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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man visits his doctor seeking assistance in quitting smoking. He has been smoking 20 cigarettes daily for the past six years and has a history of epilepsy. Which smoking cessation aid is most likely to result in adverse effects for this individual?
Your Answer: Behavioural therapy
Correct Answer: Bupropion
Explanation:Options for Smoking Cessation in Patients with Seizure History
Patients with a predisposition or past history of seizures should avoid bupropion due to an increased risk of seizures. The Medicines and Health products Regulatory Authority (MHRA) warns against prescribing bupropion to patients who experience seizures. However, behavioural therapy is encouraged for all patients who wish to quit smoking. E-cigarettes can be a safer alternative and may eventually help patients quit entirely, but they are not currently funded by the NHS. Nicotine replacement therapy in the form of patches or gum can also be used. Varenicline is cautioned but not contraindicated for use in patients with seizures, so it should only be used if the benefits outweigh the risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man who is a smoker presents with gradual-onset shortness of breath, over the last month. Chest radiograph shows a right pleural effusion.
What would be the most appropriate next investigation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pleural aspirate
Explanation:Investigations for Pleural Effusion: Choosing the Right Test
When a patient presents with dyspnoea and a suspected pleural effusion, choosing the right investigation is crucial for accurate diagnosis and management. Here are some of the most appropriate investigations for different types of pleural effusions:
1. Pleural aspirate: This is the most appropriate next investigation to measure the protein content and determine whether the fluid is an exudate or a transudate.
2. Computerised tomography (CT) of the chest: An exudative effusion would prompt investigation with CT of the chest or thoracoscopy to look for conditions such as malignancy or tuberculosis (TB).
3. Bronchoscopy: Bronchoscopy would be appropriate if there was need to obtain a biopsy for a suspected tumour, but so far no lesion has been identified.
4. Echocardiogram: A transudative effusion would prompt investigations such as an echocardiogram to look for heart failure, or liver imaging to look for cirrhosis.
5. Spirometry: Spirometry would have been useful if chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) was suspected, but at this stage the pleural effusion is likely the cause of dyspnoea and should be investigated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man with cystic fibrosis (CF) arrives at the Emergency Department (ED) with haemoptysis. During his stay in the ED, he experiences another episode of frank haemoptysis, which measures 180 ml.
A prompt computed tomography (CT) aortogram is conducted, revealing dilated and tortuous bronchial arteries.
What action could potentially harm the management of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Non-invasive ventilation
Explanation:Treatment options for massive haemoptysis in cystic fibrosis patients
Massive haemoptysis in cystic fibrosis (CF) patients can be a life-threatening complication. Non-invasive ventilation is not recommended as it may increase the risk of aspiration of blood and disturb clot formation. IV antibiotics should be given to treat acute inflammation related to pulmonary infection. Tranexamic acid, an anti-fibrinolytic drug, can be given orally or intravenously up to four times per day until bleeding is controlled. CF patients have impaired absorption of fat-soluble vitamins, including vitamin K, which may lead to prolonged prothrombin time. In such cases, IV vitamin K should be given. Bronchial artery embolisation is often required to treat massive haemoptysis, particularly when larger hypertrophied bronchial arteries are seen on CT. This procedure is performed by an interventional vascular radiologist and may be done under sedation or general anaesthetic if the patient is in extremis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 4
Incorrect
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After reviewing a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in clinic, the respiratory consultant discusses the anatomy of the lungs with a group of undergraduate students.
With regard to the lungs, which one of the following statements is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The lungs receive a dual blood supply
Explanation:Facts about the Anatomy of the Lungs
The lungs are a vital organ responsible for respiration. Here are some important facts about their anatomy:
– The lungs receive a dual blood supply from the pulmonary artery and the bronchial arteries. A pulmonary embolus may only result in infarction when the circulation is already inadequate.
– The left lung has two lobes, while the right lung has three. The horizontal fissure is present only in the right lung.
– Each lung has ten bronchopulmonary segments, which can be selectively removed surgically if diseased.
– The right bronchus is shorter, wider, and more vertical than the left bronchus, making it more likely for foreign bodies to enter it. Aspiration pneumonia and abscess formation are common in the apical segment of the right lower lobe.Important Facts about the Anatomy of the Lungs
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old female patient complained of cough with heavy sputum production, shortness of breath, and a low-grade fever. She has been smoking 20 cigarettes per day for the past 25 years. Upon examination, her arterial blood gases showed a pH of 7.4 (normal range: 7.36-7.44), pCO2 of 6 kPa (normal range: 4.5-6), and pO2 of 7.9 kPa (normal range: 8-12). Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic bronchitis
Explanation:Diagnosis of Acute Exacerbation of Chronic Obstructive Airways Disease
There is a high probability that the patient is experiencing an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive airways disease (COAD), particularly towards the chronic bronchitic end of the spectrum. This conclusion is based on the patient’s symptoms and the relative hypoxia with high pCO2. The diagnosis suggests that the patient’s airways are obstructed, leading to difficulty in breathing and reduced oxygen supply to the body. The exacerbation may have been triggered by an infection or exposure to irritants such as cigarette smoke. Early intervention is crucial to manage the symptoms and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old male is brought in with acute severe asthma. During examination, it is noted that his peripheral pulse volume decreases during inspiration. What is the most probable reason for this clinical finding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced left atrial filling pressure on inspiration
Explanation:Pulsus Paradoxus
Pulsus paradoxus is a medical condition where there is an abnormal drop in blood pressure during inhalation. This occurs when the right heart responds directly to changes in intrathoracic pressure, while the filling of the left heart depends on the pulmonary vascular volume. In cases of severe airflow limitation, such as acute asthma, high respiratory rates can cause sudden negative intrathoracic pressure during inhalation. This enhances the normal fall in blood pressure, leading to pulsus paradoxus.
It is important to understand the underlying mechanisms of pulsus paradoxus to properly diagnose and treat the condition. By recognizing the relationship between intrathoracic pressure and blood pressure, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate interventions to manage the symptoms and prevent complications. With proper management, patients with pulsus paradoxus can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man, who had recently undergone a full bone marrow transplantation for acute myeloid leukaemia (AML), presented with progressive dyspnoea over the past 2 weeks. He also had a dry cough, but no fever. During examination, scattered wheeze and some expiratory high-pitched sounds were observed. The C-reactive protein (CRP) level was normal, and the Mantoux test was negative. Spirometry results showed a Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) of 51%, Forced vital capacity (FVC) of 88%, and FEV1/FVC of 58%. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bronchiolitis obliterans
Explanation:Understanding Bronchiolitis Obliterans: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment Options
Bronchiolitis obliterans (BO) is a condition that can occur in patients who have undergone bone marrow, heart, or lung transplants. It is characterized by an obstructive picture on spirometry, which may be accompanied by cough, cold, dyspnea, tachypnea, chest wall retraction, and cyanosis. The pulmonary defect is usually irreversible, and a CT scan may show areas of air trapping. Common infections associated with bronchiolitis include influenzae, adenovirus, Mycoplasma, and Bordetella. In adults, bronchiolitis is mainly caused by Mycoplasma, while among connective tissue disorders, BO is found in rheumatoid arthritis and, rarely, in Sjögren’s syndrome or systemic lupus erythematosus. Treatment options include corticosteroids, with variable results. Lung biopsy reveals concentric inflammation and fibrosis around bronchioles. Other conditions, such as acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), drug-induced lung disorder, fungal infection, and pneumocystis pneumonia, have different clinical findings and require different treatment approaches.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents to a spirometry clinic with a history of progressive dyspnea on exertion over the past six months, particularly when hurrying or walking uphill. What spirometry result would indicate a possible diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Interpreting Spirometry Results: Understanding FEV1 and FEV1/FVC Ratio
Spirometry is a common diagnostic test used to assess lung function. It measures the amount of air that can be exhaled forcefully and quickly after taking a deep breath. Two important measurements obtained from spirometry are the forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) and the ratio of FEV1 to forced vital capacity (FVC).
Identifying an obstructive disease pattern
In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), the airways are obstructed, resulting in a reduced FEV1. However, the lung volume is relatively normal, and therefore the FVC will be near normal too. COPD is diagnosed as an FEV1 < 80% predicted and an FEV1/FVC < 0.70. Understanding the clinical scenario While an FEV1 < 30% predicted and an FEV1/FVC < 0.70 indicate an obstructive picture, it is important to refer to the clinical scenario. Shortness of breath on mild exertion, particularly walking up hills or when hurrying, is likely to relate to an FEV1 between 50-80%, defined by NICE as moderate airflow obstruction. Differentiating between obstructive and restrictive lung patterns An FVC < 80% expected value is indicative of a restrictive lung pattern. In COPD, the FVC is usually preserved or increased, hence the FEV1/FVC ratio decreases. An FEV1 of <0.30 indicates severe COPD, but it is not possible to have an FEV1/FVC ratio of > 0.70 with an FEV1 this low in COPD. It is important to note, however, that in patterns of restrictive lung disease, you can have a reduced FEV1 with a normal FEV1/FVC ratio.
Conclusion
Interpreting spirometry results requires an understanding of FEV1 and FEV1/FVC ratio. Identifying an obstructive disease pattern, understanding the clinical scenario, and differentiating between obstructive and restrictive lung patterns are crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old retired caretaker with a well-documented history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted, for his fourth time this year, with shortness of breath and a cough productive of green sputum. Examination findings are: respiratory rate (RR) 32 breaths/min, temperature 37.4 °C, SpO2 86% on room air, asterixis and coarse crepitations at the left base. A chest X-ray (CXR) confirms left basal consolidation.
Which arterial blood gas (ABG) picture is likely to belong to the above patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: pH: 7.27, pa (O2): 7.1, pa (CO2): 8.9, HCO3–: 33.20, base excess (BE) 4.9 mmol
Explanation:Interpreting Blood Gas Results in COPD Patients
COPD is a common respiratory disease that can lead to exacerbations requiring hospitalization. In these patients, lower respiratory tract infections can quickly lead to respiratory failure and the need for respiratory support. Blood gas results can provide important information about the patient’s respiratory and metabolic status. In COPD patients, a type II respiratory failure with hypercapnia and acidosis is common, resulting in a low pH and elevated bicarbonate levels. However, blood gas results that show low carbon dioxide or metabolic acidosis are less likely to be in keeping with COPD. Understanding and interpreting blood gas results is crucial in managing COPD exacerbations and providing appropriate respiratory support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old man presents to the Respiratory Clinic with a history of two episodes of right-sided bronchial pneumonia in the past 2 months, which have not completely resolved. He has been a heavy smoker, consuming 30 cigarettes per day since he was 16 years old. On examination, he has signs consistent with COPD and right-sided consolidation on respiratory examination. His BMI is 18. Further investigations reveal a right hilar mass measuring 4 x 2 cm in size on chest X-ray, along with abnormal laboratory values including low haemoglobin, elevated WCC, and corrected calcium levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma of the bronchus
Explanation:Types of Bronchial Carcinomas
Bronchial carcinomas are a type of lung cancer that originates in the bronchial tubes. There are several types of bronchial carcinomas, each with their own characteristics and treatment options.
Squamous cell carcinoma of the bronchus is the most common type of bronchial carcinoma, accounting for 42% of cases. It typically occurs in the central part of the lung and is strongly associated with smoking. Patients with squamous cell carcinoma may also present with hypercalcemia.
Bronchial carcinoids are rare and slow-growing tumors that arise from the bronchial mucosa. They are typically benign but can become malignant in some cases.
Large cell bronchial carcinoma is a heterogeneous group of tumors that lack the organized features of other lung cancers. They tend to grow quickly and are often found in the periphery of the lung.
Small cell bronchial carcinoma is a highly aggressive type of lung cancer that grows rapidly and spreads early. It is strongly associated with smoking and is often found in the central part of the lung.
Adenocarcinoma of the bronchus is the least associated with smoking and typically presents with lesions in the lung peripheries rather than near the bronchus.
In summary, the type of bronchial carcinoma a patient has can vary greatly and can impact treatment options and prognosis. It is important for healthcare providers to accurately diagnose and classify the type of bronchial carcinoma to provide the best possible care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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