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Question 1
Incorrect
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As the pregnancy progresses, at what stage does the foetus typically begin producing surfactant?
A mother has been informed that she will have to deliver her baby prematurely due to complications in the pregnancy. To decrease the chances of neonatal distress syndrome, doctors have administered steroids to stimulate surfactant production in the foetus. They clarify that the foetus is already generating its own surfactant, and these steroids will enhance the process.Your Answer: Week 18
Correct Answer: Week 22
Explanation:Lung development in humans begins at week 4 with the formation of the respiratory diverticulum. By week 10, the lungs start to grow as tertiary bronchial buds form. Terminal bronchioles begin to form around week 18. The saccular stage of lung development, which marks the earliest viability for a human fetus, occurs at around 22-24 weeks when type 2 alveolar cells start producing surfactant. By week 30, the primary alveoli form as the mesenchyme surrounding the lungs becomes highly vascular.
The Importance of Pulmonary Surfactant in Breathing
Pulmonary surfactant is a substance composed of phospholipids, carbohydrates, and proteins that is released by type 2 pneumocytes. Its main component, dipalmitoyl phosphatidylcholine (DPPC), plays a crucial role in reducing alveolar surface tension. This substance is first detectable around 28 weeks and increases in concentration as the alveoli decrease in size. This helps prevent the alveoli from collapsing and reduces the muscular force needed to expand the lungs, ultimately decreasing the work of breathing. Additionally, pulmonary surfactant lowers the elastic recoil at low lung volumes, preventing the alveoli from collapsing at the end of each expiration. Overall, pulmonary surfactant is essential in maintaining proper lung function and preventing respiratory distress.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the following paraneoplastic manifestations is the LEAST frequent in individuals diagnosed with squamous cell lung carcinoma?
Your Answer: Clubbing
Correct Answer: Lambert-Eaton syndrome
Explanation:Small cell lung cancer is strongly associated with Lambert-Eaton syndrome, while squamous cell lung cancer is more commonly associated with paraneoplastic features such as PTHrp, clubbing, and HPOA.
Lung cancer can present with paraneoplastic features, which are symptoms caused by the cancer but not directly related to the tumor itself. Small cell lung cancer can cause the secretion of ADH and, less commonly, ACTH, which can lead to hypertension, hyperglycemia, hypokalemia, alkalosis, and muscle weakness. Lambert-Eaton syndrome is also associated with small cell lung cancer. Squamous cell lung cancer can cause the secretion of parathyroid hormone-related protein, leading to hypercalcemia, as well as clubbing and hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy. Adenocarcinoma can cause gynecomastia and hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy. Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is a painful condition involving the proliferation of periosteum in the long bones. Although traditionally associated with squamous cell carcinoma, some studies suggest that adenocarcinoma is the most common cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by his mother. He is agitated, restless, and anxious.
Upon examination, dilated pupils are observed, and an ECG reveals sinus tachycardia.
The patient has a medical history of chronic asthma and is currently taking modified-release theophylline tablets.
According to his mother, he returned from a trip to Pakistan last night and has been taking antibiotics for bacterial gastroenteritis for the past four days. He has three days left on his antibiotic course.
What could be the cause of his current presentation?Your Answer: Amoxicillin
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Terbinafine is frequently prescribed for the treatment of fungal nail infections as an antifungal medication.
Theophylline and its Poisoning
Theophylline is a naturally occurring methylxanthine that is commonly used as a bronchodilator in the management of asthma and COPD. Its exact mechanism of action is still unknown, but it is believed to be a non-specific inhibitor of phosphodiesterase, resulting in an increase in cAMP. Other proposed mechanisms include antagonism of adenosine and prostaglandin inhibition.
However, theophylline poisoning can occur and is characterized by symptoms such as acidosis, hypokalemia, vomiting, tachycardia, arrhythmias, and seizures. In such cases, gastric lavage may be considered if the ingestion occurred less than an hour prior. Activated charcoal is also recommended, while whole-bowel irrigation can be performed if theophylline is in sustained-release form. Charcoal hemoperfusion is preferable to hemodialysis in managing theophylline poisoning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 4
Correct
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A 25-year-old man with a history of asthma since childhood visited his doctor for his routine check-up. He is planning to go on a hiking trip with his friends in a month and wants to ensure that it is safe for him. Can you describe the scenarios that accurately depict the hemoglobin saturation of blood and the ability of body tissues to extract oxygen from the blood in response to different situations?
Your Answer: If the man is not able to breathe properly and, his blood carbon dioxide level increases, this will cause his body tissues to extract more oxygen from his blood
Explanation:Hypercapnia causes a shift in the oxygen dissociation curve to the right. This means that for the same partial pressure of oxygen, the hemoglobin saturation will be less. Other factors that can cause a right shift in the curve include high altitudes, anaerobic metabolism resulting in the production of lactic acid, physical activity, and an increase in temperature. These shifts allow the body tissues to extract more oxygen from the blood, resulting in a lower hemoglobin saturation of the blood leaving the body tissues. Carbon dioxide is also known to produce a right shift in the curve, further contributing to this effect.
Understanding the Oxygen Dissociation Curve
The oxygen dissociation curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. It is not influenced by the concentration of haemoglobin. The curve can shift to the left or right, indicating changes in oxygen delivery to tissues. When the curve shifts to the left, there is increased saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, resulting in decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Conversely, when the curve shifts to the right, there is reduced saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, leading to enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues.
The L rule is a helpful mnemonic to remember the factors that cause a shift to the left, resulting in lower oxygen delivery. These factors include low levels of hydrogen ions (alkali), low partial pressure of carbon dioxide, low levels of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, and low temperature. On the other hand, the mnemonic ‘CADET, face Right!’ can be used to remember the factors that cause a shift to the right, leading to raised oxygen delivery. These factors include carbon dioxide, acid, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, exercise, and temperature.
Understanding the oxygen dissociation curve is crucial in assessing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and the delivery of oxygen to tissues. By knowing the factors that can shift the curve to the left or right, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions in managing patients with respiratory and cardiovascular diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old male presents to the hospital with recurrent nose bleeds, joint pain, chronic sinusitis, and haemoptysis for the past 3 days. During the examination, the doctor observes a saddle-shaped nose and a necrotic, purpuric, and blistering plaque on his wrist. The patient reports that he had a small blister a few weeks ago, which has now progressed to this. The blood test results suggest a possible diagnosis of granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and the patient is referred for a renal biopsy. What biopsy findings would confirm the suspected diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lobular accentuation of enlarged glomeruli with mesangial hypercellularity
Correct Answer: Epithelial crescents in Bowman's capsule
Explanation:Glomerulonephritis is a condition that affects the kidneys and can present with various pathological changes. In rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis, patients may present with respiratory tract symptoms and cutaneous manifestations of vasculitis. Renal biopsy will show epithelial crescents in Bowman’s capsule, indicating severe glomerular injury. Mesangioproliferative glomerulonephritis is characterized by a diffuse increase in mesangial cells and is not associated with respiratory tract symptoms or cutaneous manifestations of vasculitis. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis involves deposits in the intraglomerular mesangium and is associated with activation of the complement pathway and glomerular damage. It is unlikely to be the diagnosis in the scenario as it is not associated with vasculitis symptoms. A normal nephron architecture would not explain the patient’s symptoms and is an incorrect answer.
Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis: An Autoimmune Condition
Granulomatosis with polyangiitis, previously known as Wegener’s granulomatosis, is an autoimmune condition that affects the upper and lower respiratory tract as well as the kidneys. It is characterized by a necrotizing granulomatous vasculitis. The condition presents with various symptoms such as epistaxis, sinusitis, nasal crusting, dyspnoea, haemoptysis, and rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. Other symptoms include a saddle-shape nose deformity, vasculitic rash, eye involvement, and cranial nerve lesions.
To diagnose granulomatosis with polyangiitis, doctors perform various investigations such as cANCA and pANCA tests, chest x-rays, and renal biopsies. The cANCA test is positive in more than 90% of cases, while the pANCA test is positive in 25% of cases. Chest x-rays show a wide variety of presentations, including cavitating lesions. Renal biopsies reveal epithelial crescents in Bowman’s capsule.
The management of granulomatosis with polyangiitis involves the use of steroids, cyclophosphamide, and plasma exchange. Cyclophosphamide has a 90% response rate. The median survival rate for patients with this condition is 8-9 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 6
Correct
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A 29-year-old man visits his GP with a complaint of a persistent cough. He reports coughing up large amounts of yellow sputum and occasionally blood on a daily basis for the past few years. Lately, he has noticed that his clothes seem loose on him and he frequently feels fatigued.
What is the most probable underlying condition responsible for this patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Kartagener's syndrome
Explanation:Kartagener’s syndrome is a condition that can lead to bronchiectasis due to a defect in the cilia, which impairs the lungs’ ability to clear mucus. Bronchiectasis is diagnosed when a person produces large amounts of sputum daily, experiences haemoptysis, and loses weight. While other conditions may cause tiredness, weight loss, or haemoptysis, they are not typically associated with bronchiectasis.
Understanding Kartagener’s Syndrome
Kartagener’s syndrome, also known as primary ciliary dyskinesia, is a rare genetic disorder that was first described in 1933. It is often associated with dextrocardia, which can be detected through quiet heart sounds and small volume complexes in lateral leads during examinations. The pathogenesis of Kartagener’s syndrome is caused by a dynein arm defect, which results in immotile cilia.
The features of Kartagener’s syndrome include dextrocardia or complete situs inversus, bronchiectasis, recurrent sinusitis, and subfertility. The latter is due to diminished sperm motility and defective ciliary action in the fallopian tubes. It is important to note that Kartagener’s syndrome is a rare disorder, and diagnosis can be challenging. However, early detection and management can help improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A senior citizen who has been a lifelong smoker visits the respiratory clinic for a check-up on his emphysema. What alterations in his lung function test results would you anticipate?
Your Answer: Reduced residual volume and reduced vital capacity
Correct Answer: Increased residual volume and reduced vital capacity
Explanation:Emphysema causes an increase in residual volume, leading to a decrease in vital capacity. This is due to damage to the alveolar walls, which results in the formation of large air sacs called bullae. The lungs lose their compliance, making it difficult to fully exhale and causing air to become trapped in the bullae. As a result, the total volume that can be exhaled is reduced, leading to a decrease in vital capacity.
Understanding Lung Volumes in Respiratory Physiology
In respiratory physiology, lung volumes can be measured to determine the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during breathing. The diagram above shows the different lung volumes that can be measured.
Tidal volume (TV) refers to the amount of air that is inspired or expired with each breath at rest. In males, the TV is 500ml while in females, it is 350ml.
Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration. The inspiratory capacity is the sum of TV and IRV. On the other hand, expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired at the end of a normal tidal expiration.
Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration. It increases with age and can be calculated by subtracting ERV from FRC. Speaking of FRC, it is the volume in the lungs at the end-expiratory position and is equal to the sum of ERV and RV.
Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration. It decreases with age and can be calculated by adding inspiratory capacity and ERV. Lastly, total lung capacity (TLC) is the sum of vital capacity and residual volume.
Physiological dead space (VD) is calculated by multiplying tidal volume by the difference between arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) and end-tidal carbon dioxide pressure (PeCO2) and then dividing the result by PaCO2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 9-month-old girl is brought to the hospital due to recurrent episodes of breathing difficulties. She has been experiencing a gradual worsening of symptoms, including a wet cough and expiratory wheezing, for the past 4 days.
During the examination, her temperature is recorded at 38.2°C, and her respiratory rate is 60 breaths per minute. Oxygen saturation levels are at 92% on air. Chest examination reveals mild intercostal retractions, scattered crackles, and expiratory wheezing in both lungs.
What is the most probable causative agent responsible for the symptoms?Your Answer: Adenovirus
Correct Answer: Respiratory syncytial virus
Explanation:Bronchiolitis is commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus, which accounts for the majority of cases of serious lower respiratory tract infections in children under one.
Understanding Bronchiolitis
Bronchiolitis is a condition that is characterized by inflammation of the bronchioles. It is a serious lower respiratory tract infection that is most common in children under the age of one year. The pathogen responsible for 75-80% of cases is respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), while other causes include mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is more serious in children with bronchopulmonary dysplasia, congenital heart disease, or cystic fibrosis.
The symptoms of bronchiolitis include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Fine inspiratory crackles may also be present. Children with bronchiolitis may experience feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea, which is often the reason for hospital admission.
Immediate referral to hospital is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell to a healthcare professional, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referring to hospital if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration.
The investigation for bronchiolitis involves immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions, which may show RSV. Management of bronchiolitis is largely supportive, with humidified oxygen given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently < 92%. Nasogastric feeding may be needed if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth, and suction is sometimes used for excessive upper airway secretions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Cystic fibrosis is caused by a mutation in the CFTR gene. On which chromosome is this gene located?
Your Answer: Chromosome 15
Correct Answer: Chromosome 7
Explanation:Understanding Cystic Fibrosis
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that causes thickened secretions in the lungs and pancreas. It is an autosomal recessive condition that occurs due to a defect in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene (CFTR), which regulates a chloride channel. In the UK, 80% of CF cases are caused by delta F508 on chromosome 7, and the carrier rate is approximately 1 in 25.
CF patients are at risk of colonization by certain organisms, including Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Burkholderia cepacia (previously known as Pseudomonas cepacia), and Aspergillus. These organisms can cause infections and exacerbate symptoms in CF patients. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor and manage these infections to prevent further complications.
Overall, understanding cystic fibrosis and its associated risks can help healthcare providers provide better care for patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman comes to the COPD clinic complaining of increasing breathlessness over the past 3 months. She is currently receiving long-term oxygen therapy at home.
During the examination, the patient's face appears plethoric, but there is no evidence of dyspnea at rest.
The patient's FEV1/FVC ratio remains unchanged at 0.4, and her peak flow is 50% of the predicted value. However, her transfer factor is unexpectedly elevated.
What could be the possible cause of this unexpected finding?Your Answer: Pneumonia
Correct Answer: Polycythaemia
Explanation:The transfer factor is typically low in most conditions that impair alveolar diffusion, except for polycythaemia, asthma, haemorrhage, and left-to-right shunts, which can cause an increased transfer of carbon monoxide. In this case, the patient’s plethoric facies suggest polycythaemia as the cause of their increased transfer factor. It’s important to note that exacerbations of COPD, pneumonia, and pulmonary fibrosis typically result in a low transfer factor, not an increased one.
Understanding Transfer Factor in Lung Function Testing
The transfer factor is a measure of how quickly a gas diffuses from the alveoli into the bloodstream. This is typically tested using carbon monoxide, and the results can be given as either the total gas transfer (TLCO) or the transfer coefficient corrected for lung volume (KCO). A raised TLCO may be caused by conditions such as asthma, pulmonary haemorrhage, left-to-right cardiac shunts, polycythaemia, hyperkinetic states, male gender, or exercise. On the other hand, a lower TLCO may be indicative of pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonia, pulmonary emboli, pulmonary oedema, emphysema, anaemia, or low cardiac output.
KCO tends to increase with age, and certain conditions may cause an increased KCO with a normal or reduced TLCO. These conditions include pneumonectomy/lobectomy, scoliosis/kyphosis, neuromuscular weakness, and ankylosis of costovertebral joints (such as in ankylosing spondylitis). Understanding transfer factor is important in lung function testing, as it can provide valuable information about a patient’s respiratory health and help guide treatment decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 11
Correct
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An 80-year-old man is brought to the emergency department in respiratory arrest. According to his partner, he has a history of congestive heart failure and has recently been battling an infection. After being placed on mechanical ventilation, you observe that the patient has decreased lung compliance.
What could be the cause of this observation?Your Answer: Pulmonary oedema
Explanation:Reduced lung compliance is a common consequence of pulmonary edema, which occurs when fluid accumulates in the alveoli and exerts mechanical stress on the air-filled alveoli. This can happen in patients with acute decompensation of congestive cardiac failure, often triggered by an infection. On the other hand, emphysema can increase compliance due to long-term damage that reduces the elastic recoil of the lungs. Additionally, lung surfactant produced by type II pneumocytes can increase lung compliance. Finally, aging can also lead to increased compliance as the loss of lung connective tissue can reduce elastic recoil.
Understanding Lung Compliance in Respiratory Physiology
Lung compliance refers to the extent of change in lung volume in response to a change in airway pressure. An increase in lung compliance can be caused by factors such as aging and emphysema, which is characterized by the loss of alveolar walls and associated elastic tissue. On the other hand, a decrease in lung compliance can be attributed to conditions such as pulmonary edema, pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonectomy, and kyphosis. These conditions can affect the elasticity of the lungs and make it more difficult for them to expand and contract properly. Understanding lung compliance is important in respiratory physiology as it can help diagnose and manage various respiratory conditions. Proper management of lung compliance can improve lung function and overall respiratory health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 12
Correct
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A 35-year-old man is stabbed in the right chest and requires a thoracotomy. During the procedure, the right lung is mobilized and the pleural reflection at the lung hilum is opened. Which of the following structures is not located in this area?
Your Answer: Azygos vein
Explanation:The pulmonary ligament extends from the pleural reflections surrounding the hilum of the lung and covers the pulmonary vessels and bronchus. However, it does not contain the azygos vein.
Anatomy of the Lungs
The lungs are a pair of organs located in the chest cavity that play a vital role in respiration. The right lung is composed of three lobes, while the left lung has two lobes. The apex of both lungs is approximately 4 cm superior to the sternocostal joint of the first rib. The base of the lungs is in contact with the diaphragm, while the costal surface corresponds to the cavity of the chest. The mediastinal surface contacts the mediastinal pleura and has the cardiac impression. The hilum is a triangular depression above and behind the concavity, where the structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the viscus. The right main bronchus is shorter, wider, and more vertical than the left main bronchus. The inferior borders of both lungs are at the 6th rib in the mid clavicular line, 8th rib in the mid axillary line, and 10th rib posteriorly. The pleura runs two ribs lower than the corresponding lung level. The bronchopulmonary segments of the lungs are divided into ten segments, each with a specific function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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During a schoolyard brawl a boy is hit in the chest. The stick passes through the posterior mediastinum (from left to right). Which one of the following structures is least likely to be injured?
Your Answer: Thoracic duct
Correct Answer: Arch of the azygos vein
Explanation:The azygos vein’s arch is located within the middle mediastinum.
The mediastinum is the area located between the two pulmonary cavities and is covered by the mediastinal pleura. It extends from the thoracic inlet at the top to the diaphragm at the bottom. The mediastinum is divided into four regions: the superior mediastinum, middle mediastinum, posterior mediastinum, and anterior mediastinum.
The superior mediastinum is the area between the manubriosternal angle and T4/5. It contains important structures such as the superior vena cava, brachiocephalic veins, arch of aorta, thoracic duct, trachea, oesophagus, thymus, vagus nerve, left recurrent laryngeal nerve, and phrenic nerve. The anterior mediastinum contains thymic remnants, lymph nodes, and fat. The middle mediastinum contains the pericardium, heart, aortic root, arch of azygos vein, and main bronchi. The posterior mediastinum contains the oesophagus, thoracic aorta, azygos vein, thoracic duct, vagus nerve, sympathetic nerve trunks, and splanchnic nerves.
In summary, the mediastinum is a crucial area in the thorax that contains many important structures and is divided into four regions. Each region contains different structures that are essential for the proper functioning of the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of weight loss and feeling full quickly. During the abdominal examination, the doctor notices a swollen lymph node in the left supraclavicular region. The doctor suspects that this could be a sign of gastric cancer with the spread of tumor emboli through the thoracic duct as it ascends from the abdomen into the mediastinum. Can you name the two other structures that pass through the diaphragm along with the thoracic duct?
Your Answer: Aorta and vagal trunk
Correct Answer: Aorta and azygous vein
Explanation:The point at which the aorta, thoracic duct, and azygous vein cross the diaphragm is at T12, specifically at the aortic opening. This is also where the oesophageal branches of the left gastric veins, the vagal trunk, and the oesophagus pass through the diaphragm, at the oesophageal opening located at T10. The left phrenic nerve and sympathetic trunk have their own separate openings in the diaphragm. A lymph node in the left supraclavicular fossa, known as Virchow’s node, is a characteristic sign of early gastric carcinoma.
Structures Perforating the Diaphragm
The diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscle that separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities. It plays a crucial role in breathing by contracting and relaxing to create negative pressure in the lungs. However, there are certain structures that perforate the diaphragm, allowing them to pass through from the thoracic to the abdominal cavity. These structures include the inferior vena cava at the level of T8, the esophagus and vagal trunk at T10, and the aorta, thoracic duct, and azygous vein at T12.
To remember these structures and their corresponding levels, a helpful mnemonic is I 8(ate) 10 EGGS AT 12. This means that the inferior vena cava is at T8, the esophagus and vagal trunk are at T10, and the aorta, thoracic duct, and azygous vein are at T12. Knowing these structures and their locations is important for medical professionals, as they may need to access or treat them during surgical procedures or diagnose issues related to them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 15
Correct
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During a neck dissection, a nerve is observed to pass behind the medial aspect of the second rib. Which nerve from the list below is the most probable?
Your Answer: Phrenic nerve
Explanation:The crucial aspect to note is that the phrenic nerve travels behind the inner side of the first rib. Towards the top, it is situated on the exterior of scalenus anterior.
The Phrenic Nerve: Origin, Path, and Supplies
The phrenic nerve is a crucial nerve that originates from the cervical spinal nerves C3, C4, and C5. It supplies the diaphragm and provides sensation to the central diaphragm and pericardium. The nerve passes with the internal jugular vein across scalenus anterior and deep to the prevertebral fascia of the deep cervical fascia.
The right phrenic nerve runs anterior to the first part of the subclavian artery in the superior mediastinum and laterally to the superior vena cava. In the middle mediastinum, it is located to the right of the pericardium and passes over the right atrium to exit the diaphragm at T8. On the other hand, the left phrenic nerve passes lateral to the left subclavian artery, aortic arch, and left ventricle. It passes anterior to the root of the lung and pierces the diaphragm alone.
Understanding the origin, path, and supplies of the phrenic nerve is essential in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the diaphragm and pericardium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old woman visits the respiratory clinic for spirometry testing. As part of the testing, what is the definition of functional residual capacity?
Your Answer: Functional residual capacity = tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume
Correct Answer: Functional residual capacity = expiratory reserve volume + residual volume
Explanation:To calculate the volume of air in the lungs after a normal relaxed expiration, one can use the formula for functional residual capacity (FRC), which is determined by the balance between the lungs’ tendency to recoil inwards and the chest wall’s tendency to pull outwards. FRC can be calculated by adding the expiratory reserve volume and the residual volume. In individuals with tetraplegia, decreases in FRC are primarily caused by a reduction in the outward pull of the chest wall, which occurs over time due to the inability to regularly expand the chest wall to large lung volumes. This reduction in FRC can increase the risk of atelectasis.
Understanding Lung Volumes in Respiratory Physiology
In respiratory physiology, lung volumes can be measured to determine the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during breathing. The diagram above shows the different lung volumes that can be measured.
Tidal volume (TV) refers to the amount of air that is inspired or expired with each breath at rest. In males, the TV is 500ml while in females, it is 350ml.
Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration. The inspiratory capacity is the sum of TV and IRV. On the other hand, expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired at the end of a normal tidal expiration.
Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration. It increases with age and can be calculated by subtracting ERV from FRC. Speaking of FRC, it is the volume in the lungs at the end-expiratory position and is equal to the sum of ERV and RV.
Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration. It decreases with age and can be calculated by adding inspiratory capacity and ERV. Lastly, total lung capacity (TLC) is the sum of vital capacity and residual volume.
Physiological dead space (VD) is calculated by multiplying tidal volume by the difference between arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) and end-tidal carbon dioxide pressure (PeCO2) and then dividing the result by PaCO2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 17
Correct
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A 49-year-old man experiences blunt force trauma to the head and subsequently experiences respiratory distress, leading to hypercapnia. What is the most probable consequence of this condition?
Your Answer: Cerebral vasodilation
Explanation:Cerebral vasodilation is a common result of hypercapnia, which can be problematic for patients with cranial trauma due to the potential increase in intracranial pressure.
Understanding the Monro-Kelly Doctrine and Autoregulation in the CNS
The Monro-Kelly doctrine governs the pressure within the cranium by considering the skull as a closed box. The loss of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) can accommodate increases in mass until a critical point is reached, usually at 100-120ml of CSF lost. Beyond this point, intracranial pressure (ICP) rises sharply, and pressure will eventually equate with mean arterial pressure (MAP), leading to neuronal death and herniation.
The central nervous system (CNS) has the ability to autoregulate its own blood supply through vasoconstriction and dilation of cerebral blood vessels. However, extreme blood pressure levels can exceed this capacity, increasing the risk of stroke. Additionally, metabolic factors such as hypercapnia can cause vasodilation, which is crucial in ventilating head-injured patients.
It is important to note that the brain can only metabolize glucose, and a decrease in glucose levels can lead to impaired consciousness. Understanding the Monro-Kelly doctrine and autoregulation in the CNS is crucial in managing intracranial pressure and preventing neurological damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 18
Correct
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A 67-year-old man visits the respiratory clinic for spirometry testing to investigate possible COPD. The clinician observes that his breathing appears to be shallow even at rest.
What specific lung volume would accurately describe the clinician's observation?Your Answer: Tidal volume (TV)
Explanation:Understanding Lung Volumes in Respiratory Physiology
In respiratory physiology, lung volumes can be measured to determine the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during breathing. The diagram above shows the different lung volumes that can be measured.
Tidal volume (TV) refers to the amount of air that is inspired or expired with each breath at rest. In males, the TV is 500ml while in females, it is 350ml.
Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration. The inspiratory capacity is the sum of TV and IRV. On the other hand, expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired at the end of a normal tidal expiration.
Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration. It increases with age and can be calculated by subtracting ERV from FRC. Speaking of FRC, it is the volume in the lungs at the end-expiratory position and is equal to the sum of ERV and RV.
Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration. It decreases with age and can be calculated by adding inspiratory capacity and ERV. Lastly, total lung capacity (TLC) is the sum of vital capacity and residual volume.
Physiological dead space (VD) is calculated by multiplying tidal volume by the difference between arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) and end-tidal carbon dioxide pressure (PeCO2) and then dividing the result by PaCO2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Sophie is a 15-year-old girl who has been brought to your GP clinic by her father. She has not yet started to develop breasts or have her first period. She does not seem worried, but her father is concerned. Sophie has a history of eczema and has been using topical steroids for several years. When her father leaves the room, she also admits to occasionally using tanning beds.
What could be a possible cause of delayed puberty in Sophie?Your Answer: Cow's milk protein allergy
Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis
Explanation:Delayed puberty can be caused by various factors, with constitutional delay being the most common cause. However, other causes must be ruled out before diagnosing constitutional delay. Some of these causes include chronic illnesses like kidney disease and Crohn’s disease, malnutrition from conditions such as anorexia nervosa, cystic fibrosis, and coeliac disease, excessive physical exercise, psychosocial deprivation, steroid therapy, hypothyroidism, tumours near the hypothalamo-pituitary axis, congenital anomalies like septo-optic dysplasia and congenital panhypopituitarism, irradiation treatment, and trauma such as surgery or head injury.
Understanding Cystic Fibrosis: Symptoms and Other Features
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects various organs in the body, particularly the lungs and digestive system. The symptoms of cystic fibrosis can vary from person to person, but some common presenting features include recurrent chest infections, malabsorption, and liver disease. In some cases, infants may experience meconium ileus or prolonged jaundice. It is important to note that while many patients are diagnosed during newborn screening or early childhood, some may not be diagnosed until adulthood.
Aside from the presenting features, there are other symptoms and features associated with cystic fibrosis. These include short stature, diabetes mellitus, delayed puberty, rectal prolapse, nasal polyps, and infertility. It is important for individuals with cystic fibrosis to receive proper medical care and management to address these symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 20
Correct
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A 29-year-old cyclist is brought to the emergency department by air ambulance following a car collision. She was intubated at the scene and currently has a Glasgow Coma Score of 8. Where is the control and regulation of the respiratory centers located?
Your Answer: Brainstem
Explanation:The brainstem houses the respiratory centres, which are responsible for regulating various aspects of breathing. These centres are located in the upper pons, lower pons and medulla oblongata.
The thalamus plays a role in sensory, motor and cognitive functions, and its axons connect with the cerebral cortex. The cerebellum coordinates voluntary movements and helps maintain balance and posture. The parietal lobe processes sensory information, including discrimination and body orientation. The primary visual cortex is located in the occipital lobe.
The Control of Ventilation in the Human Body
The control of ventilation in the human body is a complex process that involves various components working together to regulate the respiratory rate and depth of respiration. The respiratory centres, chemoreceptors, lung receptors, and muscles all play a role in this process. The automatic, involuntary control of respiration occurs from the medulla, which is responsible for controlling the respiratory rate and depth of respiration.
The respiratory centres consist of the medullary respiratory centre, apneustic centre, and pneumotaxic centre. The medullary respiratory centre has two groups of neurons, the ventral group, which controls forced voluntary expiration, and the dorsal group, which controls inspiration. The apneustic centre, located in the lower pons, stimulates inspiration and activates and prolongs inhalation. The pneumotaxic centre, located in the upper pons, inhibits inspiration at a certain point and fine-tunes the respiratory rate.
Ventilatory variables, such as the levels of pCO2, are the most important factors in ventilation control, while levels of O2 are less important. Peripheral chemoreceptors, located in the bifurcation of carotid arteries and arch of the aorta, respond to changes in reduced pO2, increased H+, and increased pCO2 in arterial blood. Central chemoreceptors, located in the medulla, respond to increased H+ in brain interstitial fluid to increase ventilation. It is important to note that the central receptors are not influenced by O2 levels.
Lung receptors also play a role in the control of ventilation. Stretch receptors respond to lung stretching, causing a reduced respiratory rate, while irritant receptors respond to smoke, causing bronchospasm. J (juxtacapillary) receptors are also involved in the control of ventilation. Overall, the control of ventilation is a complex process that involves various components working together to regulate the respiratory rate and depth of respiration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 21
Correct
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A patient on the medical ward was waiting for a cardiac procedure. On discussing the procedure with the consultant before the procedure, the patient started to feel anxious and had difficulty breathing. The resident obtained an arterial blood gas:
pH 7.55
pCO2 2.7kPa
pO2 11.2kPa
HCO3 24mmol/l
What is the most appropriate interpretation of these results?Your Answer: Respiratory alkalosis
Explanation:The respiratory alkalosis observed in the arterial blood gas results is most likely a result of hyperventilation, as indicated by the patient’s medical history.
Arterial Blood Gas Interpretation: A 5-Step Approach
Arterial blood gas interpretation is a crucial aspect of patient care, particularly in critical care settings. The Resuscitation Council (UK) recommends a 5-step approach to interpreting arterial blood gas results. The first step is to assess the patient’s overall condition. The second step is to determine if the patient is hypoxaemic, with a PaO2 on air of less than 10 kPa. The third step is to assess if the patient is acidaemic (pH <7.35) or alkalaemic (pH >7.45).
The fourth step is to evaluate the respiratory component of the arterial blood gas results. A PaCO2 level greater than 6.0 kPa suggests respiratory acidosis, while a PaCO2 level less than 4.7 kPa suggests respiratory alkalosis. The fifth step is to assess the metabolic component of the arterial blood gas results. A bicarbonate level less than 22 mmol/l or a base excess less than -2mmol/l suggests metabolic acidosis, while a bicarbonate level greater than 26 mmol/l or a base excess greater than +2mmol/l suggests metabolic alkalosis.
To remember the relationship between pH, PaCO2, and bicarbonate, the acronym ROME can be used. Respiratory acidosis or alkalosis is opposite to the pH level, while metabolic acidosis or alkalosis is equal to the pH level. This 5-step approach and the ROME acronym can aid healthcare professionals in interpreting arterial blood gas results accurately and efficiently.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 22
Incorrect
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An 87-year-old man with a history of interstitial lung disease is admitted with fever, productive cough, and difficulty breathing. His inflammatory markers are elevated, and a chest x-ray reveals focal patchy consolidation in the right lung. He requires oxygen supplementation as his oxygen saturation level is 87% on room air. What factor causes a decrease in haemoglobin's affinity for oxygen?
Your Answer: Increase in pH
Correct Answer: Increase in temperature
Explanation:What effect does pyrexia have on the oxygen dissociation curve?
Understanding the Oxygen Dissociation Curve
The oxygen dissociation curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. It is not influenced by the concentration of haemoglobin. The curve can shift to the left or right, indicating changes in oxygen delivery to tissues. When the curve shifts to the left, there is increased saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, resulting in decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Conversely, when the curve shifts to the right, there is reduced saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, leading to enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues.
The L rule is a helpful mnemonic to remember the factors that cause a shift to the left, resulting in lower oxygen delivery. These factors include low levels of hydrogen ions (alkali), low partial pressure of carbon dioxide, low levels of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, and low temperature. On the other hand, the mnemonic ‘CADET, face Right!’ can be used to remember the factors that cause a shift to the right, leading to raised oxygen delivery. These factors include carbon dioxide, acid, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, exercise, and temperature.
Understanding the oxygen dissociation curve is crucial in assessing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and the delivery of oxygen to tissues. By knowing the factors that can shift the curve to the left or right, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions in managing patients with respiratory and cardiovascular diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 23
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A 59-year-old man has been found to have cancer. He is experiencing a range of symptoms, some of which appear to be unrelated to the location or size of the tumor. This is due to the fact that cancerous tissue can acquire the ability to produce endocrine effects on other cells in the body. Can you provide an instance of this phenomenon?
Your Answer: Production of PTH
Explanation:Paraneoplastic syndrome is a set of symptoms that arise from the secretion of hormones and cytokines by cancer cells or the immune system’s response to the tumor.
Squamous cell lung cancer often produces PTHrP (parathyroid hormone-related protein), which leads to hypercalcemia in affected patients.
Lung cancer can present with paraneoplastic features, which are symptoms caused by the cancer but not directly related to the tumor itself. Small cell lung cancer can cause the secretion of ADH and, less commonly, ACTH, which can lead to hypertension, hyperglycemia, hypokalemia, alkalosis, and muscle weakness. Lambert-Eaton syndrome is also associated with small cell lung cancer. Squamous cell lung cancer can cause the secretion of parathyroid hormone-related protein, leading to hypercalcemia, as well as clubbing and hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy. Adenocarcinoma can cause gynecomastia and hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy. Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is a painful condition involving the proliferation of periosteum in the long bones. Although traditionally associated with squamous cell carcinoma, some studies suggest that adenocarcinoma is the most common cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 24
Correct
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A 44-year-old woman is scheduled for a thyroidectomy due to symptomatic tracheal compression. She has a history of hyperthyroidism that was controlled with carbimazole. However, she was deemed a suitable candidate for thyroidectomy after presenting to the emergency department with dyspnoea and stridor.
As a surgical resident assisting the ENT surgeon, you need to ligate the superior thyroid artery before removing the thyroid glands to prevent excessive bleeding. However, the superior laryngeal artery, a branch of the superior thyroid artery, is closely related to a structure that, if injured, can lead to loss of sensation in the laryngeal mucosa.
What is the correct identification of this structure?Your Answer: Internal laryngeal nerve
Explanation:The internal laryngeal nerve and the superior laryngeal artery are closely associated with each other. The superior laryngeal artery travels alongside the internal laryngeal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve, beneath the thyrohyoid muscle. It originates from the superior thyroid artery near its separation from the external carotid artery.
If the internal laryngeal nerve is damaged, it can result in a loss of sensation to the laryngeal mucosa. The nerve is situated beneath the mucous membrane of the piriform recess, making it vulnerable to injury from sharp objects like fish and chicken bones that may become stuck in the recess.
Anatomy of the Larynx
The larynx is located in the front of the neck, between the third and sixth cervical vertebrae. It is made up of several cartilaginous segments, including the paired arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform cartilages, as well as the single thyroid, cricoid, and epiglottic cartilages. The cricoid cartilage forms a complete ring. The laryngeal cavity extends from the laryngeal inlet to the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage and is divided into three parts: the laryngeal vestibule, the laryngeal ventricle, and the infraglottic cavity.
The vocal folds, also known as the true vocal cords, control sound production. They consist of the vocal ligament and the vocalis muscle, which is the most medial part of the thyroarytenoid muscle. The glottis is composed of the vocal folds, processes, and rima glottidis, which is the narrowest potential site within the larynx.
The larynx is also home to several muscles, including the posterior cricoarytenoid, lateral cricoarytenoid, thyroarytenoid, transverse and oblique arytenoids, vocalis, and cricothyroid muscles. These muscles are responsible for various actions, such as abducting or adducting the vocal folds and relaxing or tensing the vocal ligament.
The larynx receives its arterial supply from the laryngeal arteries, which are branches of the superior and inferior thyroid arteries. Venous drainage is via the superior and inferior laryngeal veins. Lymphatic drainage varies depending on the location within the larynx, with the vocal cords having no lymphatic drainage and the supraglottic and subglottic parts draining into different lymph nodes.
Overall, understanding the anatomy of the larynx is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting this structure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with acute shortness of breath following a 4-day febrile illness. On initial assessment, his oxygen saturation is 70% on room air with a PaO2 of 4.2kpa on an arterial blood gas.
What would be the anticipated physiological response in this patient?Your Answer: Pulmonary artery vasodilation
Correct Answer: Pulmonary artery vasoconstriction
Explanation:When faced with hypoxia, the pulmonary arteries undergo vasoconstriction, which redirects blood flow away from poorly oxygenated areas of the lungs and towards well-oxygenated regions. In cases where patients remain hypoxic despite optimal mechanical ventilation, inhaled nitric oxide can be used to induce pulmonary vasodilation and reverse this response.
The statement that increased tidal volume with decreased respiratory rate is a response to hypoxia is incorrect. While an increase in tidal volume may occur, it is typically accompanied by an increase in respiratory rate.
Pulmonary artery vasodilation is also incorrect. Hypoxia actually induces vasoconstriction in the pulmonary vasculature, as explained above.
Similarly, reduced tidal volume with increased respiratory rate is not a direct response to hypoxia. While respiratory rate may increase, tidal volumes typically increase in response to hypoxia.
In contrast to the pulmonary vessels, the systemic vasculature vasodilates in response to hypoxia.
The Effects of Hypoxia on Pulmonary Arteries
When the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood decreases, the pulmonary arteries undergo vasoconstriction. This means that the blood vessels narrow, allowing blood to be redirected to areas of the lung that are better aerated. This response is a natural mechanism that helps to improve the efficiency of gaseous exchange in the lungs. By diverting blood to areas with more oxygen, the body can ensure that the tissues receive the oxygen they need to function properly. Overall, hypoxia triggers a physiological response that helps to maintain homeostasis in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his father, who is worried about his son's hearing. The father has noticed that his son frequently asks him to repeat himself and tends to turn up the volume on the TV. During Weber's test, the patient indicates that the sound is louder on the right side. What conclusion can be drawn from this finding?
Your Answer: Conductive hearing loss of right ear.
Correct Answer: Can not tell which side is affected.
Explanation:The Weber test alone cannot determine which side of the patient’s hearing is affected. The test involves placing a tuning fork on the forehead and asking the patient to report if the sound is symmetrical or louder on one side. If the sound is louder on the left side, it could indicate a conductive hearing loss on the left or a sensorineural hearing loss on the right. To obtain more information, the Weber test should be performed in conjunction with the Rinne test, which involves comparing air conduction and bone conduction.
Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness
Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test indicates that BC is better than AC, suggesting conductive deafness.
Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking the patient which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.
The table below summarizes the interpretation of Rinne and Weber tests. A normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally and the sound is midline. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear and AC being greater than BC in the unaffected ear, with the sound lateralizing to the affected ear. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, with the sound lateralizing to the unaffected ear.
Overall, Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are useful tools for differentiating between conductive and sensorineural deafness, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Sophie, a 4-year-old patient with Down's syndrome, is brought to the general practitioner by her father. He is worried as Sophie has been crying more than usual and has started holding her right ear. She is diagnosed with acute bacterial otitis media.
What is the most probable bacteria responsible for this infection?Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae
Explanation:Haemophilus influenzae is a frequent culprit behind bacterial otitis media, a common ear infection.
The majority of cases of acute bacterial otitis media are caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, or Moraxella.
Genital gonorrhoeae is caused by N. gonorrhoeae, a sexually transmitted infection that presents with discharge and painful urination.
Meningococcal sepsis, a life-threatening condition, is caused by N. meningitides.
Staph. aureus is responsible for superficial skin infections like impetigo.
Syphilis, which typically manifests as a painless genital sore called a chancre, is caused by T. pallidum.
Acute otitis media is a common condition in young children, often caused by bacterial infections following viral upper respiratory tract infections. Symptoms include ear pain, fever, and hearing loss, and diagnosis is based on criteria such as the presence of a middle ear effusion and inflammation of the tympanic membrane. Antibiotics may be prescribed in certain cases, and complications can include perforation of the tympanic membrane, hearing loss, and more serious conditions such as meningitis and brain abscess.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 28
Correct
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A 65-year-old man with a 45-pack-year history arrives at the hospital complaining of increased difficulty breathing and cachexia. Upon examination, a chest X-ray reveals an elevated left hemidiaphragm, enlarged hilar lymph nodes, and a significant opacification. Which structure is most likely to have been affected?
Your Answer: Left phrenic nerve
Explanation:It is unlikely that direct injury would result in the elevation of the left hemidiaphragm, especially since there is no history of trauma or surgery. However, damage to the long thoracic nerve could cause winging of the scapula due to weakened serratus anterior muscle. On the other hand, injury to the thoracodorsal nerve, which innervates the latissimus dorsi muscle, can lead to weakened shoulder adduction and is a common complication of axillary surgery.
The Phrenic Nerve: Origin, Path, and Supplies
The phrenic nerve is a crucial nerve that originates from the cervical spinal nerves C3, C4, and C5. It supplies the diaphragm and provides sensation to the central diaphragm and pericardium. The nerve passes with the internal jugular vein across scalenus anterior and deep to the prevertebral fascia of the deep cervical fascia.
The right phrenic nerve runs anterior to the first part of the subclavian artery in the superior mediastinum and laterally to the superior vena cava. In the middle mediastinum, it is located to the right of the pericardium and passes over the right atrium to exit the diaphragm at T8. On the other hand, the left phrenic nerve passes lateral to the left subclavian artery, aortic arch, and left ventricle. It passes anterior to the root of the lung and pierces the diaphragm alone.
Understanding the origin, path, and supplies of the phrenic nerve is essential in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the diaphragm and pericardium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man complains of facial pain and discomfort during meals. He has been experiencing halitosis and a dry mouth. Additionally, he has a lump under his left mandible. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Stone impacted in Stensens duct
Correct Answer: Stone impacted in Whartons duct
Explanation:The signs are indicative of sialolithiasis, which usually involves the formation of stones in the submandibular gland and can block Wharton’s duct. Stensen’s duct, on the other hand, is responsible for draining the parotid gland.
Diseases of the Submandibular Glands
The submandibular glands are responsible for producing mixed seromucinous secretions, which can range from more serous to more mucinous depending on parasympathetic activity. These glands secrete approximately 800-1000ml of saliva per day, with parasympathetic fibers derived from the chorda tympani nerves and the submandibular ganglion. However, several conditions can affect the submandibular glands.
One such condition is sialolithiasis, which occurs when salivary gland calculi form in the submandibular gland. These stones are usually composed of calcium phosphate or calcium carbonate and can cause colicky pain and postprandial swelling of the gland. Sialography is used to investigate the site of obstruction and associated stones, with impacted stones in the distal aspect of Wharton’s duct potentially removed orally. However, other stones and chronic inflammation may require gland excision.
Sialadenitis is another condition that can affect the submandibular glands, usually as a result of Staphylococcus aureus infection. This can cause pus to leak from the duct and erythema to be noted. A submandibular abscess may develop, which is a serious complication as it can spread through other deep fascial spaces and occlude the airway.
Finally, submandibular tumors can also affect these glands, with only 8% of salivary gland tumors affecting the submandibular gland. Of these, 50% are malignant, usually adenoid cystic carcinoma. Diagnosis usually involves fine needle aspiration cytology, with imaging using CT and MRI. Due to the high prevalence of malignancy, all masses of the submandibular glands should generally be excised.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 30
Correct
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How many fissures can be found in the right lung?
At what age do these fissures typically develop?Your Answer: Two
Explanation:The oblique and horizontal fissures are present in the right lung. The lower lobe is separated from the middle and upper lobes by the upper oblique fissure. The superior and middle lobes are separated by the short horizontal fissure.
Anatomy of the Lungs
The lungs are a pair of organs located in the chest cavity that play a vital role in respiration. The right lung is composed of three lobes, while the left lung has two lobes. The apex of both lungs is approximately 4 cm superior to the sternocostal joint of the first rib. The base of the lungs is in contact with the diaphragm, while the costal surface corresponds to the cavity of the chest. The mediastinal surface contacts the mediastinal pleura and has the cardiac impression. The hilum is a triangular depression above and behind the concavity, where the structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the viscus. The right main bronchus is shorter, wider, and more vertical than the left main bronchus. The inferior borders of both lungs are at the 6th rib in the mid clavicular line, 8th rib in the mid axillary line, and 10th rib posteriorly. The pleura runs two ribs lower than the corresponding lung level. The bronchopulmonary segments of the lungs are divided into ten segments, each with a specific function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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