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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a rash on his...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a rash on his elbows. He has no other medical issues except for occasional migraines, which he has been treating with atenolol. Upon examination, the lesions appear as distinct, elevated, scaly plaques. What is the most suitable initial treatment option?

      Your Answer: Dovobet®

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Chronic Plaque Psoriasis

      Chronic plaque psoriasis is a skin condition that can be exacerbated by beta-blockers. Therefore, it is important to discontinue the use of beta-blockers and explore alternative prophylactic drugs for migraine in patients with psoriasis. In addition, regular use of emollients is recommended.

      For active therapy, potent corticosteroids, vitamin D analogues, dithranol, and tar preparations are all acceptable first-line options. However, corticosteroids and topical vitamin D analogues are typically preferred due to their ease of application and cosmetic acceptability. A Cochrane review found that combining a potent corticosteroid with a vitamin D analogue was the most effective treatment, with a lower incidence of local adverse events. Dovobet®, which combines betamethasone 0.1% with calcipotriol, is one such option. Calcipotriol used alone is also an acceptable alternative treatment.

      For psoriasis of the face, flexures, and genitalia, calcineurin inhibitors such as tacrolimus and pimecrolimus are second-line options after moderately potent corticosteroids.

      Managing Chronic Plaque Psoriasis: Treatment Options and Considerations

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old man with a history of well-managed asthma presents with a 10-hour...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man with a history of well-managed asthma presents with a 10-hour history of a pruritic rash. He mentions having recently recuperated from a mild upper respiratory tract infection. The patient has a diffuse urticarial rash on his trunk and limbs. There are no signs of mucosal swelling, he is stable hemodynamically, and his chest is clear upon auscultation.

      What is the most effective course of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral non-sedating antihistamine

      Explanation:

      The first-line treatment for acute urticaria is oral non-sedating antihistamines. These include cetirizine, fexofenadine, or loratadine. Urticarial rash is caused by inflammatory mediators released during mast cell activation, with histamine being the principal mediator. H1 receptor antagonists inhibit this process. Non-sedating antihistamines are preferred over sedating antihistamines as they do not cause significant drowsiness, as they do not cross the blood-brain barrier. Intramuscular adrenaline is not indicated for acute urticaria, as it is only used in suspected anaphylaxis. Oral steroids may be prescribed in addition to a non-sedative oral antihistamine if the symptoms are severe. Topical antihistamines are not recommended by NICE for the management of acute urticaria.

      Urticaria is a condition characterized by the swelling of the skin, either locally or generally. It is commonly caused by an allergic reaction, although non-allergic causes are also possible. The affected skin appears pale or pink and is raised, resembling hives, wheals, or nettle rash. It is also accompanied by itching or pruritus. The first-line treatment for urticaria is non-sedating antihistamines, while prednisolone is reserved for severe or resistant cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 3 - A 36-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of a recurrent itchy rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of a recurrent itchy rash on his hands and feet. He travels frequently to the Middle East for business purposes and has engaged in unprotected sexual activity during one of his trips. Upon examination, the palms and soles show an itchy vesicular rash with erythema and excoriation. What is the probable cause of this rash, considering the patient's exposure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Humidity

      Explanation:

      Pompholyx eczema can be triggered by high humidity levels, such as sweating, and hot temperatures. This is evidenced by the recurrent vesicles that appear on the palms and soles, accompanied by erythema. The patient’s frequent travels to the Middle East, which is known for its high humidity levels, may have contributed to the development of this condition.

      Chlamydia is not a factor in the development of pompholyx eczema. While chlamydia can cause keratoderma blennorrhagica, which affects the soles of the feet and palms, it has a different appearance and is not typically itchy or erythematous.

      Cold temperatures are not a trigger for pompholyx eczema, although they may cause Raynaud’s phenomenon.

      Sunlight exposure is not a trigger for pompholyx eczema, although it may cause other skin conditions such as lupus and polymorphic light eruption.

      Understanding Pompholyx Eczema

      Pompholyx eczema, also known as dyshidrotic eczema, is a type of skin condition that affects both the hands and feet. It is often triggered by humidity and high temperatures, such as sweating. The main symptom of pompholyx eczema is the appearance of small blisters on the palms and soles, which can be intensely itchy and sometimes accompanied by a burning sensation. Once the blisters burst, the skin may become dry and crack.

      To manage pompholyx eczema, cool compresses and emollients can be used to soothe the affected areas. Topical steroids may also be prescribed to reduce inflammation and itching. It is important to avoid further irritation of the skin by avoiding triggers such as excessive sweating and using gentle, fragrance-free products. With proper management, the symptoms of pompholyx eczema can be controlled and minimized.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 4 - A 68-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a pigmented lesion on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a pigmented lesion on her left cheek. She reports that the lesion has been present for a while but has recently increased in size. Upon examination, it is evident that she has significant sun damage on her face, legs, and arms due to living in South Africa. The lesion appears flat, pigmented, and has an irregular border.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lentigo maligna

      Explanation:

      Skin Lesions and Their Characteristics

      Lentigo Maligna: This pre-invasive lesion has the potential to develop into malignant melanoma. It appears as a pigmented, flat lesion against sun-damaged skin. Surgical excision is the ideal intervention, but cryotherapy and topical immunotherapy are possible alternatives.

      Squamous Cell Carcinoma: This common type of skin cancer presents as enlarging scaly or crusted nodules, often associated with ulceration. It may arise in areas of actinic keratoses or Bowen’s disease.

      Basal Cell Carcinoma: This skin cancer usually occurs in photo-exposed areas of fair-skinned individuals. It looks like pearly nodules with surface telangiectasia.

      Pityriasis Versicolor: This is a common yeast infection of the skin that results in an annular, erythematous scaling rash on the trunk.

      Actinic Keratosis: These scaly lesions occur in sun-damaged skin in fair-skinned individuals and are considered to be a pre-cancerous form of SCC.

      Understanding Skin Lesions and Their Characteristics

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 5 - You see a woman who is 29 weeks pregnant. She presents with a...

    Incorrect

    • You see a woman who is 29 weeks pregnant. She presents with a rash that came on about two weeks ago.

      She tells you that it started with some 'itchy red lumps around the belly-button' and has progressed. She has an itchy blistering rash that is most prominent around her umbilicus, but over the last few days has spread to the surrounding trunk, back and proximal limbs.

      You note a few tense, fluid-filled blisters. The rash appears slightly raised and plaque-like. Her head, face, hands and feet are spared; her mouth and mucous membranes are also unaffected. She is systemically well.

      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholestasis of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Dermatological Conditions in Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, there are specific dermatological conditions that should be considered when assessing a skin complaint. However, it is important to note that pregnancy doesn’t exclude the usual causes of rashes, and infectious causes must also be considered as they may pose a risk to the developing fetus.

      One such condition is pemphigoid gestationis (PG), an autoimmune blistering condition that causes fluid-filled blisters on an itchy rash, typically starting around the umbilicus. Topical steroids and oral antihistamines are used for milder cases, while oral steroids may be necessary for more severe disease.

      Cholestasis of pregnancy causes generalised pruritus, particularly affecting the palms and soles, and is typically seen in the latter half of pregnancy. Symptoms resolve after delivery, but recurrence occurs in up to 40% of pregnancies. Abnormal liver function tests are also seen.

      Parvovirus, although uncommon in pregnancy, can cause serious fetal complications, including hydrops, growth retardation, anaemia, and hepatomegaly. It typically causes a slapped cheek rash followed by a lace-pattern rash on the limbs and trunk. Approximately 1 in 10 of those affected in the first half of pregnancy will miscarry, and in the remainder, there is a 1% risk of congenital abnormality.

      Polymorphic eruption of pregnancy, also known as pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy (PUPPP), is characterised by an itchy rash of pink papules that occurs in the stretch marks of the abdomen in the third trimester. It clears with delivery and is thought to be related to an allergy to the stretch marks.

      Varicella can cause a vesicular rash, but the description of tense blisters in combination with the rash distribution and other features are typical of PG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 6 - A 68-year-old male is referred to dermatology for evaluation of a non-healing skin...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male is referred to dermatology for evaluation of a non-healing skin ulcer on his lower leg that has persisted for 8 weeks despite a course of oral flucloxacillin. What is the initial investigation that should be prioritized?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ankle-brachial pressure index

      Explanation:

      To rule out arterial insufficiency as a potential cause, it would be beneficial to conduct an ankle-brachial pressure index measurement. If the results are abnormal, it may be necessary to refer the patient to vascular surgeons.

      If the ulcer doesn’t respond to active management, such as compression bandaging, it may be necessary to consider a biopsy to rule out malignancy and a referral should be made.

      It is uncommon for non-healing leg ulcers to be caused by persistent infection.

      Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly found above the medial malleolus. To determine the cause of non-healing ulcers, it is important to conduct an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) test. A normal ABPI value is between 0.9 to 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. However, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease due to arterial calcification, especially in diabetic patients.

      The most effective treatment for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, specifically four-layer bandaging. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate of venous ulcers. While there is some evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, there is little evidence to suggest the benefit of hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 7 - A 72-year-old obese woman presents with a leg ulcer. This followed a superficial...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old obese woman presents with a leg ulcer. This followed a superficial traumatic abrasion a month ago that never healed. She has a past history of ischaemic heart disease. Examination reveals a 5cm ulcer over the left shin; it is superficial with an irregular border and slough in the base. There is mild pitting oedema and haemosiderin deposition bilaterally on the legs. The ipsilateral foot pulses are weakly palpable.
      Which diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Venous ulcer

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Venous Ulcers from Other Types of Leg Ulcers

      Venous leg ulcers are a common type of leg ulcer in the UK, accounting for around 3% of all new cases attending dermatology clinics. These ulcers are typically large and superficial, and are accompanied by signs of chronic venous insufficiency. This condition leads to venous stasis and increased capillary pressure, resulting in secondary skin changes whose mechanisms are not well understood. Predisposing factors to venous insufficiency include obesity, history of varicose veins, leg trauma, and deep vein thrombosis.

      In contrast, arterial ulcers are typically small and punched out, occurring most commonly over a bony prominence such as a malleolus or on the toes. Bowen’s disease, a form of squamous cell carcinoma in situ, commonly occurs on the legs in women but would not reach a size of 5cm in only a month. Neuropathic ulcers, on the other hand, occur on the feet in the context of peripheral neuropathy. Vasculitic ulcers are also a possibility, but there are no clues in the history or findings to suggest their presence.

      To differentiate venous ulcers from other types of leg ulcers, it is important to look for corroborating signs of chronic venous insufficiency, such as peripheral edema, venous eczema, haemosiderin deposition, lipodermatosclerosis, and atrophie blanche. Workup should include measurement of the ankle brachial pressure indices (ABPIs) to exclude coexistent arterial disease. If the ABPIs are satisfactory, the cornerstone of management is compression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 8 - A 60-year-old woman presents with multiple flat pustules on the soles of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman presents with multiple flat pustules on the soles of her feet, accompanied by several flat brown lesions. These are scattered on a background of erythema and scaling.
      What would be the most suitable course of action? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Betamethasone ointment

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Palmoplantar Pustulosis

      Palmoplantar pustulosis is a skin condition that is linked to psoriasis and is more common in women over 50. It is characterized by erythematous skin with yellow pustules that settle to form brown macules on the palms and soles of the hands and feet. Here are some treatment options for this condition:

      Betamethasone Ointment: This is a potent topical steroid that is effective in treating palmoplantar pustulosis.

      Calcipotriol + Betamethasone: While the steroid component would be beneficial, calcipotriol is not used to treat palmoplantar pustulosis, which is where the management differs from plaque psoriasis.

      Barrier Cream: A barrier cream is used to create a barrier between the skin and a potential irritant, so is useful in conditions such as contact dermatitis. Palmoplantar pustulosis is not caused by an irritant, so this would not be helpful.

      Flucloxacillin Capsules: There is no indication that this is a bacterial infection, so there would be no role for antibiotics in this patient’s management.

      Terbinafine Cream: A fungal infection would not cause pustules, so there is no indication for using an antifungal treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 9 - John is a 44-year-old man who presents to your clinic with a complaint...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 44-year-old man who presents to your clinic with a complaint of a severely itchy rash on his wrist that appeared suddenly a few weeks ago. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications.

      Upon examination of the flexor aspect of John's left wrist, you observe multiple 3-5 mm shiny flat-topped papules that are violet in color. Upon closer inspection, you notice white streaks on the surface of the papules. There are no other affected skin areas, and no oromucosal changes are present.

      What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient, given the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A potent topical steroid such as betamethasone valerate 0.1%

      Explanation:

      Lichen planus is typically treated with potent topical steroids as a first-line treatment, especially for managing the itching caused by the rash. While this condition can occur at any age, it is more common in middle-aged individuals. Mild topical steroids are not as effective as potent ones in treating the rash. Referral to a dermatologist and skin biopsy may be necessary if there is diagnostic uncertainty, but in this case, it is not required. Severe or widespread lichen planus may require oral steroids, and if there is little improvement, narrow band UVB therapy may be considered as a second-line treatment.

      Lichen planus is a skin condition that has an unknown cause, but is believed to be related to the immune system. It is characterized by an itchy rash that appears as small bumps on the palms, soles, genital area, and inner surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive pattern of white lines on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon. Oral involvement is common, with around 50% of patients experiencing a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes, such as thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging, may also occur.

      Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, including gold, quinine, and thiazides. Treatment for lichen planus typically involves the use of potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more severe cases, oral steroids or immunosuppressive medications may be necessary. Overall, lichen planus can be a challenging condition to manage, but with proper treatment, symptoms can be controlled and quality of life can be improved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 10 - A 16-year-old male visits the nearby sexual health clinic with a concern. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male visits the nearby sexual health clinic with a concern. He has a sizable, keratinised genital wart on the shaft of his penis that has been there for approximately three months. Due to embarrassment, he has delayed seeking medical attention. What is the best initial course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cryotherapy

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of genital warts, cryotherapy is recommended for solitary, keratinised warts, while topical podophyllum is suggested for multiple, non-keratinised warts. As the wart is keratinised, cryotherapy should be the first choice of treatment.

      Understanding Genital Warts

      Genital warts, also known as condylomata accuminata, are a common reason for visits to genitourinary clinics. These warts are caused by various types of the human papillomavirus (HPV), with types 6 and 11 being the most common. It is important to note that HPV, particularly types 16, 18, and 33, can increase the risk of cervical cancer.

      The warts themselves are small, fleshy growths that are typically 2-5 mm in size and may be slightly pigmented. They can also cause itching or bleeding. Treatment options for genital warts include topical podophyllum or cryotherapy, depending on the location and type of lesion. Topical agents are generally used for multiple, non-keratinised warts, while solitary, keratinised warts respond better to cryotherapy. Imiquimod, a topical cream, is typically used as a second-line treatment. It is important to note that genital warts can be resistant to treatment, and recurrence is common. However, most anogenital HPV infections clear up on their own within 1-2 years without intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 11 - A 40-year-old diabetic woman comes to the clinic with a fungal infection on...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old diabetic woman comes to the clinic with a fungal infection on her left big toenail. She is bothered by the appearance of the nail when wearing sandals, as the entire nail seems to be affected.

      What is the best course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral fluconazole

      Explanation:

      Effective Treatments for Fungal Nail Infections

      According to clinical evidence, the most effective treatments for fungal nail infections are oral terbinafine and oral itraconazole. Topical treatments such as amorolfine and terbinafine have no good quality evidence to support their use, although topical ciclopirox may be effective. While various topical agents may be recommended for mild disease, oral treatment is usually required for a cure.

      It is important to note that topical treatments should only be considered if less than eighty percent of the nail is involved, or there are two or less nails affected. In diabetics or those with vascular disease, fungal nail infections can be a portal for bacterial infection and subsequent cellulitis, making effective treatment crucial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 12 - Working in the minor injury unit on bonfire night, you see a 7-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • Working in the minor injury unit on bonfire night, you see a 7-year-old girl with a burn from a sparkler on her forearm.
      Select from the list the single statement regarding the management of burns that is correct.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Full thickness burns are associated with loss of sensation on palpation of the affected area

      Explanation:

      Management of Burn Injuries

      Burn injuries can cause thermal damage and inflammation, which can be reduced by cooling the affected area with water at 15oC. However, ice-cold water should be avoided as it can cause vasospasm and further ischaemia. Sensation and capillary refill should be assessed at initial presentation, as full thickness burns are insensitive. Silver sulfadiazine has not been proven to prevent infection. Epidermal burns are characterized by erythema, while larger or awkwardly positioned blisters should be aspirated under aseptic technique to prevent bursting and infection. De-roofing blisters should not be routinely done.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 13 - A 25 year old woman presents to you with worries about a lesion...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old woman presents to you with worries about a lesion on the dorsal side of her left hand that has grown in size over the last six months. She reports that it disappeared during the summer but has now reappeared. The lesion is asymptomatic. On examination, you observe an annular plaque without any scaling. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Granuloma annulare

      Explanation:

      A common presentation of granuloma annulare involves the development of circular lesions on the skin. In contrast, tinea often presents as a rash with scales.

      Understanding Granuloma Annulare

      Granuloma annulare is a skin condition characterized by papular lesions that are slightly hyperpigmented and depressed in the center. These lesions typically appear on the dorsal surfaces of the hands and feet, as well as on the extensor aspects of the arms and legs. While there have been associations proposed between granuloma annulare and conditions such as diabetes mellitus, the evidence for these links is weak.

      Despite the lack of clear associations with other conditions, granuloma annulare can still be a frustrating and uncomfortable condition for those who experience it. The lesions can be unsightly and may cause itching or discomfort. Treatment options for granuloma annulare include topical or oral medications, as well as light therapy in some cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 14 - A 20-year-old man visits your GP clinic with concerns about spots on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man visits your GP clinic with concerns about spots on his face that have been present for a few months. Despite using an over-the-counter facial wash, the spots have not improved and the patient is becoming more self-conscious about them. He is seeking treatment. During examination, you observe comedones and inflamed lesions on his face, but no nodules.

      What is the best initial approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trial of low-strength topical benzoyl peroxide

      Explanation:

      The recommended first-line management for acne is non-antibiotic topical treatment. For mild to moderate acne, a trial of low-strength topical benzoyl peroxide, topical azelaic acid, or topical antibacterial is appropriate. Referral to dermatology is not necessary for mild to moderate acne. Oral antibiotics should only be considered if topical management options have failed. It is important to reassure the patient that treatment is available and necessary, and to review their progress in 2 months.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 15 - A 9-year-old girl visits the clinic with her father. She sustained a minor...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl visits the clinic with her father. She sustained a minor injury to her knee while playing soccer and her father is worried that it might be infected. The injury occurred 3 weeks ago and was described as a scrape. Upon examination, you observe a well-healed superficial abrasion on the skin, with several small, raised pink bumps with a central dimple surrounding the scrape. The skin around the wound is not red and feels cool to the touch. Additionally, you notice a cluster of similar bumps on her back. Her father reports that these bumps have been present for approximately 7 months.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Molluscum contagiosum

      Explanation:

      Molluscum contagiosum, a viral lesion commonly seen in children, can exhibit the Koebner phenomenon, which causes lesions to appear at sites of injury. Unlike contact dermatitis, there is no history of exposure to chemicals. Chickenpox presents with a shorter time frame and a rash that blisters and scabs over, while pompholyx eczema is typically found on the hands and soles of the feet. The presence of cool surrounding skin suggests that a bacterial infection is unlikely.

      The Koebner Phenomenon: Skin Lesions at the Site of Injury

      The Koebner phenomenon refers to the occurrence of skin lesions at the site of injury. This phenomenon is commonly observed in various skin conditions such as psoriasis, vitiligo, warts, lichen planus, lichen sclerosus, and molluscum contagiosum. In other words, if a person with any of these skin conditions experiences trauma or injury to their skin, they may develop new lesions in the affected area.

      This phenomenon is named after Heinrich Koebner, a German dermatologist who first described it in 1876. The exact mechanism behind the Koebner phenomenon is not fully understood, but it is believed to be related to the immune system’s response to injury. In some cases, the injury may trigger an autoimmune response, leading to the development of new lesions.

      The Koebner phenomenon can be a frustrating and challenging aspect of managing skin conditions. It is important for individuals with these conditions to take precautions to avoid injury to their skin, such as wearing protective clothing or avoiding activities that may cause trauma. Additionally, prompt treatment of any new lesions that develop can help prevent further spread of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 16 - A 14-year-old girl is brought in by her father. She had been in...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl is brought in by her father. She had been in the Scottish Highlands ten days ago. He found an insect attached to the skin of her abdomen and removed it but is concerned it may have been a tick. She has now developed a circular erythematous rash that has begun to radiate out from the bite.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline 100 mg twice a day for 21 days

      Explanation:

      Understanding and Managing Lyme Disease: Early Manifestations and Treatment Options

      Lyme disease is a tick-borne illness caused by the spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi. Its early manifestation is erythema chronicum migrans, which can progress to neurological, cardiovascular, or arthritic symptoms. Different strains of Borrelia spp. cause varying clinical manifestations, leading to differences in symptoms between countries. The disease is transmitted by Ixodes spp. or deer ticks. Early use of antibiotics can prevent persistent, recurrent, and refractory Lyme disease. Antibiotics shorten the clinical course and progression.

      In patients with erythema migrans alone, oral drug therapies can be started in primary care. Doxycycline (100 mg twice daily or 200 mg once daily for 21 days) is the first choice for patients aged 12 years or older. Amoxicillin (1 g three times daily for 21 days) is the first alternative, while azithromycin (500 mg daily for 17 days) is the second alternative but should be avoided in patients with cardiac abnormalities caused by Lyme disease. If there is any suggestion of cellulitis, co-amoxiclav or amoxicillin and flucloxacillin alone would be more appropriate.

      In the USA, a single dose of 200 mg of doxycycline within 72 hours of tick removal can prevent Lyme disease from developing. However, the risk in the UK is not high enough to warrant prophylactic antibiotics. Antibody testing in patients with erythema migrans is unhelpful as the rash develops before the antibodies. It is important to discuss management with a microbiologist, especially if there are further manifestations. Early diagnosis and treatment can prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 17 - A 20-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of facial acne....

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of facial acne. On physical examination, it is noted that the majority of the lesions are closed and open comedones with very few inflamed lesions. What would be the most appropriate initial treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adapalene

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Mild-to-Moderate Comedonal Acne

      Comedonal acne, characterized by blackheads and whiteheads, can be effectively treated with topical preparations. The first-line treatment is topical retinoids such as adapalene, tretinoin, or isotretinoin, followed by azelaic acid or benzoyl peroxide. While some initial redness and skin peeling may occur, this typically subsides over time. If excessive irritation occurs, treatment should be reduced or suspended until the reaction subsides. Adapalene is the preferred option due to its low irritation potential. Treatment should be applied once daily to all affected areas and continued until no new lesions appear. Topical retinoids are not recommended during pregnancy, and women of childbearing age should use effective contraception.

      Topical retinoids work by normalizing follicular keratinization, promoting comedone drainage, and inhibiting new comedone formation. They are also effective at treating inflammation by inhibiting microcomedone formation, as supported by evidence from placebo-controlled trials. In severe cases, manual extraction of sebum using a comedone extractor may be necessary, along with benzoyl peroxide for inflamed lesions. Topical antibiotics are ineffective against non-inflamed lesions, while systemic antibiotics are used for inflamed lesions and systemic retinoids for severe acne or treatment failures.

      Managing Comedonal Acne: Topical Treatment Options and Considerations

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 18 - A 56-year-old man presents with a persistent cough. He reports no other health...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents with a persistent cough. He reports no other health concerns and is not taking any regular medications. During the consultation, he requests a brief examination of his toenail, which has recently changed in appearance without any known cause. Specifically, the nail on his right big toe is thickened and yellowed at the outer edge. Although he experiences no discomfort or other symptoms, he is curious about the cause of this change.

      What initial management approach would you recommend in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No treatment necessary if he is happy to leave it; give self-care advice

      Explanation:

      If a patient has a fungal nail infection that is asymptomatic and doesn’t bother them in terms of appearance, treatment may not be necessary according to NICE CKS guidelines. However, if treatment is desired, topical antifungal treatment for 9-12 months may be appropriate for minor involvement of a single nail. Liver function tests should be checked before prescribing oral antifungal medication such as terbinafine. Self-care advice can be given to the patient, including keeping feet clean and dry, wearing breathable socks and footwear, and avoiding going barefoot in changing rooms. Referral to podiatry is not necessary unless the patient is unable to perform their own foot-care. Swabbing the skin for microscopy and culture may not be useful in cases where the skin is not involved.

      Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.

      The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.

      Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 19 - Which type of skin lesion usually goes away on its own without requiring...

    Incorrect

    • Which type of skin lesion usually goes away on its own without requiring any treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyogenic granuloma

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions: Granuloma Annulare and Actinic Keratoses

      Granuloma annulare is a common skin condition that is characterized by palpable annular lesions that can appear anywhere on the body. The cause of this condition is unknown, and it is rarely associated with diabetes. In most cases, no treatment is necessary as the lesions will resolve on their own within a year.

      On the other hand, actinic keratoses are rough, scaly lesions that develop on sun-damaged skin. These lesions can also be a precursor to squamous cell carcinoma. Treatment options for actinic keratoses include cryotherapy, topical 5-fluorouracil (Efudix), topical diclofenac (Solaraze), excision, and curettage. While spontaneous regression of actinic keratoses is possible, it is not common.

      In summary, both granuloma annulare and actinic keratoses are skin conditions that require different approaches to treatment. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and management.

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  • Question 20 - A 30-year-old female presents with tender, erythematous nodules over her thighs. Blood tests...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female presents with tender, erythematous nodules over her thighs. Blood tests reveal:

      Calcium 2.78 mmol/l

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythema nodosum

      Explanation:

      Understanding Erythema Nodosum

      Erythema nodosum is a condition characterized by inflammation of the subcutaneous fat, resulting in tender, erythematous, nodular lesions. These lesions typically occur over the shins but may also appear on other parts of the body, such as the forearms and thighs. Fortunately, erythema nodosum usually resolves within six weeks, and the lesions heal without scarring.

      There are several potential causes of erythema nodosum. Infections such as streptococci, tuberculosis, and brucellosis can trigger the condition. Systemic diseases like sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, and Behcet’s syndrome may also be responsible. In some cases, erythema nodosum may be linked to malignancy or lymphoma. Certain drugs, including penicillins, sulphonamides, and the combined oral contraceptive pill, as well as pregnancy, can also cause erythema nodosum.

      Overall, understanding the potential causes of erythema nodosum can help individuals recognize the condition and seek appropriate treatment. While the condition can be uncomfortable, it typically resolves on its own within a few weeks.

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  • Question 21 - A 19-year-old male patient comes in for a follow-up after being on lymecycline...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old male patient comes in for a follow-up after being on lymecycline and topical adapalene for three months to treat moderate acne vulgaris. He reports a positive response to the treatment with only occasional breakouts on his forehead. He has no allergies and is not on any other medications.

      What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop lymecycline and continue adapalene

      Explanation:

      When treating acne vulgaris, it is important to limit the use of a single oral antibiotic to a maximum of three months. Additionally, it is recommended to review the treatment plan every 8-12 weeks. If topical treatments are not effective for moderate acne, an oral antibiotic like lymecycline or doxycycline can be added for a maximum of three months to prevent antibiotic resistance. Once the acne has cleared or improved significantly, maintenance therapy with topical retinoids or azelaic acid should be considered as first-line options, unless contraindicated.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

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  • Question 22 - A 50-year-old woman comes to you with a lesion on her left cheek...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to you with a lesion on her left cheek that has been present for 3 days. The area is red, warm, slightly tender, and measures 2 cm in diameter. She has no significant medical history except for a penicillin allergy. She is not experiencing fever and the rash appears to be a mild facial cellulitis without any involvement of the periorbital or orbital regions. What course of treatment do you recommend?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin 500mg bd 1 week

      Explanation:

      For adults with mild facial cellulitis, the recommended treatment is a 7-day course of co-amoxiclav or clarithromycin for those with a penicillin allergy. A review should be arranged after 48 hours, either by telephone or face-to-face, depending on clinical judgement.

      Urgent hospital admission is necessary for patients with red flags such as Eron Class III or IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, immunocompromised individuals, very young or frail patients, those with significant lymphoedema, and those with facial or periorbital cellulitis unless it is very mild. For Eron Class II cellulitis, admission may not be necessary if the community has the facilities and expertise to administer intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient, subject to local guidelines.

      The Eron classification system can assist in determining the appropriate level of care and treatment. Class I patients show no signs of systemic toxicity and have no uncontrolled co-morbidities. Class II patients are either systemically unwell or have a comorbidity that may complicate or delay resolution of infection. Class III patients have significant systemic upset or limb-threatening infections due to vascular compromise. Class IV patients have sepsis syndrome or a severe life-threatening infection such as necrotising fasciitis.

      Understanding Cellulitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Cellulitis is a common skin infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. It is characterized by inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues, usually on the shins, accompanied by erythema, pain, swelling, and sometimes fever. The diagnosis of cellulitis is based on clinical features, and no further investigations are required in primary care. However, bloods and blood cultures may be requested if the patient is admitted and septicaemia is suspected.

      To guide the management of patients with cellulitis, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using the Eron classification. Patients with Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, very young or frail patients, immunocompromised patients, patients with significant lymphoedema, or facial or periorbital cellulitis (unless very mild) should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if the facilities and expertise are available in the community to give intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.

      The first-line treatment for mild/moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin, while clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline is recommended for patients allergic to penicillin. Patients with severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of cellulitis is crucial for effective management and prevention of complications.

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  • Question 23 - A 19-year-old male presents with a widespread skin rash. He had a coryzal...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old male presents with a widespread skin rash. He had a coryzal illness and a sore throat last week, which has now improved. The rash has spread extensively, but it is not itchy. On examination, you observe erythematous 'tear drop' shape, scaly plaques covering his whole torso and upper legs. You estimate that guttate psoriasis covers 25 percent of the patient's total body surface area. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to dermatology for phototherapy

      Explanation:

      Referral is the most appropriate option if the psoriatic lesions are widespread and affecting a large area of the patient’s body. However, if the lesions are not widespread, reassurance may be a reasonable management option as they may self-resolve in 3-4 months. In cases where the psoriatic lesions are not widespread, treatment similar to that used for trunk and limb psoriasis can be applied, including the use of topical steroids, emollients, and vitamin D analogues.

      Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that is more commonly seen in children and adolescents. It is often triggered by a streptococcal infection that occurred 2-4 weeks prior to the appearance of the lesions. The condition is characterized by the presence of tear drop-shaped papules on the trunk and limbs, along with pink, scaly patches or plaques of psoriasis. The onset of guttate psoriasis tends to be acute, occurring over a few days.

      In most cases, guttate psoriasis resolves on its own within 2-3 months. There is no clear evidence to support the use of antibiotics to treat streptococcal infections associated with the condition. Treatment options for guttate psoriasis include topical agents commonly used for psoriasis and UVB phototherapy. In cases where the condition recurs, a tonsillectomy may be necessary.

      It is important to differentiate guttate psoriasis from pityriasis rosea, which is another skin condition that can present with similar symptoms. Guttate psoriasis is typically preceded by a streptococcal sore throat, while pityriasis rosea may be associated with recent respiratory tract infections. The appearance of guttate psoriasis is characterized by tear drop-shaped, scaly papules on the trunk and limbs, while pityriasis rosea presents with a herald patch followed by multiple erythematous, slightly raised oval lesions with a fine scale. Pityriasis rosea is self-limiting and resolves after around 6 weeks.

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  • Question 24 - A mother brings in her 5-year-old son, who has developed an itchy, red...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings in her 5-year-old son, who has developed an itchy, red rash over the last few weeks which has been gradually worsening. It is mostly affecting the flexures and the face. The child’s mother suffers from atopic eczema and suspects that this is the problem with her son’s skin.
      What is the most appropriate management option in the treatment of atopic eczema in children?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emollients should be continued after the eczema clears

      Explanation:

      Best Practices for Managing Eczema: Key Recommendations

      Eczema is a chronic skin condition that can cause significant discomfort and distress. While there is no cure for eczema, there are several strategies that can help manage symptoms and reduce the frequency of flare-ups. Here are some key recommendations for managing eczema:

      1. Emollients should be continued after the eczema clears: Using emollients frequently can help reduce the frequency of flare-ups and the need for steroid treatment.

      2. Only mildly potent corticosteroids should be used: While both mildly and moderately potent topical steroids can be used in children if needed for short courses, very potent preparations should only be used under specialist guidance.

      3. Antihistamines should not be prescribed routinely: While antihistamines may provide some relief from itching, they are not recommended for routine use in the management of eczema.

      4. Oral antibiotics should only be used when necessary: Antibiotics are only indicated where there is clinical suspicion of superimposed bacterial infection.

      5. Topical tacrolimus should be used as a second-line treatment: Topical tacrolimus should only be used in cases that are not controlled with maximum corticosteroid therapy, or where there is high risk of side-effects from steroid use.

      By following these recommendations, patients with eczema can better manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 25 - You see a 38-year-old woman being treated for a fungal infection of one...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 38-year-old woman being treated for a fungal infection of one of her great toenails. This was causing her discomfort with walking and so treatment was felt appropriate. Nail clippings confirmed a dermatophyte infection. She has been taking oral terbinafine for this for the last 3 months and is seen today for review.

      When the oral terbinafine was started a notch was filed at the base of the nail abnormality.

      On examination the abnormal nail has remained distal to the notch as the nail has grown out.

      What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue the terbinafine and add in a topical antifungal in combination

      Explanation:

      Monitoring Fungal Nail Infections

      Fungal nail infections may require extended periods of oral antifungal treatment. It is important to monitor the patient for any nail growth 3-6 months after treatment initiation. To aid in this monitoring process, consider filing a notch at the base of the most abnormal nail at the start of treatment. This notch can serve as a reference point for comparing old and new nail growth during follow-up appointments.

      If the abnormal nail remains distal to the notch as it grows out, no further treatment is necessary. However, if the abnormal nail moves proximal to the notch, this indicates that the infection is still present and further treatment is needed. By closely monitoring nail growth and responding appropriately, healthcare providers can effectively manage fungal nail infections.

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  • Question 26 - A 60-year-old man presents with a painful rash consisting of erythematous, swollen plaques...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents with a painful rash consisting of erythematous, swollen plaques with clusters of small vesicles. These are present in a band on the left side of the body extending from the lower dorsal area of the back around the front of the abdomen but not crossing the midline. The rash has been present for 48 hours.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate drug to prescribe for a patient presenting at this stage of the illness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aciclovir

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Herpes Zoster (Shingles)

      Herpes zoster, commonly known as shingles, is a viral infection that affects a specific dermatome. It is recommended to start antiviral treatment, such as aciclovir, within 72 hours of rash onset for individuals over 50 years old. Aciclovir has been shown to reduce the duration of symptoms and the risk of post-herpetic neuralgia. It is also indicated for those with ophthalmic herpes zoster, non-truncal rash, moderate to severe pain or rash, and immunocompromised individuals. Prednisolone may be added to aciclovir, but results are mixed. Pain relief can be achieved with co-codamol, but stronger medications may be necessary. Amitriptyline or gabapentin may be used for post-herpetic neuralgia. Antiviral treatment is not recommended for immunocompetent children with mild symptoms.

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  • Question 27 - A young adult with psoriasis manages his flare-ups at home using potent topical...

    Incorrect

    • A young adult with psoriasis manages his flare-ups at home using potent topical steroids. He is aware of the potential side effects of continuous topical steroid use and asked about the recommended duration of break between courses of treatment according to NICE guidelines.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aim for a break of 8 weeks

      Explanation:

      Managing Psoriasis with Topical Treatments

      Psoriasis patients are advised by NICE to take a break of at least 4 weeks between courses of treatment with potent or very potent corticosteroids. During this period, patients should consider using topical treatments that are not steroid-based, such as vitamin D or vitamin D analogues, or coal tar to maintain psoriasis disease control. These topical treatments can help manage psoriasis symptoms and prevent flare-ups. It is important for patients to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for their individual needs. By incorporating non-steroid topical treatments into their psoriasis management plan, patients can achieve better control of their symptoms and improve their overall quality of life.

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  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a painful skin rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a painful skin rash that started as circular lesions on his trunk and limbs and has now spread to his face, lips, and mouth. He also reports flu-like symptoms and headache. On examination, he has marked facial and lip swelling with crusty sores, blistering, and ulceration in the oral cavity, as well as an erythematous rash on the trunk with small vesicles and bullae. What medication is linked to this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a rare but known negative effect of lamotrigine treatment. This skin condition typically manifests within a few days of starting the medication and can cause flu-like symptoms such as fever, malaise, myalgia, and arthralgia. Painful erythema with blisters or ulcers is a hallmark of the syndrome, which can progress to areas of confluent erythema with skin loss. Mucosal involvement is also common, affecting the eyes, lips, mouth, oesophagus, upper respiratory tract (causing cough and respiratory distress), genitalia, and gastrointestinal tract (resulting in diarrhoea).

      Other drugs, such as aspirin, macrolides, opiates, and cyclosporin, can also cause drug rashes. Exanthematous eruptions are a common type of drug rash, characterised by pink-to-red macules that blanch on pressure.

      Urticaria and erythema multiforme are other types of drug-related rashes. Aspirin and anticonvulsants are associated with erythema multiforme, which typically presents as spot or target lesions and doesn’t involve mucosal tissues.

      Lamotrigine is a medication that is primarily used as an antiepileptic drug. It is typically prescribed as a second-line treatment for a range of generalised and partial seizures. The drug works by blocking sodium channels in the body, which helps to reduce the occurrence of seizures.

      Despite its effectiveness in treating seizures, lamotrigine can also cause a number of adverse effects. One of the most serious of these is Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a rare but potentially life-threatening skin condition. Other possible side effects of the drug include dizziness, headache, nausea, and blurred vision. It is important for patients taking lamotrigine to be aware of these potential risks and to report any unusual symptoms to their healthcare provider.

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  • Question 29 - A 52-year-old woman presents with a deterioration of her psoriasis.

    She is known to...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman presents with a deterioration of her psoriasis.

      She is known to suffer with chronic plaque psoriasis and in the past has suffered with extensive disease. On reviewing her notes she was recently started on a new tablet by her consultant psychiatrist.

      Which if the following tablets is the most likely cause of her presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Psoriasis Triggers and Medications

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can be triggered or worsened by various factors. One of the triggers is a streptococcal infection, which can cause guttate psoriasis. Stress, cigarette smoking, and alcohol consumption are also known to be implicated in the development of psoriasis. In addition, certain medications have been identified as potential triggers, including lithium, indomethacin, chloroquine, NSAIDs, and beta-blockers. Among these medications, lithium is considered the most likely culprit. It is important for individuals with psoriasis to be aware of these triggers and to avoid them whenever possible to manage their condition effectively.

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  • Question 30 - A 20-year-old student comes in with a 1 cm golden, crusted lesion on...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old student comes in with a 1 cm golden, crusted lesion on the border of her left lower lip. She reports that she had a similar episode before and that topical hydrogen peroxide did not help.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical fusidic acid

      Explanation:

      If hydrogen peroxide is not appropriate, topical fusidic acid can be used for impetigo.

      Understanding Impetigo: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that is caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. It can occur as a primary infection or as a complication of an existing skin condition such as eczema. Impetigo is most common in children, especially during warm weather. The infection can develop anywhere on the body, but it tends to occur on the face, flexures, and limbs not covered by clothing.

      The infection spreads through direct contact with discharges from the scabs of an infected person. The bacteria invade the skin through minor abrasions and then spread to other sites by scratching. Infection is spread mainly by the hands, but indirect spread via toys, clothing, equipment, and the environment may occur. The incubation period is between 4 to 10 days.

      Symptoms of impetigo include ‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth. It is highly contagious, and children should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment.

      Management of impetigo depends on the extent of the disease. Limited, localized disease can be treated with hydrogen peroxide 1% cream or topical antibiotic creams such as fusidic acid or mupirocin. MRSA is not susceptible to either fusidic acid or retapamulin, so topical mupirocin should be used in this situation. Extensive disease may require oral flucloxacillin or oral erythromycin if penicillin-allergic. The use of hydrogen peroxide 1% cream was recommended by NICE and Public Health England in 2020 to cut antibiotic resistance. The evidence base shows it is just as effective at treating non-bullous impetigo as a topical antibiotic.

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  • Question 31 - A 32-year-old man with a history of atopic eczema and contact dermatitis experiences...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with a history of atopic eczema and contact dermatitis experiences worsening of his dermatitis due to irritants at work. What is the most frequent irritant that leads to contact dermatitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Soap and cleaning agents

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Contact Dermatitis

      Contact dermatitis is a skin condition that occurs when the skin comes into contact with an irritant or allergen. The most common causes of contact dermatitis include soap and cleaning agents, which can affect people in various fields, especially cleaners and healthcare workers. Wet work is also a significant cause of dermatitis. Latex, particularly in the form of latex-powdered gloves, used to be a common irritant, but the use of latex-free gloves has reduced its occurrence. Nickel found in jewelry can cause a localized reaction, but it is less common than dermatitis caused by soap and cleaning products. Acrylics can also cause contact dermatitis, but they are less common than other irritants. Natural fibers like cotton are less likely to cause a dermatitis reaction compared to synthetic fibers.

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  • Question 32 - As part of your role in coordinating the introduction of the shingles vaccine...

    Incorrect

    • As part of your role in coordinating the introduction of the shingles vaccine (Zostavax) to the surgery, the Practice Manager has asked you to identify which age group should be offered the vaccine.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All adults aged 70-79 years

      Explanation:

      Serologic studies reveal that adults aged 60 years and above have been exposed to Chickenpox to a great extent. Hence, it is recommended that individuals within the age range of 70-79 years should receive the vaccine, irrespective of their memory of having had Chickenpox. However, the vaccine may not be as efficacious in individuals above 80 years of age.

      Varicella-Zoster Vaccination: Protection Against Chickenpox and Shingles

      Varicella-zoster is a herpesvirus that causes Chickenpox and shingles. There are two types of vaccines available to protect against these infections. The first type is a live attenuated vaccine that prevents primary varicella infection or Chickenpox. This vaccine is recommended for healthcare workers who are not immune to VZV and for individuals who are in close contact with immunocompromised patients.

      The second type of vaccine is designed to reduce the incidence of herpes zoster or shingles caused by reactivation of VZV. This live-attenuated vaccine is given subcutaneously and is offered to patients aged 70-79 years. The vaccine is also available as a catch-up campaign for those who missed out on their vaccinations in the previous two years of the program. However, the shingles vaccine is not available on the NHS to anyone aged 80 and over because it seems to be less effective in this age group.

      The main contraindication for both vaccines is immunosuppression. Side effects of the vaccines include injection site reactions, and less than 1 in 10,000 individuals may develop Chickenpox. It is important to note that vaccination is the most effective way to prevent varicella-zoster infections and their complications.

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  • Question 33 - An 80-year-old woman presents with sudden onset erythema of the face. Both cheeks...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman presents with sudden onset erythema of the face. Both cheeks are affected as is the bridge of the nose. The erythema began in the paranasal areas and has spread to both cheeks rapidly. The affected area is bright red, firm, swollen and painful. The edge of the erythema is sharply defined and raised. She has been feeling hot and has been shivering. No other symptoms are reported.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erysipelas

      Explanation:

      Understanding Erysipelas

      Erysipelas is a condition that is typically diagnosed based on clinical symptoms. It usually comes on suddenly and is accompanied by systemic symptoms such as fever. The condition is commonly found on the lower limbs or the face, with facial involvement often manifesting as a butterfly distribution on the cheeks and nasal bridge. The affected skin is characterized by a sharp, well-defined raised border and is bright red, firm, and swollen. In severe cases, dimpling, blistering, and necrosis can occur. While cellulitis shares some clinical features with erysipelas, it doesn’t demonstrate the same clear swelling. Erysipelas is predominantly caused by Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci.

      Other conditions that can cause skin flushing and redness include carcinoid syndrome, mitral stenosis, rosacea, and systemic lupus erythematosus. Carcinoid syndrome is associated with neuroendocrine tumors that produce hormones, while mitral stenosis can cause a malar flush across the cheeks. Rosacea is a skin condition that affects the face and causes redness and blushing, while systemic lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune condition that can have multi-organ involvement and is characterized by a photosensitive malar butterfly rash.

      Overall, the sudden onset and associated fever make erysipelas the most likely diagnosis based on the information provided.

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  • Question 34 - An 80-year-old woman has been consulting with the practice nurse for a few...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman has been consulting with the practice nurse for a few weeks about a leg ulcer on her right leg that doesn't seem to be healing despite multiple rounds of antibiotics. You schedule some Doppler tests, which reveal an ankle: brachial pressure index (ABPI) of 0.4 in the affected leg and 0.8 in the other leg. A wound swab indicates the presence of coliforms. What is the most probable diagnosis from the options provided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arterial insufficiency

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Ankle-Brachial Pressure Index (ABPI) and its Role in Diagnosing Peripheral Arterial Disease

      The ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is a crucial diagnostic tool for identifying peripheral arterial disease. By comparing the systolic blood pressure at the ankle to the brachial artery pressure, doctors can determine if there is lower blood pressure in the leg, which is a sign of arterial disease. To measure the ABPI, a Doppler ultrasound blood flow detector and a sphygmomanometer are used to detect the artery pulse in the brachial and dorsalis pedis or posterior tibial arteries.

      A normal ABPI falls between 0.9 and 1.2, while a value below 0.9 indicates arterial disease. An ABPI of 1.3 or greater is considered abnormal and suggests severe arterial disease. In cases where the ABPI is below 0.5, the disease is considered severe. It’s important to note that an ulcer with a normal ABPI is most likely a venous ulcer.

      While coliforms are common commensals in leg ulcers and typically don’t require treatment, failure of any ulcer to heal should raise concerns about the possibility of a squamous cell carcinoma. Vasculitis typically doesn’t affect the ABPI unless it’s a large vessel vasculitis, such as polyarteritis nodosa, which would be apparent. Understanding the ABPI and its role in diagnosing peripheral arterial disease is crucial for effective treatment and management of this condition.

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  • Question 35 - A 70-year-old ex-farmer has well-controlled congestive cardiac failure and mild dementia. He points...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old ex-farmer has well-controlled congestive cardiac failure and mild dementia. He points to a hard horn-like lesion sticking up from his left pinna for about 0.5 cm. It has a slightly indurated fleshy base.
      Select from the list the single most appropriate course of action.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral to secondary care

      Explanation:

      Cutaneous Horns and the Risk of Squamous Cell Carcinoma

      Cutaneous horns are hard, keratin-based growths that often occur on sun-damaged skin. Farmers and other outdoor workers are particularly at risk due to their increased sun exposure. While most cutaneous horns are benign, doctors should be cautious as they can be a sign of squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) at the base of the lesion. SCCs can metastasize, especially if they occur on the ear, so urgent referral for removal is necessary if an SCC is suspected.

      Although most cutaneous horns are caused by viral warts or seborrheic keratosis, up to 20% of lesions can be a sign of premalignant actinic keratoses or frank malignancy. Therefore, it is important for doctors to carefully evaluate any cutaneous horn and consider the possibility of SCC. While current guidelines discourage GPs from excising lesions suspected to be SCCs, urgent referral for removal is necessary to prevent metastasis and ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

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  • Question 36 - A 68-year-old man has a well-demarcated, raised, tender, erythematous area on his left...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man has a well-demarcated, raised, tender, erythematous area on his left shin. It has appeared in the last 48 hours. His temperature is 38.5 °C. The left lower leg has evidence of varicose skin changes and excoriation.
      What is the most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Cellulitis: Streptococcus, Staphylococcus, Herpes Simplex Virus, Pseudomonas, and Varicella Zoster Virus

      Cellulitis is a common skin infection that is characterized by a red, tender area of skin associated with a fever. The most common pathogen causing cellulitis is streptococcus, which can enter the body through excoriated skin. Staphylococcus can also cause cellulitis, but it is less common than streptococcus. Herpes simplex virus typically causes cold sores or genital warts, and can be inoculated into abrasions, but this would produce a vesicular rash. Pseudomonas is not a common pathogen in cellulitis, but can occur following puncture wounds or in immunocompromised people. Varicella zoster virus causes Chickenpox and shingles, but neither of these descriptions are seen in cellulitis. Understanding the different causes of cellulitis can help with proper diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 37 - A 35-year-old man comes to you with a painful verrucous lesion on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man comes to you with a painful verrucous lesion on his right heel. Upon removing the hard skin over the lesion with a scalpel, you notice some black pinpoint marks. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Viral wart

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Lesions and Conditions

      Verrucae, also known as plantar warts, are thickened lesions found on the feet that can fuse together to form mosaic patterns. Pinpoint petechiae may be present, appearing as small black dots. Heel fissures are another common condition, caused by dry, thickened skin around the rim of the heel that cracks under pressure. Calluses and corns are also responses to friction and pressure, resulting in thickened areas of skin on the hands and feet. However, it is important to differentiate these benign lesions from malignant melanoma, particularly acral lentiginous melanoma, which can occur on the soles or palms and presents as an enlarging pigmented patch. The ABCDE rule (Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Colour variation, large Diameter, and Evolving) can help identify potential melanomas.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 38 - A 21-year-old female patient comes to you with bilateral, symmetrical depigmented lesions on...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old female patient comes to you with bilateral, symmetrical depigmented lesions on her upper limbs that have been getting larger since she first noticed them 3 weeks ago. You suspect vitiligo and want to start medication while she waits for her dermatology appointment. Which of the following medications should you consider?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Potent topical corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      In the early stages of vitiligo, the use of potent topical corticosteroids may be beneficial in reversing the changes. However, it is important to note that medications such as topical tacrolimus or oral steroids should only be prescribed by a dermatologist. Oral tacrolimus and topical miconazole are not effective in managing vitiligo, unless a fungal infection is suspected.

      Understanding Vitiligo

      Vitiligo is a medical condition that occurs when the immune system attacks and destroys melanocytes, leading to the loss of skin pigmentation. It is estimated to affect about 1% of the population, with symptoms typically appearing in individuals between the ages of 20 and 30 years. The condition is characterized by well-defined patches of depigmented skin, with the edges of the affected areas being the most prominent. Trauma to the skin may also trigger the development of new lesions, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.

      Vitiligo is often associated with other autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s disease, autoimmune thyroid disorders, pernicious anemia, and alopecia areata. While there is no cure for vitiligo, there are several management options available. These include the use of sunblock to protect the affected areas of skin, camouflage make-up to conceal the depigmented patches, and topical corticosteroids to reverse the changes if applied early. Other treatment options may include topical tacrolimus and phototherapy, although caution is advised when using these treatments on patients with light skin. Overall, early diagnosis and management of vitiligo can help to improve the quality of life for affected individuals.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 39 - A 28-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a vesicular rash that...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a vesicular rash that is extremely itchy and evenly spread over his arms, legs, elbows, shoulders, and buttocks. He reports that the rash appears and disappears, with periods of a few weeks when it is almost gone. He also experiences intermittent diarrhea, which has been attributed to irritable bowel syndrome. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis

      Explanation:

      Possible Coeliac Disease and Dermatitis Herpetiformis

      The patient’s history of bowel symptoms suggests the possibility of undiagnosed coeliac disease, which may be linked to dermatitis herpetiformis. A gluten exclusion diet may help improve the rash, but dapsone may also be effective in treating it. Other potential causes of a vesicular rash include erythema multiforme, porphyria, and pemphigus/pemphigoid.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 40 - A 32-year-old woman presents with recurrent cold sores on her lip. She experiences...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with recurrent cold sores on her lip. She experiences frequent outbreaks during the spring and summer, which are painful and affect her confidence when going outside. She has tried over-the-counter creams with little success. She has no significant medical history and wants to prevent future outbreaks.
      What is the best course of action for managing her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeated courses of oral aciclovir to be taken at the onset of symptoms

      Explanation:

      Management of Recurrent Herpes Labialis: Treatment Options and Diagnostic Considerations

      Recurrent herpes labialis, commonly known as cold sores, can be a frustrating and uncomfortable condition for patients. Here are some management options to consider:

      – Oral antivirals: Treatment with oral antivirals may be considered in healthy patients if the lesions are persistent. Treatment should be started at the onset of the prodrome until the lesions have healed.
      – Topical aciclovir: While topical aciclovir can be used intermittently when prodromal symptoms appear, it is not recommended for long-term prophylaxis.
      – Sun protection: Sun exposure can trigger facial herpes simplex, so sun protection using a high-protection-factor sunscreen and other measures may be tried.
      – Laser therapy: There is no evidence to support laser therapy in the management of recurrent herpes labialis.
      – Diagnostic considerations: Investigations are not usually necessary in primary care to confirm the diagnosis. Tests for underlying immunosuppression may be considered with persistent or severe episodes.

      It is important to work with patients to find the best management plan for their individual needs.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 41 - A 28-year-old man returns from a holiday in Spain. He is worried about...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man returns from a holiday in Spain. He is worried about the multiple white patches on his upper chest where he failed to get a proper suntan. Upon examination, these patches have well-defined scaly white skin and a significant lack of pigmentation compared to the tanned areas. What is the most suitable treatment option from the following list?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clotrimazole cream

      Explanation:

      Understanding and Treating Pityriasis Versicolor

      Pityriasis versicolor is a skin condition caused by the yeast Malassezia furfur. It presents as patches of scaling skin that become depigmented compared to surrounding normal skin areas, particularly noticeable during the summer months. The lesions primarily involve the trunk but may spread to other areas. The condition is not contagious as the organism is commensal.

      Treatment usually involves topical antifungals such as clotrimazole, terbinafine, or miconazole. Selenium sulphide, an anti-dandruff shampoo, can also be used. However, the condition may recur, and repeat treatments may be necessary. Oral agents such as itraconazole or fluconazole are only used if topical treatments fail.

      Skin camouflage can be used to disguise lesions of vitiligo, which may be distressing for patients. The charity organization ‘Changing Faces’ provides this service. Hydrocortisone and fusidic acid are ineffective in treating pityriasis versicolor.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 42 - A 55-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with a pigmented skin lesion on...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with a pigmented skin lesion on her back that has grown quickly over the past few months. She has a history of frequent sunbed use. The lesion measures 9.5 mm in diameter. She is referred to Dermatology, where a diagnosis of malignant melanoma is confirmed.
      What characteristic of the lesion would indicate the worst prognosis for this disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breslow thickness > 3 mm

      Explanation:

      Prognostic Factors for Malignant Melanoma

      Malignant melanoma is a type of skin cancer that can be staged based on several prognostic factors. The Breslow thickness, measured in millimetres from the dermo-epidermal junction, is a key factor. A thickness greater than 3.5 mm is associated with a poor prognosis, while a thickness less than 1.5 mm has a 5-year survival rate of over 90%. The diameter of the melanoma, however, has not been found to be a significant factor.

      Clarke’s level is another important factor, measured from I to IV based on the level of invasion through the dermis. A Clarke’s level of I indicates that the melanoma has not invaded past the basement membrane, which is associated with a better outcome for the patient.

      Microsatellite metastases, which are cutaneous metastases around the primary melanoma, can increase the TNM staging score and result in a worse prognosis. Therefore, the lack of microsatellite metastasis is a positive prognostic factor.

      Surface ulceration, or the presence of an open sore on the skin, is a poor prognostic indicator and is accounted for in TNM scoring. The absence of surface ulceration is a positive factor for the patient’s prognosis.

      Overall, these factors can help predict the prognosis for patients with malignant melanoma and guide treatment decisions.

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  • Question 43 - A 16-year-old male presents for follow-up. He has a medical history of acne...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male presents for follow-up. He has a medical history of acne and is currently taking oral lymecycline. Despite treatment, there has been no improvement and upon examination, scarring is evident on his face. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Referral for oral isotretinoin

      Explanation:

      Referral for oral retinoin is recommended for patients with scarring.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

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  • Question 44 - A 58-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed as suffering from lentigo maligna on...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed as suffering from lentigo maligna on her face.
      Which of the following factors is most important in determining her prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thickness of the lesion

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lentigo Maligna: Early Stage Melanoma

      Lentigo maligna is a type of melanoma that is in its early stages and is confined to the epidermis. It is often referred to as ‘in situ’ melanoma. This type of melanoma typically appears as a flat, slowly growing, freckle-like lesion on the facial or sun-exposed skin of patients in their 60s or older. Over time, it can extend to several centimetres and eventually change into an invasive malignant melanoma.

      To identify lentigo maligna, the ABCDE rule can be used. This rule stands for Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Colour variation, large Diameter, and Evolving. If there is a change in size, outline, colour, surface, contour, or elevation of the lesion, malignant change should be suspected. Lentigo maligna spreads via the lymphatics, and satellite lesions are commonly seen.

      The prognosis of lentigo maligna is directly related to the thickness of the tumour assessed at histological examination. The thickness is measured using the Breslow thickness or Clark level of invasion. The site of the lesion also affects the prognosis. Patients with lesions on the trunk fare better than those with facial lesions but worse than those with lesions on the limbs.

      In conclusion, understanding lentigo maligna is crucial in identifying and treating early-stage melanoma. Regular skin checks and following the ABCDE rule can help detect any changes in the skin and prevent the progression of lentigo maligna into invasive malignant melanoma.

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  • Question 45 - A 28-year-old woman comes to you with concerns about hair loss that she...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to you with concerns about hair loss that she believes began after giving birth to her second child 10 months ago. She reports being in good health and not taking any medications. During your examination, you observe areas of hair loss on the back of her head. The skin appears normal, and you notice a few short, broken hairs at the edges of two of the patches. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alopecia areata

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alopecia Areata

      Alopecia areata is a condition that is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response, resulting in localized hair loss that is well-defined and demarcated. This condition is characterized by the presence of small, broken hairs that resemble exclamation marks at the edge of the hair loss. While hair regrowth occurs in about 50% of patients within a year, it eventually occurs in 80-90% of patients. In many cases, a careful explanation of the condition is sufficient for patients. However, there are several treatment options available, including topical or intralesional corticosteroids, topical minoxidil, phototherapy, dithranol, contact immunotherapy, and wigs. It is important to understand the causes and treatment options for alopecia areata to effectively manage this condition.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 46 - A 31-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a painful rash on...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a painful rash on her shins. Upon examination, there are multiple tender nodules that appear purple in color. She has no significant medical history. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythema nodosum

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions: Erythema Nodosum, Insect Bites, Discoid Eczema, Erysipelas, and Post-Traumatic Ecchymoses

      Erythema nodosum is a painful skin condition characterized by tender, red nodules caused by inflammation of subcutaneous fat. It is more common in women aged 25-40 and can be associated with underlying conditions or occur in isolation.

      Insect bites from non-venomous insects like mosquitoes, fleas, lice, and bed bugs can result in itchy papules or blisters grouped in the exposed body site. Bites often appear in clusters.

      Discoid eczema is a type of eczema with unknown causes. It is characterized by round-to-oval, itchy, red, scaly plaques that may contain vesicles with serous exudate.

      Erysipelas is a tender, red, indurated plaque with a well-defined border caused by group A beta-hemolytic streptococci.

      Post-traumatic ecchymosis or bruises are large blood extravasations under the skin that may be caused by coagulation or vascular disorders. However, there is no history of trauma to support this diagnosis.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 47 - Which of the following skin conditions is less frequently observed in individuals with...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following skin conditions is less frequently observed in individuals with systemic lupus erythematosus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Keratoderma blenorrhagica

      Explanation:

      Reiter’s syndrome is characterized by the presence of waxy yellow papules on the palms and soles, a condition known as keratoderma blenorrhagica.

      Skin Disorders Associated with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a chronic autoimmune disease that can affect various organs and tissues in the body, including the skin. Skin manifestations of SLE include a photosensitive butterfly rash, discoid lupus, alopecia, and livedo reticularis, which is a net-like rash. The butterfly rash is a red, flat or raised rash that appears on the cheeks and bridge of the nose, often sparing the nasolabial folds. Discoid lupus is a chronic, scarring skin condition that can cause red, raised patches or plaques on the face, scalp, and other areas of the body. Alopecia is hair loss that can occur on the scalp, eyebrows, and other areas of the body. Livedo reticularis is a mottled, purplish discoloration of the skin that can occur on the arms, legs, and trunk.

      The skin manifestations of SLE can vary in severity and may come and go over time. They can also be a sign of more serious internal organ involvement. Treatment for skin manifestations of SLE may include topical or oral medications, such as corticosteroids, antimalarials, and immunosuppressants, as well as sun protection measures.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 48 - An 18-year-old girl comes in with facial psoriasis, which is only affecting her...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old girl comes in with facial psoriasis, which is only affecting her hairline and nasolabial folds. She hasn't attempted any treatments yet, aside from using emollients. What is the best choice for topical management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clobetasone butyrate (Eumovate ®)

      Explanation:

      Topical Treatments for Facial Psoriasis

      When it comes to treating facial psoriasis, it’s important to use the right topical treatments to avoid skin irritation and adverse effects. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using a mild or moderately potent steroid for two weeks, along with emollients. Calcipotriol can be used intermittently if topical corticosteroids aren’t effective enough. However, betamethasone, a potent steroid, should not be used on the face. Coal-tar solution is also not recommended for facial psoriasis. Tacrolimus ointment can be used intermittently if other treatments aren’t working. By using the appropriate topical treatments, patients can manage their facial psoriasis effectively.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 49 - A 30-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about the lumps on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about the lumps on her ear that she has had since her teenage years. Upon examination, you diagnose her with a keloid scar. What information should you provide to this patient about keloid scars?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recurrence after excision is common

      Explanation:

      Mythbusting Keloid Scars: Common Misconceptions and Facts

      Keloid scars are often misunderstood and surrounded by myths. Here are some common misconceptions and facts about keloid scars:

      Recurrence after excision is common: Keloid scars are likely to recur after surgical excision as there is further trauma to the skin, which may result in a larger scar than the original.

      They only arise following significant trauma: Keloid scars may develop after minor skin trauma, acne scarring, or immunizations.

      Topical steroid treatment should be avoided: Keloid scars may be reduced in size by topical steroid tape or intralesional steroid injections given every 2–6 weeks. Other treatments include pressure dressings, cryotherapy, and laser treatment.

      They are more common in Caucasian individuals: Keloid scars are more common in non-Caucasian individuals, with an incidence of 6–16% in African populations.

      They may undergo malignant transformation: There is no association between keloid scars and malignancy. The complications of keloid scars are typically only cosmetic, although they may sometimes affect mobility if occurring near a joint.

      In conclusion, it is important to understand the facts about keloid scars to dispel any myths and misconceptions surrounding them. With proper treatment and management, keloid scars can be effectively reduced in size and their impact on a person’s life minimized.

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  • Question 50 - A 55-year-old woman has vulval lichen sclerosus. You are asked by the gynaecologist...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman has vulval lichen sclerosus. You are asked by the gynaecologist to prescribe a very potent topical corticosteroid for her.
      Select from the list the single suitable preparation.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clobetasol propionate 0.05% (Dermovate®)

      Explanation:

      Treatment of Lichen Sclerosus with Topical Corticosteroids

      Lichen sclerosus is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that affects the genital and anal areas. The recommended treatment for this condition is the use of topical corticosteroids. The potency of the corticosteroid used is determined by the formulation and the type of corticosteroid. Mild, moderate, potent, and very potent corticosteroids are available for use.

      The most effective treatment for lichen sclerosus is the very potent topical corticosteroid clobetasol propionate. The recommended regimen for a newly diagnosed case is to apply clobetasol propionate once a night for 4 weeks, then on alternate nights for 4 weeks, and finally twice weekly for the third month. If symptoms return during the reduction of treatment, the frequency that was effective should be resumed.

      Other topical corticosteroids such as mometasone furoate and pimecrolimus have also been shown to be effective in treating genital lichen sclerosus. However, clobetasol propionate has been demonstrated to be more effective than pimecrolimus.

      It is important to note that while treatment with topical corticosteroids can resolve hyperkeratosis, ecchymoses, fissuring, and erosions, atrophy and color change may remain. Maintenance with less frequent use of a very potent corticosteroid or a weaker steroid may be necessary.

      Topical Corticosteroids for Lichen Sclerosus Treatment

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  • Question 51 - A 60-year-old man presents to your clinic with complaints of weight loss, fatigue,...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents to your clinic with complaints of weight loss, fatigue, and skin changes under his arms. During the examination, you notice thickened dark pigmented areas of skin under both arms. What underlying condition is typically linked to this clinical sign?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carcinoma stomach

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acanthosis Nigricans

      Acanthosis nigricans (AN) is a skin condition that is characterized by darkening and thickening of the skin in certain areas such as the armpits, groin, and back of the neck. However, it is not a skin disease in itself but rather a sign of an underlying condition or disease. In some cases, AN can be a paraneoplastic syndrome, commonly known as acanthosis nigricans maligna, which is associated with an internal malignancy, particularly adenocarcinoma of the gastrointestinal tract or uterus. AN is more commonly seen in individuals over the age of 40 and is often linked to obesity and insulin resistance.

      It is important to note that AN of the oral mucosa or tongue is highly suggestive of a neoplasm, particularly of the gastrointestinal tract.

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  • Question 52 - A 26-year-old male attends your morning surgery five days after an insect bite....

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male attends your morning surgery five days after an insect bite. He has presented today as the area surrounding the bite is becoming increasingly red and itchy.

      On examination, you notice a 3-4 cm area of erythema surrounding the bite area and excoriation marks. The is some pus discharging from the bite mark. Observations are all within the normal range. You decide to prescribe antibiotics to cover for infection and arrange a repeat review in 48 hours.

      On reviewing his medical records you note he is on isotretinoin for acne and has a penicillin allergy.

      Which of the following antibiotics would you consider prescribing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clindamycin

      Explanation:

      Combining oral isotretinoin with tetracyclines is not recommended as it may lead to benign intracranial hypertension. Trimethoprim is not suitable for treating skin or soft tissue infections. Clindamycin, a lincomycin antibiotic, can be used for such infections, especially if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Co-amoxiclav doesn’t interact with isotretinoin, but it cannot be used in patients with penicillin allergy. Doxycycline, a tetracycline antibiotic, should be avoided when a patient is taking isotretinoin due to the risk of benign intracranial hypertension.

      Understanding Isotretinoin and its Adverse Effects

      Isotretinoin is a type of oral retinoid that is commonly used to treat severe acne. It has been found to be effective in providing long-term remission or cure for two-thirds of patients who undergo a course of treatment. However, it is important to note that isotretinoin also comes with several adverse effects that patients should be aware of.

      One of the most significant adverse effects of isotretinoin is its teratogenicity, which means that it can cause birth defects in fetuses if taken during pregnancy. For this reason, females who are taking isotretinoin should ideally be using two forms of contraception to prevent pregnancy. Other common adverse effects of isotretinoin include dry skin, eyes, and lips/mouth, low mood, raised triglycerides, hair thinning, nosebleeds, and photosensitivity.

      It is also worth noting that there is some controversy surrounding the potential link between isotretinoin and depression or other psychiatric problems. While these adverse effects are listed in the British National Formulary (BNF), further research is needed to fully understand the relationship between isotretinoin and mental health.

      Overall, while isotretinoin can be an effective treatment for severe acne, patients should be aware of its potential adverse effects and discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider.

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  • Question 53 - A 28-year-old female patient presents to the GP with a rash. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient presents to the GP with a rash. She has a vivid red rash on her nose and cheeks. The patient complains that consuming alcohol exacerbates her rash, causing her great embarrassment. She also reports experiencing occasional pustules.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acne rosacea

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest acne rosacea, which is characterized by flushing, erythema, and telangiectasia on the nose, cheeks, and forehead, as well as the presence of papules and pustules. This condition is known to worsen with alcohol consumption. In contrast, acne vulgaris typically presents with comedones, papules, pustules, nodules, and/or cysts, and is less erythematous than rosacea. Erythema ab igne, on the other hand, is caused by exposure to high levels of heat or infra-red radiation, while psoriasis is characterized by a silver-scaly rash that typically appears on the knees and elbows. Although the patient’s symptoms could be mistaken for a butterfly rash, there is no evidence to suggest lupus.

      Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a skin condition that is chronic in nature and its cause is unknown. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Telangiectasia, which are small blood vessels that are visible on the skin, are common, and the condition can progress to persistent erythema with papules and pustules. Rhinophyma, a condition where the nose becomes enlarged and bulbous, can also occur. Ocular involvement, such as blepharitis, can also be present, and sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.

      Management of rosacea depends on the severity of the symptoms. For mild symptoms, topical metronidazole may be used, while topical brimonidine gel may be considered for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics such as oxytetracycline. It is recommended that patients apply a high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia, and those with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist for further management.

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  • Question 54 - You are visited by a 35-year-old man who is concerned about the number...

    Incorrect

    • You are visited by a 35-year-old man who is concerned about the number of moles on his body. He mentions that his cousin was recently diagnosed with melanoma and he is worried about his own risk.

      Upon examination, you note that he has around 70 pigmented naevi, each measuring over 2 mm in diameter.

      What factor would increase this patient's risk of developing melanoma the most?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Having between 51 and 100 common moles greater than 2 mm in size

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Melanoma

      When assessing a pigmented skin lesion, it is important to consider the risk factors for melanoma. While skin that doesn’t tan easily is a risk factor, having between 51 and 100 common moles greater than 2 mm in size confers the greatest risk. Other established risk factors include a family history of melanoma in a first degree relative, light-colored eyes, and unusually high sun exposure.

      It is important to have knowledge of the extent of risk associated with these factors, as this can help identify high-risk patients and provide appropriate advice. Patients who are at moderately increased risk of melanoma should be taught how to self-examine, including those with atypical mole phenotype, previous melanoma, organ transplant recipients, and giant congenital pigmented nevi.

      In conclusion, understanding the risk factors for melanoma is crucial in identifying high-risk patients and providing appropriate advice and follow-up care.

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  • Question 55 - Which one of the following aspects of daily living is specifically inquired about...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following aspects of daily living is specifically inquired about in Dermatology Life Quality Index (DLQI)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sexual intercourse

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Dermatology Life Quality Index (DLQI)

      The Dermatology Life Quality Index (DLQI) is a commonly used tool to evaluate the impact of chronic skin conditions on a patient’s quality of life. It consists of 10 questions, each scored out of 3, with a maximum score of 30. The higher the score, the more significant the impact on the patient’s quality of life. The DLQI covers six areas, including symptoms and feelings, daily activities, leisure, work and school, personal relationships, and treatment.

      The DLQI questions are designed to assess the level of discomfort, embarrassment, and interference with daily activities caused by the skin condition. Patients are asked to rate the severity of symptoms such as itchiness, soreness, and pain, as well as the impact on social and leisure activities, work or study, and personal relationships. The DLQI also evaluates the impact of treatment on the patient’s life.

      Interpreting the DLQI scores is straightforward. A score of 0-1 indicates no effect on the patient’s life, while a score of 2-5 suggests a small impact. A score of 6-10 indicates a moderate effect, while a score of 11-20 suggests a very large impact. A score of 21-30 indicates an extremely large impact on the patient’s life.

      In summary, the DLQI is a quick and easy tool to assess the impact of chronic skin conditions on a patient’s quality of life. It provides valuable information to healthcare professionals to tailor treatment plans and improve patient outcomes.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 56 - Which one of the following statements regarding hirsutism is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding hirsutism is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Co-cyprindiol (Dianette) may be a useful treatment for patients moderate-severe hirsutism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hirsutism and Hypertrichosis

      Hirsutism is a term used to describe excessive hair growth in women that is dependent on androgens, while hypertrichosis refers to hair growth that is not androgen-dependent. Polycystic ovarian syndrome is the most common cause of hirsutism, but other factors such as Cushing’s syndrome, obesity, and certain medications can also contribute to this condition. To assess hirsutism, the Ferriman-Gallwey scoring system is often used, which assigns scores to nine different body areas. Management of hirsutism may involve weight loss, cosmetic techniques, or the use of oral contraceptive pills or topical medications.

      Hypertrichosis, on the other hand, can be caused by a variety of factors such as certain medications, congenital conditions, and even anorexia nervosa. It is important to identify the underlying cause of excessive hair growth in order to determine the most appropriate treatment approach. By understanding the differences between hirsutism and hypertrichosis, individuals can better manage these conditions and improve their quality of life.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 57 - A 29-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner for a consultation. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner for a consultation. She has just been diagnosed with Herpes Simplex Virus Type 1 and has developed a rash that is consistent with erythema multiforme.
      What is the most probable finding in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Target lesions with a central blister

      Explanation:

      Understanding Erythema Multiforme: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Erythema multiforme is a self-limiting skin condition that is characterized by sharply demarcated, round, red or pink macules that evolve into papular plaques. The lesions typically develop a central blister or crust and a surrounding paler pink ring that is raised due to oedema, creating the classic target appearance. However, atypical targets may also occur, with just two zones and/or an indistinct border. Mucous membranes may also be involved.

      The most common cause of erythema multiforme is Herpes Simplex Virus Type 1, followed by Mycoplasma, although many other viruses have been reported to cause the eruption. Drugs are an infrequent cause, and conditions such as Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis are now considered distinct from erythema multiforme.

      Unlike monomorphic eruptions, the lesions in erythema multiforme are polymorphous, meaning they take on many forms. The rash may also involve the palms and soles, although this is not always the case. While there may be a mild itch associated with the condition, intense itching is more commonly seen in Chickenpox in children.

      Lesions in erythema multiforme typically start on the dorsal surfaces of the hands and feet and spread along the limbs towards the trunk. The condition usually resolves without complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 58 - You see a 49-year-old man in your afternoon clinic who has a history...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 49-year-old man in your afternoon clinic who has a history of flexural psoriasis. He reports a recent flare-up over the past 2 weeks, with both axillae and groin involvement. The patient is not currently on any treatment and has no known drug allergies.

      What would be the most suitable initial therapy for this patient's psoriasis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mild or moderate potency topical corticosteroid applied once or twice daily

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of flexural psoriasis, the correct option is to use a mild or moderate potency topical corticosteroid applied once or twice daily. This is because the skin in flexural areas is thinner and more sensitive to steroids compared to other areas. The affected areas in flexural psoriasis are the groin, genital region, axillae, inframammary folds, abdominal folds, sacral and gluteal cleft. In this case, the patient has axillary psoriasis, and the treatment should begin with a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid for up to two weeks. If there is a good response, repeated short courses of topical corticosteroids may be used to maintain disease control. Potent topical corticosteroids are not advisable for flexural regions, and the use of Vitamin D preparations is not supported by evidence. If there is ongoing treatment failure, we should consider an alternative diagnosis and refer the patient to a dermatologist who may consider calcineurin inhibitors as a second-line treatment. We should also advise our patients to use emollients regularly and provide appropriate lifestyle advice.

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.

      For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.

      When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 59 - You are working in a GP practice, and your next patient is a...

    Incorrect

    • You are working in a GP practice, and your next patient is a female aged 35, who has recently registered. She is living in a hostel near to the practice. She has a previous medical history of anxiety and depression, and is coded to be an ex-intravenous drug user.

      She reports having intensely itchy 'lumps' on her arms and legs for the past two weeks. Upon examination, she has multiple red bumps and raised areas on her limbs and torso, with some of these appearing in a curved line pattern. Her hands, feet, and groin are unaffected.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bedbug infestation

      Explanation:

      If a patient complains of intensely itchy bumps on their arms, torso, or legs, it may be a sign of a bed bug infestation. This is especially true if the patient has recently stayed in a hotel, hostel, or other temporary accommodation, as bed bugs can easily travel on clothing and luggage.

      While scabies is a possible differential diagnosis, it is less likely if the patient doesn’t have involvement of the finger webs or linear burrows beneath the skin. Bed bug bites tend to appear as lumps or welts, rather than small spots.

      If the lesions are aligned in a line or curve, this is also suggestive of a bed bug infestation, as the insects tend to move across the skin in a linear fashion.

      Dealing with Bed Bugs: Symptoms, Treatment, and Prevention

      Bed bugs are a type of insect that can cause a range of clinical problems, including itchy skin rashes, bites, and allergic reactions. Infestation with Cimex hemipterus is the primary cause of these symptoms. In recent years, bed bug infestations have become increasingly common in the UK, and they can be challenging to eradicate. These insects thrive in mattresses and fabrics, making them difficult to detect and eliminate.

      Topical hydrocortisone can help control the itch. However, the definitive treatment for bed bugs is through a pest management company that can fumigate your home. This process can be costly, but it is the most effective way to eliminate bed bugs.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 60 - A 55-year-old woman comes in with a persistent erythematous rash on her cheeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes in with a persistent erythematous rash on her cheeks and a 'red nose'. She reports experiencing occasional facial flushing. During examination, erythematous skin is observed on the nose and cheeks, along with occasional papules. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical metronidazole

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of mild rosacea symptoms, the recommended first-line option is topical metronidazole. However, if the symptoms are severe or resistant, oral tetracycline may be necessary.

      Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a skin condition that is chronic in nature and its cause is unknown. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Telangiectasia, which are small blood vessels that are visible on the skin, are common, and the condition can progress to persistent erythema with papules and pustules. Rhinophyma, a condition where the nose becomes enlarged and bulbous, can also occur. Ocular involvement, such as blepharitis, can also be present, and sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.

      Management of rosacea depends on the severity of the symptoms. For mild symptoms, topical metronidazole may be used, while topical brimonidine gel may be considered for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics such as oxytetracycline. It is recommended that patients apply a high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia, and those with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist for further management.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 61 - A 27-year-old man comes to you with a widespread fungal skin infection in...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man comes to you with a widespread fungal skin infection in his groin area. You decide to send skin scrapings for testing, but in the meantime, you believe it is appropriate to start him on an oral antifungal based on your clinical assessment and judgement. He has no significant medical history, is not taking any other medications, and has no known drug allergies.

      What is the most suitable initial treatment to administer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Terbinafine

      Explanation:

      Oral Antifungal Treatment for Severe Fungal Disease

      Oral antifungal treatment may be necessary for adults with severe or extensive fungal disease. In some cases, treatment can begin before mycology results are obtained, based on clinical judgement. Terbinafine is the preferred first-line treatment for oral antifungal therapy in primary care. However, if terbinafine is not tolerated or contraindicated, oral itraconazole or oral griseofulvin may be used as alternatives. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case. Proper treatment can help manage symptoms and prevent the spread of fungal infections.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 62 - A 23-year-old man visits your clinic with a concern about spots on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man visits your clinic with a concern about spots on his face, neck, and trunk that have been present for a few months. Despite using an over-the-counter facial wash, the spots have not improved. The patient is becoming increasingly self-conscious about them and seeks treatment. Upon examination, you observe comedones and inflamed lesions on his face, as well as nodules, pustules, and scarring. The patient is in good health, with normal vital signs.

      What is the most appropriate initial approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to dermatology

      Explanation:

      A patient with severe acne, including scarring, hyperpigmentation, and widespread pustules, should be referred to a dermatologist for specialized treatment. In this case, the patient has nodules, pustules, and scarring, indicating the need for consideration of oral isotretinoin. A trial of low-strength topical benzoyl peroxide would not be appropriate for severe and widespread acne, but may be suitable for mild to moderate cases. Same-day hospital admission is unnecessary for a patient with normal observations and no other health concerns. A review in 2 months is not appropriate for severe acne, which should be managed with topical therapies, oral antibiotics, or referral to a dermatologist. Topical antibiotics are also not recommended for severe and widespread acne, and a dermatology referral is necessary for this patient with lesions on the face, neck, and trunk.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 63 - A 65 year-old-gentleman with varicose veins has tried conservative management options, but these...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year-old-gentleman with varicose veins has tried conservative management options, but these have led to little improvement. Other than aching in his legs, he is otherwise well. An ABPI was measured at 0.7.

      Which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Class 2 compression stockings

      Explanation:

      Understanding ABPI and Compression Stockings

      When a patient is found to have an ABPI of 0.7, it is likely that they have other symptoms of arterial insufficiency. An ABPI less than 0.8 indicates severe arterial insufficiency, while an ABPI greater than 1.3 may be due to calcified and incompressible arteries. It is important to note that compression stockings are contraindicated in patients with ABPIs less than 0.8 or greater than 1.3.

      The class of stocking used is not based on the ABPI, but rather the condition being treated. Closed toe stockings are generally used, but open toe stockings may be necessary if the patient has arthritic or clawed toes, has a fungal infection, prefers to wear a sock over the compression stocking, or has a long foot size compared with their calf size. Understanding ABPI and the appropriate use of compression stockings can help improve patient outcomes and prevent potential complications.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 64 - A 55-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease and psoriasis presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease and psoriasis presents with a significant worsening of his plaque psoriasis on his elbows and knees over the past two weeks. His medications have been recently altered at the cardiology clinic. Which medication is most likely to have exacerbated his psoriasis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atenolol

      Explanation:

      Plaque psoriasis is known to worsen with the use of beta-blockers.

      Psoriasis can be worsened by various factors, including trauma, alcohol consumption, and certain medications such as beta blockers, lithium, antimalarials (chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine), NSAIDs, ACE inhibitors, and infliximab. Additionally, the sudden withdrawal of systemic steroids can also exacerbate psoriasis symptoms. It is important to note that streptococcal infection can trigger guttate psoriasis, a type of psoriasis characterized by small, drop-like lesions on the skin. Therefore, individuals with psoriasis should be aware of these exacerbating factors and take steps to avoid or manage them as needed.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 65 - An 72-year-old woman contacts her doctor suspecting shingles. The rash started about 48...

    Incorrect

    • An 72-year-old woman contacts her doctor suspecting shingles. The rash started about 48 hours ago and is localized to the T4 dermatome on her right trunk. It is accompanied by pain and blistering. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and is currently on metformin, canagliflozin, and atorvastatin. After confirming the diagnosis of shingles through photo review, the doctor prescribes aciclovir. What measures can be taken to prevent post-herpetic neuralgia in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antiviral treatment

      Explanation:

      Antiviral therapy, such as aciclovir, can effectively reduce the severity and duration of shingles. It can also lower the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia, especially in older patients. However, for antivirals to be effective, they must be administered within 72 hours of rash onset.

      Individuals with chronic diseases such as diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease, inflammatory bowel disease, asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, rheumatoid arthritis, autoimmune diseases, and immunosuppressive conditions like HIV are at a higher risk of developing post-herpetic neuralgia.

      Older patients, particularly those over 50 years old, are also at an increased risk of developing post-herpetic neuralgia. However, the relationship between gender and post-herpetic neuralgia is still unclear, with some studies suggesting that females are at a higher risk, while others indicate the opposite or no association.

      Unfortunately, having a shingles rash on either the trunk or face is associated with an increased risk of post-herpetic neuralgia, not a reduced risk.

      Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The diagnosis is usually clinical and management includes analgesia, antivirals, and reminding patients they are potentially infectious. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, herpes zoster ophthalmicus, and herpes zoster oticus. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia.

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  • Question 66 - A 20-year-old woman has moderately severe acne consisting mainly of inflamed papules. There...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman has moderately severe acne consisting mainly of inflamed papules. There has been no visible response in spite of taking erythromycin 500 mg twice daily for three months. She also uses benzoyl peroxide but finds it irritates her face if she uses it too frequently. She found oxytetracycline upset her stomach. Her only other medication is Microgynon 30®, which she uses for contraception.
      What is the most appropriate primary care management option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Co-cyprindiol in place of Microgynon 30®

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Moderate to Severe Acne

      Explanation:

      When treating moderate to severe acne, it is important to consider various options and their associated risks and benefits. In cases where topical treatments and oral antibiotics have not been effective, alternative options should be explored.

      One option is to switch to a combined oral contraceptive pill, such as co-cyprindiol, which can provide better control over acne. However, it is important to discuss the higher risk of venous thromboembolism associated with this type of contraceptive.

      If primary care treatments continue to fail, referral to a dermatologist for consideration of isotretinoin may be necessary. Isotretinoin tablets can be effective in treating severe acne, but they must be prescribed by a dermatologist.

      Extending the course of systemic antibiotics beyond three months, as advised by NICE guidance, is not recommended. Similarly, topical antibiotics and tretinoin gel are unlikely to be effective when systemic antibiotics have not worked.

      In summary, when treating moderate to severe acne, it is important to consider all options and their associated risks and benefits. Referral to a dermatologist may be necessary if primary care treatments are not effective.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 67 - A 19-year-old girl presents to you with concerns about her acne on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old girl presents to you with concerns about her acne on her face, chest, and upper back. She is feeling self-conscious about it, especially after her boyfriend made some comments about her skin. She has been using a combination of topical benzoyl peroxide and antibiotics for the past few months.

      Upon examination, you note the presence of comedones, papules, and pustules, but no nodules or cysts. There is no scarring.

      What is the recommended first-line treatment for her acne at this stage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lymecycline

      Explanation:

      Since the topical preparation did not work for the patient, the next step would be to try an oral antibiotic. The recommended first-line options are lymecycline, oxytetracycline, tetracycline, or doxycycline. Lymecycline is preferred as it only needs to be taken once a day, which can improve the patient’s adherence to the treatment.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 68 - You phone a nursing home with the results of a nail clipping for...

    Incorrect

    • You phone a nursing home with the results of a nail clipping for one of their residents which has confirmed the presence of Trichophyton rubrum. The patient is an 80-year-old woman with vascular dementia, type 2 diabetes, osteoporosis, and ischaemic heart disease.

      The nail clippings had been sent because of dystrophy of the left hallux nail and 2nd toenail on one foot. You decide that topical treatment would be more appropriate than oral treatment to reduce the risk of side effects and issue a prescription for topical amorolfine. You advise the nurse this should be applied twice a week, and that her nails should be clipped short regularly.

      What other advice should you give regarding the treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treatment may need to be continued for up to a year

      Explanation:

      Topical treatment for fungal toenail infection may require a duration of up to 12 months. Patients should be advised to wear clean socks and shoes made of breathable fabrics like cotton, instead of synthetic fabric. Terbinafine, an oral antifungal, may cause taste disturbance as a known side effect. It is important to inform patients that the treatment course for fungal toenail infection may last for 3-6 months for oral antifungal treatment and 9-12 months for topical amorolfine. Some Clinical Commissioning Groups may require patients to purchase their own treatments for minor ailments that are available without a prescription.

      Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.

      The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.

      Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 69 - You see an elderly patient who complains of facial erythema.

    Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • You see an elderly patient who complains of facial erythema.

      Which of the following is most suggestive of a diagnosis of rosacea?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Facial skin thickening and irregular surface nodularities especially across the nose

      Explanation:

      Clinical Features of Rosacea

      A diagnosis of rosacea can be made based on the presence of at least one diagnostic clinical feature or two major clinical features. The two diagnostic clinical features are phymatous changes and persistent erythema. Phymatous changes refer to thickened irregular skin, which can affect the nose and is termed rhinophyma. Persistent erythema is centrofacial redness that can increase with certain triggers. Major clinical features include flushing/transient erythema, inflammatory papules and pustules, telangiectasia, and ocular symptoms. Minor clinical features such as burning sensation, stinging sensation, skin dryness, and oedema are subjective and not individually diagnostic of rosacea.

      Facial skin thickening/surface nodularities, especially across the nose, is in keeping with phymatous change, which is a diagnostic clinical feature of rosacea. Itch and red papules can occur with rosacea, but these are usually seen in the centrofacial area. Rosacea can affect the chin area as well, but itchy and tender red papules specifically in a muzzle distribution are more in keeping with perioral dermatitis. Open and closed comedones across the forehead, cheeks, and chin are suggestive of acne vulgaris. Scaly disc-like plaques with scarring are suggestive of discoid lupus, while scaly pink ill-defined plaques in the skin folds on both sides of the face describe seborrheic dermatitis.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 70 - The School Nurse requests your evaluation of a leg ulcer she has been...

    Incorrect

    • The School Nurse requests your evaluation of a leg ulcer she has been treating, as it is not improving. The ulcer is situated on the lower leg, has an irregular shape, and a purple border that is undermined. The student reports that it began as a tiny red bump on the skin and that the ulcer is causing discomfort. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum

      Explanation:

      When faced with a skin ulcer that doesn’t heal, it is important to consider pyoderma gangrenosum as a possible diagnosis. This condition typically begins as a red bump that eventually turns into a painful ulcer with a purple, indented border. It is often linked to autoimmune disorders in approximately 50% of cases.

      Understanding Pyoderma Gangrenosum

      Pyoderma gangrenosum is a rare inflammatory disorder that causes painful skin ulceration. While it can affect any part of the skin, it is most commonly found on the lower legs. This condition is classified as a neutrophilic dermatosis, which means that it is characterized by the infiltration of neutrophils in the affected tissue. The exact cause of pyoderma gangrenosum is unknown in 50% of cases, but it can be associated with inflammatory bowel disease, rheumatological conditions, haematological disorders, and other conditions.

      The initial symptoms of pyoderma gangrenosum may start suddenly with a small pustule, red bump, or blood-blister. The skin then breaks down, resulting in an ulcer that is often painful. The edge of the ulcer is typically described as purple, violaceous, and undermined. The ulcer itself may be deep and necrotic and may be accompanied by systemic symptoms such as fever and myalgia. Diagnosis is often made by the characteristic appearance, associations with other diseases, the presence of pathergy, histology results, and ruling out other causes of an ulcer.

      Treatment for pyoderma gangrenosum typically involves oral steroids as first-line therapy due to the potential for rapid progression. Other immunosuppressive therapies, such as ciclosporin and infliximab, may be used in difficult cases. It is important to note that any surgery should be postponed until the disease process is controlled on immunosuppression to avoid worsening the condition. Understanding pyoderma gangrenosum and its potential causes and treatments can help patients and healthcare providers manage this rare and painful condition.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 71 - A 25-year-old female patient visits your GP clinic with a history of psoriasis...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient visits your GP clinic with a history of psoriasis and an abnormality in her nails. Although it is not causing her any discomfort, she wants to know if any treatment is necessary. Upon examination, you diagnose her with mild nail psoriasis. What is your plan for managing this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No treatment required

      Explanation:

      If nail psoriasis is mild and not causing any distress or cosmetic concerns for the patient, NICE recommends that treatment is not necessary. Topical treatments such as tar, emollients, or low dose steroids are not effective for nail disease. Urgent referral to dermatology is not needed for mild cases that do not cause distress. The best course of action is to monitor the condition and offer the patient the option to return if it worsens. Therefore, no treatment is required in this case.

      Psoriasis can cause changes in the nails of both fingers and toes. These changes do not necessarily indicate the severity of psoriasis, but they are often associated with psoriatic arthropathy. In fact, around 80-90% of patients with psoriatic arthropathy experience nail changes. Some of the nail changes that may occur in psoriasis include pitting, onycholysis (separation of the nail from the nail bed), subungual hyperkeratosis, and even loss of the nail. It is important to note that these changes can be distressing for patients and may require medical attention.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 72 - A 28-year-old man who is living in a hostel complains of a 2-week...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man who is living in a hostel complains of a 2-week history of intense itching. Papules and burrows can be seen between his fingers.
      What is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Permethrin 5% preparation

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Scabies and Head Lice

      Scabies is a skin condition characterized by intense itching and visible burrows in the finger webs. The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, which should be applied to all household members and followed by washing of bedding and towels. If permethrin cannot be used due to allergy, malathion 0.5% aqueous solution can be used as a second-line treatment. Benzyl benzoate 25% emulsion is an older treatment for scabies and has been replaced by more effective methods.

      On the other hand, head lice can be treated with permethrin 1%, which is not strong enough for scabies treatment. It is important to note that ivermectin 200 µg/kg orally is only used for crusted scabies, which causes a generalized rash with lots of scale. Topical permethrin remains the ideal treatment for scabies.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 73 - A couple approaches you with concerns about their toddler's birthmark. They notice a...

    Incorrect

    • A couple approaches you with concerns about their toddler's birthmark. They notice a dark red patch on their child's cheek that appears irregular. After examination, you diagnose it as a port wine stain. What should the parents know about this type of birthmark?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tend to darken over time

      Explanation:

      Understanding Port Wine Stains

      Port wine stains are a type of birthmark that are characterized by their deep red or purple color. Unlike other vascular birthmarks, such as salmon patches and strawberry hemangiomas, port wine stains do not go away on their own and may even become more prominent over time. These birthmarks are typically unilateral, meaning they only appear on one side of the body.

      Fortunately, there are treatment options available for those who wish to reduce the appearance of port wine stains. Cosmetic camouflage can be used to cover up the birthmark, while laser therapy is another option that can help to fade the color and reduce the raised appearance of the stain. However, it’s important to note that multiple laser sessions may be required to achieve the desired results. Overall, understanding port wine stains and the available treatment options can help individuals make informed decisions about managing these birthmarks.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 74 - A 50-year-old man comes in with plaque psoriasis on his body, elbows, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes in with plaque psoriasis on his body, elbows, and knees. He has been using a potent corticosteroid ointment and a vitamin D preparation once daily for the past 8 weeks, but there has been no improvement in his skin. What should be the next course of action in managing his plaque psoriasis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop the corticosteroid and continue with topical vitamin D preparation twice daily for up to 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      The best course of action would be to discontinue the corticosteroid and increase the frequency of vitamin D application to twice daily, as per NICE guidelines. It is necessary to take a 4-week break from the topical steroid, which has already been used for 8 weeks. Therefore, continuing or increasing the steroid usage to twice daily would be inappropriate. Dithranol and referral to Dermatology are not necessary at this point, as the treatment plan has not been finished.

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.

      For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.

      When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 75 - A 36-year-old woman presents with a 3-year history of recurrent painful pustules and...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman presents with a 3-year history of recurrent painful pustules and nodules in both axillae. She frequently goes to the gym and initially attributed her symptoms to deodorant use, although there have been no signs of improvement since stopping these.

      She doesn't take any regular medication and is allergic to macrolides.

      Upon examination, there are numerous lesions in both axillae consisting of pustules and nodules, as well as sinus tract formation. Mild scarring is also evident.

      What is the most suitable course of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3-6 month course of lymecycline

      Explanation:

      To manage her hidradenitis suppurativa, which is a chronic follicular occlusive disorder affecting intertriginous areas, such as the axillae, groin, perineal and infra-mammary areas, long-term topical or oral antibiotics may be used. As she is experiencing severe symptoms with nodules, sinuses, and scarring, it would be appropriate to offer her long-term systemic antibiotics. Tetracycline is the first-line antibiotic, making lymecycline the correct answer. Macrolides, such as clarithromycin, can be offered as a second-line option, but she is allergic to this antibiotic. Oral fluconazole and ketoconazole shampoo are used to treat various fungal skin conditions, but hidradenitis suppurativa is not related to a fungal infection. Topical clindamycin can be effective in mild localised hidradenitis suppurativa, but this woman requires systemic treatment due to her severe bilateral symptoms.

      Understanding Hidradenitis Suppurativa

      Hidradenitis suppurativa (HS) is a chronic skin disorder that causes painful and inflammatory nodules, pustules, sinus tracts, and scars in intertriginous areas. It is more common in women and typically affects adults under 40. HS occurs due to chronic inflammatory occlusion of folliculopilosebaceous units that obstructs the apocrine glands and prevents keratinocytes from properly shedding from the follicular epithelium. Risk factors include family history, smoking, obesity, diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and mechanical stretching of skin.

      The initial manifestation of HS involves recurrent, painful, and inflamed nodules that can rupture and discharge purulent, malodorous material. The axilla is the most common site, but it can also occur in other areas such as the inguinal, inner thighs, perineal and perianal, and inframammary skin. Coalescence of nodules can result in plaques, sinus tracts, and ‘rope-like’ scarring. Diagnosis is made clinically.

      Management of HS involves encouraging good hygiene and loose-fitting clothing, smoking cessation, and weight loss in obese patients. Acute flares can be treated with steroids or antibiotics, and surgical incision and drainage may be needed in some cases. Long-term disease can be treated with topical or oral antibiotics. Lumps that persist despite prolonged medical treatment are excised surgically. Complications of HS include sinus tracts, fistulas, comedones, scarring, contractures, and lymphatic obstruction.

      HS can be differentiated from acne vulgaris, follicular pyodermas, and granuloma inguinale. Acne vulgaris primarily occurs on the face, upper chest, and back, whereas HS primarily involves intertriginous areas. Follicular pyodermas are transient and respond rapidly to antibiotics, unlike HS. Granuloma inguinale is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Klebsiella granulomatis and presents as an enlarging ulcer that bleeds in the inguinal area.

      Overall, understanding HS is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management of this chronic and painful skin disorder.

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  • Question 76 - A 25-year-old woman has noticed that the sun causes a rash of very...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman has noticed that the sun causes a rash of very itchy bumps on the exposed areas of her chest and arms. She has purchased a sunscreen and asks if you can prescribe it.
      Select the correct statement from the list of options regarding the prescription of sunscreens.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: They are regarded as borderline substances and the prescription should be marked ACBS (Advisory Committee on Borderline Substances)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sunscreens: Protection Against UV Radiation

      Sunscreens are essential in protecting the skin from the harmful effects of ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun. UVB causes sunburn, while UVA contributes to long-term photodamage, skin cancer, and aging. Sunscreens come in two types: chemical absorbers and physical blockers. Chemical absorbers absorb UVA or UVB, while physical blockers reflect or scatter UV radiation. The ideal sunscreens are those that provide the most effective protection against both UVA and UVB, but they may produce a white appearance when applied to the skin.

      The sun protection factor (SPF) indicates the degree of protection against UVB. A higher SPF means longer protection against burning. However, users often do not apply enough sunscreen, resulting in lower protection than what is indicated in experimental studies. The EU Commission recommends that the UVA protection factor should be at least one-third of the SPF, and products that achieve this will be labelled with a UVA logo.

      Sunscreens should be applied liberally to all exposed areas and reapplied every 2 hours, especially after swimming, sweating, or rubbing off. Allergic reactions to sunscreen are rare. Sunscreens can be prescribed and marked as ACBS drugs for individuals with genetic disorders, photodermatoses, vitiligo, changes resulting from radiotherapy, and chronic or recurrent herpes simplex labialis precipitated by sunlight. Sunscreens with SPF less than 30 should not normally be prescribed.

      In summary, understanding sunscreens and their proper use is crucial in protecting the skin from the harmful effects of UV radiation.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 77 - A 68-year-old male presents with a non-healing ulcer at the site of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male presents with a non-healing ulcer at the site of a flame burn injury on his foot 7 years ago. The burn injury was managed with dressings and skin grafting but has never healed completely. Over the last 4 months, he has suffered from recurrent bleeding and ulceration at this site.

      Upon examination, there is extensive scarring on the dorsal aspect of his foot, and there is a 35mm ulcerated area with associated tenderness.

      The histopathology report confirmed the presence of malignant disease, describing the presence of keratin pearls. Imaging showed evidence of metastases.

      What is the most likely type of malignancy in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the Skin

      Squamous cell carcinoma is a type of skin cancer that is commonly seen in individuals who have had excessive exposure to sunlight or have undergone psoralen UVA therapy. Other risk factors include actinic keratoses and Bowen’s disease, immunosuppression, smoking, long-standing leg ulcers, and genetic conditions. While metastases are rare, they may occur in 2-5% of patients.

      This type of cancer typically appears on sun-exposed areas such as the head and neck or dorsum of the hands and arms. The nodules are painless, rapidly expanding, and may have a cauliflower-like appearance. Bleeding may also occur in some cases.

      Treatment for squamous cell carcinoma involves surgical excision with margins of 4mm for lesions less than 20 mm in diameter and 6mm for larger tumors. Mohs micrographic surgery may be used in high-risk patients and in cosmetically important sites. Prognosis is generally good for well-differentiated tumors that are less than 20 mm in diameter and less than 2 mm deep. However, poorly differentiated tumors that are larger than 20 mm in diameter and deeper than 4mm, as well as those associated with immunosuppression, have a poorer prognosis.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 78 - Which of the following is the least probable cause of a bullous rash?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the least probable cause of a bullous rash?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lichen planus

      Explanation:

      The bullous form of lichen planus is an exceptionally uncommon occurrence.

      Bullous Disorders: Causes and Types

      Bullous disorders are characterized by the formation of fluid-filled blisters or bullae on the skin. These can be caused by a variety of factors, including congenital conditions like epidermolysis bullosa, autoimmune diseases like bullous pemphigoid and pemphigus, insect bites, trauma or friction, and certain medications such as barbiturates and furosemide.

      Epidermolysis bullosa is a rare genetic disorder that affects the skin’s ability to adhere to the underlying tissue, leading to the formation of blisters and sores. Autoimmune bullous disorders occur when the immune system mistakenly attacks proteins in the skin, causing blistering and inflammation. Insect bites can also cause bullae to form, as can trauma or friction from activities like sports or manual labor.

      Certain medications can also cause bullous disorders as a side effect. Barbiturates, for example, have been known to cause blistering and skin rashes in some people. Furosemide, a diuretic used to treat high blood pressure and edema, can also cause bullae to form in some cases.

      Overall, bullous disorders can be caused by a variety of factors and can range from mild to severe. Treatment options depend on the underlying cause and may include medications, wound care, and lifestyle modifications.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 79 - A 28-year-old female presents to the clinic with a 4-week history of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female presents to the clinic with a 4-week history of a mild rash on her face. She reports that the rash is highly sensitive to sunlight and has been wearing hats for protection. The patient is six months postpartum and has no significant medical history.

      During the examination, an erythematous rash with superficial pustules is observed on the forehead, nose, and cheeks.

      What is the most effective treatment for the underlying condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Acne rosacea is a skin condition that commonly affects fair-skinned individuals over the age of 30, with symptoms appearing on the nose, cheeks, and forehead. Flushing, erythema, and telangiectasia can progress to papules and pustules. Exacerbating factors include sunlight, pregnancy, certain drugs, and food. For mild to moderate cases, NICE recommends metronidazole as a first-line treatment, with other topical agents such as brimonidine, oxymetazoline, benzoyl peroxide, and tretinoin also being effective. Systemic antibiotics like erythromycin and tetracycline can be used for moderate to severe cases. Camouflage creams and sunscreen can help manage symptoms, but do not treat the underlying condition. Steroid creams are not recommended for acne rosacea, while topical calcineurin inhibitors may be used for other skin conditions like seborrheic dermatitis, lichen planus, and vitiligo.

      Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a skin condition that is chronic in nature and its cause is unknown. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Telangiectasia, which are small blood vessels that are visible on the skin, are common, and the condition can progress to persistent erythema with papules and pustules. Rhinophyma, a condition where the nose becomes enlarged and bulbous, can also occur. Ocular involvement, such as blepharitis, can also be present, and sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.

      Management of rosacea depends on the severity of the symptoms. For mild symptoms, topical metronidazole may be used, while topical brimonidine gel may be considered for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics such as oxytetracycline. It is recommended that patients apply a high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia, and those with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist for further management.

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  • Question 80 - You are evaluating an 80-year-old woman who has had varicose veins for a...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating an 80-year-old woman who has had varicose veins for a long time. She has recently noticed some darkening of the skin on both lower legs along with some dryness, but no pain or other symptoms. Her routine blood tests, including HbA1c, were normal. On examination, you observe mild pigmentation and dry skin on both lower legs, but normal distal pulses and warm feet. There are no indications of DVT. Your diagnosis is venous eczema. As per current NICE guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Referral to vascular service

      Explanation:

      Patients who have developed skin changes due to varicose veins, such as pigmentation and eczema, should be referred to secondary care.

      Understanding Varicose Veins

      Varicose veins are enlarged and twisted veins that occur when the valves in the veins become weak or damaged, causing blood to flow backward and pool in the veins. They are most commonly found in the legs and can be caused by various factors such as age, gender, pregnancy, obesity, and genetics. While many people seek treatment for cosmetic reasons, others may experience symptoms such as aching, throbbing, and itching. In severe cases, varicose veins can lead to skin changes, bleeding, superficial thrombophlebitis, and venous ulceration.

      To diagnose varicose veins, a venous duplex ultrasound is typically performed to detect retrograde venous flow. Treatment options vary depending on the severity of the condition. Conservative treatments such as leg elevation, weight loss, regular exercise, and compression stockings may be recommended for mild cases. However, patients with significant or troublesome symptoms, skin changes, or a history of bleeding or ulcers may require referral to a specialist for further evaluation and treatment. Possible treatments include endothermal ablation, foam sclerotherapy, or surgery.

      In summary, varicose veins are a common condition that can cause discomfort and cosmetic concerns. While many cases do not require intervention, it is important to seek medical attention if symptoms or complications arise. With proper diagnosis and treatment, patients can manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 81 - A 55-year-old woman comes to your clinic after noticing that a mole on...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to your clinic after noticing that a mole on the side of her neck has recently grown. Upon examination, you observe an irregularly shaped lesion with variable pigmentation and a diameter of 7 mm.

      What would be the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassess in two weeks

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral Needed for Suspicious Lesion

      This patient’s lesion is highly suspicious of a melanoma and requires immediate referral to a dermatologist. Any delay in monitoring in primary care could result in delayed treatment and potentially worse outcomes. The lesion’s recent increase in size, irregular pigmentation, and margin are all factors that raise suspicions. To aid in decision-making, the 7-point weighted checklist can be used, which includes major features such as change in size, irregular shape, and irregular color, as well as minor features like inflammation, oozing, change in sensation, and largest diameter 7 mm or more. Lesions scoring 3 or more points are considered suspicious and should be referred, even if the score is less than 3. If the lesion were low risk, it would be reasonable to monitor over an eight-week period using the 7-point checklist, photographs, and a marker scale and/or ruler. However, it is not appropriate to excise or biopsy suspicious pigmented lesions in primary care.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 82 - A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic with a red rash on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic with a red rash on his face. He sustained a cut on his forehead while playing basketball. During the examination, it is observed that the redness is spreading towards his eye, and he has a temperature of 37.9ºC. The patient has no known allergies to any medication.

      What would be the most suitable medication to prescribe in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin + clavulanic acid

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of cellulitis around the eyes or nose, the recommended antibiotic is co-amoxiclav, which is a combination of amoxicillin and clavulanic acid. This is because amoxicillin alone doesn’t provide sufficient coverage against the broad spectrum of bacteria that can cause facial cellulitis, which can lead to serious complications such as orbital involvement. Doxycycline is not the first-line medication for this condition, but may be considered if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Erythromycin is another option for penicillin-allergic patients, but it doesn’t offer the same broad coverage as co-amoxiclav.

      Antibiotic Guidelines for Common Infections

      Respiratory infections such as chronic bronchitis and community-acquired pneumonia are typically treated with amoxicillin, tetracycline, or clarithromycin. In cases where atypical pathogens may be the cause of pneumonia, clarithromycin is recommended. Hospital-acquired pneumonia within five days of admission is treated with co-amoxiclav or cefuroxime, while infections occurring more than five days after admission are treated with piperacillin with tazobactam, a broad-spectrum cephalosporin, or a quinolone.

      For urinary tract infections, lower UTIs are treated with trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, while acute pyelonephritis is treated with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone. Acute prostatitis is treated with a quinolone or trimethoprim.

      Skin infections such as impetigo, cellulitis, and erysipelas are treated with topical hydrogen peroxide, oral flucloxacillin, or erythromycin if the infection is widespread. Animal or human bites are treated with co-amoxiclav, while mastitis during breastfeeding is treated with flucloxacillin.

      Ear, nose, and throat infections such as throat infections, sinusitis, and otitis media are treated with phenoxymethylpenicillin or amoxicillin. Otitis externa is treated with flucloxacillin or erythromycin, while periapical or periodontal abscesses are treated with amoxicillin.

      Genital infections such as gonorrhoea, chlamydia, and bacterial vaginosis are treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone, doxycycline or azithromycin, and oral or topical metronidazole or topical clindamycin, respectively. Pelvic inflammatory disease is treated with oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole.

      Gastrointestinal infections such as Clostridioides difficile, Campylobacter enteritis, Salmonella (non-typhoid), and Shigellosis are treated with oral vancomycin, clarithromycin, ciprofloxacin, and ciprofloxacin, respectively.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 83 - Which of the following is the least acknowledged as a negative consequence of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the least acknowledged as a negative consequence of using phenytoin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alopecia

      Explanation:

      Hirsutism is a known side effect of phenytoin, while alopecia is not commonly associated with it.

      Understanding the Adverse Effects of Phenytoin

      Phenytoin is a medication commonly used to manage seizures. Its mechanism of action involves binding to sodium channels, which increases their refractory period. However, the drug is associated with a large number of adverse effects that can be categorized as acute, chronic, idiosyncratic, and teratogenic.

      Acute adverse effects of phenytoin include dizziness, diplopia, nystagmus, slurred speech, ataxia, confusion, and seizures. Chronic adverse effects may include gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, coarsening of facial features, drowsiness, megaloblastic anemia, peripheral neuropathy, enhanced vitamin D metabolism causing osteomalacia, lymphadenopathy, and dyskinesia.

      Idiosyncratic adverse effects of phenytoin may include fever, rashes, including severe reactions such as toxic epidermal necrolysis, hepatitis, Dupuytren’s contracture, aplastic anemia, and drug-induced lupus. Finally, teratogenic adverse effects of phenytoin are associated with cleft palate and congenital heart disease.

      It is important to note that phenytoin is also an inducer of the P450 system. While routine monitoring of phenytoin levels is not necessary, trough levels should be checked immediately before a dose if there is a need for adjustment of the phenytoin dose, suspected toxicity, or detection of non-adherence to the prescribed medication.

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  • Question 84 - A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with a highly sensitive 0.5 cm...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with a highly sensitive 0.5 cm nodule on the free border of the helix of his left ear. The nodule has been there for approximately six weeks and has a small amount of scale attached to its surface. He has trouble sleeping on that side of his head. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chondrodermatitis nodularis helicis

      Explanation:

      Chondrodermatitis Nodularis Chronica Helicis: A Benign Tender Lump in the Ear Cartilage

      Chondrodermatitis nodularis chronica helicis is a common condition characterized by a benign tender lump in the cartilaginous portion of the ear, specifically in the helix or antihelix. It is often caused by pressure between the head and pillow during sleep, particularly in individuals who predominantly sleep on one side. Minor trauma, exposure to cold, and tight headgear or telephone headsets can also trigger the condition.

      The lesion rarely resolves on its own and conservative measures such as using a soft pillow or sleeping on the opposite side may be attempted. Wearing a protective pressure-relieving device, using topical and intralesional steroids, or applying topical glyceryl trinitrate may also provide relief. Cryotherapy is sometimes used as well.

      Excision of the damaged cartilage area is often successful, but recurrence can occur at the edge of the excised area. The distinctive feature of chondrodermatitis nodularis chronica helicis is the associated pain and tenderness, which sets it apart from painless cutaneous tumors and non-tender actinic keratoses.

      It is important to note that tophi, which contain a white pasty material and are usually not painful or tender, typically develop around 10 years after the first attack of gout in untreated patients and are commonly found around the elbows, hands, and feet.

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  • Question 85 - A 50-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of sudden anal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of sudden anal pain. During the examination, the doctor notices a tender, oedematous, purplish subcutaneous perianal lump.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thrombosed haemorrhoids

      Explanation:

      The posterior midline is where anal fissures, hemorrhoids, and pilonidal sinuses are commonly found. Genital warts, on the other hand, are small fleshy growths that are slightly pigmented and may cause itching or bleeding. These warts are usually caused by HPV types 6 and 11. Pilonidal sinus, which is characterized by cycles of pain and discharge, is caused by hair debris creating sinuses in the skin. If the sinus is located near the anus, it may cause anal pain.

      Thrombosed haemorrhoids are characterized by severe pain and the presence of a tender lump. Upon examination, a purplish, swollen, and tender subcutaneous perianal mass can be observed. If the patient seeks medical attention within 72 hours of onset, referral for excision may be necessary. However, if the condition has progressed beyond this timeframe, patients can typically manage their symptoms with stool softeners, ice packs, and pain relief medication. Symptoms usually subside within 10 days.

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  • Question 86 - A male patient of yours has just been diagnosed with malignant melanoma.
    In...

    Incorrect

    • A male patient of yours has just been diagnosed with malignant melanoma.
      In what age group is the highest incidence rate per 100,000 population with this type of malignancy in the US?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 60-69 years

      Explanation:

      Melanoma Skin Cancer in the UK

      According to Cancer Research UK, melanoma skin cancer is the 5th most common cancer in the UK, accounting for 4% of all new cancer cases. Every year, there are approximately 16,700 new cases of melanoma skin cancer in the UK, which equates to 46 new cases every day.

      Melanoma skin cancer affects both males and females, with around 8,400 new cases reported in each gender annually. The incidence rates for melanoma skin cancer are highest in people aged 85 to 89.

      It is important to be aware of the risks and symptoms of melanoma skin cancer, such as changes in the size, shape, or color of moles or other skin lesions. Early detection and treatment can greatly improve the chances of successful treatment and recovery.

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  • Question 87 - Which one of the following statements regarding fungal nail infections is inaccurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding fungal nail infections is inaccurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treatment is successful in around 90-95% of people

      Explanation:

      Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.

      The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.

      Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.

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  • Question 88 - A 4-year-old boy with a history of atopic eczema presents with his mother,...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy with a history of atopic eczema presents with his mother, who has observed an atypical rash on her son's abdomen. On the upper abdomen, there is a group of approximately 12 pearly white papules with a central depression, with each lesion measuring around 3-5 mm in size. There is no discomfort or itching. What self-care recommendations should be provided, considering the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Avoid sharing towels, clothing, and baths with uninfected people

      Explanation:

      Understanding Molluscum Contagiosum

      Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection that is commonly found in children, particularly those with atopic eczema. It is caused by the molluscum contagiosum virus and can be transmitted through direct contact or contaminated surfaces. The infection presents as pinkish or pearly white papules with a central umbilication, which can appear anywhere on the body except for the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. In children, the lesions are commonly found on the trunk and flexures, while in adults, they can appear on the genitalia, pubis, thighs, and lower abdomen.

      While molluscum contagiosum is a self-limiting condition that usually resolves within 18 months, it is important to avoid sharing towels, clothing, and baths with uninfected individuals to prevent transmission. Scratching the lesions should also be avoided, and treatment may be necessary to alleviate itching or if the lesions are considered unsightly. Treatment options include simple trauma or cryotherapy, depending on the age of the child and the parents’ wishes. In some cases, referral may be necessary, such as for individuals who are HIV-positive with extensive lesions or those with eyelid-margin or ocular lesions and associated red eye.

      Overall, understanding molluscum contagiosum and taking appropriate precautions can help prevent the spread of the infection and alleviate symptoms if necessary.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 89 - You see a 30-year-old woman who is concerned about a sudden and significant...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 30-year-old woman who is concerned about a sudden and significant amount of hair loss from her scalp in the past few weeks. She is typically healthy and has no medical history except for giving birth 2 months ago. On examination, there is no apparent focal loss of hair.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Androgenetic alopecia

      Explanation:

      Types of Hair Loss

      Telogen effluvium is a sudden and severe shedding of hair that often occurs after significant events such as childbirth, severe illness, crash diets, or new medications. Androgenetic alopecia is the most common type of progressive hair loss, which presents in men with scalp hair loss or a receding hairline. In women, it often affects the crown of the scalp with preservation of the frontal hairline. Tinea capitis is a fungal infection that typically presents with an itchy, scaly scalp with patchy hair loss. Traction alopecia is due to the traction applied to the hair in certain hairstyles such as ponytails. Trichotillomania is a psychiatric condition in which patients pull their hair out. Understanding the different types of hair loss can help individuals identify the cause of their hair loss and seek appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 90 - You encounter an 18-year-old student with acne on his face, chest, and shoulders....

    Incorrect

    • You encounter an 18-year-old student with acne on his face, chest, and shoulders. He presents with papules and pustules accompanied by widespread inflammation. Additionally, he has nodules and scarring on his chin. After diagnosing him with moderate-severe acne, you decide to refer him to dermatology while initiating treatment. Your treatment plan includes prescribing a topical retinoid and an oral antibiotic. What is the first-line antibiotic for acne vulgaris?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tetracycline

      Explanation:

      Tetracyclines are the preferred oral antibiotics for treating moderate to severe acne vulgaris. This condition is a common reason for patients to visit their GP and can significantly impact their quality of life.

      To address this patient’s acne and scarring, it would be appropriate to initiate a topical treatment and prescribe an oral antibiotic. Referral to a dermatologist may also be necessary, but first-line treatment may be effective.

      Tetracyclines are the recommended first-line oral antibiotics for acne vulgaris. All tetracyclines are licensed for this indication, and there is no evidence to suggest that one is more effective than another. The choice of specific tetracycline should be based on individual preference and cost.

      Tetracycline and oxytetracycline are typically prescribed at a dose of 500 mg twice daily on an empty stomach. Doxycycline and lymecycline are taken once daily and can be taken with food, although doxycycline may cause photosensitivity.

      Minocycline is not recommended for acne treatment, and erythromycin is a suitable alternative to tetracyclines if they are contraindicated. The usual dose for erythromycin is 500 mg twice daily.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 91 - A 5-year-old boy presents with recurrent balanitis. He has swelling and redness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy presents with recurrent balanitis. He has swelling and redness of his glans penis and foreskin, and his mother reports a foul odor and slight discharge. What is the most frequently isolated organism in cases of balanitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C. albicans

      Explanation:

      Balanitis is most commonly caused by C. albicans, with group B beta-haemolytic streptococci being a less frequent cause among bacterial infections. The other options listed may also cause balanitis, but are not as commonly isolated.

      Understanding Balanitis: Causes, Assessment, and Treatment

      Balanitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the glans penis and sometimes extending to the underside of the foreskin. It can be caused by a variety of factors, including bacterial and candidal infections, autoimmune conditions, and poor hygiene. Proper assessment of balanitis involves taking a thorough history and conducting a physical examination to determine the cause and severity of the condition. In most cases, diagnosis is made clinically based on the history and examination, but in some cases, a swab or biopsy may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis.

      Treatment of balanitis involves a combination of general and specific measures. General treatment includes gentle saline washes and proper hygiene practices, while specific treatment depends on the underlying cause of the condition. For example, candidiasis is treated with topical clotrimazole, while bacterial balanitis may be treated with oral antibiotics. Dermatitis and circinate balanitis are managed with mild potency topical corticosteroids, while lichen sclerosus and plasma cell balanitis of Zoon may require high potency topical steroids or circumcision.

      Understanding the causes, assessment, and treatment of balanitis is important for both children and adults who may be affected by this condition. By taking proper hygiene measures and seeking appropriate medical treatment, individuals with balanitis can manage their symptoms and prevent complications.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 92 - A 32-year-old man presents with a fungal nail infection. You determine that terbinafine...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents with a fungal nail infection. You determine that terbinafine is the appropriate treatment. Choose the one accurate statement regarding the use of terbinafine.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3 months’ therapy is needed

      Explanation:

      Fungal Nail Infection Treatment Options

      Fungal nail infections are commonly caused by Trichophyton rubrum and Trichophyton mentagrophytes fungi. These two types of fungi are responsible for over 90% of cases, with T. rubrum being the most common culprit. Systemic treatment is recommended for fungal nail infections as it is more effective. However, the slow growth of nails means that they may not appear normal even after successful treatment.

      Terbinafine is currently the first-line treatment for fungal nail infections, with evidence showing greater efficacy compared to itraconazole. However, itraconazole is more effective against candida. Treatment with terbinafine usually takes around 3 months to be effective. It is important to note that terbinafine is not licensed for use in children under 12 years old, in which case griseofulvin must be used.

      There have been rare cases of liver toxicity with terbinafine, and very rare reports of severe skin reactions such as Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis. Therefore, it is advisable to monitor hepatic function before treatment and every 4-6 weeks during treatment. If abnormalities in liver function tests occur, treatment should be discontinued.

      Itraconazole can be given in pulses for 7 days every month to treat fungal nail infections. Two pulses are recommended for fingernails, and three for toenails.

      In conclusion, fungal nail infections can be effectively treated with systemic antifungal medications such as terbinafine and itraconazole. However, it is important to monitor for potential side effects and to follow the recommended treatment regimen for optimal results.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 93 - You encounter a 70-year-old man who is experiencing an issue with his penis....

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 70-year-old man who is experiencing an issue with his penis. He has been unable to retract his foreskin for a few years now, and the tip of his penis is quite sore. He also reports a foul odor. Apart from this, he is in good health. He believes that this problem developed gradually over several years.

      During the examination, you observe that the man is not circumcised, and there is a tight white ring around the tip of his foreskin. The glans penis is barely visible through the end of the foreskin, and it appears to be inflamed.

      What is the specific condition responsible for causing this man's balanitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lichen sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lichen Sclerosus

      Lichen sclerosus, previously known as lichen sclerosus et atrophicus, is an inflammatory condition that commonly affects the genitalia, particularly in elderly females. It is characterized by the formation of white plaques that lead to atrophy of the epidermis. The condition can cause discomfort, with itch being a prominent symptom. Pain during intercourse or urination may also occur.

      Diagnosis of lichen sclerosus is usually based on clinical examination, although a biopsy may be necessary if atypical features are present. Treatment typically involves the use of topical steroids and emollients. However, patients with lichen sclerosus are at an increased risk of developing vulval cancer, so regular follow-up is recommended.

      According to the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists, skin biopsy is not necessary for diagnosis unless the woman fails to respond to treatment or there is clinical suspicion of cancer. The British Association of Dermatologists also advises that biopsy is not always essential when the clinical features are typical, but it is advisable if there are atypical features or diagnostic uncertainty. Biopsy is mandatory if there is any suspicion of neoplastic change. Patients under routine follow-up will need a biopsy if there is a suspicion of neoplastic change, if the disease fails to respond to treatment, if there is extragenital LS, if there are pigmented areas, or if second-line therapy is to be used.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 94 - A 20-year-old man has developed small, well differentiated, scaly salmon-pink papules affecting his...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man has developed small, well differentiated, scaly salmon-pink papules affecting his trunk, arms, and thighs over the past month. He has some mild itching but is otherwise well. He last presented to the surgery two months ago with tonsillitis.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Guttate psoriasis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Guttate Psoriasis from Other Skin Conditions: A Clinical Analysis

      Guttate psoriasis is a skin condition that often appears 7-10 days after a streptococcal infection. It is characterized by numerous teardrop-shaped lesions on the trunk and proximal limbs, which are red and covered with a fine scale. While the scale may be less evident in the early stages, the lesions typically resolve on their own after 2-3 months.

      When diagnosing guttate psoriasis, it is important to consider other skin conditions that may present with similar symptoms. Atopic eczema, for example, is less well differentiated than psoriasis lesions and may not have a history of a preceding sore throat. A delayed hypersensitivity reaction to amoxicillin would typically result in skin reactions that resolve spontaneously and would not last for a month. Lichen planus, an autoimmune condition, causes shiny papules without scale and is characterized by Whickham’s striae, which are white lines on the surface of the skin. Pityriasis rosea, another skin condition that causes a widespread rash with scale and well-defined edges, may also be considered but is less likely if there is a history of a preceding sore throat.

      In summary, a thorough clinical analysis is necessary to distinguish guttate psoriasis from other skin conditions with similar symptoms. A careful consideration of the patient’s medical history and physical examination can help clinicians arrive at an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 95 - A 56-year-old man is prescribed topical fusidic acid for a small patch of...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man is prescribed topical fusidic acid for a small patch of impetigo on his chin. He has a history of heart disease and recently underwent a cardiac procedure. After seven days of treatment, there has been no improvement in his symptoms. On examination, a persistent small, crusted area is noted on the right side of his chin. While waiting for swab results, what is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical mupirocin

      Explanation:

      In light of the recent hospitalization and the ineffectiveness of fusidic acid, it is important to consider the possibility of MRSA. The most suitable treatment option in this case would be topical mupirocin.

      Understanding Impetigo: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that is caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. It can occur as a primary infection or as a complication of an existing skin condition such as eczema. Impetigo is most common in children, especially during warm weather. The infection can develop anywhere on the body, but it tends to occur on the face, flexures, and limbs not covered by clothing.

      The infection spreads through direct contact with discharges from the scabs of an infected person. The bacteria invade the skin through minor abrasions and then spread to other sites by scratching. Infection is spread mainly by the hands, but indirect spread via toys, clothing, equipment, and the environment may occur. The incubation period is between 4 to 10 days.

      Symptoms of impetigo include ‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth. It is highly contagious, and children should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment.

      Management of impetigo depends on the extent of the disease. Limited, localized disease can be treated with hydrogen peroxide 1% cream or topical antibiotic creams such as fusidic acid or mupirocin. MRSA is not susceptible to either fusidic acid or retapamulin, so topical mupirocin should be used in this situation. Extensive disease may require oral flucloxacillin or oral erythromycin if penicillin-allergic. The use of hydrogen peroxide 1% cream was recommended by NICE and Public Health England in 2020 to cut antibiotic resistance. The evidence base shows it is just as effective at treating non-bullous impetigo as a topical antibiotic.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 96 - A 26-year-old man presents with tear-drop papules on his trunk and limbs, covering...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man presents with tear-drop papules on his trunk and limbs, covering less than 10% of his body. He appears to be in good health and guttate psoriasis is suspected. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassurance + topical treatment if lesions are symptomatic

      Explanation:

      According to the psoriasis guidelines of the British Association of Dermatologists, there is no evidence to suggest that antibiotic therapy provides any therapeutic benefits.

      Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that is more commonly seen in children and adolescents. It is often triggered by a streptococcal infection that occurred 2-4 weeks prior to the appearance of the lesions. The condition is characterized by the presence of tear drop-shaped papules on the trunk and limbs, along with pink, scaly patches or plaques of psoriasis. The onset of guttate psoriasis tends to be acute, occurring over a few days.

      In most cases, guttate psoriasis resolves on its own within 2-3 months. There is no clear evidence to support the use of antibiotics to treat streptococcal infections associated with the condition. Treatment options for guttate psoriasis include topical agents commonly used for psoriasis and UVB phototherapy. In cases where the condition recurs, a tonsillectomy may be necessary.

      It is important to differentiate guttate psoriasis from pityriasis rosea, which is another skin condition that can present with similar symptoms. Guttate psoriasis is typically preceded by a streptococcal sore throat, while pityriasis rosea may be associated with recent respiratory tract infections. The appearance of guttate psoriasis is characterized by tear drop-shaped, scaly papules on the trunk and limbs, while pityriasis rosea presents with a herald patch followed by multiple erythematous, slightly raised oval lesions with a fine scale. Pityriasis rosea is self-limiting and resolves after around 6 weeks.

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  • Question 97 - A 28-year-old army captain has returned to the United Kingdom after a tour...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old army captain has returned to the United Kingdom after a tour of duty overseas and presents to his General Practitioner. He complains of intense itching, mainly affecting his finger webs and the flexural aspect of his wrists. The itching is worse in bed. There was some itching around the groin, but this settled after repeated bathing.
      On examination, there appears to be excoriation in the finger webs.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Scabies

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Scabies from Other Itchy Skin Conditions

      Scabies is a highly contagious skin condition caused by Sarcoptes scabiei mites. It is characterized by intense itching, particularly in the finger webs, wrists, elbows, perineum, and areolar regions. The rash may appear as erythematous papules, diffuse dermatitis, or urticated erythema. The pathognomonic sign of scabies is the presence of burrows, which are intraepidermal tunnels created by the female mite.

      When differentiating scabies from other itchy skin conditions, it is important to consider the location and appearance of the rash. Contact dermatitis, for instance, doesn’t typically present with an eczematous rash on the hands. Lichen planus, on the other hand, is characterized by violaceous papules and tends to affect the wrists more than other areas. Pompholyx eczema is limited to the hands and soles of the feet, while psoriasis is characterized by white, scaly plaques and mild itching. By carefully examining the symptoms and physical presentation, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose and treat scabies.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 98 - What is a risk factor for developing squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) of the...

    Incorrect

    • What is a risk factor for developing squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) of the skin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute ulceration

      Explanation:

      Skin Damage and Other Factors Predisposing to Cancer

      Certain types of skin damage, such as burns, scarring, ulceration, radiation, and chemical damage, can increase the risk of developing cancer. In addition, exposure to polycyclic hydrocarbons and coal by-products, which are found in certain situations, particularly in the United Kingdom, can also increase the risk of cancer. For example, chimney sweeps in the past were at a higher risk of developing scrotal cancer due to exposure to these substances.

      Lichen sclerosis is another factor that can predispose individuals to cancer, specifically vulval cancer. Solar keratoses are also a common cause of cancer. However, psoriasis and lichen planus are not considered predisposing factors. While there is some controversy surrounding the risk of lichen planus, the consensus view is that it probably doesn’t increase the risk of squamous cell carcinoma (SCC), except for the ulcerative form of oral lichen planus, which may have an increased risk.

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  • Question 99 - A teenager presents with rash which clinically looks like Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP).
    Which statement...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager presents with rash which clinically looks like Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP).
      Which statement is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The condition normally lasts six months

      Explanation:

      Henoch-Schönlein Purpura: Symptoms and Duration

      Henoch-Schönlein Purpura (HSP) is a condition characterized by a rash on the back and thighs that is palpable and non-blanching, but is a non-thrombocytopenic purpura. Children with HSP may experience abdominal pain and bloody stools, which are cardinal symptoms of the disease. The kidneys are also often involved, and patients may have frank haematuria. The disease typically lasts about four weeks and resolves spontaneously.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 100 - A 38-year-old man presents with peeling, dryness and mild itching of the palm...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man presents with peeling, dryness and mild itching of the palm of his right hand. On examination, there is hyperkeratosis of the palm with prominent white skin lines. The left hand appears normal.
      What is the most appropriate investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Skin scraping for fungus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tinea Manuum: A Unilateral Scaly Rash

      Tinea manuum is a type of fungal infection that affects the hands. It is characterized by a unilateral scaly rash that can also involve the back of the hand and nails. In some cases, both hands may be affected, but the involvement tends to be asymmetrical.

      The most common cause of tinea manuum is an anthropophilic fungus such as Tricophyton rubrum, Tricophyton mentagrophytes, or Epidermophyton floccosum. These fungi are typically found on human skin and can be easily transmitted through direct contact.

      In some cases, tinea manuum may present as a raised border with clearing in the middle, resembling a ringworm. This is more likely to occur when a zoophilic fungus is responsible, such as Trichophyton erinacei from a hedgehog or Microsporum canis from a cat or dog.

      It is important to suspect dermatophyte fungus when a unilateral scaly rash is present on the hands. Treatment typically involves antifungal medication, and it is important to maintain good hand hygiene to prevent further spread of the infection.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 101 - A 55-year-old woman complains of discomfort while eating. Upon examination, white-lace pattern lesions...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman complains of discomfort while eating. Upon examination, white-lace pattern lesions and ulcers are observed in the buccal region of her mouth.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral lichen planus

      Explanation:

      Oral lichen planus is characterised by buccal white-lace pattern lesions and ulcers, causing discomfort while eating. Other conditions such as Sjögren’s syndrome, blocked Stensen’s duct, Behçet’s disease, and oral psoriasis may have different symptoms and are less likely to be the cause of buccal lesions.

      Lichen planus is a skin condition that has an unknown cause, but is believed to be related to the immune system. It is characterized by an itchy rash that appears as small bumps on the palms, soles, genital area, and inner surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive pattern of white lines on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon. Oral involvement is common, with around 50% of patients experiencing a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes, such as thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging, may also occur.

      Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, including gold, quinine, and thiazides. Treatment for lichen planus typically involves the use of potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more severe cases, oral steroids or immunosuppressive medications may be necessary. Overall, lichen planus can be a challenging condition to manage, but with proper treatment, symptoms can be controlled and quality of life can be improved.

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  • Question 102 - A 35-year-old man with chronic plaque psoriasis has been referred to a dermatologist...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man with chronic plaque psoriasis has been referred to a dermatologist due to his resistant disease. Despite trying various topical and light therapies, his large plaques on his elbows and legs have not improved. What systemic therapy is he most likely to be prescribed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Severe psoriasis is typically treated with methotrexate and ciclosporin as the initial systemic agents.

      Systemic Therapy for Psoriasis

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can have a significant impact on physical, psychological, and social wellbeing. Topical therapy is often the first line of treatment, but in cases where it is not effective, systemic therapy may be necessary. However, systemic therapy should only be initiated in secondary care.

      Non-biological systemic therapy, such as methotrexate and ciclosporin, is used when psoriasis cannot be controlled with topical therapy and has a significant impact on wellbeing. NICE has set criteria for the use of non-biological systemic therapy, including extensive psoriasis, severe nail disease, or phototherapy ineffectiveness. Methotrexate is generally used first-line, but ciclosporin may be a better choice for those who need rapid or short-term disease control, have palmoplantar pustulosis, or are considering conception.

      Biological systemic therapy, including adalimumab, etanercept, infliximab, and ustekinumab, may also be used. However, a failed trial of methotrexate, ciclosporin, and PUVA is required before their use. These agents are administered through subcutaneous injection or intravenous infusion.

      In summary, systemic therapy for psoriasis should only be initiated in secondary care and is reserved for cases where topical therapy is ineffective. Non-biological and biological systemic therapy have specific criteria for their use and should be carefully considered by healthcare professionals.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 103 - A 50-year-old man presents with widespread erythema and scaling of the skin to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents with widespread erythema and scaling of the skin to the extent that nearly the whole of the skin surface is involved.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythroderma

      Explanation:

      Erythroderma is a condition where the skin becomes red all over the body, affecting at least 90% of the skin surface. It can occur suddenly or gradually and is often accompanied by skin peeling. The cause can be related to various skin disorders, including eczema, drug reactions, and cancer. Psoriasis is the most common cause in adults. Patients with erythroderma should be hospitalized as it can lead to fever, heart failure, and dehydration. Asteatotic eczema is a type of eczema that causes dry, itchy, and cracked skin, usually on the shins of elderly patients. Atopic eczema is a chronic inflammatory skin disease that often starts in infancy and is associated with high levels of immunoglobulin E. Ichthyosis is a condition where the skin is persistently scaly and can be congenital or acquired. Toxic epidermal necrolysis is a severe skin disorder that can be life-threatening and is often caused by drug reactions.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 104 - A 28-year-old patient complains of toe-nail problems. She has been experiencing discoloration of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient complains of toe-nail problems. She has been experiencing discoloration of her left great toe for the past 6 weeks. The patient is seeking treatment as it is causing her significant embarrassment. Upon examination, there is a yellowish discoloration on the medial left great toe with nail thickening and mild onycholysis.

      What would be the most suitable course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Take nail sample for laboratory testing

      Explanation:

      Before prescribing any treatment, laboratory testing should confirm the presence of a fungal nail infection. Although it is likely that the patient’s symptoms are due to onychomycosis, other conditions such as psoriasis should be ruled out. Oral terbinafine would be a suitable treatment option if the test confirms a fungal infection. However, topical antifungal treatments are generally not ideal for nail infections. A topical corticosteroid is not appropriate for treating a fungal nail infection, but may be considered if the test reveals no fungal involvement and there are signs of an inflammatory dermatosis like psoriasis. While taking a nail sample is necessary, antifungal treatment should not be initiated until the fungal cause is confirmed. This is because different nail conditions can have similar appearances, and starting treatment without confirmation would not be beneficial.

      Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.

      The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.

      Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.

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  • Question 105 - A 52-year-old man has round erythematous scaly plaques on his limbs. Select from...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man has round erythematous scaly plaques on his limbs. Select from the list the single feature that would suggest a diagnosis of discoid eczema rather than psoriasis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Marked pruritus

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Discoid Eczema and Psoriasis

      Discoid eczema is a skin condition characterized by coin-shaped plaques that are well-defined and often occur on the extremities, especially the legs. Lesions may also appear on the arms, trunk, hands, or feet, but not on the face or scalp. The plaques are intensely itchy and may clear in the center, resembling tinea corporis. An exudative form of the condition also exists, which is vesiculated.

      On the other hand, psoriasis is a skin condition that often affects the extensor surfaces, particularly at the elbows and knees. The scalp is also commonly involved. The scale is thick and silvery, and there may be nail changes, such as pitting. Itching may occur, but it is less severe than in discoid eczema.

      In summary, while both conditions may present with similar symptoms, such as itching and skin lesions, they have distinct differences in terms of their location, appearance, and severity of itching. It is important to consult a healthcare professional for an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 106 - You see a 50-year-old woman with generalised hair loss from her scalp over...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 50-year-old woman with generalised hair loss from her scalp over the past year. She has no features of androgen excess. She has no medical history and is not on any regular medication. Recent blood tests including ferritin were unremarkable. On examination, you note some mild thinning around the crown area and widening of the central parting of her hair. You make a diagnosis of androgenetic alopecia.

      What would be the next most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cyproterone acetate

      Explanation:

      NICE Recommends Topical Minoxidil as First-Line Treatment for Female Androgenetic Alopecia

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends the use of topical minoxidil 2% solution as the first-line treatment for androgenetic alopecia in women. This medication is available over-the-counter and has been found to be effective in promoting hair growth. However, NICE advises against prescribing other drug treatments in primary care.

      Referral to dermatology should be considered in certain cases. For instance, if a woman has an atypical presentation of hair loss, or if she experiences extensive hair loss. Additionally, if treatment with topical minoxidil has been ineffective after one year, referral to a dermatologist may be necessary. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure that women with androgenetic alopecia receive appropriate and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 107 - A 5-year-old girl has a history of fever and worsening eczema on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl has a history of fever and worsening eczema on her face over the past 2 days. The child appears unwell and has clustered blisters and punched-out erosions covering her chin and left cheek.
      Select from the list the single most appropriate initial management.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emergency admission to hospital

      Explanation:

      This young boy is suffering from eczema herpeticum, which is a herpes simplex infection that has developed on top of his atopic eczema. If someone with eczema experiences rapidly worsening, painful eczema, along with possible fever, lethargy, or distress, and clustered blisters that resemble early cold sores, they may have contracted herpes simplex virus. Additionally, punched-out erosions that are uniform in appearance and may coalesce could also be present. If eczema that has become infected fails to respond to antibiotic and corticosteroid treatment, patients should be admitted to the hospital for intravenous aciclovir and same-day dermatological review. For less severely affected individuals, oral aciclovir and frequent review may be an option. This information is based on guidance from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 108 - Which of the following is least commonly associated with acanthosis nigricans? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is least commonly associated with acanthosis nigricans?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Acanthosis nigricans is a condition characterized by the presence of brown, velvety plaques that are symmetrical and commonly found on the neck, axilla, and groin. This condition can be caused by various factors such as type 2 diabetes mellitus, gastrointestinal cancer, obesity, polycystic ovarian syndrome, acromegaly, Cushing’s disease, hypothyroidism, familial factors, Prader-Willi syndrome, and certain drugs like the combined oral contraceptive pill and nicotinic acid.

      The pathophysiology of acanthosis nigricans involves insulin resistance, which leads to hyperinsulinemia. This, in turn, stimulates the proliferation of keratinocytes and dermal fibroblasts through interaction with insulin-like growth factor receptor-1 (IGFR1). This process results in the formation of the characteristic brown, velvety plaques seen in acanthosis nigricans. Understanding the underlying mechanisms of this condition is crucial in its diagnosis and management.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 109 - As a salaried GP working in a GP surgery, you recently had a...

    Incorrect

    • As a salaried GP working in a GP surgery, you recently had a consultation with a 75-year-old man who presented with an unsightly left hallux toenail. The nail was thickened and had a yellowish tinge, leading you to suspect a fungal toenail infection. After arranging nail scrapings and sending them off to the laboratory for analysis, the results have returned positive for Trichophyton rubrum. You call the patient to discuss the results and he is eager to know what treatment options are available.

      What would be the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral terbinafine, taken once daily for 3-6 months

      Explanation:

      Fungal toenail infections caused by Trichophyton rubrum are challenging to treat and require extended courses of oral antifungal medication. Terbinafine is the preferred option and treatment usually lasts for 3-6 months. However, terbinafine can have harmful effects on the liver, so liver function tests should be conducted regularly during treatment. Oral itraconazole is another option, but it is typically used for fungal nail infections caused by yeasts and given as pulsed therapy. Topical creams are not effective for treating fungal toenail infections. In this case, the patient’s asymptomatic fungal toenail doesn’t require urgent surgical removal. A podiatrist referral may be considered if the patient has a high-risk foot or difficulty caring for their nails, but an urgent referral is not necessary.

      Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.

      The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.

      Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 110 - A 9-month-old baby boy has a recurrent itchy eruption affecting his trunk and...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old baby boy has a recurrent itchy eruption affecting his trunk and soles. Examination shows a diffuse itchy dermatitis on the trunk and pink-red papules on both soles. An older cousin is reported to have a similar itchy rash and he has been playing with him.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Scabies

      Explanation:

      Dermatological Conditions in Infants and Children: A Comparison

      Scabies, Palmoplantar Pustulosis, Atopic Eczema, Tinea Pedis, and Viral Warts are some of the common dermatological conditions that affect infants and children. While they may share some similarities in symptoms, each condition has its unique characteristics that distinguish it from the others.

      Scabies is a highly contagious skin condition caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei mite. It is characterized by a widespread, eczematous eruption primarily on the trunk, with the scalp and neck also being affected. In infants, papules and pustules on the palms and soles are common, representing a hypersensitivity reaction to the mite.

      Palmoplantar Pustulosis, on the other hand, is a chronic pustular condition that affects the palms and soles. It presents as crops of sterile pustules that later turn brown, occurring on one or both hands and/or feet. Thickened, scaly, red skin that easily becomes fissured is also a characteristic feature. Smoking is strongly associated with this condition.

      Atopic Eczema is a chronic, itchy dermatitis that commonly presents with an itchy rash on the face in babies. It may become widespread or confined to the flexures. Papules on the soles are not a feature, and a history of contact with a similarly affected relative would not fit this diagnosis.

      Tinea Pedis, also known as athlete’s foot, is a fungal infection that affects the feet. It is uncommon in infants and doesn’t usually cause dermatitis on the trunk.

      Finally, Viral Warts are skin lesions associated with the human papillomavirus (HPV). They are not characteristically itchy and would not cause the widespread dermatitis described in this case.

      In conclusion, while these dermatological conditions may share some similarities, a careful examination of the symptoms and history can help distinguish one from the other. It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect your child has any of these conditions.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 111 - A 25-year-old man visits his primary care physician with great anxiety about having...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man visits his primary care physician with great anxiety about having scabies. His partner has disclosed that he was treated for scabies recently, and the physician observes the typical burrows in the man's finger webs. The man has no other skin ailments or allergies to drugs/foods.

      What is the most suitable initial treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Permethrin 5% cream applied to all skin, rinsed after 12 hours with re-treatment after 1 week

      Explanation:

      The recommended first-line treatment for scabies is the application of permethrin cream to all skin, including the scalp, which should be left on for 12 hours before rinsing off. This treatment should be repeated after 7 days. Malathion is a second-line treatment that should be rinsed off after 24 hours. Steroids may be used by dermatologists in cases of resistant scabies or scabies pruritus, but only under specialist guidance. Salt water bathing is not recommended as a treatment for scabies. Mupirocin cream is used to eliminate MRSA in asymptomatic hospital inpatients.

      Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Scabies is a skin condition caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which is spread through prolonged skin contact. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults. The mite burrows into the skin, laying its eggs in the outermost layer. The resulting intense itching is due to a delayed hypersensitivity reaction to the mites and eggs, which occurs about a month after infection. Symptoms include widespread itching, linear burrows on the fingers and wrists, and secondary features such as excoriation and infection.

      The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, followed by malathion 0.5% if necessary. Patients should be advised to avoid close physical contact until treatment is complete and to treat all household and close contacts, even if asymptomatic. Clothing, bedding, and towels should be laundered, ironed, or tumble-dried on the first day of treatment to kill off mites. The insecticide should be applied to all areas, including the face and scalp, and left on for 8-12 hours for permethrin or 24 hours for malathion before washing off. Treatment should be repeated after 7 days.

      Crusted scabies, also known as Norwegian scabies, is a severe form of the condition seen in patients with suppressed immunity, particularly those with HIV. The skin is covered in hundreds of thousands of mites, and isolation is essential. Ivermectin is the treatment of choice.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 112 - A 28 year-old woman comes to you with a recent skin lesion. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year-old woman comes to you with a recent skin lesion. She is in good health but is currently 16 weeks pregnant. She reports that the lesion appeared four weeks ago and has grown quickly. Upon examination, you observe a bright red, nodular lesion that is 14mm in diameter and shows signs of recent bleeding. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyogenic granuloma

      Explanation:

      Pyogenic Granuloma: A Common Benign Skin Lesion

      Pyogenic granuloma is a benign skin lesion that is relatively common. Despite its name, it is not a true granuloma nor is it pyogenic in nature. It is also known as an eruptive haemangioma. The cause of pyogenic granuloma is unknown, but it is often linked to trauma and is more common in women and young adults. The most common sites for these lesions are the head/neck, upper trunk, and hands. Lesions in the oral mucosa are common during pregnancy.

      Pyogenic granulomas initially appear as small red/brown spots that rapidly progress within days to weeks, forming raised, red/brown spherical lesions that may bleed profusely or ulcerate. Lesions associated with pregnancy often resolve spontaneously postpartum, while other lesions usually persist. Removal methods include curettage and cauterisation, cryotherapy, and excision.

      In summary, pyogenic granuloma is a common benign skin lesion that can be caused by trauma and is more common in women and young adults. It appears as small red/brown spots that rapidly progress into raised, red/brown spherical lesions that may bleed or ulcerate. Lesions associated with pregnancy often resolve spontaneously, while other lesions usually persist and can be removed through various methods.

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  • Question 113 - When assessing the respiratory system of a middle-aged patient, you observe some alterations...

    Incorrect

    • When assessing the respiratory system of a middle-aged patient, you observe some alterations in the skin. The skin on the back of the neck and axillae is hyperkeratotic and hyperpigmented. What underlying condition do you think is causing these changes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type 2 diabetes

      Explanation:

      Acanthosis nigricans is a condition where certain areas of the skin, such as the neck, armpits, and skin folds, become thickened and darkened with a velvety texture. Skin tags may also be present. While it can occur on its own in individuals with darker skin tones, it is often a sign of insulin resistance and related conditions like type 2 diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, Cushing’s syndrome, or hypothyroidism. Certain medications like corticosteroids, insulin, and hormone medications can also cause acanthosis nigricans. If it develops quickly and in unusual areas like the mouth, it may indicate an internal malignancy, particularly gastric cancer.

      Acanthosis nigricans is a condition characterized by the presence of brown, velvety plaques that are symmetrical and commonly found on the neck, axilla, and groin. This condition can be caused by various factors such as type 2 diabetes mellitus, gastrointestinal cancer, obesity, polycystic ovarian syndrome, acromegaly, Cushing’s disease, hypothyroidism, familial factors, Prader-Willi syndrome, and certain drugs like the combined oral contraceptive pill and nicotinic acid.

      The pathophysiology of acanthosis nigricans involves insulin resistance, which leads to hyperinsulinemia. This, in turn, stimulates the proliferation of keratinocytes and dermal fibroblasts through interaction with insulin-like growth factor receptor-1 (IGFR1). This process results in the formation of the characteristic brown, velvety plaques seen in acanthosis nigricans. Understanding the underlying mechanisms of this condition is crucial in its diagnosis and management.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 114 - A 29-year-old woman, Sarah, has been taking Microgynon-30 for 8 months as a...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman, Sarah, has been taking Microgynon-30 for 8 months as a form of birth control. She recently returned from a vacation in Thailand and has noticed the development of melasma on her face. Despite her busy work schedule, she has made time to visit her GP for advice on preventing further melasma after sun exposure. What recommendations should her GP provide to help Sarah?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Change Microgynon-30 to Cerazette (desogestrel)

      Explanation:

      Switching from the combined contraceptive pill to a progesterone only pill can potentially decrease melasma, as it is believed that elevated levels of estrogen stimulate melanocytes. Given her irregular work schedule, Cerazette, which has a 12-hour usage window, may be a better option for her than norethisterone.

      Understanding Melasma: A Common Skin Condition

      Melasma is a skin condition that causes the development of dark patches or macules on sun-exposed areas, especially the face. It is more common in women and people with darker skin. The term chloasma is sometimes used to describe melasma during pregnancy. The condition is often associated with hormonal changes, such as those that occur during pregnancy or with the use of hormonal medications like the combined oral contraceptive pill or hormone replacement therapy.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 115 - A 25-year-old soldier who returned from a tour of Iraq 3 months ago...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old soldier who returned from a tour of Iraq 3 months ago comes to the clinic with a painless ulcer on his forearm. He explains that it began as a small bump and has been growing in size. Upon examination, there is a 4 cm ulcer with a sunken center and a raised firm border. The patient is healthy otherwise and has no other medical issues.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cutaneous leishmaniasis

      Explanation:

      Based on the patient’s travel history to Afghanistan and the presence of a painless single lesion, the most probable diagnosis is cutaneous leishmaniasis. Although primary syphilis can also present with a painless lesion, the size and location of the lesion on the back of the hand is atypical. Pyoderma gangrenosum typically causes pain and presents more acutely. While a buruli ulcer can also present similarly, it is rare, mostly found in children, and has not been reported in the Middle East.

      Source: WHO fact sheets on leishmaniasis
      Cutaneous leishmaniasis is transmitted by sandflies and usually manifests as an erythematous patch or papule that gradually enlarges and becomes an ulcer with a raised indurated border. In dry forms, the lesion is crusted with a raised edge. It is usually painless unless a secondary bacterial infection is present. Afghanistan has particularly high levels of cutaneous leishmaniasis.

      Leishmaniasis: A Disease Caused by Sandfly Bites

      Leishmaniasis is a disease caused by the protozoa Leishmania, which are transmitted through the bites of sandflies. There are three main forms of the disease: cutaneous, mucocutaneous, and visceral. Cutaneous leishmaniasis is characterized by a crusted lesion at the site of the bite, which may be accompanied by an underlying ulcer. It is typically diagnosed through a punch biopsy from the edge of the lesion. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis can spread to involve the mucosae of the nose, pharynx, and other areas. Visceral leishmaniasis, also known as kala-azar, is the most severe form of the disease and is characterized by fever, sweats, rigors, massive splenomegaly and hepatomegaly, poor appetite, weight loss, and grey skin. The gold standard for diagnosis is bone marrow or splenic aspirate. Treatment is necessary for cutaneous leishmaniasis acquired in South or Central America due to the risk of mucocutaneous leishmaniasis, while disease acquired in Africa or India can be managed more conservatively.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 116 - A 45-year-old woman is concerned about her sister who is being tested for...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman is concerned about her sister who is being tested for possible vulval cancer. She inquires about any initial indications.

      How does vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN) typically manifest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: VIN can present with vulval itching or burning or flat/slightly raised vulval skin lesions

      Explanation:

      Vulval intraepithelial neoplasia, a type of skin lesion that can lead to squamous cell carcinoma, often presents with vulval skin lesions accompanied by burning and itching. While VIN can be asymptomatic, most women with this condition experience raised or flat discolored lesions on the labia majora, labia minora, and posterior fourchette in shades of brown, pink, or red.

      Understanding Vulval Intraepithelial Neoplasia

      Vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN) is a condition that affects the skin of the vulva, which is the external female genitalia. It is a pre-cancerous lesion that can lead to squamous skin cancer if left untreated. VIN is more common in women who are around 50 years old, and there are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing this condition.

      One of the main risk factors for VIN is infection with human papillomavirus (HPV) types 16 and 18. Other factors that can increase the risk of developing VIN include smoking, herpes simplex virus 2, and lichen planus. Symptoms of VIN may include itching and burning, as well as raised and well-defined skin lesions.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 117 - During her annual medication review, a 36 year old woman with psoriasis should...

    Incorrect

    • During her annual medication review, a 36 year old woman with psoriasis should be screened for which associated conditions as recommended by NICE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthropathy

      Explanation:

      Psoriasis is linked to all the aforementioned conditions. To ensure early detection of psoriatic arthropathy, NICE advises annual screening of psoriasis patients using a validated tool like the Psoriasis Epidemiological Screening Tool (PEST). Additionally, patients should undergo cardiovascular risk assessment every 5 years, or more frequently if necessary.

      Psoriasis is a condition that can have both physical and psychological complications, beyond just psoriatic arthritis. While it may be tempting to focus solely on topical treatments, it’s important to keep in mind the potential risks associated with psoriasis. Patients with this condition are at a higher risk for cardiovascular disease, hypertension, venous thromboembolism, depression, ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease, non-melanoma skin cancer, and other types of cancer such as liver, lung, and upper gastrointestinal tract cancers. Therefore, it’s crucial to consider these potential complications when managing a patient with psoriasis.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 118 - A 28-year-old female patient complains of a rash on her neck and forehead....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient complains of a rash on her neck and forehead. She recently came back from a trip to Greece a week ago and had her hair colored two days ago. Upon examination, there is a vesicular rash around her hairline that is oozing, but her scalp is not severely affected. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Allergic contact dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Contact Dermatitis

      Contact dermatitis is a skin condition that can be caused by two main types of reactions. The first type is irritant contact dermatitis, which is a non-allergic reaction that occurs due to exposure to weak acids or alkalis, such as detergents. This type of dermatitis is commonly seen on the hands and is characterized by erythema, but crusting and vesicles are rare.

      The second type of contact dermatitis is allergic contact dermatitis, which is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction. This type of dermatitis is uncommon and is often seen on the head following hair dyes. It presents as an acute weeping eczema that predominantly affects the margins of the hairline rather than the hairy scalp itself. Topical treatment with a potent steroid is indicated for this type of dermatitis.

      Cement is a frequent cause of contact dermatitis. The alkaline nature of cement may cause an irritant contact dermatitis, while the dichromates in cement can also cause an allergic contact dermatitis. It is important to understand the different types of contact dermatitis and their causes to effectively manage and treat this condition.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 119 - Which of the following causes of pneumonia is most commonly linked with the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following causes of pneumonia is most commonly linked with the onset of erythema multiforme major?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mycoplasma

      Explanation:

      Understanding Erythema Multiforme

      Erythema multiforme is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that is commonly triggered by infections. It can be classified into two forms, minor and major. Previously, Stevens-Johnson syndrome was thought to be a severe form of erythema multiforme, but they are now considered separate entities.

      The features of erythema multiforme include target lesions that initially appear on the back of the hands or feet before spreading to the torso. The upper limbs are more commonly affected than the lower limbs, and pruritus, or mild itching, may occasionally be present.

      The causes of erythema multiforme can include viruses such as herpes simplex virus, bacteria like Mycoplasma and Streptococcus, drugs such as penicillin and NSAIDs, and connective tissue diseases like systemic lupus erythematosus. Malignancy and sarcoidosis can also be underlying causes.

      Erythema multiforme major is the more severe form of the condition and is associated with mucosal involvement.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 120 - A 35-year-old woman, who is typically healthy, presents with a pruritic rash. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman, who is typically healthy, presents with a pruritic rash. She is currently pregnant with twins at 32/40 gestation and this is her first pregnancy. The rash initially appeared on her abdomen and has predominantly affected her stretch marks. Upon examination, she displays urticarial papules with some plaques concentrated on the abdomen, while the umbilical area remains unaffected. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polymorphic eruption of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      The cause of itch during pregnancy can be identified by observing the timing of symptoms and the appearance of the rash. Polymorphic eruption of pregnancy is a common condition that usually occurs in the third trimester and is more likely to affect first-time pregnant women with excessive weight gain or multiple pregnancies. The rash is characterized by itchy urticarial papules that merge into plaques and typically starts on the abdomen, particularly on the striae, but not on the umbilicus region. The rash may remain localized, spread to the buttocks and thighs, or become widespread and generalized. It may later progress to non-urticated erythema, eczematous lesions, and vesicles, but not bullae.

      Skin Disorders Associated with Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, women may experience various skin disorders. The most common skin disorder found in pregnancy is atopic eruption, which presents as an itchy red rash. However, no specific treatment is needed for this condition. Another skin disorder is polymorphic eruption, which is a pruritic condition associated with the last trimester. Lesions often first appear in abdominal striae, and management depends on severity. Emollients, mild potency topical steroids, and oral steroids may be used. Pemphigoid gestationis is another skin disorder that presents as pruritic blistering lesions. It often develops in the peri-umbilical region, later spreading to the trunk, back, buttocks, and arms. This disorder usually presents in the second or third trimester and is rarely seen in the first pregnancy. Oral corticosteroids are usually required for treatment.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 121 - A 27-year-old man comes back from a year-long trip to Central and South...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man comes back from a year-long trip to Central and South America. He complains of a lesion on his lower lip that has been ulcerating for the past 2 months. Upon examination, it is found that his nasal and oral mucosae are also affected. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leishmaniasis

      Explanation:

      Leishmaniasis is the probable diagnosis for this patient, as the presence of a primary skin lesion accompanied by mucosal involvement is a typical indication of infection with Leishmania brasiliensis.

      Leishmaniasis: A Disease Caused by Sandfly Bites

      Leishmaniasis is a disease caused by the protozoa Leishmania, which are transmitted through the bites of sandflies. There are three main forms of the disease: cutaneous, mucocutaneous, and visceral. Cutaneous leishmaniasis is characterized by a crusted lesion at the site of the bite, which may be accompanied by an underlying ulcer. It is typically diagnosed through a punch biopsy from the edge of the lesion. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis can spread to involve the mucosae of the nose, pharynx, and other areas. Visceral leishmaniasis, also known as kala-azar, is the most severe form of the disease and is characterized by fever, sweats, rigors, massive splenomegaly and hepatomegaly, poor appetite, weight loss, and grey skin. The gold standard for diagnosis is bone marrow or splenic aspirate. Treatment is necessary for cutaneous leishmaniasis acquired in South or Central America due to the risk of mucocutaneous leishmaniasis, while disease acquired in Africa or India can be managed more conservatively.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 122 - How would you characterize an individual with asteatotic eczema? ...

    Incorrect

    • How would you characterize an individual with asteatotic eczema?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An 90-year-old female who has developed cracked fissured skin on her lower legs with a 'crazy-paving' appearance

      Explanation:

      Types of Eczema and Asteatotic Eczema in Elderly Patients

      There are various types of eczema, each with its own unique characteristics and triggers. Atopic eczema is common in children, while pompholyx affects middle-aged women and discoid eczema is more prevalent in older men. Varicose eczema is often seen in individuals with poor circulation, and asteatotic eczema is a common condition in elderly patients.

      Asteatotic eczema is caused by a lack of epidermal lubrication, which can be exacerbated by factors such as over-washing, inadequate soap removal, diuretic use, and dry air with low humidity. This condition is characterized by dry, cracked skin with a crazy-paving appearance. Treatment involves addressing any underlying triggers and using topical emollients and steroids to soothe and moisturize the affected area. With proper care, asteatotic eczema can be effectively managed in elderly patients.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 123 - Which of the following statements about strawberry birthmarks is not true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about strawberry birthmarks is not true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Only 50% resolve before 10 years of age

      Explanation:

      Strawberry naevi, also known as capillary haemangiomas, are not usually present at birth but can develop quickly within the first month of life. They appear as raised, red, and lobed tumours that commonly occur on the face, scalp, and back. These growths tend to increase in size until around 6-9 months before gradually disappearing over the next few years. However, in rare cases, they can obstruct the airway if they occur in the upper respiratory tract. Capillary haemangiomas are more common in white infants, particularly in females, premature infants, and those whose mothers have undergone chorionic villous sampling.

      Complications of strawberry naevi include obstruction of vision or airway, bleeding, ulceration, and thrombocytopaenia. Treatment may be necessary if there is visual field obstruction, and propranolol is now the preferred choice over systemic steroids. Topical beta-blockers such as timolol may also be used. Cavernous haemangioma is a type of deep capillary haemangioma.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 124 - A 68-year-old dairy farmer presents with a small white lesion on his left...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old dairy farmer presents with a small white lesion on his left cheek. It has grown slowly over several months and it now has a central ulcer.

      What is the most likely nature of this lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Basal cell papilloma (seborrhoeic keratosis)

      Explanation:

      Lesion on the Face: Indications of Basal Cell Carcinoma

      The presence of a slow-growing lesion on the face, with a central ulcer located above a line drawn from the angle of the mouth to the ear lobe, is a strong indication of basal cell carcinoma. This type of cancer tends to develop slowly, and the presence of an ulcer in the center of the lesion is a common characteristic. On the other hand, squamous cell carcinoma grows much faster than basal cell carcinoma. It is important to note that seborrhoeic keratoses have a papillary warty surface, which is different from the appearance of basal cell carcinoma. Proper diagnosis and treatment are crucial in managing any type of skin lesion, especially those that may indicate the presence of cancer.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 125 - A 67-year-old woman comes to see her GP with concerns about some small...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman comes to see her GP with concerns about some small spots on her shoulder. She reports seeing small lesions with several tiny blood vessels emanating from the center. During the examination, you can press on them, causing them to turn white and then refill from the middle.

      What is the condition associated with this type of lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liver failure

      Explanation:

      When differentiating between spider naevi and telangiectasia, it is important to note that spider naevi fill from the centre when pressed, while telangiectasia fill from the edge. A woman presenting with a small lesion surrounded by tiny blood vessels radiating from the middle that refills from the centre is likely to have a spider naevus. This condition is commonly associated with liver failure, making it the most likely diagnosis.

      Understanding Spider Naevi

      Spider naevi, also known as spider angiomas, are characterized by a central red papule surrounded by capillaries. These lesions can be found on the upper part of the body and blanch upon pressure. Spider naevi are more common in childhood, with around 10-15% of people having one or more of these lesions.

      To differentiate spider naevi from telangiectasia, one can press on the lesion and observe how it fills. Spider naevi fill from the center, while telangiectasia fills from the edge.

      Spider naevi can also be associated with liver disease, pregnancy, and the use of combined oral contraceptive pills. It is important to understand the characteristics and associations of spider naevi for proper diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 126 - You are asked by one of your practice nurses to see a new...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked by one of your practice nurses to see a new health care support worker at the practice who has become unwell. She is a young adult and has just put on a pair of latex gloves to assist the nurse with a procedure. Immediately after putting the gloves on she has developed diffuse itch and widespread urticaria is present. She has some mild angioedema and a slight wheeze is audible.

      Which of the following describes this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type II allergic reaction

      Explanation:

      Allergic Reactions to Natural Rubber Latex

      Natural rubber latex (NRL) is commonly found in healthcare products, including gloves. However, NRL proteins can cause a type I immediate hypersensitivity allergic reaction, which can be severe. In addition, some products made with NRL may contain chemical additives that cause an irritant contact dermatitis, resulting in localized skin irritation. This is not an allergic response to NRL.

      Another type of allergic reaction, a type IV allergic contact dermatitis, can occur due to sensitization to the chemical additives used in NRL gloves. This type of reaction may take months or even years to develop, but once sensitized, symptoms usually occur within 10-24 hours of exposure and can worsen over a 72 hour period. It is important for healthcare workers and patients to be aware of the potential for allergic reactions to NRL and to take appropriate precautions.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 127 - As a teacher, you are educating a parent on the application of topical...

    Incorrect

    • As a teacher, you are educating a parent on the application of topical steroids for their adolescent with atopic eczema. The parent has come across the concept of fingertip Units (FTU) for measuring the amount of steroid to use. Can you explain what 1 FTU represents?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sufficient to treat a skin area about twice that of the flat of an adult hand

      Explanation:

      The measurement for steroids using the fingertip unit (FTU) is equivalent to twice the area of an adult hand’s flat surface.

      Topical Steroids for Eczema Treatment

      Eczema is a common skin condition that causes red, itchy, and inflamed skin. Topical steroids are often used to treat eczema, but it is important to use the weakest steroid cream that effectively controls the patient’s symptoms. The potency of topical steroids varies, and the table below shows the different types of topical steroids by potency.

      To determine the appropriate amount of topical steroid to use, the fingertip rule can be applied. One fingertip unit (FTU) is equivalent to 0.5 g and is sufficient to treat an area of skin about twice the size of an adult hand. The table also provides the recommended number of FTUs per dose for different areas of the body.

      The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends specific quantities of topical steroids to be prescribed for a single daily application for two weeks. The recommended amounts vary depending on the area of the body being treated.

      In summary, when using topical steroids for eczema treatment, it is important to use the weakest steroid cream that effectively controls symptoms and to follow the recommended amounts for each area of the body.

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  • Question 128 - A 46-year-old man has an ulcer on his right foot. He has had...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old man has an ulcer on his right foot. He has had type 1 diabetes for 20 years.

      There is a small ulcer of 2 cm diameter on the outer aspect of his right big toe.

      His peripheral pulses are all palpable. He has a peripheral neuropathy to the mid shins. The ulcer has an erythematous margin and is covered by slough.

      Which is the most likely infective organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes

      Explanation:

      Diabetic Foot Ulcers and Infections

      Diabetic foot ulcers can be categorized into two types: those in neuropathic feet and those in feet with ischemia. The former is warm and well-perfused with decreased sweating and dry skin, while the latter is cool and pulseless with thin, shiny skin and atrophy of subcutaneous tissues. Diabetic foot infections are serious and range from superficial paronychia to gangrene. Diabetics are more susceptible to foot ulceration due to neuropathy, vascular insufficiency, and reduced neutrophil function. Once skin ulceration occurs, pathogenic organisms can colonize the underlying tissues, and early signs of infection may be subtle. Local signs of wound infection include friable granulation tissue, yellow or grey moist tissue, purulent discharge, and an unpleasant odor. The most common pathogens are aerobic Gram-positive bacteria, particularly Staphylococcus aureus and beta-hemolytic Streptococci. If infection is suspected, deep swab and tissue samples should be sent for culture, and broad-spectrum antibiotics started. Urgent surgical intervention is necessary for a large area of infected sloughy tissue, localised fluctuance and expression of pus, crepitus in the soft tissues on radiological examination, and purplish discoloration of the skin. Antibiotic treatment should be tailored according to the clinical response, culture results, and sensitivity. If osteomyelitis is present, surgical resection should be considered, and antibiotics continued for four to six weeks.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 129 - A 16-year-old male is seen for a follow-up appointment six weeks after beginning...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male is seen for a follow-up appointment six weeks after beginning an oral antibiotic for acne. He discontinued the medication two weeks ago due to a perceived change in his skin color, despite not being exposed to strong sunlight in the past six months. During the examination, there is a noticeable increase in skin pigmentation throughout his body, including the buttocks. Which antibiotic is most likely responsible for this reaction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Minocycline

      Explanation:

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 130 - An 80-year-old man comes in for a skin examination. He has three small...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes in for a skin examination. He has three small scaly pink growths on his forehead and two on his forearms. He reports having had these growths before and they were typically treated with cryotherapy. No other notable growths are observed.

      What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical diclofenac

      Explanation:

      The most suitable treatment for this patient’s likely actinic keratoses is topical diclofenac. Other options include topical imiquimod and topical 5-fluorouracil, but they may cause skin irritation. Punch biopsies are not necessary in this case, as the lesions are typical for actinic keratosis and have been treated before. Referral to a dermatologist is not needed at this stage, but it should be considered if squamous cell carcinomas are suspected. Shave biopsies are not required either. Topical corticosteroids are not appropriate for Premalignant skin lesions.

      Actinic keratoses, also known as solar keratoses, are skin lesions that develop due to prolonged exposure to the sun. These lesions are typically small, crusty, and scaly, and can appear in various colors such as pink, red, brown, or the same color as the skin. They are commonly found on sun-exposed areas like the temples of the head, and multiple lesions may be present.

      To manage actinic keratoses, prevention of further risk is crucial, such as avoiding sun exposure and using sun cream. Treatment options include a 2 to 3 week course of fluorouracil cream, which may cause redness and inflammation. Topical hydrocortisone may be given to help settle the inflammation. Topical diclofenac is another option for mild AKs, with moderate efficacy and fewer side-effects. Topical imiquimod has shown good efficacy in trials. Cryotherapy and curettage and cautery are also available as treatment options.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 131 - A 21-year-old man presents with the rapid development of large oval macules on...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man presents with the rapid development of large oval macules on his trunk. Some of the macules have a little scale on them. He had noticed a single larger lesion that appeared a few days earlier but thought little of it. He is otherwise well.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pityriasis rosea

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Skin Conditions: Pityriasis Rosea, Guttate Psoriasis, Drug Eruption, Pityriasis Versicolor, and Viral Exanthema

      Pityriasis rosea is characterized by a larger herald patch followed by a rash on the trunk with pink macules and fine scale. The rash will resolve on its own in 6-12 weeks, but emollients or steroid treatments can help relieve itch. Guttate psoriasis typically presents with small lesions preceded by a sore throat, which is not seen in this scenario. Drug eruption causes a maculopapular rash that begins on the trunk and moves to the extremities, but there is no mention of medication in this case. Pityriasis versicolor causes large macules with fine scale on the trunk, which can become confluent, but this is not seen here. A viral exanthem is usually accompanied by systemic symptoms such as fever or malaise, which are absent in this case. Knowing the distinguishing features of these skin conditions can aid in accurate diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 132 - A 16-year-old girl comes to your clinic complaining of cracked and peeling feet...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to your clinic complaining of cracked and peeling feet for the past 3 weeks. Her soles appear shiny and glazed, but her heels are not affected. The web spaces between her toes are also spared. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Juvenile plantar dermatosis

      Explanation:

      It is crucial to correctly diagnose juvenile plantar dermatosis as it can be misidentified as athlete’s foot, and therefore requires different treatment.

      Juvenile plantar dermatosis is a prevalent condition that causes dry skin on the feet in children and adolescents, typically affecting those aged 3 to 14, although it can occur in individuals of any age. One key distinguishing factor is that juvenile plantar dermatosis spares the web spaces, whereas tinea pedis (athlete’s foot) commonly affects these areas.

      The initial treatment for juvenile plantar dermatosis involves using moisturizing cream at night and barrier cream during the day. Additionally, patients can be advised to reduce friction by wearing well-fitting shoes, two pairs of cotton socks, and changing socks frequently.

      Eczema typically presents as scaly, red patches in flexor creases, such as the elbow or knee.

      Contact dermatitis may appear similar to juvenile plantar dermatosis, but there would be a history of exposure to a potential trigger.

      In summary, accurately diagnosing juvenile plantar dermatosis is crucial to ensure appropriate treatment is provided, as it can be mistaken for other conditions such as athlete’s foot.

      Understanding Athlete’s Foot

      Athlete’s foot, medically known as tinea pedis, is a common fungal infection that affects the skin on the feet. It is caused by fungi in the Trichophyton genus and is characterized by scaling, flaking, and itching between the toes. The condition is highly contagious and can spread through contact with infected surfaces or people.

      To treat athlete’s foot, clinical knowledge summaries recommend using a topical imidazole, undecenoate, or terbinafine as a first-line treatment. These medications work by killing the fungi responsible for the infection and relieving symptoms. It is important to maintain good foot hygiene and avoid sharing personal items such as socks and shoes to prevent the spread of the infection. With proper treatment and prevention measures, athlete’s foot can be effectively managed.

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  • Question 133 - You are reviewing the shared care protocols in the practice for prescribing and...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing the shared care protocols in the practice for prescribing and monitoring disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs.
      Which of the following DMARDs can cause retinal damage and requires monitoring for visual symptoms including pre-treatment visual assessment and biennial review of vision?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Azathioprine

      Explanation:

      Hydroxychloroquine Monitoring Requirements

      Shared care protocols are commonly used between primary and secondary care to monitor and prescribe DMARDs. Hydroxychloroquine, used to treat rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus, requires monitoring of visual symptoms as it can cause retinal damage. The Royal College of Ophthalmologists recommends that patients be assessed by an optometrist prior to treatment if any signs or symptoms of eye disease are present. During treatment, visual symptoms should be enquired about and annual visual acuity recorded. If visual acuity changes or vision is blurred, patients should be advised to stop treatment and seek advice. The BNF and NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries provide further information on the monitoring requirements for hydroxychloroquine.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 134 - A 28-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about 'spots' on the head...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about 'spots' on the head of his penis. He mentions that they have always been present and have not changed in any way. The patient confirms that he is not sexually active and has never had any sexual partners.

      During the examination, the GP observes several flesh-coloured papules on the corona of the penis. The GP diagnoses the patient with pearly penile papules.

      What is the most important advice the GP can offer the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pearly penile papules are benign and do not need to be investigated

      Explanation:

      Pearly penile papules are a common and harmless occurrence that do not require any medical intervention. These small bumps, typically measuring 1-2 mm in size, are found around the corona of the penis and are not a cause for concern. Although patients may worry about their appearance, they are asymptomatic and do not indicate any underlying health issues.

      It is important to note that pearly penile papules are not caused by any sexually transmitted infections, and therefore, routine sexual health screenings are not necessary. Screening should only be conducted if there is a genuine concern or suspicion of an infection. Typically, sexual health initiatives target individuals between the ages of 18 and 25.

      Understanding STI Ulcers

      Genital ulcers are a common symptom of several sexually transmitted infections (STIs). One of the most well-known causes is the herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 2, which can cause severe primary attacks with fever and subsequent attacks with multiple painful ulcers. Syphilis, caused by the spirochaete Treponema pallidum, has primary, secondary, and tertiary stages, with a painless ulcer (chancre) appearing in the primary stage. Chancroid, a tropical disease caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, causes painful genital ulcers with a sharply defined, ragged, undermined border and unilateral, painful inguinal lymph node enlargement. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, has three stages, with the first stage showing a small painless pustule that later forms an ulcer, followed by painful inguinal lymphadenopathy in the second stage and proctocolitis in the third stage. LGV is treated with doxycycline. Other causes of genital ulcers include Behcet’s disease, carcinoma, and granuloma inguinale (previously called Calymmatobacterium granulomatis). Understanding the different causes of STI ulcers is crucial in diagnosing and treating these infections.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 135 - A 55-year-old man has well demarcated itchy erythematous round scaly patches between 1...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man has well demarcated itchy erythematous round scaly patches between 1 cm and 3 cm in diameter on his both shins. The scaling is not accentuated by scratching the patches. He has no nail changes.
      Select from the list the single most suitable management option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Betamethasone valerate 0.1% cream

      Explanation:

      Understanding Discoid Eczema: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Discoid eczema, also known as nummular eczema, is a skin condition characterized by coin-shaped patches of itchy, red, and scaly skin. Unlike psoriasis, these patches are flat and not raised. The condition can occur anywhere on the body, but it tends to affect the extensor aspects of the limbs.

      In some cases, the lesions may be vesicular and weep. Skin scrapings may be sent for mycology to exclude dermatophyte fungus infection, especially if the condition is more prominent on one side of the body. However, the absence of nail changes makes psoriasis and fungal infection less likely.

      To treat discoid eczema, a potent topical corticosteroid is usually needed and should be used until the inflammation is suppressed, which typically takes 2-4 weeks. Emollients, such as emulsifying ointment, can also be beneficial if the skin is dry and can be applied indefinitely as a soap substitute.

      It’s important to note that 1% hydrocortisone cream is much less effective in treating discoid eczema. Instead, calcipotriol ointment is used for psoriasis, and terbinafine cream is used for dermatophyte fungal infections. If you suspect you have discoid eczema, it’s best to consult with a dermatologist for proper diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 136 - A 16-year-old girl comes to you with concerns about her acne. Upon examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to you with concerns about her acne. Upon examination, you observe several pustules, nodules, and some scarring. The patient expresses a desire for treatment as her acne is affecting her mood. While waiting for a dermatology referral, what initial treatment would you recommend?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe an oral antibiotic in combination with topical Benzoyl Peroxide

      Explanation:

      Severe acne is characterized by the presence of nodules, cysts, and a high risk of scarring. It is recommended to refer patients with severe acne for specialist assessment and treatment, which may include oral isotretinoin. In the meantime, a combination of oral antibiotics and topical retinoids or benzoyl peroxide can be prescribed.

      Topical antibiotics should be avoided when using oral antibiotics. Tetracycline, oxytetracycline, doxycycline, or lymecycline are the first-line antibiotic options, while erythromycin can be used as an alternative. Minocycline is not recommended.

      It is not recommended to prescribe antibiotics alone or to combine a topical and oral antibiotic. Women who require contraception can be prescribed a combined oral contraceptive (COC), with a standard COC being suitable for most women. Co-cyprindiol (Dianette®) should only be considered when other treatments have failed and should be discontinued after three to four menstrual cycles once the acne has resolved.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 137 - What condition is characterized by a rash that causes itching? ...

    Incorrect

    • What condition is characterized by a rash that causes itching?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meningococcal purpura

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Rashes and Their Associated Conditions

      Dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin rash that causes vesicles and intense itching. It is often linked to coeliac disease. Erythema chronicum migrans is a rash that appears as a red macule or papule and grows into an annular lesion. It is associated with Lyme disease, which is caused by a spirochaete infection. Erythema nodosum is a painful nodular rash that typically appears on the shins. If it is accompanied by arthritis of the ankles and wrists and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, it is indicative of acute sarcoidosis. Granuloma annulare is a benign condition that produces firm nodules that merge to form ring-shaped lesions. Finally, the non-blanching purpuric rash of meningococcal disease is not itchy.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 138 - You are requested to assess the heel of an 85-year-old woman by the...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to assess the heel of an 85-year-old woman by the community nurses due to suspected pressure ulcer development. Upon inspection, you observe a 3 cm region of erythema on the left heel with a minor area of partial thickness skin loss affecting the epidermis in the middle. What grade would you assign to the pressure ulcer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Grade 2

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pressure Ulcers and Their Management

      Pressure ulcers are a common problem among patients who are unable to move parts of their body due to illness, paralysis, or advancing age. These ulcers typically develop over bony prominences such as the sacrum or heel. Malnourishment, incontinence, lack of mobility, and pain are some of the factors that predispose patients to the development of pressure ulcers. To screen for patients who are at risk of developing pressure areas, the Waterlow score is widely used. This score includes factors such as body mass index, nutritional status, skin type, mobility, and continence.

      The European Pressure Ulcer Advisory Panel classification system grades pressure ulcers based on their severity. Grade 1 ulcers are non-blanchable erythema of intact skin, while grade 2 ulcers involve partial thickness skin loss. Grade 3 ulcers involve full thickness skin loss, while grade 4 ulcers involve extensive destruction, tissue necrosis, or damage to muscle, bone, or supporting structures with or without full thickness skin loss.

      To manage pressure ulcers, a moist wound environment is encouraged to facilitate ulcer healing. Hydrocolloid dressings and hydrogels may help with this. The use of soap should be discouraged to avoid drying the wound. Routine wound swabs should not be done as the vast majority of pressure ulcers are colonized with bacteria. The decision to use systemic antibiotics should be taken on a clinical basis, such as evidence of surrounding cellulitis. Referral to a tissue viability nurse may be considered, and surgical debridement may be beneficial for selected wounds.

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  • Question 139 - A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a rash and feeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a rash and feeling generally unwell. He has a history of epilepsy and was started on phenytoin three weeks ago. One week ago, he developed mouth ulcers, malaise, and a cough. Two days ago, he developed a widespread red rash that has now formed large fluid-filled blisters, covering approximately 30% of his body area. The lesions separate when slight pressure is applied. On examination, his temperature is 38.3ºC and pulse is 126/min. His blood results show:

      - Na+ 144 mmol/l
      - K+ 4.2 mmol/l
      - Bicarbonate 19 mmol/l
      - Urea 13.4 mmol/l
      - Creatinine 121 µmol/l

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Toxic epidermal necrolysis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis

      Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) is a severe skin disorder that can be life-threatening and is often caused by a reaction to certain drugs. The condition causes the skin to appear scalded over a large area and is considered by some to be the most severe form of a range of skin disorders that includes erythema multiforme and Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Symptoms of TEN include feeling unwell, a high temperature, and a rapid heartbeat. Additionally, the skin may separate with mild lateral pressure, a sign known as Nikolsky’s sign.

      Several drugs are known to cause TEN, including phenytoin, sulphonamides, allopurinol, penicillins, carbamazepine, and NSAIDs. If TEN is suspected, the first step is to stop the use of the drug that is causing the reaction. Supportive care is often required, and patients may need to be treated in an intensive care unit. Electrolyte derangement and volume loss are potential complications that need to be monitored. Intravenous immunoglobulin is a commonly used first-line treatment that has been shown to be effective. Other treatment options include immunosuppressive agents such as ciclosporin and cyclophosphamide, as well as plasmapheresis.

      In summary, TEN is a severe skin disorder that can be caused by certain drugs. It is important to recognize the symptoms and stop the use of the drug causing the reaction. Supportive care is often required, and patients may need to be treated in an intensive care unit. Intravenous immunoglobulin is a commonly used first-line treatment, and other options include immunosuppressive agents and plasmapheresis.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 140 - A patient with a history of tinea capitis presents due to a raised...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with a history of tinea capitis presents due to a raised lesion on her scalp. The lesion has been getting gradually bigger over the past two weeks. On examination you find a raised, pustular, spongy mass on the crown of her head. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kerion

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tinea: Types, Causes, Diagnosis, and Management

      Tinea is a term used to describe dermatophyte fungal infections that affect different parts of the body. There are three main types of tinea infections, namely tinea capitis, tinea corporis, and tinea pedis. Tinea capitis affects the scalp and is a common cause of scarring alopecia in children. If left untreated, it can lead to the formation of a raised, pustular, spongy/boggy mass called a kerion. The most common cause of tinea capitis in the UK and the USA is Trichophyton tonsurans, while Microsporum canis acquired from cats or dogs can also cause it. Diagnosis of tinea capitis is done through scalp scrapings, although lesions due to Microsporum canis can be detected through green fluorescence under Wood’s lamp. Management of tinea capitis involves oral antifungals such as terbinafine for Trichophyton tonsurans infections and griseofulvin for Microsporum infections. Topical ketoconazole shampoo is also given for the first two weeks to reduce transmission.

      Tinea corporis, on the other hand, affects the trunk, legs, or arms and is caused by Trichophyton rubrum and Trichophyton verrucosum, which can be acquired from contact with cattle. It is characterized by well-defined annular, erythematous lesions with pustules and papules. Oral fluconazole can be used to treat tinea corporis.

      Lastly, tinea pedis, also known as athlete’s foot, is characterized by itchy, peeling skin between the toes and is common in adolescence. Lesions due to Trichophyton species do not readily fluoresce under Wood’s lamp.

      In summary, understanding the types, causes, diagnosis, and management of tinea infections is crucial in preventing their spread and ensuring effective treatment.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 141 - A 16-year-old boy presents with acne affecting his face. On examination, there are...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy presents with acne affecting his face. On examination, there are multiple comedones on his face and a handful of papules and pustules. There are no nodules or scarring. The treating doctor decides to start him on topical benzoyl peroxide combined with an antibiotic.
      Which of the following is the single most appropriate topical antibiotic to use?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clindamycin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Mild to Moderate Acne: Clindamycin, Lymecycline, Flucloxacillin, Minocycline, and Trimethoprim

      Acne is classified as mild to moderate if there are less than 35 inflammatory lesions and less than 2 nodules. For this type of acne, topical clindamycin is recommended as a first-line treatment, which can be combined with benzoyl peroxide, adapalene, or tretinoin. On the other hand, oral lymecycline is not recommended for mild to moderate acne but is effective for moderate to severe acne. Flucloxacillin is not used in acne treatment, while minocycline is effective but can cause liver problems and a lupus-like syndrome. Lastly, trimethoprim is used for people with moderate to severe acne who cannot tolerate or have a contraindication to oral lymecycline or doxycycline. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best treatment option for each individual case of acne.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 142 - A 27-year-old woman schedules a routine visit with you. She is currently 18...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman schedules a routine visit with you. She is currently 18 weeks pregnant and has a lengthy history of acne vulgaris. Before her pregnancy, she effectively managed her acne with a topical retinoid and the combined oral contraceptive. However, she discontinued both treatments prior to becoming pregnant and has noticed a resurgence of her acne. Despite trying over-the-counter benzoyl peroxide, she has not seen any improvement.

      What would be the best course of action for managing her acne during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Combined topical benzoyl peroxide + clindamycin gel

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, acne is a common issue and many typical treatments are not appropriate. However, it is safe to use topical antibiotics for managing acne during pregnancy. It is recommended to prescribe a combination of topical antibiotics and benzoyl peroxide. On the other hand, topical retinoids should not be used during pregnancy. If topical treatments are not effective, oral erythromycin can be considered as an option.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

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  • Question 143 - A 58-year-old male is referred to dermatology by his physician for a lesion...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old male is referred to dermatology by his physician for a lesion on his forearm. The lesion began as a small red bump and has since progressed into a deep, red, necrotic ulcer with a violaceous border. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum

      Explanation:

      Understanding Shin Lesions: Differential Diagnosis and Characteristics

      Shin lesions can be caused by various conditions, and it is important to differentiate between them to provide appropriate treatment. The four most common conditions that can cause shin lesions are erythema nodosum, pretibial myxoedema, pyoderma gangrenosum, and necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum.

      Erythema nodosum is characterized by symmetrical, tender, erythematous nodules that heal without scarring. It is commonly caused by streptococcal infections, sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, and certain medications such as penicillins, sulphonamides, and oral contraceptive pills.

      Pretibial myxoedema, on the other hand, is seen in Graves’ disease and is characterized by symmetrical, erythematous lesions that give the skin a shiny, orange peel appearance.

      Pyoderma gangrenosum starts as a small red papule and later develops into deep, red, necrotic ulcers with a violaceous border. It is idiopathic in 50% of cases but may also be associated with inflammatory bowel disease, connective tissue disorders, and myeloproliferative disorders.

      Finally, necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is characterized by shiny, painless areas of yellow/red skin typically found on the shin of diabetics. It is often associated with telangiectasia.

      Understanding the differential diagnosis and characteristics of shin lesions can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes.

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  • Question 144 - You saw a 9-year-old girl accompanied by her dad at the GP surgery...

    Incorrect

    • You saw a 9-year-old girl accompanied by her dad at the GP surgery with a one-day history of itchy rash on her ears. She is normally healthy and doesn't take any regular medication. On examination, you notice small blisters on the outer rims of her ear which causes mild discomfort on palpation. The rest of the skin appears normal. What is the most suitable initial treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emollient

      Explanation:

      Emollients, potent topical steroids, and avoiding strong direct sunlight are effective treatments for juvenile spring eruption. Antihistamines can also be used to alleviate itching. Infection is not a known factor in this condition, which is associated with UV light exposure. In more severe cases or when there is widespread polymorphic light eruption, oral steroids and phototherapy may be necessary.

      Understanding Juvenile Spring Eruption

      Juvenile spring eruption is a skin condition that occurs as a result of sun exposure. It is a type of polymorphic light eruption (PLE) that causes itchy red bumps on the light-exposed parts of the ears, which can turn into blisters and crusts. This condition is more common in boys aged between 5-14 years, and it is less common in females due to increased amounts of hair covering the ears.

      The main cause of juvenile spring eruption is sun-induced allergy rash, which is more likely to occur in the springtime. Some patients may also have PLE elsewhere on the body, and there is an increased incidence in cold weather. The diagnosis of this condition is usually made based on clinical presentation, and no clinical tests are required in most cases. However, in aggressive cases, lupus should be ruled out by ANA and ENA blood tests.

      The management of juvenile spring eruption involves providing patient education on sun exposure and the use of sunscreen and hats. Topical treatments such as emollients or calamine lotion can be used to provide relief, and antihistamines can help with itch relief at night-time. In more serious cases, oral steroids such as prednisolone can be used, as well as immune-system suppressants.

      In conclusion, understanding juvenile spring eruption is important for proper diagnosis and management. By taking preventative measures and seeking appropriate treatment, patients can manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 145 - A 10-year-old girl comes to her General Practitioner with her mother, complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl comes to her General Practitioner with her mother, complaining of a plantar wart on the sole of her foot. It has been there for a few months, is increasing in size, and is causing discomfort while walking.
      What is the most suitable initial treatment choice for this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cryotherapy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Plantar Warts

      Plantar warts can be a painful and persistent problem, and while they may eventually resolve on their own, treatment is often necessary. Cryotherapy and salicylic acid treatments are commonly used, but may require multiple courses and can cause local pain and irritation. Laser therapy may be used for resistant cases, while surgical excision may be necessary if other treatments fail. However, topical terbinafine is not indicated for plantar wart treatment. It is important to seek medical advice for proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 146 - A woman who is 29 years old and 9 weeks pregnant visits her...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is 29 years old and 9 weeks pregnant visits her GP complaining of an eczematous rash on the flexures of her arms and neck, which has been present for 3 weeks and shows signs of excoriation.

      What could be the probable reason for the rash?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atopic eruption of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      The most commonly occurring skin disorder during pregnancy is atopic eruption of pregnancy. This condition usually starts in the first or second trimester and is characterized by a widespread eczematous eruption on the face, neck, and flexural areas. The eruption can appear as eczematous patches or intact or excoriated papules. Other less common presentations include prurigo of pregnancy or pruritic folliculitis of pregnancy.

      Dermatitis herpetiformis is an autoimmune skin eruption that is associated with gluten sensitivity and is very itchy and vesicular. The lesions are typically found in the flexures of the elbow, dorsal forearms, knees, and buttocks. Immunofluorescence shows the deposition of IgA within the dermal papillae.

      Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy doesn’t cause a skin rash, but patients experience severe generalized pruritus mainly on the palms and soles. Excoriations may occur due to scratching.

      Pemphigoid gestationis is a rare condition that usually occurs later in pregnancy (second or third trimester) and is characterized by urticarial lesions or papules surrounding the umbilicus. Vesicles may also be present.

      Understanding Atopic Eruption of Pregnancy

      Atopic eruption of pregnancy (AEP) is a prevalent skin condition that occurs during pregnancy. It is characterized by a red, itchy rash that resembles eczema. Although it can be uncomfortable, AEP is not harmful to the mother or the baby. Fortunately, no specific treatment is required, and the rash usually disappears after delivery.

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  • Question 147 - You are assessing a patient with chronic plaque psoriasis. Previously, a combination of...

    Incorrect

    • You are assessing a patient with chronic plaque psoriasis. Previously, a combination of beclomethasone and calcipotriol was attempted but proved ineffective. Subsequently, calcipotriol monotherapy was prescribed twice daily, but this also failed to alleviate symptoms. The patient, who is in his mid-thirties, presents with plaques measuring approximately 6-7 cm on his elbows and knees. According to NICE guidelines, what are the two most suitable options to discuss with him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beclomethasone twice a day OR a coal tar preparation

      Explanation:

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.

      For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.

      When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.

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  • Question 148 - A 25-year-old student presents to the walk-in centre complaining of intense itching. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old student presents to the walk-in centre complaining of intense itching. He says that this is worse at night and after showering. On examination he has extensive scratch marks and papules on his trunk and limbs. In the finger web spaces and on the wrists are a few 0.5cm irregular grey lines. He has no previous medical history of note and takes no regular medication.
      Select the most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Scabies

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Scabies, Dermatitis Artefacta, Nodular Prurigo, Pemphigus Vulgaris, and Pompholyx are all skin conditions with distinct symptoms and characteristics.

      Scabies is caused by a mite that burrows under the skin, causing intense itching and papules, vesicles, pustules, and nodules. The finger web space lines are mite burrows. It is acquired through person-to-person contact and can live off the host for up to 36 hours.

      Dermatitis Artefacta, on the other hand, is a condition where the patient produces lesions through their own actions. These lesions may include red patches, swelling, blisters, crusts, cuts, burns, and scars. They do not itch and may have a bizarre shape or linear arrangement.

      Nodular Prurigo is characterized by very itchy firm scaly nodules that occur mainly on the extensor aspects of the arms and legs. They tend to persist over time and may lessen in severity with treatment.

      Pemphigus Vulgaris involves painful flaccid bullae and erosions that may be widespread and involve mucous membranes. It is not itchy.

      Finally, Pompholyx involves the hands and feet and is usually symmetrical. It is characterized by itching and burning, and vesiculation initially along the lateral aspects of the fingers and then on the palms or soles. Vesicles tend to resolve after about 3-4 weeks, but recurrences are common.

      Overall, these skin conditions have distinct symptoms and characteristics that can help with diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 149 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a three week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a three week history of painful, red, raised lesions on the front of her shins. A chest x ray reveals bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. She also reports experiencing polyarthralgia and a slight dry cough.

      What is the association with her presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Use of the combined oral contraceptive

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sarcoidosis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Sarcoidosis is a granulomatous disease that affects multiple systems in the body. It is more common in Afro-Caribbean patients and typically affects adults aged 20-40. The disease can present with erythema nodosum (EN), polyarthralgia, and a slight dry cough. A chest x-ray is necessary to confirm the diagnosis, which is characterized by bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (BHL).

      Acute sarcoidosis can resolve spontaneously, but in some cases, the disease becomes chronic and progressive. Blood investigations may show raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), lymphopenia, elevated serum ACE, and elevated calcium. Hypercalciuria is a common occurrence in sarcoidosis.

      It is important to differentiate sarcoidosis from lymphoma, which can also cause BHL. Burkitt’s lymphoma is associated with EBV, while sarcoidosis is not associated with HLA-B27. Hypercalcaemia, rather than hypocalcaemia, is a common occurrence in sarcoidosis.

      The combined oral contraceptive is known to be associated with developing EN, but it would not cause the other symptoms and signs. Early diagnosis and management can prevent the disease from becoming chronic and progressive.

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  • Question 150 - You are evaluating a 5-year-old boy with eczema. Which of the following emollients...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 5-year-old boy with eczema. Which of the following emollients is most likely to cause skin irritation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aqueous cream

      Explanation:

      Aqueous Cream May Cause Skin Irritation, Warns Drug Safety Update

      The use of aqueous cream as an emollient has been widely prescribed in the UK. However, a report published in the March 2013 issue of the Drug Safety Update (DSU) warns that it may cause burning and skin irritation in some patients, particularly children with eczema. The report showed that 56% of patients attending a paediatric dermatology clinic who used aqueous cream as a leave-on emollient reported skin irritation, typically within 20 minutes of application. This compared to 18% of children who used an alternative emollient. Skin irritation was not seen in patients using aqueous cream as a soap substitute. It is believed that the high sodium lauryl sulfate content in aqueous cream may be the cause of the irritation. The DSU doesn’t suggest that aqueous cream should not be prescribed, but advises that patients and parents should be warned about possible side-effects. It is recommended to routinely prescribe alternative emollients.

      Spacing: 2

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  • Question 151 - A 40-year-old woman presents with some yellowish-brown tender oval patches that have developed...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents with some yellowish-brown tender oval patches that have developed slowly on her shins over the past few months. The patches are shiny, pale and atrophic with telangiectasia.
      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Conditions and Their Characteristics

      Necrobiosis Lipoidica Diabeticorum: A rare skin condition that is more prevalent in diabetic patients. It is characterized by the development of yellowish-brown patches that slowly grow over several months. The center of the patch becomes pale and thin with telangiectasia. Lesions can occur on various parts of the body, but the most common site is pretibial. Trauma can cause ulceration, and no treatment has proven to be completely effective.

      Lichen Sclerosus: Usually found in the anogenital area of women and on the prepuce, glans, and coronal sulcus in men. Patches are white and thickened or crinkled like cigarette paper.

      Erythema Nodosum: Presents as red, tender nodules on the anterior aspect of the lower leg. The nodules last for 3-6 weeks.

      Granuloma Annulare: Typically found on the dorsa of the hands or feet, but can be more widespread. The disseminated form is characterized by skin-colored, pink, or mauve non-scaly papules arranged in rings 10 cm or more in diameter.

      Venous Eczema: Itchy erythematous scaly or crusted patches on the lower legs. The patches may be confluent and circumferential, and there may be pigmentary changes due to haemosiderin deposition.

      Characteristics of Common Skin Conditions

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  • Question 152 - A 58-year-old patient comes to the dermatology clinic with a three-month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old patient comes to the dermatology clinic with a three-month history of skin discoloration on their back. During the examination, you notice patchy areas of mild hypopigmentation that cover large portions of the back. Based on your observations, you suspect that the patient has pityriasis versicolor. What organism is most likely responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Malassezia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pityriasis Versicolor

      Pityriasis versicolor, also known as tinea versicolor, is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is caused by Malassezia furfur, which was previously known as Pityrosporum ovale. This condition is characterized by patches that are commonly found on the trunk area. These patches may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and may become more noticeable after sun exposure. Scaling is also a common feature, and mild itching may occur.

      Pityriasis versicolor can affect healthy individuals, but it may also occur in people with weakened immune systems, malnutrition, or Cushing’s syndrome. Treatment for this condition typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents. According to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, ketoconazole shampoo is a cost-effective option for treating large areas. If topical treatment fails, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed.

      In summary, pityriasis versicolor is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is characterized by patches that may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and scaling is a common feature. Treatment typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed if topical treatment fails.

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  • Question 153 - A 53-year-old man reports to you that a mole on his left forearm...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old man reports to you that a mole on his left forearm has recently become darker, although he believes the size has not changed. Upon examination, you observe an irregularly shaped pigmented lesion measuring 8 mm × 6 mm. The lesion appears mildly inflamed, with some areas darker than others, but there is no discharge. Sensation over the lesion and surrounding skin is normal.

      Using the 7-point weighted checklist recommended by the National Institute of Health and Care Excellence (NICE), what is the score of this patient's skin lesion based on the above clinical description?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      The 7-Point Checklist for Detecting Skin Cancer

      The 7-point weighted checklist is a tool used by clinicians to identify suspicious skin lesions that may be cancerous. It comprises three major features, including a change in size, irregular shape, and irregular colour, as well as four minor features, such as inflammation and oozing. Major features score 2 points each, while minor features score 1 point each. Lesions scoring 3 or more points are considered suspicious and should be referred for further evaluation, even if the score is less than 3.

      The incidence of malignant melanoma is increasing rapidly, particularly among young people, and early detection is crucial for successful treatment. High-risk patients include those with fair skin, freckling or light hair, users of sunbeds, atypical or dysplastic naevi, a family history of melanoma, and a history of blistering sunburn. Clinicians should also offer safe sun advice and encourage patients to seek medical attention if they have any concerns.

      The 7-point checklist can be found in the NICE referral guidelines for suspected cancer and is an important tool for detecting skin cancer early. By being aware of the risk factors and using this checklist, clinicians can help to improve outcomes for patients with skin cancer.

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  • Question 154 - A 14-year-old girl with eczema comes in with a bumpy, gooseflesh-like texture on...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl with eczema comes in with a bumpy, gooseflesh-like texture on her upper arms. She denies any itching or redness. What is the MOST SUITABLE course of action to take next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Routine bloods

      Explanation:

      Understanding Keratosis Pilaris

      Keratosis pilaris is a prevalent skin condition that is characterised by small bumps on the skin. These bumps are caused by the buildup of keratin in the hair follicles, resulting in a rough, bumpy texture. While the condition can resolve on its own over time, there is no specific treatment that has been proven to be effective.

      It is important to note that referral, blood tests, and topical antibacterials are not recommended for the treatment of keratosis pilaris. Instead, individuals with this condition may benefit from taking tepid showers instead of hot baths. This can help to prevent further irritation of the skin. With proper care and attention, individuals with keratosis pilaris can manage their symptoms and enjoy healthy, smooth skin.

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  • Question 155 - A 48-year-old woman has a hard, smooth nodule on the right lower leg,...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman has a hard, smooth nodule on the right lower leg, measuring 0.5 cm in diameter. She first noticed it several months ago, and since then it has not changed. When the lesion is pinched between the fingers, it dimples inwards. The lesion is light brown, with regular pigmentation.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dermatofibroma

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Different Skin Lesions: Dermatofibroma, Malignant Melanoma, Seborrhoeic Keratosis, Cutaneous Metastasis, and Actinic Keratosis

      When it comes to skin lesions, it’s important to distinguish between different types to determine the appropriate treatment. One such lesion is a dermatofibroma, which is a benign growth that often appears on the limbs of women. A key feature of a dermatofibroma is the dimpling that occurs when the skin is pinched, due to the fibrous tissue underneath.

      On the other hand, malignant melanoma is less likely to be the cause of a skin lesion if it has regular pigmentation, hasn’t changed in several months, and has dimpling – all features of a dermatofibroma. Seborrhoeic keratosis, another type of skin lesion, has a rough, stuck-on appearance that doesn’t match the description of a dermatofibroma.

      A cutaneous metastasis, which is a skin lesion that results from cancer spreading from another part of the body, typically presents as a rapidly growing nodule. This is different from a dermatofibroma, which is relatively static. Similarly, an actinic keratosis, a flat lesion with a fine scale, is unlikely to be the diagnosis for a nodular lesion like a dermatofibroma.

      In summary, understanding the characteristics of different skin lesions can help in accurately identifying and treating them.

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  • Question 156 - A mother brings in her 5-year-old son and shows you a picture of...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings in her 5-year-old son and shows you a picture of some concerning lesions on his body. She is worried about whether he should stay home from school. Upon examination, you diagnose him with molluscum contagiosum. What advice would you give her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No school exclusion is required

      Explanation:

      Molluscum contagiosum doesn’t require school exclusion or antiviral treatment as it is a self-limiting condition. Unlike Chickenpox, the lesions do not crust over. Antibiotics are not effective against this viral infection. It may take several months for the lesions to disappear, making unnecessary and impractical to consider other options.

      Understanding Molluscum Contagiosum

      Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection that is commonly found in children, particularly those with atopic eczema. It is caused by the molluscum contagiosum virus and can be transmitted through direct contact or contaminated surfaces. The infection presents as pinkish or pearly white papules with a central umbilication, which can appear anywhere on the body except for the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. In children, the lesions are commonly found on the trunk and flexures, while in adults, they can appear on the genitalia, pubis, thighs, and lower abdomen.

      While molluscum contagiosum is a self-limiting condition that usually resolves within 18 months, it is important to avoid sharing towels, clothing, and baths with uninfected individuals to prevent transmission. Scratching the lesions should also be avoided, and treatment may be necessary to alleviate itching or if the lesions are considered unsightly. Treatment options include simple trauma or cryotherapy, depending on the age of the child and the parents’ wishes. In some cases, referral may be necessary, such as for individuals who are HIV-positive with extensive lesions or those with eyelid-margin or ocular lesions and associated red eye.

      Overall, understanding molluscum contagiosum and taking appropriate precautions can help prevent the spread of the infection and alleviate symptoms if necessary.

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  • Question 157 - John is a 35-year-old man with a body mass index of 32 kg/m²...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 35-year-old man with a body mass index of 32 kg/m² who has presented with a recurrence of boils in his axilla. He has had this numerous times before requiring antibiotics and has even had an incision and drainage on one occasion. He also described one episode of such boils on his vulva a few years ago. On this occasion, you notice large red lumps in his right axilla. There is some scarring of the skin and you also notice a little hole with pus discharging out of it.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hidradenitis suppurativa

      Explanation:

      The development of sinus tracts and fistulas can be a possible complication of hidradenitis suppurativa.

      Understanding Hidradenitis Suppurativa

      Hidradenitis suppurativa (HS) is a chronic skin disorder that causes painful and inflammatory nodules, pustules, sinus tracts, and scars in intertriginous areas. It is more common in women and typically affects adults under 40. HS occurs due to chronic inflammatory occlusion of folliculopilosebaceous units that obstructs the apocrine glands and prevents keratinocytes from properly shedding from the follicular epithelium. Risk factors include family history, smoking, obesity, diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and mechanical stretching of skin.

      The initial manifestation of HS involves recurrent, painful, and inflamed nodules that can rupture and discharge purulent, malodorous material. The axilla is the most common site, but it can also occur in other areas such as the inguinal, inner thighs, perineal and perianal, and inframammary skin. Coalescence of nodules can result in plaques, sinus tracts, and ‘rope-like’ scarring. Diagnosis is made clinically.

      Management of HS involves encouraging good hygiene and loose-fitting clothing, smoking cessation, and weight loss in obese patients. Acute flares can be treated with steroids or antibiotics, and surgical incision and drainage may be needed in some cases. Long-term disease can be treated with topical or oral antibiotics. Lumps that persist despite prolonged medical treatment are excised surgically. Complications of HS include sinus tracts, fistulas, comedones, scarring, contractures, and lymphatic obstruction.

      HS can be differentiated from acne vulgaris, follicular pyodermas, and granuloma inguinale. Acne vulgaris primarily occurs on the face, upper chest, and back, whereas HS primarily involves intertriginous areas. Follicular pyodermas are transient and respond rapidly to antibiotics, unlike HS. Granuloma inguinale is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Klebsiella granulomatis and presents as an enlarging ulcer that bleeds in the inguinal area.

      Overall, understanding HS is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management of this chronic and painful skin disorder.

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  • Question 158 - A 23-year-old female student presents with generalised pruritus of six weeks duration.

    She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female student presents with generalised pruritus of six weeks duration.

      She has little other history of note and has otherwise been well. This itching has deteriorated over this time and is particularly worse at night. She has been unaware of any rashes and denies taking any prescribed drugs. There is no history of atopy.

      She shares a flat with her boyfriend and drinks approximately 12 units per week and smokes cannabis occasionally.

      On examination, there is little of note except there are some scratch marks over the shoulders and back and she has some erythema between the fingers. Otherwise cardiovascular, respiratory and abdominal examination is normal.

      Which of the following therapies would be most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Scabies: Symptoms and Treatment

      Scabies is a highly contagious disease caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which is commonly found in sexually active individuals. The disease is characterized by generalised pruritus, and it is important to carefully examine the finger spaces for burrows.

      The most effective treatments for scabies include permethrin cream, topical benzyl benzoate, and malathion. While permethrin cream doesn’t directly alleviate pruritus, it helps to kill the mite, which is the root cause of the disease. Patients should be advised that it may take some time for the itching to subside as the allergic reaction to the mite abates. Additionally, it is important to apply the cream to all areas below the neck, not just where the rash is present.

      In summary, scabies is a highly contagious disease that can cause significant discomfort. However, with proper treatment and care, patients can effectively manage their symptoms and prevent the spread of the disease.

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  • Question 159 - You are reviewing one of your elderly patients with chronic plaque psoriasis. You...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing one of your elderly patients with chronic plaque psoriasis. You are contemplating prescribing calcipotriol as a monotherapy.

      Which of the following statements about calcipotriol is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It can be safely used long-term on an ongoing basis

      Explanation:

      Psoriasis can be treated with calcipotriol for an extended period of time.

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.

      For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.

      When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 160 - A 10-year-old boy has two circular patches of hair loss in close proximity...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy has two circular patches of hair loss in close proximity on his scalp. Choose the one characteristic that would indicate a diagnosis of tinea capitis instead of alopecia areata from the options provided.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Scaly skin in the area of hair loss

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tinea Capitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Tinea capitis, also known as scalp ringworm, is a fungal infection that affects the scalp and hair follicles. It is caused by dermatophytes Microsporum spp. and Trichophyton spp. and is more common in children and people of Afro-Caribbean background. If left untreated, it can lead to permanent hair loss.

      Symptoms of tinea capitis include scaly patches on the scalp, inflammation, and pus-filled bumps known as kerion. To confirm the diagnosis, scalp scrapings including hairs and hair fragments should be examined.

      Prompt treatment with systemic terbinafine or griseofulvin is necessary. Griseofulvin is the most effective agent for Microsporum canis infections, while terbinafine is more effective for Trichophyton infections. However, terbinafine is not licensed for use in children under 12 years old.

      It is important to note that broken hairs in tinea capitis do not taper at the base, unlike the exclamation mark hairs seen in alopecia areata. Nail pitting, on the other hand, is a symptom of psoriasis and may also occur in alopecia areata. In alopecia areata, hair regrowth usually begins with fine white hairs, and onset is most common in childhood and adolescence.

      Understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment of tinea capitis is crucial in preventing permanent hair loss and managing the infection effectively.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 161 - A 25-year-old woman is distressed about her acne vulgaris with papules, pustules and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is distressed about her acne vulgaris with papules, pustules and comedones. Her weight and periods are both normal. Identify the probable cause from the options provided.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bacteria

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acne in Women: Causes and Treatments

      Acne is not just a teenage problem, especially for women. There are several factors that contribute to its development, including genetics, seborrhoea, sensitivity to androgen, P. acnes bacteria, blocked hair follicles, and immune system response. Polycystic ovarian syndrome is a less common cause of acne. Treatment options target these underlying causes, with combined oral contraceptives being a popular choice. Contrary to popular belief, diet and hygiene do not play a significant role in acne. The black color of blackheads is due to pigment in the hair follicle material. Understanding the causes and treatments of acne can help women manage this common skin condition.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 162 - A 21-year-old female has just come back from a year overseas. She volunteered...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old female has just come back from a year overseas. She volunteered in a school in South America for 4 months and then went on a backpacking trip. She has recently noticed numerous itchy bumps all over her body, including her arms, legs, and torso. Despite the itchiness, she is in good health.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bed bugs

      Explanation:

      If someone has intensely itchy bumps on their arms, torso, or legs, it could be a sign of a bed bug infestation. This is especially true if the person has recently traveled and may have brought the bed bugs back with them. Dealing with a bed bug infestation can be challenging and may require the services of a pest control professional.

      While scabies can also cause itching, it typically presents differently with less discrete bumps and is more likely to occur in specific areas such as the burrows of fingers. Schistosomiasis is more likely to cause gut or urinary symptoms, and while skin symptoms can occur, they are typically in the form of a papular rash and accompanied by other symptoms. Leishmaniasis can cause skin manifestations, but it is more likely to present as a single ulcer and is not typically associated with intense itching. There are no other indications to suggest dermatitis herpetiformis.

      Dealing with Bed Bugs: Symptoms, Treatment, and Prevention

      Bed bugs are a type of insect that can cause a range of clinical problems, including itchy skin rashes, bites, and allergic reactions. Infestation with Cimex hemipterus is the primary cause of these symptoms. In recent years, bed bug infestations have become increasingly common in the UK, and they can be challenging to eradicate. These insects thrive in mattresses and fabrics, making them difficult to detect and eliminate.

      Topical hydrocortisone can help control the itch. However, the definitive treatment for bed bugs is through a pest management company that can fumigate your home. This process can be costly, but it is the most effective way to eliminate bed bugs.

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  • Question 163 - A 25-year-old woman with acne vulgaris has tried several topical treatments and oral...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with acne vulgaris has tried several topical treatments and oral antibiotics in primary care without improvement. She is referred to secondary care and started on isotretinoin.
      What is the most appropriate advice she should be given regarding isotretinoin treatment? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pregnancy should be avoided during treatment and for one month after treatment

      Explanation:

      Understanding Isotretinoin: Important Information to Know

      Isotretinoin is a medication used to treat severe inflammatory acne. However, there are important considerations to keep in mind before starting treatment. Here are some key points to be aware of:

      Pregnancy should be avoided: Isotretinoin is known to be teratogenic, meaning it can cause birth defects. Women of childbearing age should use at least one form of contraception during treatment and for one month after treatment.

      Serum lipids may decrease: While taking isotretinoin, minor changes in serum lipids and liver function may occur. These are monitored during treatment and the medication may be stopped if the tests worsen.

      Emollients should not be used: Isotretinoin can cause dryness of the skin and mucous membranes, especially the lips. While patients may need to apply emollients, they should be cautious as they can interfere with the medication’s effectiveness.

      Depression is a rare side effect: While depression is listed as a rare side effect of isotretinoin, there is no clear link between the medication and depression. Patients should be asked about mood and any changes should be reported to their healthcare provider.

      The skin becomes greasier: Isotretinoin reduces sebum secretion, which can cause dryness of the skin and mucous membranes. However, some patients may experience an initial increase in oil production before seeing improvement in their acne.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 164 - A 50-year-old man with a 25-year history of chronic plaque psoriasis is being...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a 25-year history of chronic plaque psoriasis is being seen in clinic. Despite having severe psoriasis at times, he is currently managing well with only topical therapy. Which of the following conditions is he NOT at an elevated risk for due to his psoriasis history?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Melanoma

      Explanation:

      The risk of non-melanoma skin cancer is higher in individuals with psoriasis.

      Psoriasis is a condition that can have both physical and psychological complications, beyond just psoriatic arthritis. While it may be tempting to focus solely on topical treatments, it’s important to keep in mind the potential risks associated with psoriasis. Patients with this condition are at a higher risk for cardiovascular disease, hypertension, venous thromboembolism, depression, ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease, non-melanoma skin cancer, and other types of cancer such as liver, lung, and upper gastrointestinal tract cancers. Therefore, it’s crucial to consider these potential complications when managing a patient with psoriasis.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 165 - A 65-year-old man visits his GP urgently due to a recent increase in...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man visits his GP urgently due to a recent increase in his INR levels. He has been on Warfarin for a decade and has consistently maintained an INR reading between 2 and 3. However, his most recent blood test showed an INR of 6.2. He reports receiving a topical medication for a facial rash at a walk-in centre two weeks ago.
      What is the most probable treatment that led to the elevation in his INR?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mupirocin

      Explanation:

      Miconazole Oral Gel and Warfarin Interaction

      Miconazole oral gel, commonly known as Daktarin, is often used to treat candidal infections of the mouth and face. However, it can interact with the anticoagulant drug warfarin, which is metabolized by the CYP2C9 enzyme. Miconazole inhibits this enzyme, leading to increased levels of warfarin in the bloodstream and potentially causing bleeding. Other antimicrobial agents like Aciclovir, Clotrimazole, Fucidin, and Mupirocin can be used to treat infected rashes on the face, but they do not have significant interactions with warfarin. As a core competence of clinical management, safe prescribing and medicines management approaches should include awareness of common drug interactions, especially those that can affect patient safety when taking warfarin.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 166 - A 54-year-old lady comes to your clinic for a new patient health check....

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old lady comes to your clinic for a new patient health check. While conducting the examination, you observe an 8 mm pigmented lesion on her back. She informs you that she had no knowledge of the lesion. The lesion has a uniform pigmentation and a regular outline. It is dry and inflamed, but appears distinct from all of her other moles on her back. She also mentions that her brother was recently diagnosed with melanoma.
      What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Monitor for eight weeks

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral Needed for Suspicious Lesion

      This lesion on the patient’s skin may be a melanoma, and there are several clinical concerns that warrant urgent referral. Firstly, the lesion appears to be new and is greater than 7 mm in diameter. Additionally, there is a family history of melanoma, and the lesion is inflamed. It is important to be aware of the ugly duckling sign, which refers to a pigmented lesion that looks different from the surrounding ones.

      Given the patient’s age and family history, she is at high risk of melanoma and should be referred urgently to a dermatologist. It is important to note that excision in primary care should be avoided, as the guidance for excising lesions in primary care may differ depending on the country. Prompt referral and evaluation by a specialist is crucial in cases like this to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 167 - A 25-year-old single man comes to the GP with a severe psoriatic type...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old single man comes to the GP with a severe psoriatic type rash on the palmar surface of his hands and the soles of his feet. He has recently returned from a trip to Thailand.
      He also reports experiencing conjunctivitis, joint pains, and a rash on his penis.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Rash on Soles and Palms: Possible Causes

      A rash on the soles and palms can be a symptom of various conditions, including reactive arthritis (Reiter’s), syphilis, psoriasis (excluding guttate form), eczema (pompholyx), and erythema multiforme. Palmoplantar psoriasis may also present as a pustular form, while athlete’s foot can be caused by Trichophyton rubrum.

      In this particular case, the symptoms are most consistent with reactive arthritis, which can be associated with sexually transmitted infections or bacterial gastroenteritis. The fact that the patient recently traveled to Ibiza raises the possibility of a sexually transmitted infection.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 168 - A 65-year-old woman presents with a severely itchy rash that has been present...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with a severely itchy rash that has been present for the past 3 weeks. She had been prescribed quinine for night cramps prior to the onset of the rash. The rash initially appeared on her wrists but has since spread to her left leg after she accidentally hit it.

      During the examination, you observe raised erythematous/violaceous plaques of varying shapes and sizes on the flexor side of her wrists and left leg near the site of injury.

      Which of the following treatment options would be the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.1% betamethasone valerate cream

      Explanation:

      Betamethasone valerate cream may not be the most suitable option as it is a lower potency steroid cream.

      While calcipotriol/betamethasone dipropionate ointment is commonly used to treat psoriasis, it may not be the most likely diagnosis in this case as psoriasis typically affects the extensor surfaces and doesn’t usually cause severe itching.

      Although fexofenadine can provide relief for itching, it is not typically the first choice of treatment.

      Permethrin is not used to treat lichen planus, as it is primarily used to treat scabies.

      Lichen planus is a skin condition that has an unknown cause, but is believed to be related to the immune system. It is characterized by an itchy rash that appears as small bumps on the palms, soles, genital area, and inner surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive pattern of white lines on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon. Oral involvement is common, with around 50% of patients experiencing a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes, such as thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging, may also occur.

      Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, including gold, quinine, and thiazides. Treatment for lichen planus typically involves the use of potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more severe cases, oral steroids or immunosuppressive medications may be necessary. Overall, lichen planus can be a challenging condition to manage, but with proper treatment, symptoms can be controlled and quality of life can be improved.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 169 - A 28-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of mild persistent erythema on...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of mild persistent erythema on her cheeks and nose, which worsens with spicy foods and hot drinks. She has noticed a recent worsening of her symptoms and is now 12 weeks pregnant. On examination, you note a centrofacial erythematous rash with papules, pustules, and a bulbous nose. The patient has no known medication allergies. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to dermatology

      Explanation:

      Patients who have developed rhinophyma as a result of rosacea should be referred to a dermatologist for further evaluation and treatment. Rhinophyma is a severe form of rosacea that affects the nasal soft tissues, causing nasal obstruction, disfigurement, and significant psychological distress. Only specialized care in secondary settings can provide the necessary assessment and management, which may include laser therapy, scalpel excision, electrocautery, or surgery.

      Continuing with self-management measures is not recommended as the patient requires an escalation in treatment. However, lifestyle modifications remain an essential aspect of her management.

      Prescribing oral doxycycline is not appropriate in this case as the patient is pregnant, and the medication is contraindicated.

      Topical brimonidine is also not recommended as the manufacturer advises against its use during pregnancy due to limited information available. While it can provide temporary relief of flushing and erythema symptoms, it is not a suitable treatment option for rhinophyma.

      Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a skin condition that is chronic in nature and its cause is unknown. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Telangiectasia, which are small blood vessels that are visible on the skin, are common, and the condition can progress to persistent erythema with papules and pustules. Rhinophyma, a condition where the nose becomes enlarged and bulbous, can also occur. Ocular involvement, such as blepharitis, can also be present, and sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.

      Management of rosacea depends on the severity of the symptoms. For mild symptoms, topical metronidazole may be used, while topical brimonidine gel may be considered for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics such as oxytetracycline. It is recommended that patients apply a high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia, and those with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist for further management.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 170 - A 49-year-old woman comes in for follow-up after a laparoscopic appendectomy that went...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman comes in for follow-up after a laparoscopic appendectomy that went smoothly. She reports feeling fine and has no issues to report. During the examination, linear, clearly defined abrasions are observed on her forearms and scalp. The patient appears unconcerned about these lesions and has a history of severe anxiety and depression. A punch biopsy is performed, which reveals nonspecific results.

      What could be the probable reason for these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dermatitis artefacta

      Explanation:

      The sudden appearance of linear, well-defined skin lesions with a lack of concern from the patient may indicate dermatitis artefacta, a condition where the lesions are self-inflicted. A punch biopsy has ruled out other potential causes, and the patient’s history of psychiatric disorders supports this diagnosis. Atopic dermatitis is a possibility, but typically presents with additional symptoms such as pruritus and scaly erythematous plaques. Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma cannot be ruled out without a biopsy, and lichen planus is unlikely due to the patient’s lack of distress from pruritus.

      Understanding Dermatitis Artefacta

      Dermatitis artefacta is a rare condition that affects individuals of any age, but is more common in females. It is characterised by self-inflicted skin lesions that patients typically deny are self-induced. The condition is strongly associated with personality disorder, dissociative disorders, and eating disorders, with a prevalence of up to 33% in patients with bulimia or anorexia.

      Patients with dermatitis artefacta present with well-demarcated linear or geometric lesions that appear suddenly and do not evolve over time. The lesions may be caused by scratching with fingernails or other objects, burning skin with cigarettes, or chemical exposure. Commonly affected areas include the face and dorsum of the hands. Despite the severity of the skin lesions, patients may display a nonchalant attitude, known as la belle indifference.

      Diagnosis of dermatitis artefacta is based on clinical history and exclusion of other dermatological conditions. Biopsy of skin lesions is not routine but may be helpful to exclude other conditions. Psychiatric assessment may be necessary. Differential diagnosis includes other dermatological conditions and factitious disorders such as Munchausen syndrome and malingering.

      Management of dermatitis artefacta involves a multidisciplinary approach with dermatologists, psychologists, and psychiatrists. Direct confrontation is unhelpful and may discourage patients from seeking medical help. Treatment includes providing occlusive dressing, topical antibiotics, and bland emollients. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors and cognitive behavioural therapy may be helpful, although evidence is limited.

      In summary, dermatitis artefacta is a rare condition that requires a multidisciplinary approach for management. Understanding the clinical features, risk factors, and differential diagnosis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 171 - A 50-year-old man with a history of hypertension, psoriasis, and bipolar disorder visits...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of hypertension, psoriasis, and bipolar disorder visits his doctor complaining of a thick scaly patch on his right knee that appeared after starting a new medication.

      Which of the following drugs is most likely responsible for exacerbating his rash?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Lithium has been found to potentially worsen psoriasis symptoms.

      Psoriasis can be worsened by various factors, including trauma, alcohol consumption, and certain medications such as beta blockers, lithium, antimalarials (chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine), NSAIDs, ACE inhibitors, and infliximab. Additionally, the sudden withdrawal of systemic steroids can also exacerbate psoriasis symptoms. It is important to note that streptococcal infection can trigger guttate psoriasis, a type of psoriasis characterized by small, drop-like lesions on the skin. Therefore, individuals with psoriasis should be aware of these exacerbating factors and take steps to avoid or manage them as needed.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 172 - A 62-year-old woman presents with pruritus vulvae. On examination, there are white thickened...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman presents with pruritus vulvae. On examination, there are white thickened shiny patches on the labia minora. There is no abnormal vaginal discharge. The patient reports intense itching.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lichen sclerosus

      Explanation:

      Dermatological Conditions of the Anogenital Region

      Lichen sclerosus is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that commonly affects the anogenital region in women and the glans penis and foreskin in men. It presents as white thickened or crinkled patches that can be extremely itchy or sore and may bruise or ulcerate due to friction. Adhesions or scarring can occur in the vulva or foreskin.

      Psoriasis, on the other hand, forms well-demarcated plaques that are bright red and lacking in scale in the flexures. Candidiasis of the groins and vulval area presents with an erythematous inflammatory element and inflamed satellite lesions.

      Vitiligo, characterized by the loss of pigment, doesn’t cause itching and is an unlikely diagnosis for this patient. Vulval carcinoma, which involves tumour formation and ulceration, is also not present in this case.

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  • Question 173 - A 50-year-old backpacker came to the clinic with a painful blister on an...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old backpacker came to the clinic with a painful blister on an inflamed base on the back of his right hand. He had recently taken some antibiotics while traveling in France for a sore throat, but could not recall the specific medication. Interestingly, he had experienced a similar issue at the same location a few years prior. The patient was in good health and did not have any mucosal lesions.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fixed drug eruption

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Bullous Skin Conditions Caused by Drugs

      When a patient presents with a solitary bulla after taking a drug, fixed drug eruption is the most likely diagnosis. The lesion is well-defined, round or oval, and may be accompanied by redness and swelling, sometimes with a blister. The affected area may turn purplish or brown. The rash usually appears within 30 minutes to 8 hours of taking the drug and recurs in the same site/s each time the drug is taken. Antibiotics like tetracyclines or sulphonamides are common culprits.

      Toxic epidermal necrolysis is a necrolytic bullous reaction to certain drugs, where less than 10% of the epidermis sloughs off in Stevens-Johnson syndrome, as compared to >30% in toxic epidermal necrolysis.

      Bullous erythema multiforme usually presents with multiple lesions, and mucosal involvement is expected in the other three conditions. Erythema multiforme is an acute eruption of dull red macules or urticarial plaques with a small papule, vesicle, or bulla in the middle. Lesions may enlarge and/or form classical target lesions. The rash starts at the periphery and may extend centrally. Infections, most commonly herpes simplex virus, are the main cause, and drugs are rarely the cause.

      Drug-induced pemphigus is an autoimmune bullous disease characterized by blisters and erosions of the skin and mucous membranes. The most common form associated with drug exposure is pemphigus foliaceous, where mucous membranes are not involved, and eroded crusted lesions are the norm.

      Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe, potentially fatal reaction to certain drugs, where less than 10% of the epidermis sloughs off, and there is mucosal involvement.

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  • Question 174 - Acne vulgaris is a common presentation to GP. One treatment option is an...

    Incorrect

    • Acne vulgaris is a common presentation to GP. One treatment option is an oral antibiotic, and tetracyclines are the first line. From the options below which patient would be suitable to receive oral tetracycline if they are 16 years old or above?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 16-year-old female

      Explanation:

      When treating acne with oral antibiotics, tetracyclines are typically the first choice. All tetracyclines are effective for treating acne, so the decision on which one to use should be based on personal preference and cost. Tetracycline and oxytetracycline are taken twice a day on an empty stomach, while doxycycline and lymecycline are taken once a day and can be taken with food. However, pregnant or breastfeeding women and children under 12 should avoid oral tetracyclines due to the risk of them being deposited in the developing child’s teeth and bones. Women of childbearing age who are taking a topical retinoid should use effective contraception. If tetracyclines are not an option, erythromycin can be used instead at a dose of 500 mg twice a day. In this case, a 16-year-old female would be a suitable candidate for tetracyclines.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 175 - You assess a 26-year-old male patient who has been diagnosed with chronic plaque...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 26-year-old male patient who has been diagnosed with chronic plaque psoriasis. He has responded positively to a 4-week course of a potent corticosteroid + vitamin D analogue topical treatment. The patient inquires if he can obtain more of the medication in case of future flare-ups. What is the most suitable answer regarding the use of topical corticosteroids?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He should aim for a 4 week break in between courses of topical corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to have a 4 week interval between courses of topical corticosteroids for patients with psoriasis.

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.

      For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.

      When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 176 - A 47-year-old patient complains of pruritic lesions on the soles of their feet...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old patient complains of pruritic lesions on the soles of their feet that have persisted for the last two months. Upon examination, small blisters are observed, accompanied by dry and cracked skin in the surrounding area. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pompholyx

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pompholyx Eczema

      Pompholyx eczema, also known as dyshidrotic eczema, is a type of skin condition that affects both the hands and feet. It is often triggered by humidity and high temperatures, such as sweating. The main symptom of pompholyx eczema is the appearance of small blisters on the palms and soles, which can be intensely itchy and sometimes accompanied by a burning sensation. Once the blisters burst, the skin may become dry and crack.

      To manage pompholyx eczema, cool compresses and emollients can be used to soothe the affected areas. Topical steroids may also be prescribed to reduce inflammation and itching. It is important to avoid further irritation of the skin by avoiding triggers such as excessive sweating and using gentle, fragrance-free products. With proper management, the symptoms of pompholyx eczema can be controlled and minimized.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 177 - A 25-year-old male presents with a new skin rash, which appeared during his...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presents with a new skin rash, which appeared during his summer vacation spent hiking. He displays several pale brown patches on his neck, upper back, and chest. The patches seem slightly flaky but are not causing any discomfort. He is generally healthy. What is the most suitable initial treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ketoconazole shampoo

      Explanation:

      Pityriasis versicolor is a skin condition caused by an overgrowth of Malassezia yeast, which commonly affects young males. It results in multiple patches of discolored skin, mainly on the trunk, which can appear pale brown, pink, or depigmented. The condition often occurs after exposure to humid, sunny environments.

      According to NICE guidelines, the first-line treatment for pityriasis versicolor is either ketoconazole shampoo applied topically for five days or selenium sulphide shampoo for seven days (off-label indication). While topical antifungal creams like clotrimazole are effective, they are not typically used as first-line treatment unless the affected area is small due to their higher cost.

      Understanding Pityriasis Versicolor

      Pityriasis versicolor, also known as tinea versicolor, is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is caused by Malassezia furfur, which was previously known as Pityrosporum ovale. This condition is characterized by patches that are commonly found on the trunk area. These patches may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and may become more noticeable after sun exposure. Scaling is also a common feature, and mild itching may occur.

      Pityriasis versicolor can affect healthy individuals, but it may also occur in people with weakened immune systems, malnutrition, or Cushing’s syndrome. Treatment for this condition typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents. According to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, ketoconazole shampoo is a cost-effective option for treating large areas. If topical treatment fails, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed.

      In summary, pityriasis versicolor is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is characterized by patches that may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and scaling is a common feature. Treatment typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed if topical treatment fails.

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  • Question 178 - A 28-year-old woman presents with a severe flare-up of hand eczema. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with a severe flare-up of hand eczema. She has vesicular lesions on both hands, which are typical of bilateral pompholyx. The patient has been using Eumovate (clobetasone butyrate 0.05%) for a week, but her symptoms have not improved. You decide to prescribe Betnovate (betamethasone valerate 0.1%) for two weeks and then review her condition. According to the BNF guidelines, what is the appropriate amount of Betnovate to prescribe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 30 g

      Explanation:

      Topical Steroids for Eczema Treatment

      Eczema is a common skin condition that causes red, itchy, and inflamed skin. Topical steroids are often used to treat eczema, but it is important to use the weakest steroid cream that effectively controls the patient’s symptoms. The potency of topical steroids varies, and the table below shows the different types of topical steroids by potency.

      To determine the appropriate amount of topical steroid to use, the fingertip rule can be applied. One fingertip unit (FTU) is equivalent to 0.5 g and is sufficient to treat an area of skin about twice the size of an adult hand. The table also provides the recommended number of FTUs per dose for different areas of the body.

      The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends specific quantities of topical steroids to be prescribed for a single daily application for two weeks. The recommended amounts vary depending on the area of the body being treated.

      In summary, when using topical steroids for eczema treatment, it is important to use the weakest steroid cream that effectively controls symptoms and to follow the recommended amounts for each area of the body.

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  • Question 179 - You see a 35-year-old man with psoriasis. As part of his treatment plan,...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 35-year-old man with psoriasis. As part of his treatment plan, you prescribe topical Betnovate (Betamethasone valerate 0.1%) cream for a psoriasis flare-up on his leg. He inquires about the duration for which he can use this cream on his leg.
      According to NICE guidelines, what is the maximum duration for which this type of corticosteroid can be used?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Do not use continuously at any site for longer than 8 weeks

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines on the Use of Potent Corticosteroids

      Potent corticosteroids should not be used continuously at any site for longer than 8 weeks, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines. It is important to note that the potency of steroid formulations can be difficult to remember from the trade name, so it is recommended to have a reference on hand. The Eczema Society provides a helpful table of commonly used topical steroids. Remembering these guidelines can help ensure safe and effective use of potent corticosteroids.

      Spacing:

      Potent corticosteroids should not be used continuously at any site for longer than 8 weeks, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines.

      It is important to note that the potency of steroid formulations can be difficult to remember from the trade name, so it is recommended to have a reference on hand. The Eczema Society provides a helpful table of commonly used topical steroids.

      Remembering these guidelines can help ensure safe and effective use of potent corticosteroids.

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  • Question 180 - You are assessing a 28-year-old woman who has chronic plaque psoriasis. Despite trying...

    Incorrect

    • You are assessing a 28-year-old woman who has chronic plaque psoriasis. Despite trying various combinations of potent corticosteroids, vitamin D analogues, coal tar and dithranol over the past two years, she has seen limited improvement. Light therapy was attempted last year but the psoriasis returned within a month. The patient is feeling increasingly discouraged, especially after a recent relationship breakdown. As per NICE guidelines, what is a necessary requirement before considering systemic therapy for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It has a significant impact on physical, psychological or social wellbeing

      Explanation:

      Referral Criteria for Psoriasis Patients

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that affects a significant number of people. According to NICE guidelines, around 60% of psoriasis patients will require referral to secondary care at some point. The guidance provides some general criteria for referral, including diagnostic uncertainty, severe or extensive psoriasis, inability to control psoriasis with topical therapy, and major functional or cosmetic impact on nail disease. Additionally, any type of psoriasis that has a significant impact on a person’s physical, psychological, or social wellbeing should also be referred to a specialist. Children and young people with any type of psoriasis should be referred to a specialist at presentation.

      For patients with erythroderma or generalised pustular psoriasis, same-day referral is recommended. erythroderma is characterized by a generalised erythematous rash, while generalised pustular psoriasis is marked by extensive exfoliation. These conditions require immediate attention due to their severity. Overall, it is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the referral criteria for psoriasis patients to ensure that they receive appropriate care and management.

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  • Question 181 - A 70-year-old man inquires about the 'shingles vaccine'. Which of the following statements...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man inquires about the 'shingles vaccine'. Which of the following statements about Zostavax is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is suitable for patients who've had Chickenpox

      Explanation:

      Regardless of whether a person has had Chickenpox or shingles previously, Zostavax should still be administered.

      Varicella-Zoster Vaccination: Protection Against Chickenpox and Shingles

      Varicella-zoster is a herpesvirus that causes Chickenpox and shingles. There are two types of vaccines available to protect against these infections. The first type is a live attenuated vaccine that prevents primary varicella infection or Chickenpox. This vaccine is recommended for healthcare workers who are not immune to VZV and for individuals who are in close contact with immunocompromised patients.

      The second type of vaccine is designed to reduce the incidence of herpes zoster or shingles caused by reactivation of VZV. This live-attenuated vaccine is given subcutaneously and is offered to patients aged 70-79 years. The vaccine is also available as a catch-up campaign for those who missed out on their vaccinations in the previous two years of the program. However, the shingles vaccine is not available on the NHS to anyone aged 80 and over because it seems to be less effective in this age group.

      The main contraindication for both vaccines is immunosuppression. Side effects of the vaccines include injection site reactions, and less than 1 in 10,000 individuals may develop Chickenpox. It is important to note that vaccination is the most effective way to prevent varicella-zoster infections and their complications.

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  • Question 182 - A 75-year-old nursing home resident presents with a severely itchy rash. Upon examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old nursing home resident presents with a severely itchy rash. Upon examination, red linear lesions are observed on the wrists and elbows, while red papules are present on the penis. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical permethrin

      Explanation:

      Although lichen planus can have similar symptoms, scabies is more likely to cause intense itching. Additionally, lichen planus is less frequently seen in older individuals, as it typically affects those between the ages of 30 and 60.

      Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Scabies is a skin condition caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which is spread through prolonged skin contact. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults. The mite burrows into the skin, laying its eggs in the outermost layer. The resulting intense itching is due to a delayed hypersensitivity reaction to the mites and eggs, which occurs about a month after infection. Symptoms include widespread itching, linear burrows on the fingers and wrists, and secondary features such as excoriation and infection.

      The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, followed by malathion 0.5% if necessary. Patients should be advised to avoid close physical contact until treatment is complete and to treat all household and close contacts, even if asymptomatic. Clothing, bedding, and towels should be laundered, ironed, or tumble-dried on the first day of treatment to kill off mites. The insecticide should be applied to all areas, including the face and scalp, and left on for 8-12 hours for permethrin or 24 hours for malathion before washing off. Treatment should be repeated after 7 days.

      Crusted scabies, also known as Norwegian scabies, is a severe form of the condition seen in patients with suppressed immunity, particularly those with HIV. The skin is covered in hundreds of thousands of mites, and isolation is essential. Ivermectin is the treatment of choice.

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  • Question 183 - A 49-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of wheals and urticaria. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of wheals and urticaria. He is currently taking multiple medications.
      Which medication is the most probable cause of his allergic reaction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Urticarial Eruption

      Urticaria, commonly known as hives, is a skin condition characterized by itchy, raised, and red welts. One of the most likely causes of an urticarial eruption is aspirin. However, other drugs are also frequently associated with this condition, including non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), penicillin, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, thiazides, and codeine. It is important to identify the underlying cause of urticaria to prevent further episodes and manage symptoms effectively.

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  • Question 184 - A 55-year-old man presents to the emergency department with burns on the extensor...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the emergency department with burns on the extensor aspects of his lower legs. He accidentally spilled hot water on himself while wearing shorts. Upon examination, he has pale, pink skin with small blisters forming. The burns are classified as superficial dermal burns. Using a chart, you calculate the TBSA of the burns. What is the minimum TBSA that would require immediate referral to the plastic surgeons?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3%

      Explanation:

      First Aid and Management of Burns

      Burns can be caused by heat, electricity, or chemicals. Immediate first aid involves removing the person from the source of the burn and irrigating the affected area with cool water. The extent of the burn can be assessed using Wallace’s Rule of Nines or the Lund and Browder chart. The depth of the burn can be determined by its appearance, with full-thickness burns being the most severe. Referral to secondary care is necessary for deep dermal and full-thickness burns, as well as burns involving certain areas of the body or suspicion of non-accidental injury.

      Severe burns can lead to tissue loss, fluid loss, and a catabolic response. Intravenous fluids and analgesia are necessary for resuscitation and pain relief. Smoke inhalation can result in airway edema, and early intubation may be necessary. Circumferential burns may require escharotomy to relieve compartment syndrome and improve ventilation. Conservative management is appropriate for superficial burns, while more complex burns may require excision and skin grafting. There is no evidence to support the use of antimicrobial prophylaxis or topical antibiotics in burn patients.

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  • Question 185 - A 14-year-old girl presents to the clinic with concerns about hair loss on...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl presents to the clinic with concerns about hair loss on her scalp. She has a history of atopic eczema and has depigmented areas on her hands. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trichotillomania

      Explanation:

      Co-Existence of Vitiligo and Alopecia Areata

      This girl is experiencing a combination of vitiligo and alopecia areata, two conditions that can co-exist and have a similar autoimmune cause. Alopecia areata is highly suggested by the presence of discrete areas of hair loss and normal texture on the scalp. These conditions can cause significant emotional distress and impact a person’s self-esteem.

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  • Question 186 - A 30-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant presents with severe acne on...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant presents with severe acne on her face, chest, and shoulders. The inflammation, papules, and pustules are widespread and causing her significant pain, even waking her from sleep. She had been receiving treatment from dermatology but stopped when she began trying to conceive. Her next appointment is not for another 6 weeks. To improve her quality of life, you decide to initiate oral antibiotic therapy. Which antibiotic would be the most appropriate for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Acne vulgaris is a common condition that can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life. The severity of acne can range from mild to severe, and in this case, the patient has moderate to severe acne. Treatment with an oral antibiotic is recommended, and a referral to a dermatologist has already been scheduled.

      Tetracyclines are typically the first-line treatment for acne vulgaris, but they are contraindicated in pregnant women. This patient is pregnant, so an alternative antibiotic is needed. Oral tetracyclines should also be avoided in breastfeeding women and children under 12 years old due to the risk of deposition in developing teeth and bones.

      Erythromycin is a suitable alternative to tetracyclines for the treatment of acne vulgaris in pregnancy. The usual dose is 500 mg twice a day. Some specialists may use trimethoprim, but it is unlicensed for this indication. Women of childbearing age should use effective contraception, especially if using a topical retinoid concomitantly.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

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  • Question 187 - A 39-year-old female patient complains of a skin rash that has been bothering...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old female patient complains of a skin rash that has been bothering her for a week. She reports experiencing a burning sensation and itchiness around her mouth. Despite using hydrocortisone cream, the rash has not improved significantly. On examination, you observe a bilateral perioral papular eruption consisting of 4-5 clusters of 1-2 mm papules with sparing of the vermillion border. What would be the most suitable next step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Hydrocortisone is the most appropriate treatment for this patient’s perioral dermatitis, as it is a milder steroid compared to other options. Stronger steroids can worsen the condition with prolonged use. While using only emollients is not unreasonable, it may not provide complete relief within a reasonable timeframe. It is also recommended to minimize the use of skin products. Fusidic acid is typically used for localized impetigo, but it is not suitable for this patient as there are no signs of golden-crusted lesions.

      Understanding Periorificial Dermatitis

      Periorificial dermatitis is a skin condition that is commonly observed in women between the ages of 20 and 45 years old. The use of topical corticosteroids, and to a lesser extent, inhaled corticosteroids, is often linked to the development of this condition. The symptoms of periorificial dermatitis include the appearance of clustered erythematous papules, papulovesicles, and papulopustules, which are typically found in the perioral, perinasal, and periocular regions. However, the skin immediately adjacent to the vermilion border of the lip is usually spared.

      When it comes to managing periorificial dermatitis, it is important to note that steroids may actually worsen the symptoms. Instead, the condition should be treated with either topical or oral antibiotics. By understanding the features and management of periorificial dermatitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to address this condition and improve their skin health.

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  • Question 188 - A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to your GP surgery. He has noticed...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to your GP surgery. He has noticed that she has been scratching her face, particularly around her mouth and that she has developed some 'spots and scabs' in the area. The patient doesn't appear systemically unwell or distressed. The child has a history of atopic eczema and viral-induced wheeze.

      On examination of the child's face you note the presence of pustules and vesicles surrounding the mouth and nose area along with some honey-coloured plaques. You diagnose impetigo and prescribe topical fusidic acid as well as advising good hygiene measures.

      The father is concerned about sending the child to preschool. What do you advise?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The patient must have been on treatment for 48h before returning to daycare

      Explanation:

      Patients with impetigo can go back to school or work once they are no longer contagious, which is either when all lesions have crusted over or after 48 hours of starting treatment. For measles or rubella, it is recommended to wait for at least 4 days after the rash appears before returning to work or school.

      Understanding Impetigo: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that is caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. It can occur as a primary infection or as a complication of an existing skin condition such as eczema. Impetigo is most common in children, especially during warm weather. The infection can develop anywhere on the body, but it tends to occur on the face, flexures, and limbs not covered by clothing.

      The infection spreads through direct contact with discharges from the scabs of an infected person. The bacteria invade the skin through minor abrasions and then spread to other sites by scratching. Infection is spread mainly by the hands, but indirect spread via toys, clothing, equipment, and the environment may occur. The incubation period is between 4 to 10 days.

      Symptoms of impetigo include ‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth. It is highly contagious, and children should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment.

      Management of impetigo depends on the extent of the disease. Limited, localized disease can be treated with hydrogen peroxide 1% cream or topical antibiotic creams such as fusidic acid or mupirocin. MRSA is not susceptible to either fusidic acid or retapamulin, so topical mupirocin should be used in this situation. Extensive disease may require oral flucloxacillin or oral erythromycin if penicillin-allergic. The use of hydrogen peroxide 1% cream was recommended by NICE and Public Health England in 2020 to cut antibiotic resistance. The evidence base shows it is just as effective at treating non-bullous impetigo as a topical antibiotic.

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  • Question 189 - Samantha is a 30-year-old woman who visits her doctor complaining of fatigue, night...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 30-year-old woman who visits her doctor complaining of fatigue, night sweats, and muscle pains that have been bothering her for a few months. She believes that these symptoms began after she developed a rash on her leg four months ago. She has not traveled anywhere. Samantha is upset and emotional about her symptoms.

      As part of Samantha's evaluation, which tests should be considered?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Borrelia burgdorferi antibody test

      Explanation:

      Consider Lyme disease as a possible diagnosis for patients presenting with vague and unexplained symptoms such as fever, night sweats, headache, or paraesthesia. These symptoms may also include inflamed lymph nodes, neck pain, and joint/muscle aches. The causative agent of Lyme disease is Borrelia burgdorferi. Malaria is unlikely in patients with no travel history and symptoms lasting for 4 months. Scabies typically presents with an itchy rash, which is not evident in the scenario. Glandular fever may cause fatigue and muscle aches, but the absence of a sore throat and the need for a blood test for diagnosis make it less likely. Toxoplasma gondii is usually asymptomatic but may cause flu-like symptoms and muscle aches, and it is not associated with a rash.

      Lyme Disease: Symptoms and Progression

      Lyme disease is a bacterial infection that is transmitted through the bite of an infected tick. The disease progresses in two stages, with early and later features. The early features of Lyme disease include erythema migrans, which is a small papule that often appears at the site of the tick bite. This papule develops into a larger annular lesion with central clearing, resembling a bulls-eye. This occurs in 70% of patients and is accompanied by systemic symptoms such as malaise, fever, and arthralgia.

      As the disease progresses, it can lead to more severe symptoms. The later features of Lyme disease include cardiovascular symptoms such as heart block and myocarditis, as well as neurological symptoms such as cranial nerve palsies and meningitis. Patients may also experience polyarthritis, which is inflammation in multiple joints.

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  • Question 190 - A 28-year-old British man with a history of asthma comes to the clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old British man with a history of asthma comes to the clinic with a painless lymph node in his groin that has been enlarged for the past three months. He denies any other symptoms except for a generalised itch which he attributes to a recent change in laundry detergent. He has not observed any rash.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lymphoma

      Explanation:

      If you notice an enlarged lymph node that cannot be explained, it is important to consider the possibility of lymphoma. It is important to ask about other symptoms such as fever, night sweats, shortness of breath, itching, and weight loss. It is rare for alcohol to cause lymph node pain.

      There are no significant risk factors or symptoms suggestive of TB in the patient’s history. It is also unlikely that the presentation is due to syphilis, as secondary syphilis typically presents with a non-itchy rash. The rapid deterioration seen in acute lymphocytic leukemia is not consistent with the patient’s presentation.

      Understanding Hodgkin’s Lymphoma: Symptoms and Risk Factors

      Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphocytes and is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. It is most commonly seen in people in their third and seventh decades of life. There are certain risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing Hodgkin’s lymphoma, such as HIV and the Epstein-Barr virus.

      The most common symptom of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is lymphadenopathy, which is the enlargement of lymph nodes. This is usually painless, non-tender, and asymmetrical, and is most commonly seen in the neck, followed by the axillary and inguinal regions. In some cases, alcohol-induced lymph node pain may be present, but this is seen in less than 10% of patients. Other symptoms of Hodgkin’s lymphoma include weight loss, pruritus, night sweats, and fever (Pel-Ebstein). A mediastinal mass may also be present, which can cause symptoms such as coughing. In some cases, Hodgkin’s lymphoma may be found incidentally on a chest x-ray.

      When investigating Hodgkin’s lymphoma, normocytic anaemia may be present, which can be caused by factors such as hypersplenism, bone marrow replacement by HL, or Coombs-positive haemolytic anaemia. Eosinophilia may also be present, which is caused by the production of cytokines such as IL-5. LDH levels may also be raised.

      In summary, Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphocytes and is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. It is most commonly seen in people in their third and seventh decades of life and is associated with risk factors such as HIV and the Epstein-Barr virus. Symptoms of Hodgkin’s lymphoma include lymphadenopathy, weight loss, pruritus, night sweats, and fever. When investigating Hodgkin’s lymphoma, normocytic anaemia, eosinophilia, and raised LDH levels may be present.

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  • Question 191 - A mother brings her 5-month old baby daughter to your clinic for a...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 5-month old baby daughter to your clinic for a birthmark on her arm. Upon examination, you identify a small vascular plaque that doesn't seem to be causing any discomfort to the baby. Your diagnosis is a strawberry naevus. What would be the most suitable initial course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Watch and wait

      Explanation:

      A congenital haemangioma known as a strawberry naevus affects approximately one in 20 infants. These haemangiomas grow quickly during the first few months of life and then gradually disappear over a few years without any intervention. Unless they are causing vision, hearing, breathing, or feeding problems, they typically do not require treatment. However, if they are located on the lower spine, they may indicate spina bifida and require further investigation. Additionally, if they are unusually large or atypical, medical attention may be necessary.

      Strawberry naevi, also known as capillary haemangiomas, are not usually present at birth but can develop quickly within the first month of life. They appear as raised, red, and lobed tumours that commonly occur on the face, scalp, and back. These growths tend to increase in size until around 6-9 months before gradually disappearing over the next few years. However, in rare cases, they can obstruct the airway if they occur in the upper respiratory tract. Capillary haemangiomas are more common in white infants, particularly in females, premature infants, and those whose mothers have undergone chorionic villous sampling.

      Complications of strawberry naevi include obstruction of vision or airway, bleeding, ulceration, and thrombocytopaenia. Treatment may be necessary if there is visual field obstruction, and propranolol is now the preferred choice over systemic steroids. Topical beta-blockers such as timolol may also be used. Cavernous haemangioma is a type of deep capillary haemangioma.

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  • Question 192 - You are prescribing oral terbinafine to an elderly patient with a fungal nail...

    Incorrect

    • You are prescribing oral terbinafine to an elderly patient with a fungal nail infection.

      What are the monitoring requirements?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal function pre-treatment and then every 3-4 weeks during treatment

      Explanation:

      Monitoring Requirements for Oral Terbinafine Use

      Oral terbinafine can lead to liver toxicity, which is why it is important to monitor hepatic function before and during treatment. If symptoms of liver toxicity, such as jaundice, develop, terbinafine should be discontinued immediately. The British National Formulary (BNF) specifies that hepatic function should be monitored before treatment and periodically after 4-6 weeks of treatment. If liver function abnormalities are detected, terbinafine should be discontinued.

      There is no need for additional monitoring, but if the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is less than 50 mL/minute/1.73 m2, half the normal dose should be used if there is no suitable alternative. It is important to follow these monitoring requirements to ensure the safe and effective use of oral terbinafine.

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  • Question 193 - A 28-year-old male patient presents with a rash in his groin area that...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male patient presents with a rash in his groin area that he has noticed for the past 3 months. The rash is asymptomatic and appears as well-defined pink/brown patches with fine scaling and superficial fissures. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythrasma

      Explanation:

      Understanding Erythrasma: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment

      Erythrasma is a skin condition that is characterized by a flat, slightly scaly, pink or brown rash that is typically found in the groin or axillae. Although it is generally asymptomatic, it can cause discomfort and embarrassment for those who have it. The condition is caused by an overgrowth of the diphtheroid Corynebacterium minutissimum, which is a type of bacteria that is commonly found on the skin.

      One way to diagnose erythrasma is through examination with Wood’s light, which reveals a coral-red fluorescence. This can help doctors to distinguish it from other skin conditions that may have similar symptoms.

      Fortunately, erythrasma can be treated effectively with topical miconazole or antibacterial medications. In more severe cases, oral erythromycin may be prescribed to help clear up the infection. With proper treatment, most people with erythrasma can expect to see a significant improvement in their symptoms within a few weeks.

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  • Question 194 - A 26-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner with a concern about excessive...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner with a concern about excessive hair growth on her arms. She has a slim build and olive skin with dark brown hair. The patient shaves the hair to remove it. Her menstrual cycles are regular, occurring every 33 days, and she reports no heavy bleeding or pain. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Genetic phenotype

      Explanation:

      Excessive hair growth on the arms may be noticeable in this woman due to her genetic makeup, as she has olive skin and dark hair. However, hirsutism, which is characterized by excessive hair growth on the face and body, is often associated with polycystic ovarian syndrome. Although her menstrual cycle is regular at 33 days, it is important to note that a normal cycle can range from 24 to 35 days. A cycle variation of 8 days or more is considered moderately irregular, while a variation of 21 days or more is considered very irregular. Additionally, this patient has light periods and a slim physique.

      Understanding Hirsutism and Hypertrichosis

      Hirsutism is a term used to describe excessive hair growth in women that is dependent on androgens, while hypertrichosis refers to hair growth that is not androgen-dependent. Polycystic ovarian syndrome is the most common cause of hirsutism, but other factors such as Cushing’s syndrome, obesity, and certain medications can also contribute to this condition. To assess hirsutism, the Ferriman-Gallwey scoring system is often used, which assigns scores to nine different body areas. Management of hirsutism may involve weight loss, cosmetic techniques, or the use of oral contraceptive pills or topical medications.

      Hypertrichosis, on the other hand, can be caused by a variety of factors such as certain medications, congenital conditions, and even anorexia nervosa. It is important to identify the underlying cause of excessive hair growth in order to determine the most appropriate treatment approach. By understanding the differences between hirsutism and hypertrichosis, individuals can better manage these conditions and improve their quality of life.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 195 - A 65-year-old man with a history of gout presents with an itchy rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of gout presents with an itchy rash on his trunk. He reports starting ampicillin for a recent chest infection and another medication for his gout, but cannot recall the name of the gout medication. What is the likely cause of his rash?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sulfinpyrazone

      Explanation:

      Allopurinol and Rash Risk

      Allopurinol, a medication commonly used to treat gout, can cause an itchy maculopapular rash in 2% of patients. However, when taken with ampicillin or amoxicillin, the risk of developing a rash increases. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of this potential interaction and to monitor patients closely for any signs of rash when prescribing these medications together. By doing so, they can help prevent and manage any adverse reactions that may occur.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 196 - Which of the following conditions results in non-scarring hair loss? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions results in non-scarring hair loss?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alopecia areata

      Explanation:

      Types of Alopecia and Their Causes

      Alopecia, or hair loss, can be categorized into two types: scarring and non-scarring. Scarring alopecia occurs when the hair follicle is destroyed, while non-scarring alopecia is characterized by the preservation of the hair follicle.

      Scarring alopecia can be caused by various factors such as trauma, burns, radiotherapy, lichen planus, discoid lupus, and untreated tinea capitis. On the other hand, non-scarring alopecia can be attributed to male-pattern baldness, certain drugs like cytotoxic drugs, carbimazole, heparin, oral contraceptive pill, and colchicine, nutritional deficiencies such as iron and zinc deficiency, autoimmune disorders like alopecia areata, telogen effluvium, hair loss following a stressful period like surgery, and trichotillomania.

      It is important to identify the type of alopecia and its underlying cause in order to determine the appropriate treatment. In some cases, scarring may develop in untreated tinea capitis if a kerion develops. Understanding the different types and causes of alopecia can help individuals take necessary steps to prevent or manage hair loss.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 197 - A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of a skin rash caused by...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of a skin rash caused by her new wristwatch. The doctor suspects an allergy to nickel. What is the most appropriate test to confirm this suspicion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Skin patch test

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nickel Dermatitis

      Nickel dermatitis is a type of allergic contact dermatitis that is commonly caused by exposure to nickel. This condition is an example of a type IV hypersensitivity reaction, which means that it is caused by an immune response to a specific substance. In the case of nickel dermatitis, the immune system reacts to nickel, which is often found in jewelry such as watches.

      To diagnose nickel dermatitis, a skin patch test is typically performed. This involves applying a small amount of nickel to the skin and monitoring the area for any signs of an allergic reaction. If a reaction occurs, it is likely that the individual has nickel dermatitis and will need to avoid exposure to nickel in the future.

      Overall, understanding nickel dermatitis is important for anyone who may be at risk of developing this condition. By recognizing the symptoms and avoiding exposure to nickel, individuals can manage their symptoms and prevent further complications.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 198 - What is the recommendation for the use of tacrolimus and pimecrolimus in atopic...

    Incorrect

    • What is the recommendation for the use of tacrolimus and pimecrolimus in atopic eczema according to NICE guidance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: First line treatment for moderate to severe eczema in the over twos, where there is a risk of serious corticosteroid side effects

      Explanation:

      Second-Line Treatment for Moderate to Severe Eczema in Children

      Eczema is a common skin condition that affects many children. Steroids are often used as a first-line treatment, but in cases where they are not effective, a second-line treatment may be necessary. One such treatment is recommended for children over 2-years-old with moderate to severe eczema. This treatment should not be used as a first-line option, but rather as a second-line option when steroids are not controlling the condition. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case of eczema. By following this recommendation, children with moderate to severe eczema can receive effective treatment and relief from their symptoms.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 199 - An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with painful swelling of his penis...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with painful swelling of his penis and a retracted foreskin. He has a long-term catheter in place. What is the most frequent cause of paraphimosis in a non-diabetic man of this age? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Failure of a clinician to replace the foreskin after a procedure

      Explanation:

      Causes of Paraphimosis: Understanding the Factors Involved

      Paraphimosis is a medical condition where the foreskin becomes trapped behind the glans penis and cannot be reduced. While it can be a painful and distressing condition, it is important to understand the various factors that can contribute to its development.

      One common cause of paraphimosis is the failure of a clinician to replace the foreskin after a procedure. This can occur during penile examination, cleaning, catheterisation, or cystoscopy. If the foreskin is left retracted for too long, it can become swollen and difficult to reduce.

      Another potential cause is chronic balanoposthitis, which is a chronic inflammation of the glans and foreskin. While this is uncommon, it can lead to phimosis (inability to retract the foreskin) in men with diabetes.

      Lichen sclerosus is another dermatological condition that can lead to phimosis. While it is uncommon, it is important to be aware of this potential cause.

      Excessive sexual activity is not a common cause of paraphimosis and is not indicated by the history. However, it is important to practice safe and responsible sexual behavior to prevent any potential complications.

      Finally, while sildenafil has been reported to cause priapism (a sustained painful penile erection), it is not a known cause of paraphimosis. By understanding the various factors involved in the development of paraphimosis, individuals can take steps to prevent this condition and seek appropriate medical care if necessary.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 200 - A 28-year-old woman presents with concerns regarding hair loss.

    She has been noticing patches...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with concerns regarding hair loss.

      She has been noticing patches of hair loss over the past three months without any associated itching. Her medical history includes hypothyroidism, for which she takes 100 micrograms of thyroxine daily, and she takes the combined oral contraceptive for regular withdrawal bleeds.

      During examination, she appears healthy with a BMI of 22 kg/m2 and a blood pressure of 122/72 mmHg. Upon examining her scalp, two distinct patches of hair loss, approximately 2-3 cm in diameter, are visible on the vertex of her head and the left temporo-occipital region.

      What is the most probable cause of her hair loss?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Drug induced

      Explanation:

      Hair Loss and Autoimmune Conditions

      This young woman is experiencing hair loss and has been diagnosed with an autoimmune condition and hypothyroidism. Her symptoms are consistent with alopecia areata, a condition where hair loss occurs in discrete patches. While only 1% of cases of alopecia are associated with thyroid disease, it is a possibility in this case. However, scarring alopecia is more typical of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), which is not present in this patient. Androgenic alopecia, which causes thinning at the vertex and temporal areas, is also not consistent with this patient’s symptoms. Over-treatment with thyroxine or the use of oral contraceptives can cause generalised hair loss, but this is not the case for this patient. It is important to properly diagnose the underlying condition causing hair loss in order to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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