectum.
Pancreatic cancer: CA 19-9 is the most likely tumour marker associated with pancreatic cancer, which is often difficult to detect in its early stages.
Prostate cancer: Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is the most likely tumour marker associated with prostate cancer, which is the most common cancer in men.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 89
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of fatigue, weight loss, and palpable lymph nodes in the left supraclavicular fossa.
What is the most suitable location to investigate for a primary tumor in this patient?Your Answer: Stomach
Explanation:Metastasis and Spread of Common Cancers
Gastric carcinoma, the fifth most common cancer worldwide, often presents with advanced disease and can affect various parts of the stomach. Troisier’s sign, an enlarged left supraclavicular node, is a telltale sign of gastric carcinoma, but cancers from other gastrointestinal and urogenital sites can also present with this symptom.
Endometrial cancer, or cancer of the corpus uteri, typically spreads to pelvic and para-aortic nodes, as well as distant organs like the lungs, liver, brain, and bones. Epigastric pain, hepatomegaly, jaundice, and ascites may indicate poor prognosis.
Lung cancers tend to spread to deep lymph nodes in the mediastinum and thorax, as well as the other lung, pleura, and distant organs.
Renal carcinoma first spreads to local lymph nodes before invading the aorta and vena cava. It can also spread to more distant lymph nodes, bones, liver, and lungs.
Prostate cancer can spread to local and regional lymph nodes, but it is also known to spread to the bones, causing severe pain, especially in the femur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 90
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about a lump in her breast that she discovered three weeks ago. The lump is causing discomfort when she wears a bra. During the examination, the doctor detects a 4 cm, non-tethered, and firm lump in the upper left quadrant of her right breast. The surface and contour are smooth, the skin is intact, and it does not transilluminate. The doctor refers her for a triple assessment, which confirms that she has a fibroadenoma. What is the next step in her treatment plan?
Your Answer: Check the mass again in three months
Correct Answer: Refer for surgical excision
Explanation:The appropriate action for a patient presenting with a breast fibroadenoma larger than 3 cm is to refer them for surgical excision. Fibroadenomas are benign masses that develop from the whole lobule and are typically small, firm, and smooth, often referred to as breast mice. While they are usually treated conservatively, surgical excision is necessary if they cause discomfort, as in this case. Checking the mass again in three months, discharge and safety netting, prescribing oral antibiotics, and referring for aspiration are all incorrect management options for a fibroadenoma.
Understanding Breast Fibroadenoma
Breast fibroadenoma is a type of breast mass that develops from a whole lobule. It is characterized by a mobile, firm, and smooth lump in the breast, which is often referred to as a breast mouse. Fibroadenoma accounts for about 12% of all breast masses and is more common in women under the age of 30.
Fortunately, fibroadenomas are usually benign and do not increase the risk of developing breast cancer. In fact, over a two-year period, up to 30% of fibroadenomas may even get smaller on their own. However, if the lump is larger than 3 cm, surgical excision is typically recommended.
In summary, breast fibroadenoma is a common type of breast mass that is usually benign and does not increase the risk of breast cancer. While it may cause concern for some women, it is important to remember that most fibroadenomas do not require treatment and may even resolve on their own.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 91
Correct
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A 56-year-old man who comes to see you concerned about prostate cancer. You perform a digital rectal exam which reveals an enlarged, firm and irregular prostate. What would be the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Refer to urology as 2 week wait referral
Explanation:The appropriate way to address the patient is as a 2-week wait referral. According to the NICE Guidelines for suspected cancer referrals, if a hard, irregular prostate indicative of prostate carcinoma is detected during rectal examination, urgent referral is necessary. Along with the referral, the PSA test result should also be included. It is important to note that the PSA test is not always reliable in detecting prostate cancer, as around 1 in 50 men with fast-growing prostate cancer have a normal PSA level.
Prostate specific antigen (PSA) is an enzyme produced by both normal and cancerous prostate cells. It is commonly used as a marker for prostate cancer, but its effectiveness as a screening tool is still debated. The NHS Prostate Cancer Risk Management Programme (PCRMP) has released guidelines for handling requests for PSA testing in asymptomatic men. While a recent European trial showed a reduction in prostate cancer deaths, it also revealed a high risk of over-diagnosis and over-treatment. As a result, the National Screening Committee has decided not to introduce a screening programme, but rather allow men to make an informed decision. The PCRMP recommends age-adjusted upper limits for PSA levels, while NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest a lower threshold for referral. PSA levels can also be raised by factors such as benign prostatic hyperplasia, prostatitis, and urinary tract infections.
The specificity and sensitivity of PSA testing are poor, with a significant number of men with elevated PSA levels not having prostate cancer, and some with normal PSA levels having the disease. Various methods are used to add meaning to PSA levels, including age-adjusted upper limits and monitoring changes in PSA levels over time. It is also debated whether digital rectal examination causes a rise in PSA levels. It is important to note that PSA testing should be postponed after certain events, such as ejaculation or instrumentation of the urinary tract.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 92
Correct
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An 88-year-old man with known metastatic prostate cancer is brought to the emergency department confused. He is unable to provide further history but reports feeling generally unwell. Upon examination, his chest is clear, heart sounds normal, and abdomen is soft with no tenderness. The initial blood tests reveal:
- Na+ 134 mmol/l
- K+ 4.7 mmol/l
- Urea 7.8 mmol/l
- Creatinine 104 ”mol/l
- Adjusted Ca2+ 3.5 mmol/l
- Mg2+ 0.81 mmol/l
What would be your initial treatment plan?Your Answer: IV fluids
Explanation:Severe cases (>3.0 mmol/l) requiring admission are often caused by malignancy, as seen in this patient. Treatment involves obtaining IV access and conducting appropriate biochemistry tests to check for other electrolyte abnormalities. A chest x-ray and ECG should also be performed. The first intervention should be fluid resuscitation to replace the deficit and maintain hydration, which may require large volumes (3-4 litres in the first 24 hours). If hypercalcaemia persists, IV bisphosphonates like zoledronate or pamidronate can be administered. Specific anticancer therapies can be considered after this.
Managing Hypercalcaemia
Hypercalcaemia is a condition where there is an excess of calcium in the blood. The initial management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline, typically 3-4 litres per day. This helps to flush out the excess calcium from the body. Once rehydration is achieved, bisphosphonates may be used to further lower the calcium levels. These drugs take 2-3 days to work, with maximal effect being seen at 7 days.
Calcitonin is another option for managing hypercalcaemia. It works quicker than bisphosphonates but is less commonly used due to its short duration of action. Steroids may be used in sarcoidosis, a condition that can cause hypercalcaemia.
Loop diuretics such as furosemide may also be used in hypercalcaemia, particularly in patients who cannot tolerate aggressive fluid rehydration. However, they should be used with caution as they may worsen electrolyte derangement and volume depletion.
In summary, the management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline followed by the use of bisphosphonates or other medications depending on the underlying cause of the condition. It is important to monitor electrolyte levels and adjust treatment accordingly to prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 93
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old pregnant woman is brought into the Emergency Department with acute confusion and abnormal behaviour. Her husband says she has been well till today. There is no past medical history of note and she takes no regular medication.
On examination, she is febrile with a temperature of 38.7 °C. Her heart rate is 125 bpm with a blood pressure of 115/95 mmHg. Chest sounds are clear and heart sounds are normal. She has a soft abdomen with a palpable uterus in keeping with 16 weeksâ gestation.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 92 g/l 115â155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 10.3 Ă 109/l 4.0â11.0 Ă 109/l
Neutrophils 7.1 Ă 109/l 2.5â7.5 Ă 109/l
Lymphocytes 0.9 Ă 109/l 0.8â5.0 Ă 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 57 Ă 109/l 150â400 Ă 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 136 mmol/l 135â145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5â5.0 mmol/l
Urea 17.3 mmol/l 1.8â7.1 mmol/l
Creatinine (Cr) 225”mol/l 50â120 ”mol/l
Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) 34 60+
Bilirubin 20”mol/l 1â22 ”mol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 35 U/l 7â55 U/l
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 85 U/l 30â150 U/l
Albumin 40 g/l 35â55 g/l
C-reactive protein (CRP) 9 mg/l < 10 mg/l
Which of the following is the best investigation to confirm the likely diagnosis?
Select ONE option onlyYour Answer: Lumbar puncture
Correct Answer: Blood film
Explanation:Investigations for Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura in a Pregnant Patient with Fever and Confusion
Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) should be considered in a pregnant patient presenting with fever, acute kidney injury, cerebral dysfunction, thrombocytopenia, and microangiopathic hemolytic anemia. To confirm the diagnosis, a blood film is needed to show the presence of schistocytes from the destruction of red blood cells. An abdominal ultrasound may be considered, but it will not aid in identifying the underlying diagnosis. Although a blood culture is appropriate, it would not confirm the diagnosis. A CT head or lumbar puncture may be useful in excluding visible organic pathology, but they do not play a role in the diagnosis of TTP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 94
Correct
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A 78-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a painless lump in her groin that she noticed 2 weeks ago. The lump has grown slightly since she first noticed it. On examination, a hard lump is palpable on her left labia majora and she has left inguinal lymphadenopathy. She has no significant past medical history and no known allergies.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Vulval carcinoma
Explanation:A possible diagnosis for an older woman with a labial lump and inguinal lymphadenopathy is vulval carcinoma, especially if the lump is firm and has grown rapidly over a short period of time. Risk factors for this condition include advanced age, smoking, and HPV infection. Bartholin’s cyst, condylomata lata, lipoma, and sebaceous cyst are less likely diagnoses, as they do not typically present with the same symptoms or risk factors as vulval carcinoma.
Understanding Vulval Carcinoma
Vulval carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the vulva, which is the external female genitalia. It is a relatively rare condition, with only around 1,200 cases diagnosed in the UK each year. The majority of cases occur in women over the age of 65 years, and around 80% of cases are squamous cell carcinomas.
There are several risk factors associated with vulval carcinoma, including human papilloma virus (HPV) infection, vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN), immunosuppression, and lichen sclerosus. Symptoms of vulval carcinoma may include a lump or ulcer on the labia majora, inguinal lymphadenopathy, and itching or irritation.
It is important for women to be aware of the risk factors and symptoms of vulval carcinoma, and to seek medical attention if they experience any concerning symptoms. Early detection and treatment can improve outcomes and increase the chances of a full recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man visits you to discuss his recent blood tests, which were part of a routine health screening conducted three days ago. He is currently on day five of antibiotics for community-acquired pneumonia, which was treated by one of your colleagues. Apart from this recent infection, he has no medical history and no new symptoms to report. His renal function is normal, and the rest of his blood tests are as follows:
- Hb: 110 g/l
- Platelets: 540 * 109/l
- WBC: 13 * 109/l
- MCV: 76 * 109/l
- Ferritin: 330 * 109/l
All values were normal one year ago. What is the most likely cause of his anemia?Your Answer: Anaemia of chronic disease
Correct Answer: Iron deficiency anaemia
Explanation:This man is suffering from microcytic anemia, which is typically caused by a lack of iron. It is important to note that he was unwell when his blood was taken, as inflammation can cause ferritin levels to rise and potentially mask true iron deficiency. Therefore, additional iron studies are necessary to confirm the diagnosis. While thalassemia can also lead to microcytic anemia, his previous blood test showed no abnormalities.
Microcytic Anaemia: Causes and Considerations
Microcytic anaemia is a condition characterized by small red blood cells and low haemoglobin levels. There are several possible causes of microcytic anaemia, including iron-deficiency anaemia, thalassaemia, congenital sideroblastic anaemia, and lead poisoning. It is important to note that while anaemia of chronic disease can also present with microcytosis, it typically appears as a normocytic, normochromic picture.
In some cases, a normal haemoglobin level may be observed alongside microcytosis. This can be a red flag for polycythaemia rubra vera, which can cause iron-deficiency secondary to bleeding. Additionally, new onset microcytic anaemia in elderly patients should be investigated promptly to rule out underlying malignancy. It is worth noting that in beta-thalassaemia minor, the microcytosis may be disproportionate to the anaemia.
Overall, understanding the potential causes and considerations of microcytic anaemia is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 96
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with painless, symmetrical swellings in his neck. He reports no other symptoms. Laboratory tests show a haemoglobin level of 10.0 g/dl and a white cell count of 23 Ă 109/l. A blood film reveals smear cells, with more than 60% of the cells being small mature lymphocytes. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)
Correct Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL)
Explanation:Differentiating Leukaemia and Lymphoma: Characteristics and Symptoms
Leukaemia and lymphoma are both types of blood cancer, but they have distinct characteristics and symptoms. In this context, we will discuss the characteristics and symptoms of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL), acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL), chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML), Hodgkin’s lymphoma (HL), and multiple myeloma (MM).
CLL is the most common leukaemia in adults, characterized by peripheral blood lymphocytosis and uncontrolled proliferation of B cell lymphocytes in the bone marrow, lymph nodes, and splenomegaly. Patients are often asymptomatic, and CLL is often picked up incidentally.
ALL is a common leukaemia of children aged 2â5 years and is very rare in adults.
CML tends to present with more systemic, B symptoms in a slightly younger age group. A classic symptom is a massive hepatosplenomegaly. Blood film would show PMNs, basophils, and myelocytes.
HL is a possibility in this age group; however, the question asks for the âmost likelyâ diagnosis, which would be CLL as it is more common in this age group and the western world. Further investigation would be used to confirm the diagnosis.
MM is the uncontrolled proliferation of plasma cells and does not present in the way described above. Bone pain, hypercalcaemia, renal failure, and neutropenia are common presentations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 97
Correct
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A 29-year-old female of Afro-Caribbean descent visits the oncology clinic after being referred by her primary care physician. She has observed some painless, asymmetrical lymphadenopathy lumps on her neck. She reports experiencing more night sweats lately and has noticed some discomfort when consuming alcohol.
What characteristic is linked to a negative prognosis for the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Night sweats
Explanation:Experiencing fever above 38ÂșC and night sweats in the past 6 months is linked to a poor prognosis if at least one of these ‘B’ symptoms is present. While acute lymphoblastic leukemia has a worse prognosis in individuals of Afro-Caribbean descent, Hodgkin’s lymphoma does not typically present with bone marrow failure and is more common in children. Alcohol-induced pain may be present in some cases of Hodgkin’s lymphoma, but it does not indicate a poor prognosis. While female sex is not linked to a poor prognosis, some studies suggest that males may have a worse outcome. Asymmetrical lymphadenopathy is a characteristic of Hodgkin’s lymphoma but has not been associated with a worse prognosis.
Understanding Hodgkin’s Lymphoma: Histological Classification and Prognosis
Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphocytes and is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. It is most commonly seen in individuals in their third and seventh decades of life. The histological classification of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is based on the type of cells present and their frequency. The most common type is nodular sclerosing, which is more common in women and has a good prognosis. Mixed cellularity is the second most common type and is associated with a large number of Reed-Sternberg cells. Lymphocyte predominant is a rare type with the best prognosis, while lymphocyte depleted is the rarest and has the worst prognosis.
In addition to the histological classification, there are other factors that can affect the prognosis of Hodgkin’s lymphoma. The presence of B symptoms, such as weight loss, fever, and night sweats, is associated with a poor prognosis. Other factors identified in a 1998 NEJM paper include age over 45 years, stage IV disease, low hemoglobin levels, low lymphocyte count, male gender, low albumin levels, and high white blood cell count. Understanding the histological classification and prognosis of Hodgkin’s lymphoma can help guide treatment decisions and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 98
Correct
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A 60-year-old patient presents with jaundice and an enlarged, nodular liver. A CT scan of the abdomen reveals a cirrhotic liver with a large mass, and CT-guided biopsy of the mass confirms a malignant tumour derived from hepatic parenchymal cells. Which virus is most likely directly related to the development of this tumour?
Your Answer: Hepatitis B virus
Explanation:Viral Infections and Their Link to Cancer
Hepatitis B, Epstein-Barr, human herpesvirus type 8, and human papillomavirus are all viral infections that have been linked to the development of cancer. Hepatitis B, for example, can lead to cirrhosis and ultimately hepatocellular carcinoma. Similarly, EBV has been associated with various malignancies, including lymphoproliferative disorders and nasopharyngeal carcinoma. HPV, on the other hand, is a common cause of genital warts and cervical cancer. It is important to recognize the early signs of these viral infections in order to prevent the development of cancer and improve prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man presents to the haematology clinic with fatigue, significant weight loss, and easy bruising over the past 2 years. His blood test results are as follows:
- Hemoglobin: 90 g/L (normal range for males: 135-180 g/L; females: 115-160 g/L)
- Platelets: 85 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L)
- White blood cells: 70.5 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L)
- Neutrophils: 61.8 * 109/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0 * 109/L)
- Lymphocytes: 1.2 * 109/L (normal range: 1.0-3.5 * 109/L)
- Monocytes: 3.0 * 109/L (normal range: 0.2-0.8 * 109/L)
- Eosinophils: 2.5 * 109/L (normal range: 0.0-0.4 * 109/L)
The blood film shows obvious leucocytosis with eosinophilia and basophilia visible. There are also large numbers of immature granulocytes, but no blast cells are visible. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Conservative management
Correct Answer: Imatinib
Explanation:The patient’s history and blood results suggest that they have chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML), which is characterized by a high white cell count due to an excess of myeloid cells and a chronic presentation. The absence of blast cells indicates that this is not acute leukaemia. The patient’s anaemia and thrombocytopenia are likely due to bone marrow dysfunction caused by myelofibrosis, indicating a need for treatment. The first-line treatment for CML is imatinib, a tyrosine kinase inhibitor that is taken as a daily tablet and has shown excellent results in treating CML.
Given the patient’s signs of bone marrow dysfunction, conservative management is not appropriate. While there may be a role for no treatment in early disease detected incidentally on a blood test, this patient requires treatment at this point.
It is important to note that fludarabine and cyclophosphamide are chemotherapy agents used in treating chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) and have no role in managing CML. The blood test abnormalities expected in CLL are similar to those seen in CML, but with a differential showing normal or low neutrophil and high lymphocyte counts.
Prednisolone, a glucocorticoid used to treat various conditions, is often used in treating different forms of lymphoma but is not effective in managing CML.
Understanding Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia and its Management
Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. It is characterized by the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome in more than 95% of patients. This chromosome is formed due to a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22, resulting in the fusion of the ABL proto-oncogene and the BCR gene. The resulting BCR-ABL gene produces a fusion protein that has excessive tyrosine kinase activity.
CML typically affects individuals between 60-70 years of age and presents with symptoms such as anaemia, weight loss, sweating, and splenomegaly. The condition is also associated with an increase in granulocytes at different stages of maturation and thrombocytosis. In some cases, CML may undergo blast transformation, leading to acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) or acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL).
The management of CML involves various treatment options, including imatinib, which is considered the first-line treatment. Imatinib is an inhibitor of the tyrosine kinase associated with the BCR-ABL defect and has a very high response rate in the chronic phase of CML. Other treatment options include hydroxyurea, interferon-alpha, and allogenic bone marrow transplant. With proper management, individuals with CML can lead a normal life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 100
Correct
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A 56-year-old man has been experiencing fatigue and bone pain, prompting his regular GP to conduct investigations. Blood tests revealed an elevated paraprotein level, leading to further investigations to rule out multiple myeloma as the primary differential. What other potential cause could result in a raised paraprotein level?
Your Answer: MGUS (Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance)
Explanation:MGUS is a possible differential diagnosis for elevated paraproteins in the blood.
Thrombocytopenia is a characteristic feature of haemolytic uraemic syndrome.
The presence of paraproteins in the blood is an abnormal finding and not a normal variant.
While a viral infection may cause neutropenia, it would not typically result in the presence of paraproteins in the blood.
Paraproteinaemia is a medical condition characterized by the presence of abnormal proteins in the blood. There are various causes of paraproteinaemia, including myeloma, monoclonal gammopathy of uncertain significance (MGUS), benign monoclonal gammopathy, Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia, amyloidosis, CLL, lymphoma, heavy chain disease, and POEMS. Benign monoclonal gammopathy can also cause paraproteinaemia, as well as non-lymphoid malignancy (such as colon or breast cancer), infections (such as CMV or hepatitis), and autoimmune disorders (such as RA or SLE).
Paraproteinaemia is a medical condition that is characterized by the presence of abnormal proteins in the blood. This condition can be caused by various factors, including myeloma, MGUS, benign monoclonal gammopathy, Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia, amyloidosis, CLL, lymphoma, heavy chain disease, and POEMS. Additionally, benign monoclonal gammopathy, non-lymphoid malignancy (such as colon or breast cancer), infections (such as CMV or hepatitis), and autoimmune disorders (such as RA or SLE) can also cause paraproteinaemia. It is important to identify the underlying cause of paraproteinaemia in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 101
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman is diagnosed with a DVT 2 weeks after undergoing a hip replacement surgery, despite being on prophylactic dose LMWH. She has a history of osteoarthritis but no other significant medical history. The treatment for her DVT is started with LMWH. What is the best anticoagulation plan for her?
Your Answer: Switch to direct oral anticoagulant for 6 months
Correct Answer: Switch to direct oral anticoagulant for 3 months
Explanation:For cases of venous thromboembolism that are provoked, such as those resulting from recent surgery, a standard length of warfarin treatment is 3 months. However, for unprovoked cases, the recommended length of treatment is 6 months.
NICE updated their guidelines on the investigation and management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020. The use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) is recommended as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis. The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy, with DOACs being the preferred choice. All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months, with the length of anticoagulation being determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 102
Incorrect
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Among the following groups of malignant tumours, which one is known for frequently metastasizing to bone?
Your Answer: Lung, breast, prostate, thyroid, brain
Correct Answer: Breast, prostate, kidney, lung, thyroid
Explanation:Metastasis Patterns of Common Tumours
Metastasis, the spread of cancer cells from the primary tumour to other parts of the body, is a major factor in cancer progression and treatment. Different types of cancer have different patterns of metastasis. Here are some common tumours and their predilection for dissemination to specific organs:
– Breast, prostate, kidney, lung, thyroid: These tumours have a predilection for dissemination to bone.
– Kidney, sarcoma, lung, thyroid: Sarcoma most commonly metastasises to the lungs.
– Breast, prostate, kidney, lymphoma: Tumours that commonly metastasise to the brain include those of the breast, lung, prostate, kidney and thyroid.
– Lung, breast, prostate, thyroid, brain: Primary brain tumours rarely metastasise to other parts of the body.
– Thyroid, brain, lung, liver, breast: Primary liver tumours most commonly metastasise to the lung, portal vein and portal nodes.Understanding the metastasis patterns of different tumours can help in early detection and targeted treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 103
Incorrect
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A 64-year-old woman presents to the clinic after undergoing a lumpectomy for a cancerous lump in her left breast. The histopathology report indicates that the tissue was oestrogen receptor-positive, and the patient is offered anastrozole therapy as adjuvant treatment. She has no significant medical history and is not currently taking any medications. The patient is eager to begin the recommended adjuvant therapy. What diagnostic tests should be conducted before initiating treatment?
Your Answer: Clotting screen
Correct Answer: DEXA scan
Explanation:Anastrozole, an aromatase inhibitor, is a recommended adjuvant therapy for patients with oestrogen positive cancer (ER+). However, it may lead to osteoporosis as an adverse effect. Therefore, NICE recommends performing a DEXA scan before initiating therapy. A clotting screen is not necessary before starting anastrozole, as it does not cause coagulopathies. ECGs are not required either, as cardiac changes and arrhythmias are not associated with this medication. Unlike certain medications like statins, anastrozole is not known to commonly affect lipid profiles, so it does not need to be monitored. Liver function tests are also not routinely assessed before starting anastrozole, as it is not known to affect liver function. However, it would have been appropriate to send a clotting screen before the patient’s lumpectomy.
Anti-oestrogen drugs are used in the management of oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer. Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulators (SERM) such as Tamoxifen act as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist. However, Tamoxifen can cause adverse effects such as menstrual disturbance, hot flushes, venous thromboembolism, and endometrial cancer. On the other hand, aromatase inhibitors like Anastrozole and Letrozole reduce peripheral oestrogen synthesis, which is important in postmenopausal women. Anastrozole is used for ER +ve breast cancer in this group. However, aromatase inhibitors can cause adverse effects such as osteoporosis, hot flushes, arthralgia, myalgia, and insomnia. NICE recommends a DEXA scan when initiating a patient on aromatase inhibitors for breast cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 104
Correct
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Which one of the following scenarios would not require immediate referral to the nearby breast service as per the guidelines of NICE?
Your Answer: 28-year-old female with a 8 week history of a new breast lump. Benign in nature on examination
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, women who are 30 years or older should be referred urgently to the local breast services if they have an unexplained breast lump with or without pain. As the woman in question is 28 years old, she should be referred to the local breast services, but it is not urgent.
In 2015, NICE released guidelines for referring individuals suspected of having breast cancer. If a person is 30 years or older and has an unexplained breast lump with or without pain, or if they are 50 years or older and have discharge, retraction, or other concerning changes in one nipple only, they should be referred using a suspected cancer pathway referral for an appointment within two weeks. If a person has skin changes that suggest breast cancer or is 30 years or older with an unexplained lump in the axilla, a suspected cancer pathway referral should also be considered. For individuals under 30 years old with an unexplained breast lump with or without pain, non-urgent referral should be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 105
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with lung cancer is currently on MST 30 mg bd for pain management. What dosage of oral morphine solution should be prescribed for his breakthrough pain?
Your Answer: 15 mg
Correct Answer: 10 mg
Explanation:The breakthrough dose should be 10 mg, which is one-sixth of the total daily morphine dose of 60 mg (30 mg taken twice a day).
Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 106
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 1-week history of epistaxis and bleeding gums. She recently recovered from influenza and has a history of hypothyroidism for which she takes levothyroxine. On examination, she has multiple bruises and petechiae over her lower limbs and trunk. Her investigations reveal a low platelet count and normal coagulation parameters. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
Explanation:The patient is likely suffering from immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), a condition where the immune system destroys platelets. This can be caused by autoantibodies targeting glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or IbâVâIX complexes, and is often seen in patients with autoimmune diseases. Acute cases can occur in children following a viral infection or vaccination, and symptoms typically include bleeding from the skin and mucous membranes. Given the patient’s history of hypothyroidism, ITP is a more likely diagnosis than other conditions such as Factor V Leiden, thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP), or von Willebrand’s disease (VWD). Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is also unlikely, as the patient’s coagulation profile is normal aside from the low platelet count.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 107
Correct
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A 68-year-old man who is a heavy smoker presents to his General Practitioner with shortness of breath and facial flushing.
On examination, you notice some facial swelling. You suspect a bronchial neoplasm with potential superior vena cava obstruction (SVCO) as a consequence of this.
Which of the following signs is most likely to be seen in this patient?Your Answer: Venous dilatation over the anterior chest wall
Explanation:Clinical Signs and Symptoms of Bronchial Neoplasm and SVCO
Bronchial neoplasm is highly likely in a patient presenting with venous dilatation over the anterior chest wall. The presence of facial swelling should alert healthcare professionals to the possibility of superior vena cava obstruction (SVCO), which can cause dilated subcutaneous veins, tissue edema, and shortness of breath. An SVCO is an oncological emergency that requires prompt treatment with steroids and diuretics. Lung carcinoma is the most common cause of SVCO, but it can also be caused by lymphomas and other types of cancer.
Other clinical signs and symptoms that may indicate lung cancer include expiratory wheeze, supraclavicular or cervical lymphadenopathy, finger clubbing, and cranial nerve palsy. However, these signs and symptoms are non-specific and may also be present in other chronic diseases. It is important to consider the patient’s overall clinical picture and perform appropriate diagnostic tests to confirm the diagnosis and determine the underlying cause of the symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 108
Incorrect
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Sophie, a 23-years old woman, visits her doctor complaining of frequent nosebleeds and unexplained bruising on her arms and legs. She mentions that her mother has also experienced similar issues but never sought medical attention. As a result, the doctor orders several blood tests to determine the most probable diagnosis.
What kind of results would be anticipated based on the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Normal bleeding time, normal platelet count, normal APTT
Correct Answer: Prolonged bleed time, normal platelet count, prolonged APTT
Explanation:Von Willebrand’s disease is a common genetic bleeding disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It behaves like a platelet disorder because von Willebrand Factor (vWF) is necessary for platelet adhesion to the damaged endothelium. As a result, patients experience mucocutaneous bleeding after minor injuries, such as nosebleeds and bruising. Bleeding time is prolonged because they cannot adhere to form the platelet plug, but the platelet count itself is normal. APTT is also prolonged because vWF acts as a carrier molecule for factor VIII, which is measured by APTT. This is also observed in haemophilia A, but to a greater extent.
Understanding Von Willebrand’s Disease
Von Willebrand’s disease is a common inherited bleeding disorder that is usually passed down in an autosomal dominant manner. It behaves like a platelet disorder, with symptoms such as nosebleeds and heavy menstrual bleeding being common, while joint and muscle bleeding are rare. The disease is caused by a deficiency or abnormality in von Willebrand factor, a large glycoprotein that promotes platelet adhesion to damaged endothelium and acts as a carrier molecule for factor VIII.
There are three types of Von Willebrand’s disease. Type 1 is the most common and is characterized by a partial reduction in von Willebrand factor. Type 2 is further divided into four subtypes, each with a different abnormality in the von Willebrand factor. Type 3 is the most severe form and is caused by a total lack of von Willebrand factor, inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.
Diagnosis of Von Willebrand’s disease involves tests such as a prolonged bleeding time, APTT, factor VIII levels, and platelet aggregation with ristocetin. Management options include tranexamic acid for mild bleeding, desmopressin to raise levels of von Willebrand factor, and factor VIII concentrate. While there is no clear correlation between symptomatic presentation and type of Von Willebrand’s disease, common themes among patients include excessive mucocutaneous bleeding, bruising in the absence of trauma, and menorrhagia in females.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 109
Correct
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A 48-year-old woman is referred to the oncology clinic by the local general surgeon. She has undergone a mastectomy for carcinoma of the right breast.
Which of the following factors is associated with a poor prognosis in patients with breast cancer?Your Answer: Young age
Explanation:Prognostic Factors in Breast Cancer and Their Impact on Survival
Breast cancer prognosis is influenced by several factors, including axillary nodal status, tumour type and grade, lymphatic/vascular invasion/proliferation markers, ethnicity, patient age at diagnosis, oestrogen receptor and progesterone receptor status, and HER2/neu overexpression. Younger patients tend to have more aggressive tumours, which increases their risk of recurrence and mortality over their lifetimes.
Oestrogen receptor-positive tumours have a better prognosis and can be treated with tamoxifen, which increases survival rates. Progesterone receptor-positive tumours also have a good prognosis and can be targeted using HER2 receptor modulators like tamoxifen. On the other hand, oestrogen receptor-negative and progesterone receptor-negative tumours are associated with a poor prognosis.
Tumour grade is another important prognostic factor, with high-grade tumours being linked to a poorer prognosis. Additionally, a positive lymph node status is a poor prognostic factor, as the risk of recurrence increases with the number of affected nodes.
In summary, understanding these prognostic factors can help healthcare professionals tailor treatment plans and provide patients with more accurate information about their prognosis and survival.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 110
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman is found to have breast cancer. She has no significant medical history, is premenopausal, and has no family history of breast or ovarian cancer. The cancer is in its early stages and she undergoes a wide-local excision followed by whole-breast radiotherapy. The pathology report reveals that the tumour is positive for oestrogen receptors but negative for HER2. What is the most probable adjuvant treatment that she will be recommended?
Your Answer: Tamoxifen
Explanation:The use of Tamoxifen is limited to pre-menopausal women, and there is a continuing discussion regarding the duration of therapy, whether it should be for 5 years or more.
Breast cancer management varies depending on the stage of the cancer, type of tumor, and patient’s medical history. Treatment options may include surgery, radiotherapy, hormone therapy, biological therapy, and chemotherapy. Surgery is typically the first option for most patients, except for elderly patients with metastatic disease who may benefit more from hormonal therapy. Prior to surgery, an axillary ultrasound is recommended for patients without palpable axillary lymphadenopathy, while those with clinically palpable lymphadenopathy require axillary node clearance. The type of surgery offered depends on various factors, such as tumor size, location, and type. Breast reconstruction is also an option for patients who have undergone a mastectomy.
Radiotherapy is recommended after a wide-local excision to reduce the risk of recurrence, while mastectomy patients may receive radiotherapy for T3-T4 tumors or those with four or more positive axillary nodes. Hormonal therapy is offered if tumors are positive for hormone receptors, with tamoxifen being used in pre- and peri-menopausal women and aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole in post-menopausal women. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial cancer, venous thromboembolism, and menopausal symptoms. Biological therapy, such as trastuzumab, is used for HER2-positive tumors but cannot be used in patients with a history of heart disorders. Chemotherapy may be used before or after surgery, depending on the stage of the tumor and the presence of axillary node disease. FEC-D is commonly used in the latter case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 111
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female patient visits the GP clinic with a tiny lump in her right breast. Upon examination, a smooth fluctuant lump is found in the right upper quadrant of the breast. The patient is referred to the breast clinic for an ultrasound scan, which reveals a 2cm cyst in the right upper quadrant of the breast. What is the most suitable course of action for management?
Your Answer: Reassure the patient and no follow-up required
Correct Answer: Aspiration of the cyst
Explanation:Aspirating breast cysts is necessary due to the potential risk of breast cancer, particularly in younger women. Merely monitoring the cysts with ultrasound or mammogram without aspiration is not a suitable approach. There is no need for wide local excision at this point. Providing false reassurance to the patient is not advisable.
Benign breast lesions have different features and treatments. Fibroadenomas are firm, mobile lumps that develop from a whole lobule and usually do not increase the risk of malignancy. Breast cysts are smooth, discrete lumps that may be aspirated, but blood-stained or persistently refilling cysts should be biopsied or excised. Sclerosing adenosis, radial scars, and complex sclerosing lesions cause mammographic changes that may mimic carcinoma, but do not increase the risk of malignancy. Epithelial hyperplasia may present as general lumpiness or a discrete lump, and atypical features and family history of breast cancer increase the risk of malignancy. Fat necrosis may mimic carcinoma and requires imaging and core biopsy. Duct papillomas usually present with nipple discharge and may require microdochectomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 112
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents to the Haematology Clinic with symptoms of bone pain and anaemia. The medical team suspects multiple myeloma (MM) and orders a set of blood tests, including a full blood count, urea, serum creatinine and electrolytes, serum calcium, albumin, serum protein electrophoresis, serum-free light-chain assay, and serum beta-2 microglobulin. The team also plans to perform an imaging investigation to look for osteolytic lesions. What initial scan should be ordered?
Your Answer: PET with 2-deoxy-2-[fluorine-18]fluoro-D-glucose integrated with computed tomography (FDG-PET-CT)
Correct Answer: Whole-body low-dose CT (WBLD-CT)
Explanation:When investigating suspected multiple myeloma (MM), it is crucial to use whole-body low-dose CT (WBLD-CT) imaging. This method is more effective than traditional radiology in detecting lytic lesions and should be the first option if available. Lesions with a diameter of 5mm or more are considered positive. If WBLD-CT and MRI fail to show lesions with a strong clinical indication, an FDG-PET or FDG-PET-CT can be used to detect bone lesions. During treatment follow-up, an FDG-PET-CT can detect active lesions and provide prognostic information. While a skeletal survey (X-ray) is less sensitive than WBLD-CT, it can still be useful. If suspicion remains high for MM despite negative WBLD-CT or skeletal survey results, a whole-body MRI should be performed. This method can detect focal lesions and bone marrow infiltration and may also be of prognostic value in asymptomatic patients. The presence of focal lesions is a strong predictor of progression to symptomatic MM.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 113
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with fatigue, lethargy, weight loss and night sweats for the past six weeks. Clinical examination is unremarkable. His past medical history includes ischaemic heart disease and hypertension. His GP orders a set of blood tests. The full blood count results are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 135 g/l 135â175 g/l
White Blood Cells 21.2 Ă 109/l 4â11 Ă 109/l
Neutrophils 2.8 Ă109/l 2.5â7.58 Ă109/l
Lymphocytes 18.2 Ă 109/l 1.5â3.5Ă 109/l
Platelets 160 g/l 150â400Ă 109/l
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Lymphoma
Correct Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL)
Explanation:Differential diagnosis for lymphocytosis in an elderly patient with vague symptoms
Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) is the most likely cause of lymphocytosis in an elderly patient who presents with vague symptoms such as weight loss, night sweats and fatigue for six weeks. CLL is one of the most common types of leukaemia in adults, typically occurring during or after middle age and rarely in children.
Other possible diagnoses can be ruled out based on additional clinical features. Patients with HIV tend to have lymphopenia, not lymphocytosis. Lymphomas usually present with an enlargement of a lymph node, which is not reported in this case. Patients with polymyalgia rheumatica tend to have a normal leukocyte count, with some cases having increased estimated sedimentation rate and/or C-reactive protein. A transient viral illness would be an unlikely cause of lymphocytosis in an elderly person with persistent symptoms.
Therefore, CLL should be considered as the most likely diagnosis in this case, and further tests such as flow cytometry and bone marrow biopsy may be needed to confirm the diagnosis and determine the stage of the disease. Treatment options for CLL depend on the stage and other factors such as age and overall health, and may include watchful waiting, chemotherapy, immunotherapy, or targeted therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 114
Correct
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A patient underwent an 80-cm ileum resection for Crohn's disease 2 years ago. She now presents with anaemia. Her haemoglobin is 88 g/l (female â 120â160 g/l) and mean corpuscular haemoglobin (Mean Corpuscular Volume) 105 fl/red cell (normal 80-96 fl/red cell.
Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Impaired vitamin B12 absorption
Explanation:Causes of Different Types of Anaemia
Anaemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in the number of red blood cells or a decrease in the amount of haemoglobin in the blood. There are different types of anaemia, and each has its own causes. Here are some of the causes of different types of anaemia:
Impaired Vitamin B12 Absorption: Vitamin B12 deficiency is a potential consequence of ileal resection and Crohnâs disease. Vitamin B12 injections may be required. Vitamin B12 deficiency causes a macrocytic anaemia.
Impaired Iron Absorption: Iron deficiency causes a microcytic anaemia. Iron deficiency anaemia is multifactorial, with gastrointestinal (GI), malabsorption and gynaecological causes being the most common causes. Ileal resection is not associated with impaired iron absorption, but gastrectomy can be.
Chronic Bleeding after Surgery: Iron deficiency due to chronic blood loss causes a microcytic anaemia. Acute blood loss would cause a normocytic anaemia.
Haemolysis: Haemolysis is the abnormal destruction of red blood cells. It causes a normocytic anaemia.
Bacterial Infection: A bacterial infection is not a common cause of anaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 115
Correct
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A 25-year-old female student attends the blood transfusion service wishing to donate blood. She is currently well, has never had a serious illness and weighs 60 kg. About three months ago she spent the summer doing voluntary work in Nigeria. She also had her ears pierced three years ago and had a tattoo put on her left arm one year ago. She is not acceptable as a donor.
Which of the following is the reason for her rejection to donate blood in the UK?Your Answer: Recent travel to an endemic area
Explanation:Blood Donation Eligibility Criteria: Factors to Consider
When it comes to donating blood, there are several factors to consider to ensure the safety of both the donor and the recipient. Here are some examples:
Recent travel to an endemic area: If a person has recently traveled to a country with a high risk of infectious diseases, they may have to wait a certain period before donating blood. For instance, if someone has returned from Nigeria, they must wait at least six months before donating blood in the UK.
Underweight: A person must weigh at least 50 kg to donate blood. If they weigh less than that, they may not have enough blood volume to spare.
Body piercing: If someone has had a body piercing within the last 12 months, they should inform the staff before donating blood. They may have to wait for at least four months before donating.
Tattoo: Similarly, if someone has had a tattoo within the last 12 months, they should inform the staff before donating blood. They may have to wait for at least four months before donating.
Age: To donate blood, a person must be between 17 and 66 years old (or 70 if they have donated blood before). If they are over 70, they can still donate if they have donated blood in the last two years.
By considering these factors, blood donation centers can ensure that the blood they collect is safe and suitable for transfusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 116
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner to discuss some recent blood tests which were taken for tri-monthly monitoring of her methotrexate. She has rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and takes methotrexate, folic acid and co-codamol.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 91 g/l 115â165 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.2 Ă 109/l 4.0â11.0 Ă 109/l
Platelets 228 Ă 109/l 150â400 Ă 109/l
Neutrophils 5.4 Ă 109/l 2.0â7.5 Ă 109/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 96 fl 85â105 fl
Mean corpuscular haemoglobin (MCH) 29 pg 27â32 pg
Sodium 138 mmol/l 135â145 mmol/l
Potassium 4.1 mmol/l 3.5â5.3 mmol/l
Urea 3.2 mmol/l 2.5â7.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 68 ”mol/l 53â100 ”mol/l
Estimated glomerular filtration rate > 90 ml/min per 1.73m2 > 90 ml/min per 1.73m2
What is the most likely cause of this patientâs anaemia?
Your Answer: Folate deficiency
Correct Answer: Anaemia of chronic disease
Explanation:Understanding the Causes of Normocytic Anaemia in a Patient with Rheumatoid Arthritis
The patient in question has been diagnosed with normocytic anaemia, which is characterized by normal MCV and MCH results. There are several potential causes of this type of anaemia, including renal failure, anaemia of chronic disease, and mixed iron and vitamin B12 or folate deficiency. However, given that the patient has rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and normal renal function, the most likely cause of her anaemia is a chronic disease. This is thought to be the result of chronic inflammation associated with diseases such as RA.
One potential complication of RA is Felty syndrome, which is characterized by a triad of conditions: RA, splenomegaly, and neutropenia. However, this patient has a normal WCC and neutrophil count, which rules out this diagnosis.
Vitamin B12 deficiency can also cause anaemia, but it typically results in macrocytic anaemia characterized by a raised MCV. In contrast, this patient has a normal MCV. Vitamin B12 deficiency is typically treated with oral supplements, unless intrinsic antibodies are present, in which case intramuscular B12 is needed.
Folate deficiency can also drive macrocytic anaemia, but this patient demonstrates normocytic anaemia. Methotrexate, which is commonly used to treat RA, is a folate antagonist, which is why the patient is also taking folic acid supplements to reduce the risk of developing folate deficiency.
Iron deficiency is another potential cause of anaemia, but it typically results in microcytic hypochromic anaemia characterized by low MCV and MCH. In contrast, this patient has normal MCV and MCH results. A combination of iron and vitamin B12 or folate deficiencies may result in normocytic anaemia, as can acute blood loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 117
Correct
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A 63-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer complains of worsening dyspnea. She is undergoing chemotherapy treatment. During the physical examination, a third heart sound is heard and the apex beat is displaced to the anterior axillary line in the 6th intercostal space. Which chemotherapy drug is most likely causing these symptoms?
Your Answer: Doxorubicin
Explanation:Cardiomyopathy can be caused by anthracyclines such as doxorubicin.
Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin, degrade preformed DNA and can lead to lung fibrosis. Anthracyclines, such as doxorubicin, stabilize the DNA-topoisomerase II complex and inhibit DNA and RNA synthesis, but can also cause cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, like methotrexate, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, leading to myelosuppression, mucositis, liver fibrosis, and lung fibrosis. Fluorouracil (5-FU) is a pyrimidine analogue that induces cell cycle arrest and apoptosis by blocking thymidylate synthase, but can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and dermatitis. Cytarabine is a pyrimidine antagonist that interferes with DNA synthesis specifically at the S-phase of the cell cycle and inhibits DNA polymerase, but can also cause myelosuppression and ataxia. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and vinblastine, inhibit the formation of microtubules and can cause peripheral neuropathy, paralytic ileus, and myelosuppression. Docetaxel prevents microtubule depolymerisation and disassembly, decreasing free tubulin, but can also cause neutropaenia. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA, but can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin, cause cross-linking in DNA and can lead to ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, and hypomagnesaemia. Hydroxyurea (hydroxycarbamide) inhibits ribonucleotide reductase, decreasing DNA synthesis, but can also cause myelosuppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 118
Correct
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A 25-year-old man with sickle cell anaemia complains of fatigue, paleness and a headache. Laboratory findings reveal Hb of 66 g/L and reticulocytes of 0.8%. The patient is suspected to have contracted parvovirus. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Aplastic crisis
Explanation:An aplastic crisis, often caused by parvovirus infection, is characterized by a sudden decrease in haemoglobin levels without a corresponding increase in reticulocytes.
Sickle cell anaemia is a condition that involves periods of good health with intermittent crises. There are several types of crises that can occur, including thrombotic or painful crises, sequestration, acute chest syndrome, aplastic, and haemolytic. Thrombotic crises, also known as painful crises or vaso-occlusive crises, are triggered by factors such as infection, dehydration, and deoxygenation. These crises are diagnosed clinically and can result in infarcts in various organs, including the bones, lungs, spleen, and brain.
Sequestration crises occur when sickling occurs within organs such as the spleen or lungs, leading to pooling of blood and worsening of anaemia. This type of crisis is associated with an increased reticulocyte count. Acute chest syndrome is caused by vaso-occlusion within the pulmonary microvasculature, resulting in infarction in the lung parenchyma. Symptoms include dyspnoea, chest pain, pulmonary infiltrates on chest x-ray, and low pO2. Management involves pain relief, respiratory support, antibiotics, and transfusion.
Aplastic crises are caused by infection with parvovirus and result in a sudden fall in haemoglobin. Bone marrow suppression leads to a reduced reticulocyte count. Haemolytic crises are rare and involve a fall in haemoglobin due to an increased rate of haemolysis. It is important to recognise and manage these crises promptly, as they can lead to serious complications and even death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 119
Correct
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A 65-year-old man who works as a pipe lagger is referred to you with a 6-month history of increasing shortness of breath and weight loss. He is a lifelong non-smoker and has always led a fit, healthy life. Clinical examination indicates a left pleural effusion, which is confirmed on the chest radiograph. Which of the following malignant causes is most likely? Select the SINGLE malignant cause from the list below. Select ONE option only.
Your Answer: Mesothelioma
Explanation:Understanding Mesothelioma and Other Possible Malignancies
Mesothelioma is a rare and aggressive form of cancer that is often linked to asbestos exposure. Those who worked as pipe laggers in the past were frequently exposed to asbestos, which can lead to mesothelioma. Symptoms of mesothelioma include cough, shortness of breath, chest pain, and weight loss. While the prognosis for mesothelioma remains poor, some cases can be surgically resected and chemotherapy can provide palliative care.
However, other malignancies can also present with similar symptoms, such as non-small-cell cancer, small-cell lung cancer, squamous-cell lung cancer, and bronchial carcinoid tumors. It is important to exclude these possibilities and properly diagnose the specific type of cancer in order to provide the most effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 120
Correct
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A 65-year-old man with a history of depression and lumbar spinal stenosis presents with a swollen and painful left calf. He is evaluated in the DVT clinic and a raised D-dimer is detected. A Doppler scan reveals a proximal deep vein thrombosis. Despite being active and feeling well, the patient has not undergone any recent surgeries or been immobile for an extended period. As a result, he is initiated on a direct oral anticoagulant. What is the optimal duration of treatment?
Your Answer: 6 months
Explanation:For provoked cases of venous thromboembolism, such as those following recent surgery, warfarin treatment is typically recommended for a duration of three months. However, for unprovoked cases, where the cause is unknown, a longer duration of six months is typically recommended.
NICE updated their guidelines on the investigation and management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020. The use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) is recommended as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis. The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy, with DOACs being the preferred choice. All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months, with the length of anticoagulation being determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 121
Correct
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A 27-year-old man with a medical history of sickle cell disease presents with intense pain in his left hip. He mentions having received antibiotics from his general practitioner for a chest infection. How would you categorize this sickle cell crisis?
Your Answer: Thrombotic crises
Explanation:Sickle cell patients may experience thrombotic crises due to factors such as infection, dehydration, or deoxygenation. In this case, the patient’s severe pain and recent infection suggest a thrombotic crisis. Other types of crises, such as sequestration crises that present with acute chest syndrome, aplastic crises caused by parvovirus infection, or haemolytic crises with increased haemolysis, may have different symptoms. A thyrotoxic crisis would not be related to sickle cell disease.
Sickle cell anaemia is a condition that involves periods of good health with intermittent crises. There are several types of crises that can occur, including thrombotic or painful crises, sequestration, acute chest syndrome, aplastic, and haemolytic. Thrombotic crises, also known as painful crises or vaso-occlusive crises, are triggered by factors such as infection, dehydration, and deoxygenation. These crises are diagnosed clinically and can result in infarcts in various organs, including the bones, lungs, spleen, and brain.
Sequestration crises occur when sickling occurs within organs such as the spleen or lungs, leading to pooling of blood and worsening of anaemia. This type of crisis is associated with an increased reticulocyte count. Acute chest syndrome is caused by vaso-occlusion within the pulmonary microvasculature, resulting in infarction in the lung parenchyma. Symptoms include dyspnoea, chest pain, pulmonary infiltrates on chest x-ray, and low pO2. Management involves pain relief, respiratory support, antibiotics, and transfusion.
Aplastic crises are caused by infection with parvovirus and result in a sudden fall in haemoglobin. Bone marrow suppression leads to a reduced reticulocyte count. Haemolytic crises are rare and involve a fall in haemoglobin due to an increased rate of haemolysis. It is important to recognise and manage these crises promptly, as they can lead to serious complications and even death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 122
Correct
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A 26-year-old female patient comes to the clinic after discovering a lump in her right breast. She is uncertain about how long it has been there and reports no pain or other symptoms. She has no significant medical history. During the physical examination, a smooth, rubbery, mobile mass of approximately 2 cm in diameter is palpated. The patient is immediately referred for imaging, which reveals a small, lobulated lesion measuring about 2.5cm in width, highly suggestive of a fibroadenoma. What is the next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Reassurance and monitoring
Explanation:A young patient has a small fibroadenoma <3 cm, which is highly suggestive on imaging. There is no increase in the risk of breast cancer, so a core-needle biopsy is not necessary. Watchful waiting is appropriate, and cryoablation may be used for larger fibroadenomas. Fine-needle aspiration is only necessary for larger lumps or in older patients. Understanding Breast Fibroadenoma Breast fibroadenoma is a type of breast mass that develops from a whole lobule. It is characterized by a mobile, firm, and smooth lump in the breast, which is often referred to as a breast mouse. Fibroadenoma accounts for about 12% of all breast masses and is more common in women under the age of 30. Fortunately, fibroadenomas are usually benign and do not increase the risk of developing breast cancer. In fact, over a two-year period, up to 30% of fibroadenomas may even get smaller on their own. However, if the lump is larger than 3 cm, surgical excision is typically recommended. In summary, breast fibroadenoma is a common type of breast mass that is usually benign and does not increase the risk of breast cancer. While it may cause concern for some women, it is important to remember that most fibroadenomas do not require treatment and may even resolve on their own.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 123
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman presents to her GP with whole-body itching which is worse after she has taken a bath, tingling and burning sensations in her hands and feet, and headaches. She has felt fatigued over the past year and a half, however, the symptoms of itching and tingling peripheries have only been present for the past 3 months. On examination, she is noted to have a palpable spleen which is 3 cm below the costal angle. She has a full blood count which shows:
Hb 184 g/L Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 380 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 9.0 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
What is the recommended first-line treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Phlebotomy
Explanation:The primary treatment for polycythaemia vera is venesection, which is used to maintain normal levels of haemoglobin. This patient is displaying symptoms consistent with the condition, including pruritis, numbness and tingling in the extremities, headaches, lethargy, and splenomegaly. Venesection involves removing blood from the patient to reduce haemoglobin levels, and may need to be performed weekly initially, but can be spaced out to every 6-12 weeks once the condition is under control. Ibuprofen is not a recommended treatment for polycythaemia vera, but aspirin can be used to reduce the risk of clotting. Paroxetine has been studied as a treatment for pruritis associated with polycythaemia vera, but should not be used as a replacement for venesection. Ruxolitinib is a medication used to prevent thrombus formation in patients who are resistant or intolerant to hydroxyurea, but is not a first-line treatment for the condition.
Polycythaemia vera is a condition where a single marrow stem cell undergoes clonal proliferation, leading to an increase in red cell volume, as well as an overproduction of neutrophils and platelets. This disorder is most commonly seen in individuals in their sixth decade of life and is characterized by symptoms such as hyperviscosity, pruritus, and splenomegaly.
The management of polycythaemia vera involves several approaches. Aspirin is often prescribed to reduce the risk of thrombotic events. Venesection is the first-line treatment to keep the haemoglobin levels within the normal range. Chemotherapy, such as hydroxyurea, may also be used, but it carries a slight increased risk of secondary leukaemia. Phosphorus-32 therapy is another option.
The prognosis for polycythaemia vera is variable. Thrombotic events are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. Additionally, 5-15% of patients may progress to myelofibrosis, while another 5-15% may develop acute leukaemia, with the risk being increased with chemotherapy treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 124
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man visited his GP after he discovered a solid lump in his left testis.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Seminoma
Correct Answer: Teratoma
Explanation:Common Scrotal Conditions: Understanding Testicular Lumps and Swellings
Testicular lumps and swellings can be a cause for concern, but not all of them are cancerous. In fact, most scrotal conditions are benign and can be easily treated. Here are some common scrotal conditions and their characteristics:
Teratoma: This solid testicular lump is suggestive of a tumour and typically presents in young soldiers aged 20-30 years.
Seminoma: This tumour usually presents in more senior soldiers aged 35-45 years.
Epididymal cyst: This benign, fluid-filled lump is usually found at the head of the epididymis and is separate from the testis.
Hydrocele: This painless, cystic, scrotal swelling lies below and anterior to the testes and will normally transilluminate.
Varicocele: This painless swelling of the testes on the left side (rarely on the right) is described as a bag of worms within the spermatic cord above the testis. It tends to occur in those aged 12+ years and is associated with infertility in approximately a quarter of men with abnormal semen parameters.
If you notice any changes in your scrotum, it is important to seek medical attention. Your healthcare provider can help determine the cause of the lump or swelling and recommend appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 125
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman with a 30-pack-year history of smoking visits her General Practitioner with complaints of dark urine, nausea and overall weakness. She reports experiencing a seizure and was admitted to the hospital where she was diagnosed with a 'hormone tumor'. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pancreatic cancer
Correct Answer: Small-cell carcinoma of the lung (SCLC)
Explanation:Small-cell carcinoma of the lung (SCLC) is a type of lung cancer that is often associated with a condition called syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone syndrome (SIADH). SIADH is caused by the abnormal release of anti-diuretic hormone (ADH), which leads to impaired water excretion and hyponatremia. This can result in symptoms such as nausea, weakness, confusion, and seizures. While SCLC is the most common cause of SIADH, it can also be caused by other types of cancer, certain drugs, intracranial lesions, and infections. Squamous-cell carcinoma (SCC) of the lung, on the other hand, does not typically result in SIADH as it does not originate from neuroendocrine cells. Pancreatic cancer can also cause SIADH, but it is less common than in SCLC. Prostate cancer, which is the second most common cancer globally, does not usually present with hormonal effects but rather with lower urinary tract symptoms. Bronchial carcinoid tumors, which are neuroendocrine tumors of the lung, can cause hormonal effects such as weight gain, high blood pressure, and hirsutism, but these symptoms are not indicated in the scenario given.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 126
Correct
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A 32-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his physician due to bone pain, weakness, and splenomegaly. He has been experiencing increasing fatigue and weakness while performing his daily tasks over the past few weeks. During the examination, he appears extremely pale and has petechiae on his lower limbs. After a bone marrow sample is taken, he is diagnosed with acute promyelocytic leukemia (APML). What is the most probable finding on his blood film?
Your Answer: Auer rods
Explanation:A finding of Auer rods on a blood film strongly indicates the presence of acute promyelocytic leukemia.
The correct answer is ‘Auer rods’. This patient has been diagnosed with APML, and the most common finding on a blood film associated with this is Auer rods. These are needle-like structures that are large, pink or red stained and can be seen within the cytoplasm of myeloid blast cells.
‘Tear-drop’ poikilocytes are typically found in myelofibrosis, which is characterized by flat, elongated red blood cells that resemble a tear-drop in shape. This occurs due to the squeezing of cells through fibrotic tissue in bone marrow in myelofibrotic disorders.
Smear cells are usually seen in chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL), which are remnants of cells that lack identifiable plasma membrane or nuclear structure.
Spherocytes are generally found in hereditary spherocytosis or autoimmune hemolytic anemia, which are red blood cells that are sphere-shaped and more fragile than normal red blood cells due to abnormalities in the red cell membrane.
Acute myeloid leukaemia is a common form of acute leukaemia in adults that may occur as a primary disease or following a myeloproliferative disorder. Symptoms are related to bone marrow failure and include anaemia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, splenomegaly, and bone pain. Poor prognostic features include age over 60, >20% blasts after first course of chemo, and deletions of chromosome 5 or 7. Acute promyelocytic leukaemia M3 is associated with t(15;17) and has a good prognosis. The French-American-British classification system includes seven subtypes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 127
Correct
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An 85-year-old man has just undergone an emergency repair for a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm. Preoperatively he was taking aspirin and warfarin; intraoperatively he received unfractionated heparin prior to application of the aortic cross-clamp. His observation findings are heart rate 120 bpm, BP 100/60 mmHg, respiratory rate 23/min, oxygen saturation 98% on air, temperature 38ÂșC. His blood results on admission to the critical care unit are as follows:
Hb 110 g/L
Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 30 * 109/L
(150 - 400)
WBC 15 * 109/L
(4.0 - 11.0)
Fibrinogen 0.5 g/L
(2-4 g/L)
PT 20 seconds
(10-12 seconds)
APTT 60 seconds
(35-45 seconds)
FDP 60 ug/mL
(<10 ug/mL)
What is the most likely explanation for the blood abnormalities seen in this case?Your Answer: Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for the patient’s deranged vital signs after a major operation and suspected sepsis is disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). This is characterized by low platelets, increased clotting time, and raised fibrin degradation products (FDPs). DIC is often caused by the release of tissue factor (TF) in response to cytokines, tumor necrosis factor, and endotoxin. Anastomotic leak, heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, warfarin use, and aspirin use are unlikely causes based on the patient’s history and blood results.
Understanding Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) Diagnosis
Under normal conditions, coagulation and fibrinolysis work together to maintain homeostasis. However, in DIC, these processes become dysregulated, leading to widespread clotting and bleeding. One key factor in the development of DIC is the release of tissue factor (TF), a glycoprotein found on the surface of various cell types. Normally, TF is not in contact with the general circulation, but it is exposed after vascular damage or in response to certain cytokines. Once activated, TF triggers the extrinsic pathway of coagulation, which then triggers the intrinsic pathway. DIC can be caused by various factors, including sepsis, trauma, obstetric complications, and malignancy.
To diagnose DIC, a typical blood picture will show decreased platelets and fibrinogen, increased fibrinogen degradation products, and the presence of schistocytes due to microangiopathic hemolytic anemia. Additionally, both the prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time are prolonged, while bleeding time and platelet count are often low. Understanding the diagnosis of DIC is crucial for prompt and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 128
Correct
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A 25-year-old male comes to the emergency department complaining of cough, fever and difficulty breathing. During the examination, he is found to be hypoxic and chest x-ray reveals pulmonary infiltrates. He has been experiencing anaemia, jaundice and weakness since he was 6 months old, and also suffers from severe pain when exposed to cold temperatures. What is the probable underlying condition?
Your Answer: Sickle cell disease
Explanation:When a patient with sickle cell disease experiences dyspnoea, chest pain, cough, hypoxia, and new pulmonary infiltrates on chest x-ray, it is likely that they are suffering from acute chest syndrome. This is a complication specific to sickle cell anaemia, and is characterized by the presence of these symptoms along with the aforementioned pulmonary infiltrates.
Sickle cell anaemia is a condition that involves periods of good health with intermittent crises. There are several types of crises that can occur, including thrombotic or painful crises, sequestration, acute chest syndrome, aplastic, and haemolytic. Thrombotic crises, also known as painful crises or vaso-occlusive crises, are triggered by factors such as infection, dehydration, and deoxygenation. These crises are diagnosed clinically and can result in infarcts in various organs, including the bones, lungs, spleen, and brain.
Sequestration crises occur when sickling occurs within organs such as the spleen or lungs, leading to pooling of blood and worsening of anaemia. This type of crisis is associated with an increased reticulocyte count. Acute chest syndrome is caused by vaso-occlusion within the pulmonary microvasculature, resulting in infarction in the lung parenchyma. Symptoms include dyspnoea, chest pain, pulmonary infiltrates on chest x-ray, and low pO2. Management involves pain relief, respiratory support, antibiotics, and transfusion.
Aplastic crises are caused by infection with parvovirus and result in a sudden fall in haemoglobin. Bone marrow suppression leads to a reduced reticulocyte count. Haemolytic crises are rare and involve a fall in haemoglobin due to an increased rate of haemolysis. It is important to recognise and manage these crises promptly, as they can lead to serious complications and even death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 129
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents approximately 2 weeks after a viral illness with petechiae, easy bruising, gum bleeding and lesions of the oral mucosa and tongue. He has no personal or family history of note and is not taking any medication. Physical examination is normal, except for petechiae, bruising and oral lesions. An image of the patient's tongue is shown below. What is the most appropriate initial investigation/management option for this clinical scenario and image?
Your Answer: Excision biopsy
Correct Answer: Full blood count
Explanation:Diagnosis and Investigation of Immune Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP)
Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is an autoimmune disorder characterized by antiplatelet antibodies and immune-mediated platelet destruction, leading to a decrease in peripheral platelet count and an increased risk of severe bleeding. The following are the recommended diagnostic and investigative measures for ITP:
Full Blood Count: An urgent first-line investigation with a full blood count is essential to confirm platelet count, which is the hallmark of ITP. Anaemia and/or neutropenia may indicate other diseases. On peripheral blood smear, the morphology of red blood cells and leukocytes is normal, while the morphology of platelets is usually normal, with varying numbers of large platelets.
Surgical Correction: Surgical management is not the first-line intervention for ITP and is reserved for later use in patients with acute ITP, for whom splenectomy usually results in rapid, complete, and life-long clinical remission. Its results in patients with chronic ITP are typically less predictable.
Aspiration for Cytology: Further investigations, such as bone marrow aspiration, could be considered for later use in patients with ITP, such as adults older than 60 years, to exclude myelodysplastic syndrome or leukemia.
Excision Biopsy: Further investigations, such as a biopsy, could be considered further down the line, such as in adults older than 60 years, to exclude myelodysplastic syndrome or leukemia.
None: If a patient presents with purpura/petechiae on the tongue and buccal mucosa, urgent haematological referral is warranted, and not undertaking any further investigations would be inappropriate.
Diagnosis and Investigation of Immune Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 130
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman presents with swelling and pain in one calf. Upon Doppler ultrasound scan, an unprovoked DVT is discovered. She expresses a strong desire to start a family with her partner within the next year. Which medication would be the most appropriate choice?
Your Answer: Warfarin
Correct Answer: Low molecular weight heparin
Explanation:Warfarin is not recommended for treating VTE in pregnancy due to its teratogenic effects. LMWH is the first-line treatment with below-knee compression stockings as an adjunct. Aspirin is not a suitable treatment for VTE.
Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant used to manage venous thromboembolism and reduce stroke risk in patients with atrial fibrillation. It inhibits epoxide reductase, preventing the reduction of vitamin K and the carboxylation of clotting factors. Warfarin is monitored using the INR and may take several days to achieve a stable level. Factors that may potentiate warfarin include liver disease, P450 enzyme inhibitors, cranberry juice, and NSAIDs. Side effects include haemorrhage, teratogenicity, skin necrosis, and purple toes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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