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Question 1
Correct
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A 28-year-old patient presents with progressive weakness of the arms and legs over 1 week. Three weeks earlier, she had an episode of diarrhoea lasting 5 days. Examination confirms distal weakness and ‘glove-and-stocking’ sensory loss.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Guillain–Barré syndrome
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Ascending Paralysis and Glove-and-Stocking Weakness
The patient presents with acute progressive ascending paralysis and glove-and-stocking weakness, which is typical of Guillain–Barré syndrome. However, cranial nerve palsies can also occur. It is important to consider other potential diagnoses, such as multiple sclerosis, subacute combined degeneration of the cord, diabetic neuropathy, and acute intermittent porphyria. MS is characterised by lesions separated in both space and time, while subacute combined degeneration of the cord is secondary to a deficiency of vitamin B12 and presents with progressive limb weakness, paraesthesiae, and visual disturbances. Diabetic neuropathy usually causes sensory impairment, not motor impairment, and acute intermittent porphyria manifests with a constellation of symptoms, including abdominal pain, peripheral and autonomic neuropathies, and proximal motor weakness. A thorough evaluation and diagnostic workup are necessary to determine the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Correct
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What is the ionic event that occurs just before the creation of fusion pores during neurotransmitter synaptic release?
Your Answer: Calcium ion influx
Explanation:The Process of Synaptic Neurotransmitter Release
Synaptic neurotransmitter release is a complex process that involves the depolarization of the presynaptic membrane, opening of voltage-gated calcium channels, influx of calcium ions, and binding of vesicle-associated membrane proteins (VAMPs). This causes a conformational change that leads to the fusion of the neurotransmitter vesicle with the presynaptic membrane, forming a fusion pore. The neurotransmitter is then released into the synaptic cleft, where it can bind to target receptors on the postsynaptic cell.
The postsynaptic density, which is an accumulation of specialized proteins, ensures that the postsynaptic receptors are in place to bind the released neurotransmitters. The only correct answer from the given options is calcium ion influx, as it is essential for the process of synaptic neurotransmitter release. this process is crucial for how neurons communicate with each other and how neurotransmitters affect behavior and cognition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 58-year-old man visits his GP complaining of constant fatigue and frontal hair loss. He has a medical history of high blood pressure and asthma and takes salbutamol, amlodipine, and simvastatin. He appears to be in good health, and his neurological examination is unremarkable. The auto-antibody screen is negative, and his creatine kinase (CK) level is 1,000 U/l (normal range: 22-198 U/l). What is the most likely cause of this man's symptoms?
Your Answer: Statin therapy
Explanation:Understanding the Differential Diagnosis of Elevated CK Levels
Elevated creatine kinase (CK) levels can indicate a variety of underlying conditions. When considering an elevated CK, it is important to take a detailed medication history as statin therapy, which is a common medication, can cause CK levels to rise in up to 5% of patients. Other common causes of mildly elevated CK include hypothyroidism, steroid use, and alcohol excess.
Polymyositis is a potential differential diagnosis for a patient with elevated CK and fatigue, but it typically presents with objective proximal muscle weakness. The CK levels are often considerably higher than in the scenario described. Dermatomyositis, which features dermatological features alongside myositis, may present with papules on the hands, periorbital edema, flagellate erythema, or nailfold hemorrhages, none of which are present in this history.
Extensive exercise can cause elevated CK levels, but it does not usually raise levels to the extent seen in this scenario. Rhabdomyolysis, which is a common cause of elevated CK, often occurs in elderly patients who have experienced a fall and long lie. However, there is no such history in this case, and CK levels in these patients are usually significantly higher.
In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis of elevated CK levels requires a thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, medication use, and presenting symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old girl is brought from a school party following an episode of loss of consciousness. She was noted to have jerking of the limbs, frothing at the mouth and was incontinent of urine in the episode. Examination is non-contributory. Blood investigations and CT scan of the brain are normal. She mentions a similar case when on holiday about a year before this episode for which she did not receive treatment.
What is an appropriate step in this patient's management?Your Answer: Refer for MRI of the brain if EEG shows abnormality
Correct Answer: Involve an epilepsy nurse specialist
Explanation:Managing Epilepsy: Key Steps and Considerations
Epilepsy is a complex condition that requires careful management to ensure optimal outcomes for patients. Here are some key steps and considerations that healthcare professionals should keep in mind when treating patients with epilepsy:
1. Involve an epilepsy nurse specialist: Epilepsy nurse specialists can serve as valuable intermediaries between patients and healthcare providers, helping to ensure effective communication and treatment compliance.
2. Advise patients to avoid driving and other high-risk activities: Patients with epilepsy should be advised to avoid driving until they have been seizure-free for a certain amount of time (according to local laws). They should also be cautioned against engaging in other high-risk activities, such as operating heavy machinery or swimming unaccompanied.
3. Refer for diagnostic testing: Patients who have experienced one or more seizures should be referred for diagnostic testing, including blood investigations, EEG, and MRI. These tests can help to identify the underlying cause of seizures and guide treatment decisions.
4. Consider drug treatment: Drug treatment is often necessary for patients with epilepsy, but the choice of medication should be carefully considered based on the patient’s seizure type and individual needs. Sodium valproate and lamotrigine are often used for generalised tonic-clonic seizures, while carbamazepine is first-line for partial seizures.
5. Monitor for side effects: All medications used to treat epilepsy have potential side effects, so patients should be carefully monitored for any adverse reactions. Women of childbearing age should avoid sodium valproate due to the risk of neural tube defects.
6. Consider MRI if EEG shows abnormality: MRI is indicated for patients with new-onset epilepsy or failure of first-line medication, unless there is a clear diagnosis of idiopathic generalised epilepsy. In acute situations, a CT scan may be necessary.
By following these key steps and considerations, healthcare professionals can help to ensure that patients with epilepsy receive the best possible care and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 4-year-old boy is brought to the paediatric assessment unit, after his parents witnessed him having a seizure. He has no history of seizures. The seizure lasted 30 seconds, and his parents described both his arms and legs shaking. There was no incontinence or tongue biting. For the last week he has had a flu-like illness, and the parents have recorded temperatures of 39.1°C (normal 36.1–37.2°C). You suspect a diagnosis of febrile seizures.
What advice should you give the parents about the risk of future seizures?Your Answer: The child could seize again, but the risk of developing epilepsy is low
Explanation:Understanding Febrile Seizures and the Risk of Epilepsy
Febrile seizures are a common occurrence in young children, often caused by a sudden spike in body temperature. While they are not epilepsy, parents should be aware that their child may be at a greater risk of developing epilepsy in the future. The risk for a simple febrile seizure is between 2.0-7.5%, while a complex febrile seizure increases the risk to 10-20%. Risk factors include a family history of febrile seizures or epilepsy, human herpes virus 6 infection, and deficiencies in iron or zinc. During a seizure, it is important to remove any objects that could cause harm and cushion the child’s head. If the seizure lasts for more than 5 minutes, emergency services should be contacted and medication administered. While paracetamol can help bring down the fever, it does not prevent future seizures. It is important for parents to understand the potential risks and seek medical attention if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of sudden onset of complete right-sided facial weakness that started yesterday. There are no other neurological symptoms observed during the examination. The patient denies any hearing loss and reports only drooling of saliva. Other than that, she is healthy and has no other complaints. An ear examination reveals no abnormalities.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Bell's Palsy
Explanation:Understanding Bell’s Palsy and Differential Diagnoses
Bell’s palsy is a sudden, unexplained facial nerve paralysis that affects one side of the face. It is more common in individuals with certain risk factors, such as diabetes, obesity, and upper respiratory tract infections. Symptoms include facial muscle weakness, drooling, speech difficulties, dry mouth, numbness, and ear pain. Treatment focuses on preventing complications, such as eye irritation, and can include eye ointment, lubricating drops, sunglasses, and a soft-food diet. Recovery typically occurs within a few weeks to several months.
Differential diagnoses for Bell’s palsy include stroke, acoustic neuroma, Ramsay-Hunt syndrome, and neurosarcoidosis. Stroke typically spares the forehead muscles, while acoustic neuroma presents with hearing loss, tinnitus, and balance problems. Ramsay-Hunt syndrome is a complication of shingles and includes a vesicular rash, fever, and hearing loss. Neurosarcoidosis is rare and associated with systemic disease. A thorough evaluation is necessary to differentiate these conditions from Bell’s palsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old man is admitted at the request of his concerned family due to increased confusion. This has occurred over the past 3 months and has become steadily worse. He was living independently and had been an active local councillor. Now he is unable to identify his family members.
Examination findings: pleasantly confused, intermittent jerky movements of both upper arms.
The following investigations were performed:
CT brain: normal
Dementia screen: normal
Which one of the following diagnostic tests will assist most in diagnosis?Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) brain
Correct Answer: Electroencephalogram
Explanation:Investigations for Rapid Cognitive Decline in a Middle-Aged Patient: A Case of Sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease
When a patient in their 60s presents with rapid cognitive decline and myoclonic jerks, the possibility of sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (sCJD) should be considered. Despite negative findings from other investigations, a lumbar puncture and electroencephalogram (EEG) can support the diagnosis of sCJD. The EEG will show generalised bi- or triphasic periodic sharp wave complexes, while definitive diagnosis can only be made from biopsy. Doppler ultrasound of carotids is relevant for vascular dementia, but the steady decline in this case suggests sCJD. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) brain is unlikely to aid diagnosis, and muscle biopsy is unnecessary as myoclonic jerks are a symptom of sCJD. Bone marrow biopsy is only useful if myelodysplastic syndrome is suspected, which is not the case here.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 50-year old man has significant tics, but his language, memory and insight are only mildly to moderately impaired. He also has prominent depression and a butterfly pattern in the caudate nucleus on computed tomography (CT) scan.
Which is the most likely form of dementia in this patient?Your Answer: Vascular dementia
Correct Answer: Dementia due to Huntington’s disease
Explanation:Types of Dementia and their Characteristics
Dementia is a broad term used to describe a decline in cognitive function that affects daily activities. There are several types of dementia, each with its own unique characteristics.
Dementia due to Huntington’s disease is an autosomal dominant triplet repeat disease affecting chromosome 4. It usually presents in middle-aged patients with movement disorders (chorea) and progresses to seizures, dementia and death.
Vascular dementia occurs in a stepwise fashion, with occlusive events leading to sudden new losses of function. Patients develop frontal release and localising neurologic signs relatively early.
Dementia due to Parkinson’s disease is characterised by loss of dopaminergic cells in the substantia nigra. It also presents with bradykinesia, rigidity, cogwheeling and shuffling gait.
Alzheimer’s disease has an insidious onset with gradual, continuous progression. Cognitive and language dysfunction occur early, with motor dysfunction and cortical release signs only appearing after diffuse cortical damage has occurred.
Dementia due to normal pressure hydrocephalus is characterised by the classical triad of dementia, shuffling gait and incontinence. This condition results from blockage of the normal drainage of the cerebrospinal fluid.
Early recognition and aggressive treatment for cardiovascular disease may slow progression of vascular dementia. Although the changes of vascular dementia are irreversible, the other types of dementia have no cure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Correct
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If a corticospinal tract lesion occurs above the nuclei of cranial nerves, what neurological signs would be anticipated?
Your Answer: Upper motor neurone signs in the limbs
Explanation:Neurological Lesions and Their Effects on Motor Function: An Overview
The human body relies on a complex network of nerves to control movement. When these nerves are damaged, it can result in a variety of motor function impairments. Two types of nerve lesions are upper motor neurone and lower motor neurone lesions.
Upper motor neurone lesions affect the corticospinal tract, which connects the primary motor cortex to the alpha motor neurones in the spinal cord. This type of lesion causes spasticity, hyperreflexia, pyramidal weakness, clasp-knife rigidity, and extensor plantar responses.
Lower motor neurone lesions affect the alpha motor neurone and can occur anywhere along the path of the final nerve, from the spinal cord to the peripheral nerve. This type of lesion causes muscle weakness, wasting, hyporeflexia, and fasciculations.
Other nerve lesions can also affect motor function. Vagus nerve palsy, for example, can result in palatal weakness, nasal speech, loss of reflex contraction in the gag reflex, hoarseness of the voice, and a bovine cough. A plexiform neuroma, a benign tumor of the peripheral nerves, can cause a lower motor neurone lesion.
Understanding the effects of neurological lesions on motor function is crucial for diagnosing and treating these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Correct
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What is a lower motor neurone lesion associated with?
Your Answer: Flaccid paralysis
Explanation:Characteristics of Lower Motor Neurone Lesions
Lower motor neurone lesions are characterized by flaccid paralysis, downward plantar response, and fasciculations. These lesions result in the inability to elicit reflex contractions and slow muscle atrophy. In contrast, upper motor neurone lesions are associated with a positive Babinski sign.
Flaccid paralysis is a key feature of lower motor neurone lesions, which refers to the loss of muscle tone and strength. Downward plantar response is another characteristic, where the toes point downwards instead of upwards when the sole of the foot is stimulated. Fasciculations, or involuntary muscle twitches, are also commonly observed in lower motor neurone lesions.
Furthermore, reflex contractions cannot be elicited in lower motor neurone lesions, leading to muscle atrophy over time. This is in contrast to upper motor neurone lesions, where a positive Babinski sign is observed. A positive Babinski sign refers to the extension of the big toe and fanning of the other toes when the sole of the foot is stimulated, indicating an upper motor neurone lesion.
In summary, lower motor neurone lesions are characterized by flaccid paralysis, downward plantar response, and fasciculations, while upper motor neurone lesions are associated with a positive Babinski sign.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 68-year-old man with Parkinson's disease comes in with sudden shaking, vertigo, and upward eye movement. What could be the probable reason for his abrupt onset?
Your Answer: Oculogyric crisis
Explanation:Oculogyric Crisis
Oculogyric crisis is a common ocular dystonic reaction that often occurs as a side effect of neuroleptic drug treatment. This condition is characterized by a sustained upward deviation of the eyes, which may be accompanied by other symptoms such as restlessness, agitation, malaise, and a fixed stare. The onset of a crisis may be paroxysmal or stuttering over several hours, and the eyes may also converge, deviate upward and laterally, or deviate downward.
In addition to the ocular symptoms, oculogyric crisis may also be associated with other findings such as backwards and lateral flexion of the neck, widely opened mouth, tongue protrusion, and ocular pain. The causes or triggering factors of this condition include various medications such as neuroleptics, benzodiazepines, and tricyclics, as well as medical conditions like postencephalitic Parkinson’s, Tourette’s syndrome, multiple sclerosis, neurosyphilis, and head trauma.
It is important to recognize and manage oculogyric crisis promptly to prevent potential complications and improve patient outcomes. Healthcare providers should be aware of the medications and medical conditions that may trigger this condition and monitor patients closely for any signs or symptoms of oculogyric crisis. Treatment options may include discontinuing the offending medication, administering anticholinergic or antihistaminic agents, or using benzodiazepines or other sedatives to manage symptoms. With proper management, most patients with oculogyric crisis can recover fully and resume their normal activities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman presented to her GP with a four month history of progressive distal sensory loss and weakness of both legs and arms. The weakness and numbness had extended to the elbows and knees.
On examination, cranial nerves and fundoscopy were normal. Examination of the upper limb revealed bilaterally reduced tone and 3/5 power.
Lower limb examination revealed some mild weakness of hip flexion and extension with marked weakness of dorsiflexion and plantarflexion. Both knee and ankle jerks were absent and both plantar responses were mute. There was absent sensation to all modalities affecting both feet extending to the knees.
A lumbar puncture was performed and yielded the following data:
Opening pressure 14 cm H2O (5-18)
CSF protein 0.75 g/L (0.15-0.45)
CSF white cell count 10 cells per ml (<5 cells)
CSF white cell differential 90% lymphocytes -
CSF red cell count 2 cells per ml (<5 cells)
Nerve conduction studies showed multifocal motor and sensory conduction block with prolonged distal latencies.
What is the likely diagnosis in this patient?Your Answer: Chronic inflammatory demyelinating neuropathy (CIDP)
Explanation:The patient’s history is consistent with a subacute sensory and motor peripheral neuropathy, which could be caused by inflammatory neuropathies such as CIDP or paraproteinaemic neuropathies. CIDP is characterized by progressive weakness and impaired sensory function in the limbs, and treatment includes corticosteroids, plasmapheresis, and physiotherapy. Guillain-Barré syndrome is an acute post-infectious neuropathy that is closely linked to CIDP. Cervical spondylosis would cause upper motor neuron signs, while HMSN is a chronic neuropathy with a family history. Multifocal motor neuropathy is a treatable neuropathy affecting motor conduction only.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of a headache and homonymous superior quadrantanopia. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Retinopathy
Correct Answer: Temporal lobe tumour
Explanation:Homonymous Superior Quadrantanopia
Homonymous superior quadrantanopia is a condition that affects the upper, outer half of one side of the visual field in both eyes. This deficit is typically caused by the interruption of Meyer’s loop of the optic radiation. It can be an early indication of temporal lobe disease or a residual effect of a temporal lobectomy. To remember the different types of quandrantanopias, the mnemonic PITS can be used, which stands for Parietal Inferior Temporal Superior.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man complains of severe headaches behind his right eye that last for 1-2 hours at a time. These headaches can occur daily for up to 6 weeks, but then he can go for months without experiencing one. He also experiences eye redness and runny nose alongside his headaches. Despite trying paracetamol and tramadol prescribed by another doctor, he has not found any relief. The pain is so intense that he cannot sleep and if he gets a headache during the day, he is unable to work or socialize. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Migraine headache
Correct Answer: Cluster headache
Explanation:Cluster headache is a type of headache that mainly affects young men. It is characterized by severe pain behind one eye that can last for up to two hours and occurs repeatedly for a certain period before disappearing for up to a year. Treatment options include inhaled oxygen or sumatriptan, as simple painkillers are usually ineffective.
Tension-type headache, on the other hand, is a headache that feels like a tight band around the head and is not accompanied by sensitivity to light, nausea, or functional impairment. It can be treated with simple painkillers like paracetamol.
Migraine is a recurring headache that may be preceded by an aura and is often accompanied by sensitivity to light, nausea, and functional impairment. Treatment options include simple painkillers and triptans for more severe attacks.
Subarachnoid hemorrhage is a medical emergency that presents as a sudden, severe headache often described as the worst of someone’s life. It requires urgent evaluation with CT brain and possible lumbar puncture to assess the cerebrospinal fluid. A ruptured berry aneurysm is a common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage.
Meningitis, on the other hand, is associated with fever and systemic symptoms and does not present episodically over a chronic period.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 25-year-old law student complains that she cannot fall asleep until 0330 h. She sleeps through morning classes, frequently waking up at about 1100 h.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Delayed sleep phase syndrome
Explanation:Common Sleep Disorders and Their Symptoms
Sleep disorders can have a significant impact on a person’s quality of life. Here are some of the most common sleep disorders and their symptoms:
1. Delayed Sleep Phase Syndrome: This syndrome causes a person’s circadian cycle to run longer than 24 hours, leading to a tendency to fall asleep later and later.
2. Advanced Sleep Phase Syndrome: Patients with this syndrome tend to fall asleep too early and wake up too early.
3. Myoclonus: Nocturnal myoclonus, or periodic limb movement disorder, causes twitching or kicking of the lower extremities during sleep, leading to momentary arousals.
4. Narcolepsy: This dyssomnia causes a person to suddenly fall asleep involuntarily at inappropriate times.
5. Sleep Apnoea: This disorder causes a person to stop breathing during sleep, putting stress on the circulatory system.
It’s important to seek medical attention if you suspect you have a sleep disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 16
Correct
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Which of the following indicates a psychiatric illness rather than an organic brain disorder?
Your Answer: A family history of major psychiatric illness
Explanation:Distinguishing Psychiatric Disease from Organic Brain Disease
Psychiatric diseases such as depression and schizophrenia have distinct features that differentiate them from organic brain diseases like dementia. While loss of short term memory and advanced age are more typical of organic brain disease, a family history is particularly associated with depressive illness and schizophrenia. It is important to distinguish between psychiatric and organic brain diseases in order to provide appropriate treatment and care.
According to Prof Anton Helman, a psychiatric emergency can be due to either disease or psychological illness. In order to determine the cause, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary. Medical mimics of psychotic symptoms can often be mistaken for psychiatric disease, making it crucial to consider all possible causes.
The NHS England’s Mental Health in Older People A Practice Primer emphasizes the importance of recognizing mental health issues in older individuals. While organic brain diseases are more common in this population, psychiatric diseases can also occur and should not be overlooked. By the typical features of psychiatric disease and differentiating them from organic brain disease, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 56-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of progressive weakness over the past few months. She reports difficulty getting up from a chair and climbing stairs, which worsens throughout the day and especially with prolonged walking. She has no significant medical history but is a smoker, consuming 15 cigarettes a day. During the review of her systems, she mentions a loss of appetite and weight loss, as well as a worsening cough that led to one episode of haemoptysis two weeks ago. On examination, there are no clear signs of ptosis, diplopia, or dysarthria. The doctor considers a list of differential diagnoses.
Which antibody is most likely to be involved?Your Answer: Antibodies to voltage-gated calcium channels
Explanation:Autoantibodies and their associated conditions
Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome (LEMS) is an autoimmune condition affecting skeletal muscle and can be a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with small cell carcinoma of the lung. The causative autoantibody is against voltage-gated calcium channels. Clinical features include insidious and progressive onset of proximal muscular weakness, particularly in the legs, and autonomic involvement.
Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) is associated with anti-RNP antibodies. Common presenting features include general malaise and lethargy, arthritis, pulmonary involvement, sclerodactyly, Raynaud’s phenomenon, and myositis.
Myasthenia gravis is a long-term autoimmune disease affecting skeletal muscle associated with antibodies to acetylcholine receptors. It causes fatigable weakness, and oculopharyngeal and ocular muscles are usually prominently affected.
Granulomatosis with polyangiitis is a vasculitic condition associated with c-ANCA antibodies. It often presents with renal impairment, upper airway disease, and pulmonary haemorrhage and pneumonia-like infiltrates.
Thyrotropin receptor antibody is an indicator for Graves’ disease, which causes hyperthyroidism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 18
Correct
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What are the reasons for having dilated pupils?
Your Answer: Ethylene glycol poisoning
Explanation:Causes of Dilated and Small Pupils
Dilated pupils can be caused by various factors such as Holmes-Adie (myotonic) pupil, third nerve palsy, and drugs or poisons like atropine, CO, and ethylene glycol. On the other hand, small pupils can be caused by Horner’s syndrome, old age, pontine hemorrhage, Argyll Robertson pupil, and drugs or poisons like opiates and organophosphates.
Holmes-Adie (myotonic) pupil and third nerve palsy are conditions that affect the muscles that control the size of the pupil. Meanwhile, drugs and poisons like atropine, CO, and ethylene glycol can cause dilation of the pupils as a side effect. On the other hand, Horner’s syndrome, old age, pontine hemorrhage, Argyll Robertson pupil, and drugs or poisons like opiates and organophosphates can cause the pupils to become smaller.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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What impact would a voltage-gated calcium channel inhibitor have on action potentials in the central nervous system?
Your Answer: Decrease of action potential amplitude
Correct Answer: Decrease of postsynaptic potentials
Explanation:Effects of Inhibition of Voltage-Gated Channels in the Central Nervous System
In the central nervous system, voltage-gated calcium channels play a crucial role in the release of neurotransmitters. On the other hand, action potentials involve sodium and potassium voltage-gated channels. If these channels are inhibited, the amount of neurotransmitter released would decrease, leading to a subsequent decrease in the postsynaptic potentials, both graded and action. It is important to note that the decrease in postsynaptic potentials is the only correct option from the given choices.
It is incorrect to assume that the inhibition of voltage-gated channels would lead to a decrease in action potential amplitude. This is because the amplitude of an action potential is an all-or-none event, and it is the frequency of action potentials that determines the strength of a stimulus. Similarly, the decrease in action potential conduction speed is also incorrect as it depends on the myelination of the axon. Moreover, it is incorrect to assume that inhibiting voltage-gated channels would increase the speed and amplitude of action potentials.
Lastly, inhibiting presynaptic potentials is also incorrect as they depend on sodium/potassium voltage-gated ion channels. Therefore, it is essential to understand the effects of inhibiting voltage-gated channels in the central nervous system to avoid any misconceptions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 30-year-old cleaner presents with a complaint of gradual numbness on the left side of her hand and forearm. Upon examination, there is no indication of muscle wasting, but there is slight weakness in finger adduction and flexion. Reflexes are normal. Sensory testing reveals a decrease in pinprick sensation in the tips of the ring and little fingers and over the hypothenar eminence.
What is the location of the lesion?Your Answer: Ulnar neuropathy
Explanation:Differentiating between nerve lesions: Ulnar neuropathy, C6/C7 root lesion, carpal tunnel syndrome, radial neuropathy, and peripheral neuropathy
When assessing a patient with neurological symptoms in the upper limb, it is important to differentiate between different nerve lesions. An ulnar neuropathy will affect the small muscles of the hand, except for a few supplied by the median nerve. Sensory loss will be felt in the ring and little fingers, as well as the medial border of the middle finger.
A C6/C7 root lesion will cause weakness in elbow and wrist flexion/extension, as well as finger extensors. Sensory loss will be felt in the thumb and first two fingers, but not the lateral border of the ring finger. Reflexes for biceps and triceps will be lost.
Carpal tunnel syndrome affects the median nerve, causing atrophy of the thenar eminence and paraesthesiae in the lateral three and a half digits.
A radial neuropathy will cause a wrist drop and sensory loss over the dorsal aspect of the hand.
Finally, a peripheral neuropathy will be symmetrical, with loss of sensation over both hands and weakness in distal muscles.
By understanding the specific symptoms associated with each nerve lesion, healthcare professionals can make a more accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old patient presents after trauma and exhibits a lack of sensation in the anatomical snuff box. Which nerve is likely responsible for this sensory loss?
Your Answer: Musculocutaneous nerve
Correct Answer: Radial nerve
Explanation:Common Nerve Injuries and Their Effects
Radial nerve injury causes a condition known as wrist drop, which is characterized by the inability to extend the wrist and fingers. This injury also results in varying degrees of sensory loss, with the anatomical snuffbox being a common area affected.
On the other hand, median nerve injury leads to the loss of sensation in the thumb, index, middle, and lateral half of the ring finger. This condition can also cause weakness in the muscles that control the thumb, leading to difficulty in grasping objects.
Lastly, ulnar nerve injury results in a claw hand deformity, where the fingers are flexed and cannot be straightened. This injury also causes a loss of sensation over the medial half of the ring finger and little finger.
In summary, nerve injuries can have significant effects on the function and sensation of the hand. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms are experienced to prevent further damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man without significant history presents with complaints of pain in his left forearm and hand that is relieved by changing the position of his arm. During examination, there is a loss of sensation on the medial aspect of his hand, and a cervical rib is suspected. To confirm involvement of the C8 and T1 roots of the brachial plexus rather than a palsy of the ulnar nerve, which motor test should be used?
Your Answer: Abduction of the fingers
Correct Answer: Flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger
Explanation:Assessing Nerve Lesions: Differentiating Between C8/T1 and Ulnar Nerve Lesions
When assessing for nerve lesions, it is important to differentiate between a C8/T1 lesion and an ulnar nerve lesion. One way to do this is by testing specific actions controlled by muscles innervated by these nerves.
Flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger is controlled by the flexor digitorum profundus muscle, which is innervated by both the ulnar nerve and the anterior interosseous nerve (a branch of the median nerve) via C8/T1 nerve roots. Weakness in this action would make an ulnar nerve injury unlikely.
Abduction and adduction of the fingers are controlled by the dorsal and palmar interosseous muscles, respectively. These muscles are innervated by the ulnar nerve via C8/T1 nerve roots, making testing these actions unable to differentiate between a C8/T1 lesion and an ulnar nerve lesion.
Adduction of the thumb is controlled by the adductor pollicis muscle, which is also innervated by the ulnar nerve via C8/T1 nerve roots. Testing this action would also not differentiate between a C8/T1 lesion and an ulnar nerve lesion.
Similarly, flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the little finger is controlled by the medial aspect of the flexor digitorum profundus muscle, which is innervated by the ulnar nerve via C8/T1 nerve roots. Testing this action would also not differentiate between a C8/T1 lesion and an ulnar nerve lesion.
In summary, assessing for weakness in flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger can help differentiate between a C8/T1 lesion and an ulnar nerve lesion. Testing other actions controlled by muscles innervated by these nerves would not provide this differentiation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 25-year-old married shop assistant presents to the Emergency Department with a presumed seizure, where her hands and feet shook and she bit her tongue. This is the second such event in the past 6 months and she was due to see a neurologist in a month’s time. Computed tomography (CT) brain was normal. Electroencephalogram (EEG) was normal, albeit not performed during the ‘seizure’ activity. Her doctor believes she has epilepsy and is keen to commence anticonvulsive therapy. She is sexually active and uses only condoms for protection.
Which one of the following drugs would be most suitable for this particular patient?Your Answer: Lamotrigine
Explanation:Antiepileptic Medications and Pregnancy: Considerations for Women of Childbearing Age
When it comes to treating epilepsy in women of childbearing age, there are important considerations to keep in mind. Lamotrigine is a good choice for monotherapy, but it can worsen myoclonic seizures. Levetiracetam is preferred for myoclonic seizures, while carbamazepine has an increased risk of birth defects. Sodium valproate is the first-line agent for adults with generalized epilepsy, but it has been linked to neural tube defects in babies. Phenytoin is no longer used as a first-line treatment, but may be used in emergency situations. Clinicians should be aware of these risks and consult resources like the UK Epilepsy and Pregnancy Registry to make informed decisions about treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a complaint of unilateral facial droop. Upon examination, it is noted that she is unable to fully close her left eye. She has no significant medical history but reports having a recent viral upper respiratory tract infection. Her husband is worried that she may have had a stroke, but there are no other focal neurological deficits found except for the isolated left-sided facial nerve palsy.
What clinical finding would you anticipate during the examination?Your Answer: Ptosis
Correct Answer: Loss of lacrimation
Explanation:Understanding Bell’s Palsy: Symptoms and Differences from a Stroke
Bell’s palsy is a condition that affects the facial nerve, causing facial weakness and loss of lacrimation. It is important to distinguish it from a stroke, which can have similar symptoms but different underlying causes. Here are some key points to keep in mind:
Loss of lacrimation: Bell’s palsy affects the parasympathetic fibers carried in the facial nerve, which are responsible for tear formation. This leads to a loss of lacrimation on the affected side.
Loss of sensation: The trigeminal nerve carries the nerve fibers responsible for facial sensation, so there will be no sensory deficit in Bell’s palsy.
Mydriasis: Bell’s palsy does not affect the fibers that supply the pupil, so there will be no mydriasis (dilation of the pupil).
Facial weakness: Bell’s palsy is a lower motor neuron lesion, which means that innervation to all the facial muscles is interrupted. This leads to left-sided facial weakness without forehead sparing.
Ptosis: Bell’s palsy affects the orbicularis oculi muscle, which prevents the eye from fully closing. This can lead to ptosis (drooping of the eyelid) and the need for eye patches and artificial tears to prevent corneal ulcers.
By understanding these symptoms and differences from a stroke, healthcare professionals can provide accurate diagnoses and appropriate treatment for patients with Bell’s palsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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What is the type of cell that utilizes its Ciliary to assist in the movement of cerebrospinal fluid throughout the central nervous system of vertebrates?
Your Answer: Oligodendrocytes
Correct Answer: Ependymal cells
Explanation:The Functions of Cerebrospinal Fluid and the Roles of Different Types of Nervous System Cells
The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear and colourless fluid that circulates in the subarachnoid space, ventricular system of the brain, and central canal of the spinal cord. It provides the brain and spinal cord with mechanical and immunological buoyancy, chemical/temperature protection, and intracranial pressure control. The circulation of CSF within the central nervous system is facilitated by the beating of the Ciliary of ependymal cells, which line the brain ventricles and walls of the central canal. Therefore, ependymal cells are responsible for this function.
Different types of nervous system cells have distinct roles in supporting the nervous system. Astrocytes provide biochemical support to blood-brain barrier endothelial cells, supply nutrients to nervous tissue, maintain extracellular ion balance, and aid in repairing traumatic injuries. Microglial cells are involved in immune defence of the central nervous system. Oligodendrocytes generate myelin sheaths on neurones of the central nervous system, while Schwann cells generate myelin sheaths on neurones of the peripheral nervous system.
In summary, the CSF plays crucial roles in protecting and supporting the central nervous system, and ependymal cells are responsible for its circulation. Different types of nervous system cells have distinct functions in supporting the nervous system, including biochemical support, immune defence, and myelin sheath generation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic with a 3-year history of postural instability, frequent falls and cognitive decline. He exhibits hypomania, bradykinesia of the right upper limb, brisk reflexes, especially on the right-hand side, occasional myoclonus and a shuffling gait. He is unable to imitate basic hand gestures with his right hand. During the examination, the patient displays some sensory loss and apraxia.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Corticobasal syndrome
Explanation:Neurological Disorders and Their Characteristics
Corticobasal Syndrome: This rare progressive neurological disorder is characterized by asymmetrical cortical syndrome, gait unsteadiness, falls, parkinsonism, apraxia, and alien limb syndrome. Unfortunately, there is no known treatment for this disorder, and the prognosis is poor, with a life expectancy of 6-8 years from diagnosis.
Supranuclear Gaze Palsy: This Parkinson’s plus syndrome presents with symmetrical parkinsonism, slow saccades (especially vertical), and a limitation of eye movements.
Idiopathic Parkinson’s Disease: While this disease may present as asymmetrical at onset, it tends to involve both sides after 6 years. The presence of cortical signs such as hyperreflexia, apraxia, and myoclonus would be atypical.
Alzheimer’s Disease: This is the most common pathology in patients with cognitive decline, but it presents with prominent cognitive decline, and basal ganglia features are atypical.
Sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD): This rapidly progressive disorder leads to akinetic mutism and death within a year, with a median of 6 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old truck driver is admitted with a left-sided facial droop, dysphasia and dysarthria. His symptoms slowly improve and he is very eager to return to work as he is self-employed. After 3 weeks, he has made a complete clinical recovery and neurological examination is normal. As per the guidelines of the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA), when can he recommence driving his truck?
Your Answer: 18 months after initial onset of symptoms
Correct Answer: 12 months after onset of symptoms
Explanation:Driving Restrictions Following Stroke or TIA
After experiencing a stroke or transient ischaemic attack (TIA), there are various restrictions on driving depending on the time elapsed since onset of symptoms and the type of vehicle being driven.
For car drivers, it is recommended that they do not drive for at least 4 weeks after a TIA or stroke. After 1 month, they may resume driving if there has been satisfactory recovery.
However, for lorry or bus drivers, licences will be revoked for 1 year following a stroke or TIA. After 12 months, relicensing may be offered subject to satisfactory clinical recovery. Functional cardiac testing and medical reports may be required.
For car drivers who have had a single TIA or stroke, they may resume driving 1 month after the event following satisfactory clinical recovery.
Overall, it is important to follow these restrictions to ensure the safety of both the driver and others on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man visits the Elderly Care Clinic with his wife. He has a medical history of Parkinson's disease, which has been under control with various medications. However, his wife is concerned as he has been exhibiting abnormal behavior lately, such as spending a considerable amount of their savings on a car and making inappropriate sexual advances towards his elderly neighbor. Which medication is the probable cause of this man's change in behavior?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ropinirole
Explanation:Parkinson’s Disease Medications and Their Association with Impulsive Behaviours
Parkinson’s disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that affects movement and can lead to tremors, stiffness, and difficulty with coordination. There are several medications available to manage the symptoms of Parkinson’s disease, including dopamine agonists, anticholinergics, NMDA receptor antagonists, levodopa, and monoamine-oxidase-B inhibitors.
Dopamine agonists, such as Ropinirole, are often prescribed alongside levodopa to manage motor complications. However, they are known to be associated with compulsive behaviours, including impulsive spending and sexual disinhibition.
Anticholinergics, like Procyclidine, are sometimes used to manage significant tremor in Parkinson’s disease. However, they are linked to a host of side-effects, including postural hypotension, and are not generally first line. There is no known link to impulsive behaviours.
Amantadine is a weak NMDA receptor antagonist and should be considered if patients develop dyskinesia which is not managed by modifying existing therapy. It is not known to be associated with impulsive behaviours.
Levodopa, the most effective symptomatic treatment for Parkinson’s disease, may be provided in preparations such as Sinemet or Madopar. It is known to feature a weaning-off period and administration should be timed very regularly. However, it is only very rarely associated with abnormal or compulsive behaviours.
Selegiline is a monoamine-oxidase-B inhibitor and can delay the need for levodopa therapy in some patients. However, it is not linked to compulsive behaviours such as sexual inhibition or gambling.
In summary, while some Parkinson’s disease medications are associated with impulsive behaviours, others are not. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the potential side-effects of each medication and monitor patients for any changes in behaviour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man is brought to the Neurology clinic by his wife because he has had 4 months of progressively worsening dysarthria, gait instability, intention tremor and memory loss. Electroencephalography (EEG) is performed and is significant for triphasic spikes, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is obtained, which shows an elevated 14-3-3 protein. The patient’s clinical course continues to deteriorate, and he dies 7 months after his initial presentation. A researcher obtains permission to procure a brain biopsy specimen to confirm the diagnosis and contribute to a repository of similar diseases.
What secondary structure would the researcher expect to find in the abnormal brain tissue?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Proteinaceous β sheets
Explanation:Secondary Structures in Proteins and Nucleic Acids
Proteins and nucleic acids are essential biomolecules that perform various functions in living organisms. These molecules have unique structural features that enable them to carry out their functions. One such feature is the secondary structure, which refers to the local folding patterns of the molecule.
Proteinaceous β sheets are a type of secondary structure that is associated with prion disorders such as Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease. Prions are infectious protein molecules that can convert normal cellular prion protein into an abnormal form that exists as β sheets.
Nucleic acid hairpin loops are another type of secondary structure that has functional properties in DNA and RNA molecules. These structures are formed when a single strand of nucleic acid folds back on itself to form a loop.
Proteinaceous α helices are a common non-pathological secondary structure of proteins. These structures are formed when the polypeptide chain twists into a helical shape.
Nucleic acid pseudoknots are secondary structures that have functional properties in DNA and RNA molecules. These structures are formed when two regions of a single strand of nucleic acid fold back on each other and form a knot-like structure.
Proteinaceous α sheets are theoretical structures that could represent an intermediate between α helices and β sheets. These structures have not been observed in nature but are predicted based on computational models.
In summary, secondary structures play an important role in the function and stability of proteins and nucleic acids. Understanding these structures is essential for understanding the molecular mechanisms of biological processes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female patient, who smokes and is taking the combined oral contraceptive pill, reports experiencing pain and swelling in her right calf for the past two days. She also presents with sudden onset weakness on her right side. Upon examination, she displays a dense hemiplegia, with upper motor neuron signs and weakness in her right hand. Additionally, evidence of a deep vein thrombosis in her right calf is observed. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paradoxical embolism
Explanation:Possible Embolic Cerebrovascular Accident in a Patient with History of DVT and Contraceptive Pill Use
This patient presents with symptoms suggestive of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), including calf pain and swelling, and has a history of using the combined oral contraceptive pill, which increases the risk of DVT. However, the sudden onset of right-sided hemiplegia indicates the possibility of an embolic cerebrovascular accident (CVA) caused by an embolus passing through the heart and crossing over to the systemic side of circulation via an atrial septal defect (ASD) or ventricular septal defect (VSD).
It is important to note that pulmonary embolism would not occur in this case without an ASD. While an aneurysm or hemorrhagic stroke are possible, they are less likely given the patient’s history of DVT. A tumor would also have a more chronic symptomatology, further supporting the possibility of an embolic CVA in this patient. Further diagnostic testing and treatment are necessary to confirm and address this potential complication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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