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Question 1
Correct
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What is one of Schneider's primary symptoms of schizophrenia?
Your Answer: Delusional perception
Explanation:First and Second-Rank Symptoms of Schizophrenia
Schizophrenia is a mental illness that is characterized by a range of symptoms. Kurt Schneider, a German psychiatrist, identified certain symptoms as strongly suggestive of schizophrenia and called them first-rank symptoms. These symptoms include delusions, auditory hallucinations, thought disorder, and passivity experiences. Delusions can be described as false beliefs that are not based on reality. Auditory hallucinations involve hearing voices that are not there, and thought disorder refers to a disruption in the normal thought process. Passivity experiences include feelings of being controlled by an external force.
Schneider also identified second-rank symptoms, which are common in schizophrenia but can also occur in other mental illnesses. These symptoms include mood changes, emotional blunting, perplexity, and sudden delusional ideas. It is important to note that while these symptoms are suggestive of schizophrenia, they are not diagnostic.
Other experiences that can occur in schizophrenia include reflex hallucinations, thought blocking, flight of ideas, and hypnopompic hallucinations. Reflex hallucinations occur when a true sensory stimulus causes an hallucination in another sensory modality. Thought blocking is a sudden interruption of the train of thought, often experienced as a snapping off. Flight of ideas is a rapid stream of thought that may lack direction or purpose. Hypnopompic hallucinations occur as a person awakes and can continue once the individual’s eyes open from sleep.
In summary, schizophrenia is a complex mental illness that can present with a range of symptoms. While certain symptoms are strongly suggestive of schizophrenia, a diagnosis should be made by a qualified mental health professional based on a comprehensive evaluation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 2
Incorrect
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John is a 26-year-old male with schizophrenia who is undergoing treatment. Which antipsychotic medication is most likely to cause parkinsonism, sustained muscle contractions, and severe restlessness as side effects?
Your Answer: Olanzapine
Correct Answer: Haloperidol
Explanation:Typical antipsychotics are more likely to cause extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) than atypical antipsychotics. Haloperidol is the only typical antipsychotic among the given options, while aripiprazole, olanzapine, quetiapine, and risperidone are all atypical antipsychotics. EPSEs include Parkinsonism, akathisia, acute dystonia, and tardive dyskinesia. Atypical antipsychotics have a lower risk of causing EPSEs than older antipsychotics, but they may still cause them at higher doses. However, atypical antipsychotics carry a higher risk of metabolic side effects such as weight gain, diabetes mellitus, and hyperlipidaemia. Examples of typical antipsychotics licensed for use in the UK include haloperidol, trifluperazine, chlorpromazine, pericyazine, levomepromazine, and flupentixol. Examples of atypical antipsychotics licensed for use in the UK include amisulpride, aripiprazole, clozapine, lurasidone, olanzapine, paliperidone, and quetiapine.
Antipsychotics are a type of medication used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. However, they are known to cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects can be managed with procyclidine. Other side-effects of typical antipsychotics include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients due to an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 3
Correct
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A middle-aged woman presents with complaints of profound sadness, marked difficulty concentrating, and an inability to make decisions. During the evaluation, she speaks slowly and struggles to articulate her emotions. How would you characterize the alterations in her cognitive functioning and thought processes?
Your Answer: Psychomotor retardation
Explanation:Psychomotor Retardation in Severe Depression
Psychomotor retardation is a cognitive symptom commonly observed in individuals with severe depression. It is characterized by a significant slowing down of both thinking and behavior. This symptom can manifest in various ways, such as slowed speech, reduced movement, and delayed responses. Psychomotor retardation can significantly impact an individual’s ability to carry out daily activities and can lead to social withdrawal and isolation.
It is essential to differentiate psychomotor retardation from other forms of thought disorders seen in other psychiatric conditions such as mania and schizophrenia. In mania, individuals may experience racing thoughts and increased energy levels, while in schizophrenia, disorganized thinking and speech patterns are common. Therefore, a thorough evaluation by a mental health professional is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat psychomotor retardation in severe depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 4
Correct
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A 42-year-old unemployed male who resides in a hostel is admitted to the medical ward after experiencing upper gastrointestinal bleeding. He has a history of alcohol detoxes and is known to the Alcohol and Drugs Services.
On the third day of his hospitalization, he becomes agitated and begins shouting about insects crawling on the walls in his room.
What is the probable reason for his current presentation?Your Answer: Delirium tremens
Explanation:Visual Hallucinations in Organic Psychosis
Visual hallucinations are a common occurrence in organic psychosis, particularly in cases of delirium. These hallucinations often take the form of animals and people. In cases of alcoholic delirium, the visual hallucinations tend to be small objects such as spider webs or hairs, which appear against a clear background like a white wall.
It is important to note that the psychotic experiences associated with delirium tremens can be mistaken for other psychotic illnesses like schizophrenia or mania. However, delirium is a medical emergency that requires immediate medical attention. Admission to a psychiatric hospital may not be the best course of action due to a lack of trained staff in emergency medicine.
In summary, visual hallucinations are a common symptom of organic psychosis, particularly in cases of delirium. These hallucinations can take many forms, including animals, people, and small objects. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if experiencing these symptoms, as delirium is a medical emergency that requires prompt treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 5
Incorrect
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How can this situation be described where Bert is aware that something is happening related to him, but he is uncertain about the details?
Your Answer: Delusional idea (autochthonous delusion)
Correct Answer: Delusional mood
Explanation:Delusions: Types and Characteristics
A delusion is a false belief that is not in line with the patient’s social and cultural background. There are two types of delusions: primary and secondary. Primary delusions are directly associated with psychopathology, while secondary delusions occur in response to another psychiatric condition. Delusional mood is a primary delusion, and it is characterized by the patient feeling that something is happening around them, but they cannot describe it. Delusional ideas, perceptions, and memories are also primary delusions.
Autochthonous delusional ideas appear fully formed in the patient’s mind, while delusional percepts occur in response to an ordinary object. Delusional misinterpretation is not a primary delusion, and it occurs when a patient misinterprets a situation. Delusion of love is a secondary delusion that arises from another experience, and it causes the patient to believe that someone is in love with them.
In summary, delusions are false beliefs that are not in line with the patient’s social and cultural background. There are different types of delusions, including primary and secondary delusions. Primary delusions include delusional mood, ideas, perceptions, and memories. Autochthonous delusional ideas appear fully formed in the patient’s mind, while delusional percepts occur in response to an ordinary object. Delusional misinterpretation is not a primary delusion, and delusion of love is a secondary delusion that arises from another experience.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 6
Correct
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A patient with intricate mental health issues and multiple medications presents at the clinic with concerns about weight gain. Which of the following medications is probable to be the cause of this side effect?
Your Answer: Olanzapine
Explanation:Weight gain is a prevalent side effect of antipsychotics.
While antipsychotics are successful in treating schizophrenia, they often lead to weight gain and an increased likelihood of developing type 2 diabetes. The most rapid weight gain typically occurs within the first six months of starting antipsychotic treatment.
In particular, Olanzapine and Clozapine are associated with a high risk of weight gain. They stimulate appetite and result in overeating, as well as disrupt glucose regulation.
Schizophrenia management guidelines were published by NICE in 2009. The guidelines recommend that first-line treatment for schizophrenia should involve oral atypical antipsychotics. Additionally, cognitive behavioural therapy should be offered to all patients. It is important to pay close attention to cardiovascular risk-factor modification due to the high rates of cardiovascular disease in schizophrenic patients, which is linked to antipsychotic medication and high smoking rates. Therefore, healthcare professionals should take necessary measures to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease in these patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 7
Correct
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A middle-aged staff grade doctor in general medicine is convinced that he failed his membership exams due to unjust treatment by the examiners. He has repeatedly sent letters and emails of grievance to the College and the Medical Director and he consistently feels victimized. He has encountered comparable problems in all of his past positions. Despite this, he performs well in his job and has a positive rapport with his patients. He does not exhibit any signs of psychosis. How would you characterize his demeanor?
Your Answer: Overvalued paranoid ideas
Explanation:Paranoid Overvalued Ideas
Paranoid overvalued ideas are a type of thought pattern that arises from a self-referential interpretation of events and interactions with others. Individuals with this condition tend to assume that they are being treated unfairly and will often react strongly to any perceived discrimination. Unlike psychotic disorders associated with persecutory delusions, paranoid overvalued ideas do not typically involve psychotic symptoms or impair day-to-day functioning.
An overvalued idea is a thought that takes precedence over all other ideas due to the associated feeling tone. This type of idea can maintain its precedence permanently or for an extended period of time. the nature of paranoid overvalued ideas is crucial for identifying and treating individuals who may be struggling with this condition. By recognizing the signs and symptoms of this thought pattern, mental health professionals can provide targeted interventions to help individuals overcome their negative thought patterns and improve their overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 8
Correct
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A 27-year-old female presents to her GP after giving birth 8 months ago. She had planned for a normal vaginal delivery, but due to an umbilical cord prolapse, she had to undergo an emergency caesarean section. Since then, she has experienced several health changes, such as excessive sleep, joint pains, and weight loss. She also reports seeing animals around her that others cannot see and now takes a different route to work to avoid driving past the hospital where the events occurred. Based on her history, what is the most significant feature that supports a diagnosis of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?
Your Answer: Avoidance
Explanation:PTSD is characterized by a set of common features, including re-experiencing, avoidance, and hyperarousal. Patients may experience intrusive flashbacks or nightmares related to the traumatic event. PTSD can develop after exposure to a variety of traumatic events, such as accidents, natural disasters, military exposure, and traumatic births. Healthcare workers during the COVID-19 pandemic have also reported experiencing PTSD. Insomnia is a common symptom associated with PTSD, while excessive sleep is not. Although hallucinations have been reported in some patients with PTSD, they are not as common as flashbacks and should prompt doctors to consider other possible diagnoses. Joint pains may occur in patients with PTSD, but they are not a defining feature of the disease.
Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include natural disasters, physical or sexual assault, or military combat. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of triggers associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and substance abuse.
Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, including watchful waiting for mild symptoms, trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), and eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy for more severe cases. While drug treatments are not recommended as a first-line treatment for adults, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) such as sertraline may be used. In severe cases, risperidone may be recommended. It is important to note that single-session interventions, also known as debriefing, are not recommended following a traumatic event.
Understanding PTSD and its symptoms is crucial in providing effective support and treatment for those who have experienced trauma. With the right interventions, individuals with PTSD can learn to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 9
Correct
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A teenager has presented to the school nurse and says that she is feeling fantastic. She is talking a lot, but also getting easily sidetracked and using exaggerated hand movements. This behavior is unusual for her, and the nurse decides to look into it further.
What symptom/sign is most commonly linked to this diagnosis?Your Answer: Decreased fatigability
Explanation:Hypomania is associated with a reduced need for sleep and lack of fatigue, which is a symptom commonly seen in type II bipolar disorder. It is less severe than mania but can still cause changes in mood and behavior. Schizophrenia is typically associated with third person auditory hallucinations, while second person auditory hallucinations are more commonly seen in mood disorders such as mania and depression. Decreased fatigability is a symptom of mania/hypomania, and patients with hypomania may sleep less without experiencing negative consequences. Nihilistic delusions are more commonly seen in severe depression, while impaired social functioning is more typical of mania than hypomania. Patients with hypomania tend to be more confident and sociable.
Understanding Bipolar Disorder
Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.
Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability. Mania is more severe and involves functional impairment or psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more, while hypomania involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations, suggest mania.
Management of bipolar disorder involves psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, with valproate as an alternative. Antipsychotic therapy may be used for mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. comorbidities, such as diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD, should also be addressed.
If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. If there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 10
Correct
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You are interviewing a patient who has recently been admitted to the acute psychiatric ward. When talking, he is difficult to interrupt. While describing his reaction to the death of his grandfather, he says, The police asked me to identify his body. Ha ha ha! I was shocked to see him lying there! Ha ha ha! What is the best description of this mental state?
Your Answer: Incongruity of affect
Explanation:Schizophrenia Symptoms: Incongruity of Affect and Perseveration
Incongruity of affect is a symptom commonly seen in individuals with schizophrenia. It refers to the unpredictable and contradictory emotional response to events. For instance, an insignificant event may trigger a severe emotional reaction, while a significant event may produce no response or an opposite response. This symptom can be observed when a person laughs while recalling a traumatic event.
It is important to differentiate incongruity of affect from a slight smile that may occur in an anxious or shocked person following a traumatic event. Incongruity of affect is a more severe and persistent symptom that is characteristic of schizophrenia.
Another symptom of schizophrenia is perseveration, which refers to the inability to stop an action or thought. For example, if someone is asked to tap on a table once, they may continue tapping even after the task is completed. This symptom can be frustrating for the individual and may interfere with their daily activities.
In summary, incongruity of affect and perseveration are two symptoms commonly seen in individuals with schizophrenia. These symptoms can significantly impact their daily lives and require appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 11
Correct
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A 20-year-old man experienced recurrent episodes of breathlessness and palpitations lasting approximately 20 minutes and resolving gradually. No unusual physical signs were observed. What is the probable cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer: Panic attacks
Explanation:Likely Diagnosis for Sudden Onset of Symptoms
When considering the sudden onset of symptoms, drug abuse is an unlikely cause as the symptoms are short-lived and not accompanied by other common drug abuse symptoms. Paroxysmal SVT would present with sudden starts and stops, rather than a gradual onset. Personality disorder and thyrotoxicosis would both lead to longer-lasting symptoms and other associated symptoms. Therefore, the most likely diagnosis for sudden onset symptoms would be panic disorder. It is important to consider all possible causes and seek medical attention to properly diagnose and treat any underlying conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 12
Correct
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A 9-year-old boy has started attending a different school after his family moved to a new town. His teacher is worried because he never talks in class. However, his parents have noticed that he talks to his cousins on video calls when he's alone in his room. What could be the reason for this boy's communication struggles?
Your Answer: Selective mutism
Explanation:Selective Mutism and Other Speech Disorders
Selective mutism is a condition where a person is unable to speak in certain situations, such as public places or specific classes in school. However, they can speak normally when they feel they are not being observed, such as at home. This condition is often seen in children.
Other speech disorders are also present in psychotic and organic disorders. Alogia is a negative symptom of schizophrenia, characterized by a poverty of speech. Bradyphasia is a condition where a person speaks slowly. Echolalia is the repetition of parts of others’ speech, while paraphasia is the mispronunciation of single words or the combination of words in inappropriate or meaningless ways.
It is important to understand these speech disorders to provide appropriate treatment and support for those affected. By recognizing the symptoms and seeking professional help, individuals with these conditions can improve their communication skills and overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 13
Correct
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A 28-year-old man with schizophrenia who began taking clozapine 2 weeks ago visits for his routine blood test. What is a known severe side effect of clozapine?
Your Answer: Agranulocytosis
Explanation:Clozapine, an antipsychotic medication used to treat refractory schizophrenia, requires continuous monitoring for patients taking it. This involves weekly blood tests for the first 18 weeks, followed by bi-weekly tests until the first year, and then monthly tests thereafter.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These agents have a significant advantage over traditional antipsychotics in that they cause fewer extrapyramidal side-effects. However, atypical antipsychotics can still cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and clozapine-associated agranulocytosis. Elderly patients who take antipsychotics are at an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism, according to the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency.
Clozapine is one of the first atypical antipsychotics to be developed, but it carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis. Therefore, full blood count monitoring is essential during treatment. Clozapine should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Clozapine can cause adverse effects such as reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 14
Incorrect
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As a medical student in general practice, a 37-year-old male with chronic back pain comes in for a refill of his amitriptyline prescription. Can you explain the mechanism of action of this medication?
Your Answer: Inhibits monoamine reuptake on postsynaptic membrane
Correct Answer: Inhibits monoamine reuptake on the presynaptic membrane
Explanation:Amitriptyline belongs to the class of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs).
TCAs primarily act on the presynaptic neuron rather than the postsynaptic neuron. Their main mode of action involves inhibiting the reuptake of monoamines at the presynaptic membrane. This is achieved by binding to the ATPase monoamine pump located within the presynaptic membrane.
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are not commonly used for depression anymore due to their side-effects and potential for toxicity in overdose. However, they are still widely used for the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required. The common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, and lengthening of QT interval. When choosing a TCA, low-dose amitriptyline is commonly used for the management of neuropathic pain and the prevention of headaches. Lofepramine is preferred due to its lower incidence of toxicity in overdose, while amitriptyline and dosulepin are considered the most dangerous in overdose. The sedative effects of TCAs vary, with amitriptyline, clomipramine, dosulepin, and trazodone being more sedative, while imipramine and nortriptyline are less sedative. Trazodone is technically a ‘tricyclic-related antidepressant’.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 15
Correct
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A 30-year-old female arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of eye pain and an unusual posture. During the examination, it is observed that her neck is fixed in a backward and lateral position, and her eyes are deviated upwards. She is unable to control her gaze. The patient has a history of paranoid schizophrenia and is currently taking olanzapine. What is the probable reason behind her symptoms?
Your Answer: Acute dystonic reaction
Explanation:Antipsychotics have the potential to cause acute dystonic reactions, with oculogyric crisis being a significant form. Symptoms may include jaw spasm, tongue protrusion, and the eyes rolling upwards.
The recommended treatment for an oculogyric crisis is typically the administration of IV procyclidine and discontinuation of the medication responsible for the reaction.
Akathisia is another side effect of antipsychotics, characterized by restlessness and an inability to remain still.
Tardive dyskinesia is a long-term side effect of antipsychotics that can manifest after several years of use. It often affects the face and involves involuntary, repetitive movements such as lip smacking, tongue protrusion, and grimacing.
Parkinsonism is a term used to describe antipsychotic side effects that mimic Parkinson’s disease, including cogwheel rigidity, bradykinesia, and a shuffling gait.
Antipsychotics are a type of medication used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. However, they are known to cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects can be managed with procyclidine. Other side-effects of typical antipsychotics include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients due to an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 16
Correct
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A 68-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department on Thursday evening after falling and hitting his head on the pavement. He was found to be heavily intoxicated and unable to stand. A CT scan of his head reveals a crescent-shaped hematoma on the right side. The patient undergoes a burr-hole craniostomy with irrigation, which goes smoothly. However, two days later, the nursing staff notices that he is restless and agitated. He is speaking to his deceased wife, who passed away 15 years ago, and does not recognize any of the nurses. Additionally, he has developed hand tremors.
What medication has been overlooked by the medical team caring for this patient?Your Answer: Chlordiazepoxide
Explanation:Long-acting benzodiazepines are administered in decreasing doses to manage alcohol withdrawal symptoms in patients with a history of alcohol abuse. A man with such a history presents with anxiety, restlessness, visual and auditory hallucinations, and tremors 48 hours after his last alcohol intake. Chlordiazepoxide, a benzodiazepine, is prescribed to alleviate acute alcohol withdrawal and anxiety. Mannitol is indicated for cerebral edema, furosemide is a diuretic, and escitalopram is commonly used to treat anxiety and depression.
Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. This is due to the fact that chronic alcohol consumption enhances GABA-mediated inhibition in the central nervous system (CNS), similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. When alcohol consumption is stopped, the opposite occurs, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission.
Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start within 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at around 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which is characterized by coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, is most likely to occur at around 48-72 hours.
Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said not to be as effective in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 17
Correct
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A 42-year-old patient with schizophrenia has been repeatedly calling the police, claiming that her neighbors are attempting to kill her by filling her apartment with gas. She insists that she can smell gas in her apartment at all times, despite having an electric stove. What kind of abnormal perception is this likely to be?
Your Answer: Olfactory hallucination
Explanation:Types of Hallucinations
Hallucinations are sensory experiences that are not based on reality. They can occur in various forms, including olfactory, gustatory, kinaesthetic, hypnagogic, and tactile. Olfactory hallucinations involve smelling something that is not present, and can be associated with organic disorders such as temporal lobe epilepsy or psychotic disorders like schizophrenia. It is important to rule out other organic disorders before diagnosing a psychotic disorder.
Gustatory hallucinations involve experiencing a taste that is not present, while kinaesthetic hallucinations involve feeling a sensation of movement. Hypnagogic hallucinations occur when a person hears a voice upon awakening, which can be a normal experience. Tactile hallucinations involve feeling a sensation of touch that is not present.
the different types of hallucinations is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. It is essential to rule out any underlying organic disorders before attributing the hallucinations to a psychotic disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 18
Correct
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A 21-year-old female is experiencing high levels of anxiety when she is in social situations. She often turns to alcohol to calm her nerves, which has resulted in a few embarrassing incidents where she has had to leave early due to being too intoxicated. As a result, she now avoids social events altogether and worries that others will view her as socially inept or strange. What is the most accurate way to describe her anxiety and fears?
Your Answer: Social phobia
Explanation:Social Phobia
Social phobia is a condition where individuals experience intense fear and avoidance of social situations. They have a constant fear of being judged or scrutinized by others due to their behavior or physical appearance. To cope with their anxiety, some individuals may resort to excessive drinking, which can lead to further problems such as aggression and disinhibition.
Treatment for social phobia typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy. Medications such as antidepressants and anti-anxiety drugs can help alleviate symptoms, while psychotherapy can help individuals learn coping mechanisms and develop social skills. With proper treatment, individuals with social phobia can learn to manage their anxiety and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old girl is referred to a psychiatrist by her pediatrician for difficulty focusing and impulsive behavior. The psychiatrist suspects attention deficit hyperactivity disorder and recommends starting the girl on atomoxetine. The parents ask about the mechanism of action of this medication.
What is the mode of action of atomoxetine?Your Answer: Norepinephrine, serotonin and dopamine reuptake inhibitor
Correct Answer: Norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor
Explanation:Citalopram works by selectively inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin, while atomoxetine inhibits the reuptake of norepinephrine. Modafinil acts as a dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and methylphenidate inhibits the reuptake of both norepinephrine and dopamine. Haloperidol is an example of an antipsychotic medication.
In March 2018, NICE released new guidelines for the recognition and management of Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). This condition can have a significant impact on a child’s life and can continue into adulthood, making accurate diagnosis and treatment crucial. ADHD is defined by DSM-V as a persistent condition that includes features of inattention and/or hyperactivity/impulsivity, with an element of developmental delay. The threshold for diagnosis is six features for children up to 16 years old and five features for those aged 17 or over. ADHD has a prevalence of 2.4% in the UK, with a possible genetic component and a higher incidence in boys than girls.
NICE recommends a holistic approach to treating ADHD that is not solely reliant on medication. After presentation, a ten-week observation period should follow to determine if symptoms change or resolve. If symptoms persist, referral to secondary care is necessary, usually to a paediatrician with a special interest in behavioural disorders or to the local Child and Adolescent Mental Health Service (CAMHS). A tailored plan of action should be developed, taking into account the patient’s needs and wants and how their condition affects their lives.
Drug therapy should be considered a last resort and is only available to those aged 5 years or older. For patients with mild/moderate symptoms, parents attending education and training programmes can be beneficial. For those who fail to respond or have severe symptoms, pharmacotherapy can be considered. Methylphenidate is the first-line treatment for children and should be given on a six-week trial basis. Lisdexamfetamine can be used if there is an inadequate response, and dexamfetamine can be started in those who have benefited from lisdexamfetamine but cannot tolerate its side effects. In adults, methylphenidate or lisdexamfetamine are first-line options, with switching between drugs if no benefit is seen after a trial of the other.
All of these drugs have the potential to be cardiotoxic, so a baseline ECG should be performed before starting treatment. Referral to a cardiologist is necessary if there is any significant past medical history or family history, or any doubt or ambiguity. A thorough history and clinical examination are essential for accurate diagnosis, given the overlap of ADHD with many other psychiatric and physical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman visits the clinic after discovering that her partner has been involved in another relationship. She expresses intense anger and reports struggling to concentrate on her upcoming college classes and track competition. She also shares that she is using her anger to fuel her training for the track meet.
What defense mechanism is she displaying?Your Answer: Reaction formation
Correct Answer: Sublimation
Explanation:Understanding Ego Defenses
Ego defenses are psychological mechanisms that individuals use to protect themselves from unpleasant emotions or thoughts. These defenses are classified into four levels, each with its own set of defense mechanisms. The first level, psychotic defenses, is considered pathological as it distorts reality to avoid dealing with it. The second level, immature defenses, includes projection, acting out, and projective identification. The third level, neurotic defenses, has short-term benefits but can lead to problems in the long run. These defenses include repression, rationalization, and regression. The fourth and most advanced level, mature defenses, includes altruism, sublimation, and humor.
Despite the usefulness of understanding ego defenses, their classification and definitions can be inconsistent and frustrating to learn for exams. It is important to note that these defenses are not necessarily good or bad, but rather a natural part of human behavior. By recognizing and understanding our own ego defenses, we can better manage our emotions and thoughts in a healthy way.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 21
Incorrect
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What category of hallucination does Jane experience when she hears someone calling her name while being alone in the house?
Your Answer: Auditory illusion
Correct Answer: Hypnogogic hallucination
Explanation:Types of Hallucinations
Hypnogogic and hypnopompic hallucinations are two types of hallucinations that occur during the sleep cycle. Hypnogogic hallucinations happen when a person is falling asleep and can be auditory, visual, tactile, or kinaesthetic. On the other hand, hypnopompic hallucinations occur when a person is waking up, and the hallucination continues even after the person opens their eyes. These types of hallucinations are not indicative of any psychopathology and can occur in individuals with narcolepsy.
Reflex hallucinations are another type of hallucination that occurs when a true sensory stimulus causes an hallucination in another sensory modality. Autoscopy is a unique experience where an individual sees themselves and knows that it is themselves. This experience is visual and is sometimes referred to as the ‘phantom mirror image.’ Finally, auditory illusions occur when an auditory stimulus is misrepresented or misinterpreted by the listener.
In summary, there are various types of hallucinations that can occur in different stages of the sleep cycle or due to sensory stimuli. While these experiences may seem unusual, they do not necessarily indicate any underlying mental health issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 22
Correct
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A 65-year-old man is having an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy to investigate his dysphagia. He is being given midazolam, a benzodiazepine that enhances activity at the GABA receptor, an inhibitory receptor in the body. What is the ion that flows through the GABA receptor?
Your Answer: Chloride
Explanation:The two types of GABA receptor are GABA-A and GABA-B. GABA-A receptors are ionotropic receptors that function as ligand-gated ion channels. When GABA binds to these receptors, the channel opens and allows ions to pass through. This results in an influx of chloride ions, which reduces the membrane potential and produces sedative effects.
Benzodiazepines are drugs that enhance the effect of the neurotransmitter GABA, which has an inhibitory effect on the brain. This makes them useful for a variety of purposes, including sedation, anxiety relief, muscle relaxation, and as anticonvulsants. However, patients can develop a tolerance and dependence on these drugs, so they should only be prescribed for short periods of time. When withdrawing from benzodiazepines, it is important to do so gradually, reducing the dose every few weeks. If patients withdraw too quickly, they may experience benzodiazepine withdrawal syndrome, which can cause a range of symptoms including insomnia, anxiety, and seizures. Other drugs, such as barbiturates, work in a similar way but have different effects on the duration or frequency of chloride channel opening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 23
Correct
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A 25-year-old female presents to the GP clinic with a one-month history of anhedonia, insomnia, and low mood. The GP prescribes citalopram to alleviate her symptoms. What is the underlying hypothesis for this treatment?
Your Answer: Monoamine hypothesis
Explanation:Patients with moderate depression exhibit elevated cortisol levels. The neurotrophic hypothesis suggests that depression-induced glutamate increase leads to cellular atrophy and reduced BDNF, which typically safeguards neurons. The immunological hypothesis proposes that depression can imitate the sick role by raising inflammatory cytokines and interleukins, such as interferon-alpha and tumor necrosis factor. The psychological hypothesis posits that mood changes stem from dysfunctional core beliefs, which cause cognitive distortions about oneself, others, and the world, forming the foundation of CBT. The monoamine hypothesis suggests that depressed patients have insufficient monoamine levels, which regulate mood. In depression, there is an increased density of MAO-A (metabolizer). Citalopram functions by restricting monoamine reuptake into the presynaptic cell, thereby increasing the monoamine levels available to the postsynaptic receptor, indicating that it operates based on the monoamine hypothesis.
Screening and Assessment of Depression
Depression is a common mental health condition that affects many people worldwide. Screening and assessment are important steps in identifying and managing depression. The screening process involves asking two simple questions to determine if a person is experiencing symptoms of depression. If the answer is yes to either question, a more in-depth assessment is necessary.
Assessment tools such as the Hospital Anxiety and Depression (HAD) scale and the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9) are commonly used to assess the severity of depression. The HAD scale consists of 14 questions, seven for anxiety and seven for depression. Each item is scored from 0-3, producing a score out of 21 for both anxiety and depression. The PHQ-9 asks patients about nine different problems they may have experienced in the last two weeks, which can then be scored from 0-3. This tool also includes questions about thoughts of self-harm.
The DSM-IV criteria are used by NICE to grade depression. This criteria includes nine different symptoms, such as depressed mood, diminished interest or pleasure in activities, and feelings of worthlessness or guilt. The severity of depression can range from subthreshold depressive symptoms to severe depression with or without psychotic symptoms.
In conclusion, screening and assessment are crucial steps in identifying and managing depression. By using tools such as the HAD scale and PHQ-9, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the severity of depression and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 24
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A 63-year-old male with a lengthy history of schizophrenia presents at the clinic. He displays rapid darting movements of his tongue and appears to be grimacing. What is the mechanism of action of the medication that is most likely responsible for his symptoms?
Your Answer: Long term dopamine receptor blockade causing hypersensitivity of dopamine receptors in the nigrostriatal pathway
Explanation:Tardive dyskinesia is a condition that can occur as a result of long-term use of antipsychotic drugs, which is likely in this patient due to his history of mental illness. It is believed that blocking the dopamine receptor can cause hypersensitivity of the D2 receptor in the nigrostriatal pathway, leading to excessive movements.
It should be noted that antiemetic medications that use dopamine antagonism in the chemoreceptor trigger zone are more likely to cause acute dystonias rather than tardive dyskinesia. Additionally, degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra is associated with Parkinson’s disease and would not produce these symptoms. Abrupt withdrawal of dopaminergic agents is also not expected to result in tardive dyskinesia. Finally, carbidopa inhibits the conversion of L-DOPA into dopamine and does not cause tardive dyskinesia.
Antipsychotics are a type of medication used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. However, they are known to cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects can be managed with procyclidine. Other side-effects of typical antipsychotics include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients due to an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 25
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman confides in you that she cannot leave her house without first performing a specific ritual of sanitizing her door handle and washing her hands before and after leaving. She admits that if she deviates from this routine, she becomes extremely anxious and tense. This behavior has been ongoing for two years and is causing her significant distress.
What is the recommended course of treatment for this probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Exposure-response prevention (ERP) therapy
Explanation:Understanding Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition that affects 1 to 2% of the population. It is characterized by the presence of obsessions, which are unwanted intrusive thoughts, images, or urges, and compulsions, which are repetitive behaviors or mental acts that a person feels driven to perform. OCD can cause significant functional impairment and distress.
The causes of OCD are multifactorial, with possible factors including genetics, psychological trauma, and pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorder associated with streptococcal infections (PANDAS). OCD is also associated with other mental health conditions such as depression, schizophrenia, Sydenham’s chorea, Tourette’s syndrome, and anorexia nervosa.
Treatment for OCD depends on the level of functional impairment. For mild impairment, low-intensity psychological treatments such as cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) including exposure and response prevention (ERP) may be sufficient. If this is not effective or the patient cannot engage in psychological therapy, a course of an SSRI or more intensive CBT (including ERP) may be offered. For moderate impairment, a choice of either an SSRI or more intensive CBT (including ERP) may be offered. For severe impairment, combined treatment with an SSRI and CBT (including ERP) may be necessary.
ERP is a psychological method that involves exposing a patient to an anxiety-provoking situation and then stopping them from engaging in their usual safety behavior. This helps them confront their anxiety, and the habituation leads to the eventual extinction of the response. If treatment with an SSRI is effective, it should be continued for at least 12 months to prevent relapse and allow time for improvement. If an SSRI is ineffective or not tolerated, another SSRI may be tried.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 26
Correct
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Sarah, a 25-year-old woman, arrives at the Emergency department after an impulsive overdose of 15 paracetamol tablets and a bottle of vodka. This is her sixth visit to the emergency department with a similar presentation in the past year.
Upon evaluation by the on-call psychiatry doctor, Sarah reveals that she took the pills after a fight with her boyfriend. Further questioning about her background reveals that she was a victim of childhood abuse. Sarah has had multiple intense relationships, but they never seem to last.
Sarah describes herself as feeling empty inside for several months. What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Emotionally unstable personality disorder - borderline type
Explanation:Personality Disorders and their Characteristics
Janet’s behavior suggests that she may have emotionally unstable personality disorder – borderline type. This disorder is characterized by emotional instability, impulsivity, and deliberate attempts at self-harm. Individuals with this disorder often have intense but unstable relationships and feel a chronic sense of emptiness. Traumatic events in childhood may also be a factor.
In contrast, emotionally unstable personality disorder – impulsive type is characterized by explosive outbursts due to poor impulse control. These individuals may be quarrelsome and easily enter into conflict, particularly when their impulsive or explosive acts are interrupted.
Depressive episodes are characterized by low mood and other symptoms such as anhedonia, emotional blunting, changes in appetite and sleep patterns, feelings of guilt, and thoughts of suicide or death. Although Janet has taken an overdose, there are no other indications of a depressive episode in her history. However, a more detailed history may be necessary to determine if she is experiencing these symptoms or any other psychiatric illnesses.
It is important to note that individuals with personality disorders may also suffer from other psychiatric illnesses, known as co-morbidity. Histrionic personality disorder is characterized by shallow and labile affectivity, self-dramatization, theatricality, egocentricity, and a continual need for appreciation, excitement, and attention. Anakastic personality disorder is similar to obsessive-compulsive personality disorder and is characterized by preoccupation with detail, rules, organization, and schedules, which can hinder completion of tasks and relationships.
Overall, the characteristics of different personality disorders can help in identifying and treating individuals who may be struggling with these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 27
Correct
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A teenager presents with the belief that they can fly. This is likely to be a primary delusion.
Which of the following is most commonly associated with this symptom?Your Answer: Schizophrenia
Explanation:Primary delusions are unique in that they cannot be attributed to any previous psychopathological state, such as a mood disorder. Delusions are characterized by an unshakeable, false belief that is not accepted by others in the patient’s culture. The patient perceives no difference between a delusional belief and a true belief.
The correct answer is Schizophrenia, as primary delusions are often observed in this disorder and other psychotic disorders. In contrast, mania and severe depression are more likely to cause secondary delusions that are related to the patient’s underlying mood.
Anorexia nervosa typically does not involve true delusions, but it may involve over-valued ideas that the person becomes preoccupied with.
Understanding Psychosis: Symptoms and Associated Features
Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in a variety of ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. These symptoms can be associated with agitation, aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm.
Psychotic symptoms can occur in a number of conditions, including schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions like Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease, and as a result of prescribed drugs or certain illicit drugs like cannabis and phencyclidine.
The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years. It is important to understand the symptoms and associated features of psychosis in order to recognize and seek appropriate treatment for those experiencing these symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 28
Correct
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A male patient with paranoid schizophrenia is admitted following a relapse in his psychotic symptoms. Upon admission, it is observed that he echoes the nurse's words.
What is the term for this phenomenon of echoing others' words?Your Answer: Echolalia
Explanation:Speech Disorders: Echolalia, Logorrhea, Paragrammatism, Paraphasia, and Verbigeration
Echolalia, logorrhea, paragrammatism, paraphasia, and verbigeration are all speech disorders that can be seen in various psychiatric and neurological conditions. Echolalia is the repetition of words or parts of speech spoken by others, while logorrhea is excessive wordiness with limited content or incomprehensible speech. Paragrammatism is the loss of grammatical coherence in speech, and paraphasia is characterised by the mispronunciation of single words or the combination of words in inappropriate or meaningless ways. Finally, verbigeration is the monotonous repetition of parts of speech.
These speech disorders can be seen in conditions such as schizophrenia, mania, and other organic disorders. these disorders can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat patients more effectively. By identifying the specific speech disorder, appropriate interventions can be implemented to improve communication and overall quality of life for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 29
Correct
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Samantha is a 60-year-old female who is well known to the emergency department due to regular admissions of intoxication and related incidents. The last time she was admitted was because of a fall after a drinking binge, it was later discovered that this was caused by visual impairment and balance issues. Before treatment could be initiated, she self-discharged.
This admission she was found roaming the streets with no clothes on, no idea of how she got there or who she was. Whilst in the department she would constantly ask where she was and when she could home, despite being told numerous times.
Which of the following would you expect to see in this patient?Your Answer: Confabulation
Explanation:Withdrawal from alcohol can lead to hallucinations, often in the form of visual images such as rats or bugs crawling on or around the patient.
Understanding Korsakoff’s Syndrome
Korsakoff’s syndrome is a memory disorder that is commonly observed in individuals who have a history of alcoholism. This condition is caused by a deficiency in thiamine, which leads to damage and haemorrhage in the mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus and the medial thalamus. Korsakoff’s syndrome often follows untreated Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which is another condition caused by thiamine deficiency.
The primary features of Korsakoff’s syndrome include anterograde amnesia, which is the inability to acquire new memories, and retrograde amnesia. Individuals with this condition may also experience confabulation, which is the production of fabricated or distorted memories to fill gaps in their recollection.
Understanding Korsakoff’s syndrome is crucial for individuals who have a history of alcoholism or thiamine deficiency. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent further damage and improve the individual’s quality of life. Proper nutrition and abstinence from alcohol are essential for managing this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 30
Correct
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What are the personality disorders included in Cluster B (the 'dramatic' group) in the DSM?
Your Answer: Antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic
Explanation:Classification of Psychiatric Disorders
Psychiatric disorders are often grouped together based on their similarities, which can be useful for research and classification purposes. The three main clusters are eccentric, dramatic, and fearful. The eccentric cluster includes paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal disorders. The dramatic cluster includes borderline, narcissistic, antisocial, and histrionic disorders. The fearful cluster includes obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent disorders.
The classification of psychiatric disorders follows the operational criteria of either DSM or ICD. DSM-V, published by the American Psychiatric Association, is multi-axial and allows for assessment of the patient’s current mental state diagnosis, personality disorder and learning difficulties, any physical condition, psychosocial or environmental factors, and global assessment of functioning scale. On the other hand, ICD-10, published by the World Health Organization, is used widely in Europe and also includes a multi-axial approach. However, personality disorder is not differentiated from other mental state disorders in ICD. The three axes in ICD are current mental state diagnosis (including personality disorder), disabilities, and contextual factors.
In summary, the classification of psychiatric disorders is important for research and treatment purposes. The three main clusters of disorders are eccentric, dramatic, and fearful. DSM and ICD are the two main operational criteria used for classification, with DSM being multi-axial and including a global assessment of functioning scale, while ICD is also multi-axial but does not differentiate personality disorder from other mental state disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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