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Question 1
Incorrect
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You see a 49-year-old man in your afternoon clinic who has a history of flexural psoriasis. He reports a recent flare-up over the past 2 weeks, with both axillae and groin involvement. The patient is not currently on any treatment and has no known drug allergies.
What would be the most suitable initial therapy for this patient's psoriasis?Your Answer: Potent corticosteroid once daily in combination with a vitamin D analogue (applied separately)
Correct Answer: Mild or moderate potency topical corticosteroid applied once or twice daily
Explanation:For the treatment of flexural psoriasis, the correct option is to use a mild or moderate potency topical corticosteroid applied once or twice daily. This is because the skin in flexural areas is thinner and more sensitive to steroids compared to other areas. The affected areas in flexural psoriasis are the groin, genital region, axillae, inframammary folds, abdominal folds, sacral and gluteal cleft. In this case, the patient has axillary psoriasis, and the treatment should begin with a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid for up to two weeks. If there is a good response, repeated short courses of topical corticosteroids may be used to maintain disease control. Potent topical corticosteroids are not advisable for flexural regions, and the use of Vitamin D preparations is not supported by evidence. If there is ongoing treatment failure, we should consider an alternative diagnosis and refer the patient to a dermatologist who may consider calcineurin inhibitors as a second-line treatment. We should also advise our patients to use emollients regularly and provide appropriate lifestyle advice.
Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.
For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.
When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Correct
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You encounter an 18-year-old student with acne on his face, chest, and shoulders. He presents with papules and pustules accompanied by widespread inflammation. Additionally, he has nodules and scarring on his chin. After diagnosing him with moderate-severe acne, you decide to refer him to dermatology while initiating treatment. Your treatment plan includes prescribing a topical retinoid and an oral antibiotic. What is the first-line antibiotic for acne vulgaris?
Your Answer: Tetracycline
Explanation:Tetracyclines are the preferred oral antibiotics for treating moderate to severe acne vulgaris. This condition is a common reason for patients to visit their GP and can significantly impact their quality of life.
To address this patient’s acne and scarring, it would be appropriate to initiate a topical treatment and prescribe an oral antibiotic. Referral to a dermatologist may also be necessary, but first-line treatment may be effective.
Tetracyclines are the recommended first-line oral antibiotics for acne vulgaris. All tetracyclines are licensed for this indication, and there is no evidence to suggest that one is more effective than another. The choice of specific tetracycline should be based on individual preference and cost.
Tetracycline and oxytetracycline are typically prescribed at a dose of 500 mg twice daily on an empty stomach. Doxycycline and lymecycline are taken once daily and can be taken with food, although doxycycline may cause photosensitivity.
Minocycline is not recommended for acne treatment, and erythromycin is a suitable alternative to tetracyclines if they are contraindicated. The usual dose for erythromycin is 500 mg twice daily.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 28-year-old man has a red lesion that has grown rapidly on the pulp of the left first finger and bleeds easily. There was a history of trauma to that digit 2 weeks previously. Examination showed a pedunculated vascular lesion measuring 10 mm in diameter.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Pyogenic granuloma
Explanation:Rapidly Growing Tumor Following Trauma: Pyogenic Granuloma
A rapidly growing tumor following trauma is most likely a pyogenic granuloma. While amelanotic melanoma can occur on the digits, the rate of growth would not be as rapid. The other lesions in the options are not vascular in appearance. Treatment for pyogenic granuloma would be a shave biopsy and cautery to the base, as excision biopsy may be difficult. A specimen can be sent for histology to ensure it is not an amelanotic melanoma. Recurrence is common and lesions will eventually atrophy, but only a minority will spontaneously involute within six months. A GP minor surgeon can deal with pyogenic granuloma.
Another condition that may occur at the base of the nail is a myxoid cyst. This small cyst contains a gelatinous clear material that may be extruded from time to time. Pressure on the growing nail plate may produce nail deformity. These cysts may communicate with an osteoarthritic distal interphalangeal joint.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 4
Correct
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You have a telephone consultation with an 18-year-old male who has a 6-month history of acne. He has never consulted about this before. He started a university course 3 months ago and thinks that the acne has worsened since then. His older brother had a similar problem and received specialist treatment from a dermatologist.
You review the photo he has sent in and note open and closed comedones on his face with sparse papules. There are no pustules or scarring and no other body areas are affected.
What is the best management option for this likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Benzoyl peroxide gel
Explanation:To prevent bacterial resistance, topical antibiotic lotion should be prescribed in combination with benzoyl peroxide. It may be considered as a treatment option if topical benzoyl peroxide has not been effective. However, it is important to avoid overcleaning the skin as this can cause dryness and irritation. It is also important to note that acne is not caused by poor hygiene. When treating moderate acne, an oral antibiotic should be co-prescribed with benzoyl peroxide or a topical retinoid if topical treatment alone is not effective. Lymecycline and benzoyl peroxide gel should not be used as a first-line treatment, but rather as a second-line option in case of treatment failure with benzoyl peroxide alone.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 25-year-old male comes to the surgery with a chronic issue of excessive sweating in his armpits. Apart from this, he is healthy, but the problem is impacting his self-esteem and social activities. What would be the best course of action for managing this condition?
Your Answer: Topical aluminium chloride
Explanation:Hyperhidrosis is typically treated with topical preparations containing aluminium chloride as the first-line option.
Managing Hyperhidrosis
Hyperhidrosis is a condition characterized by excessive sweating. To manage this condition, there are several options available. The first-line treatment is the use of topical aluminium chloride preparations, which can cause skin irritation as a side effect. Another option is iontophoresis, which is particularly useful for patients with palmar, plantar, and axillary hyperhidrosis. Botulinum toxin is also licensed for axillary symptoms. Surgery, such as endoscopic transthoracic sympathectomy, is another option, but patients should be informed of the risk of compensatory sweating. Overall, there are several management options available for hyperhidrosis, and patients should work with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for their individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 53-year-old man reports to you that a mole on his left forearm has recently become darker, although he believes the size has not changed. Upon examination, you observe an irregularly shaped pigmented lesion measuring 8 mm × 6 mm. The lesion appears mildly inflamed, with some areas darker than others, but there is no discharge. Sensation over the lesion and surrounding skin is normal.
Using the 7-point weighted checklist recommended by the National Institute of Health and Care Excellence (NICE), what is the score of this patient's skin lesion based on the above clinical description?Your Answer: 6
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:The 7-Point Checklist for Detecting Skin Cancer
The 7-point weighted checklist is a tool used by clinicians to identify suspicious skin lesions that may be cancerous. It comprises three major features, including a change in size, irregular shape, and irregular colour, as well as four minor features, such as inflammation and oozing. Major features score 2 points each, while minor features score 1 point each. Lesions scoring 3 or more points are considered suspicious and should be referred for further evaluation, even if the score is less than 3.
The incidence of malignant melanoma is increasing rapidly, particularly among young people, and early detection is crucial for successful treatment. High-risk patients include those with fair skin, freckling or light hair, users of sunbeds, atypical or dysplastic naevi, a family history of melanoma, and a history of blistering sunburn. Clinicians should also offer safe sun advice and encourage patients to seek medical attention if they have any concerns.
The 7-point checklist can be found in the NICE referral guidelines for suspected cancer and is an important tool for detecting skin cancer early. By being aware of the risk factors and using this checklist, clinicians can help to improve outcomes for patients with skin cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 7
Correct
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Each of the following is linked to hypertrichosis, except for which one?
Your Answer: Porphyria cutanea tarda
Explanation:Hypertrichosis is the result of Porphyria cutanea tarda, not hirsutism.
Understanding Hirsutism and Hypertrichosis
Hirsutism is a term used to describe excessive hair growth in women that is dependent on androgens, while hypertrichosis refers to hair growth that is not androgen-dependent. Polycystic ovarian syndrome is the most common cause of hirsutism, but other factors such as Cushing’s syndrome, obesity, and certain medications can also contribute to this condition. To assess hirsutism, the Ferriman-Gallwey scoring system is often used, which assigns scores to nine different body areas. Management of hirsutism may involve weight loss, cosmetic techniques, or the use of oral contraceptive pills or topical medications.
Hypertrichosis, on the other hand, can be caused by a variety of factors such as certain medications, congenital conditions, and even anorexia nervosa. It is important to identify the underlying cause of excessive hair growth in order to determine the most appropriate treatment approach. By understanding the differences between hirsutism and hypertrichosis, individuals can better manage these conditions and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 8
Correct
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An 80-year-old woman has been consulting with the practice nurse for a few weeks about a leg ulcer on her right leg that doesn't seem to be healing despite multiple rounds of antibiotics. You schedule some Doppler tests, which reveal an ankle: brachial pressure index (ABPI) of 0.4 in the affected leg and 0.8 in the other leg. A wound swab indicates the presence of coliforms. What is the most probable diagnosis from the options provided?
Your Answer: Arterial insufficiency
Explanation:Understanding the Ankle-Brachial Pressure Index (ABPI) and its Role in Diagnosing Peripheral Arterial Disease
The ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is a crucial diagnostic tool for identifying peripheral arterial disease. By comparing the systolic blood pressure at the ankle to the brachial artery pressure, doctors can determine if there is lower blood pressure in the leg, which is a sign of arterial disease. To measure the ABPI, a Doppler ultrasound blood flow detector and a sphygmomanometer are used to detect the artery pulse in the brachial and dorsalis pedis or posterior tibial arteries.
A normal ABPI falls between 0.9 and 1.2, while a value below 0.9 indicates arterial disease. An ABPI of 1.3 or greater is considered abnormal and suggests severe arterial disease. In cases where the ABPI is below 0.5, the disease is considered severe. It’s important to note that an ulcer with a normal ABPI is most likely a venous ulcer.
While coliforms are common commensals in leg ulcers and typically don’t require treatment, failure of any ulcer to heal should raise concerns about the possibility of a squamous cell carcinoma. Vasculitis typically doesn’t affect the ABPI unless it’s a large vessel vasculitis, such as polyarteritis nodosa, which would be apparent. Understanding the ABPI and its role in diagnosing peripheral arterial disease is crucial for effective treatment and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 9
Correct
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You are assessing a 28-year-old woman who has chronic plaque psoriasis. Despite trying various combinations of potent corticosteroids, vitamin D analogues, coal tar and dithranol over the past two years, she has seen limited improvement. Light therapy was attempted last year but the psoriasis returned within a month. The patient is feeling increasingly discouraged, especially after a recent relationship breakdown. As per NICE guidelines, what is a necessary requirement before considering systemic therapy for this patient?
Your Answer: It has a significant impact on physical, psychological or social wellbeing
Explanation:Referral Criteria for Psoriasis Patients
Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that affects a significant number of people. According to NICE guidelines, around 60% of psoriasis patients will require referral to secondary care at some point. The guidance provides some general criteria for referral, including diagnostic uncertainty, severe or extensive psoriasis, inability to control psoriasis with topical therapy, and major functional or cosmetic impact on nail disease. Additionally, any type of psoriasis that has a significant impact on a person’s physical, psychological, or social wellbeing should also be referred to a specialist. Children and young people with any type of psoriasis should be referred to a specialist at presentation.
For patients with erythroderma or generalised pustular psoriasis, same-day referral is recommended. erythroderma is characterized by a generalised erythematous rash, while generalised pustular psoriasis is marked by extensive exfoliation. These conditions require immediate attention due to their severity. Overall, it is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the referral criteria for psoriasis patients to ensure that they receive appropriate care and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old patient presents to her GP with a rash on her anterior thighs that has developed over the past 3 weeks. She reports that the rash is not painful or itchy but is concerned as it doesn't blanch with the 'glass test'. The patient mentions having flu-like symptoms recently and has been spending most of her time in her chair with blankets and a hot water bottle on her lap.
During the examination, the GP observes a well-defined area of mottled erythema that appears net-like across the patient's anterior thighs. The area is non-tender and non-blanching.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this lesion?Your Answer: Pressure ulcers
Correct Answer: Erythema ab igne
Explanation:The most probable cause of the patient’s skin discoloration is erythema ab igne, which is caused by excessive exposure to infrared radiation from heat sources such as hot water bottles or open fires. The patient’s history of repeated exposure to a heat source and the demarcated area on her legs where she used a hot water bottle support this diagnosis. Erythema ab igne is characterized by a reticulated area of hyperpigmentation or erythema with telangiectasia, and treatment involves removing the heat source to prevent the development of squamous cell carcinoma.
Meningococcal septicaemia, which causes a purpuric rash, is unlikely in this case as the patient has had the rash for three weeks, and it is a late sign of the condition. Additionally, meningitis and meningococcal septicaemia are more common in children, particularly under 5s, although they can occur in adults.
Pressure ulcers, which occur due to restricted blood flow from pressure on tissue, are less likely in this case as they typically form on the posterior aspect of the legs, and the reticulated pattern of the lesion doesn’t match with a pressure ulcer.
Psoriasis, a chronic autoimmune skin disorder characterized by itchy, raised pink or red lesions with silvery scaling, is not consistent with the patient’s history and symptoms.
Erythema ab igne: A Skin Disorder Caused by Infrared Radiation
Erythema ab igne is a skin condition that occurs due to prolonged exposure to infrared radiation. It is characterized by the appearance of erythematous patches with hyperpigmentation and telangiectasia in a reticulated pattern. This condition is commonly observed in elderly women who sit close to open fires for extended periods.
If left untreated, erythema ab igne can lead to the development of squamous cell skin cancer. Therefore, it is essential to identify and treat the underlying cause of the condition. Patients should avoid prolonged exposure to infrared radiation and seek medical attention if they notice any changes in their skin.
In conclusion, erythema ab igne is a skin disorder that can have serious consequences if left untreated. It is important to take preventive measures and seek medical attention if any symptoms are observed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Correct
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You saw a 9-year-old girl accompanied by her dad at the GP surgery with a one-day history of itchy rash on her ears. She is normally healthy and doesn't take any regular medication. On examination, you notice small blisters on the outer rims of her ear which causes mild discomfort on palpation. The rest of the skin appears normal. What is the most suitable initial treatment for this condition?
Your Answer: Emollient
Explanation:Emollients, potent topical steroids, and avoiding strong direct sunlight are effective treatments for juvenile spring eruption. Antihistamines can also be used to alleviate itching. Infection is not a known factor in this condition, which is associated with UV light exposure. In more severe cases or when there is widespread polymorphic light eruption, oral steroids and phototherapy may be necessary.
Understanding Juvenile Spring Eruption
Juvenile spring eruption is a skin condition that occurs as a result of sun exposure. It is a type of polymorphic light eruption (PLE) that causes itchy red bumps on the light-exposed parts of the ears, which can turn into blisters and crusts. This condition is more common in boys aged between 5-14 years, and it is less common in females due to increased amounts of hair covering the ears.
The main cause of juvenile spring eruption is sun-induced allergy rash, which is more likely to occur in the springtime. Some patients may also have PLE elsewhere on the body, and there is an increased incidence in cold weather. The diagnosis of this condition is usually made based on clinical presentation, and no clinical tests are required in most cases. However, in aggressive cases, lupus should be ruled out by ANA and ENA blood tests.
The management of juvenile spring eruption involves providing patient education on sun exposure and the use of sunscreen and hats. Topical treatments such as emollients or calamine lotion can be used to provide relief, and antihistamines can help with itch relief at night-time. In more serious cases, oral steroids such as prednisolone can be used, as well as immune-system suppressants.
In conclusion, understanding juvenile spring eruption is important for proper diagnosis and management. By taking preventative measures and seeking appropriate treatment, patients can manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman, who is typically healthy, presents with a pruritic rash. She is currently pregnant with twins at 32/40 gestation and this is her first pregnancy. The rash initially appeared on her abdomen and has predominantly affected her stretch marks. Upon examination, she displays urticarial papules with some plaques concentrated on the abdomen, while the umbilical area remains unaffected. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pemphigoid gestationis
Correct Answer: Polymorphic eruption of pregnancy
Explanation:The cause of itch during pregnancy can be identified by observing the timing of symptoms and the appearance of the rash. Polymorphic eruption of pregnancy is a common condition that usually occurs in the third trimester and is more likely to affect first-time pregnant women with excessive weight gain or multiple pregnancies. The rash is characterized by itchy urticarial papules that merge into plaques and typically starts on the abdomen, particularly on the striae, but not on the umbilicus region. The rash may remain localized, spread to the buttocks and thighs, or become widespread and generalized. It may later progress to non-urticated erythema, eczematous lesions, and vesicles, but not bullae.
Skin Disorders Associated with Pregnancy
During pregnancy, women may experience various skin disorders. The most common skin disorder found in pregnancy is atopic eruption, which presents as an itchy red rash. However, no specific treatment is needed for this condition. Another skin disorder is polymorphic eruption, which is a pruritic condition associated with the last trimester. Lesions often first appear in abdominal striae, and management depends on severity. Emollients, mild potency topical steroids, and oral steroids may be used. Pemphigoid gestationis is another skin disorder that presents as pruritic blistering lesions. It often develops in the peri-umbilical region, later spreading to the trunk, back, buttocks, and arms. This disorder usually presents in the second or third trimester and is rarely seen in the first pregnancy. Oral corticosteroids are usually required for treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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You are evaluating an 80-year-old woman who has had varicose veins for a long time. She has recently noticed some darkening of the skin on both lower legs along with some dryness, but no pain or other symptoms. Her routine blood tests, including HbA1c, were normal. On examination, you observe mild pigmentation and dry skin on both lower legs, but normal distal pulses and warm feet. There are no indications of DVT. Your diagnosis is venous eczema. As per current NICE guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer: Topical potent steroid cream
Correct Answer: Referral to vascular service
Explanation:Patients who have developed skin changes due to varicose veins, such as pigmentation and eczema, should be referred to secondary care.
Understanding Varicose Veins
Varicose veins are enlarged and twisted veins that occur when the valves in the veins become weak or damaged, causing blood to flow backward and pool in the veins. They are most commonly found in the legs and can be caused by various factors such as age, gender, pregnancy, obesity, and genetics. While many people seek treatment for cosmetic reasons, others may experience symptoms such as aching, throbbing, and itching. In severe cases, varicose veins can lead to skin changes, bleeding, superficial thrombophlebitis, and venous ulceration.
To diagnose varicose veins, a venous duplex ultrasound is typically performed to detect retrograde venous flow. Treatment options vary depending on the severity of the condition. Conservative treatments such as leg elevation, weight loss, regular exercise, and compression stockings may be recommended for mild cases. However, patients with significant or troublesome symptoms, skin changes, or a history of bleeding or ulcers may require referral to a specialist for further evaluation and treatment. Possible treatments include endothermal ablation, foam sclerotherapy, or surgery.
In summary, varicose veins are a common condition that can cause discomfort and cosmetic concerns. While many cases do not require intervention, it is important to seek medical attention if symptoms or complications arise. With proper diagnosis and treatment, patients can manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old female student presents with generalised pruritus of six weeks duration.
She has little other history of note and has otherwise been well. This itching has deteriorated over this time and is particularly worse at night. She has been unaware of any rashes and denies taking any prescribed drugs. There is no history of atopy.
She shares a flat with her boyfriend and drinks approximately 12 units per week and smokes cannabis occasionally.
On examination, there is little of note except there are some scratch marks over the shoulders and back and she has some erythema between the fingers. Otherwise cardiovascular, respiratory and abdominal examination is normal.
Which of the following therapies would be most appropriate treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Permethrin cream
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Understanding Scabies: Symptoms and Treatment
Scabies is a highly contagious disease caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which is commonly found in sexually active individuals. The disease is characterized by generalised pruritus, and it is important to carefully examine the finger spaces for burrows.
The most effective treatments for scabies include permethrin cream, topical benzyl benzoate, and malathion. While permethrin cream doesn’t directly alleviate pruritus, it helps to kill the mite, which is the root cause of the disease. Patients should be advised that it may take some time for the itching to subside as the allergic reaction to the mite abates. Additionally, it is important to apply the cream to all areas below the neck, not just where the rash is present.
In summary, scabies is a highly contagious disease that can cause significant discomfort. However, with proper treatment and care, patients can effectively manage their symptoms and prevent the spread of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents with widespread erythema and scaling of the skin to the extent that nearly the whole of the skin surface is involved.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ichthyosis
Correct Answer: Erythroderma
Explanation:Erythroderma is a condition where the skin becomes red all over the body, affecting at least 90% of the skin surface. It can occur suddenly or gradually and is often accompanied by skin peeling. The cause can be related to various skin disorders, including eczema, drug reactions, and cancer. Psoriasis is the most common cause in adults. Patients with erythroderma should be hospitalized as it can lead to fever, heart failure, and dehydration. Asteatotic eczema is a type of eczema that causes dry, itchy, and cracked skin, usually on the shins of elderly patients. Atopic eczema is a chronic inflammatory skin disease that often starts in infancy and is associated with high levels of immunoglobulin E. Ichthyosis is a condition where the skin is persistently scaly and can be congenital or acquired. Toxic epidermal necrolysis is a severe skin disorder that can be life-threatening and is often caused by drug reactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 65-year-old man presents with a 5-month history of toenail thickening and lifting with discoloration on 2 of his 5 toes on his left foot. He is in good health and has no other medical issues. He is eager to receive treatment as it is causing discomfort when he walks.
Upon examination, you determine that he has an obvious fungal toenail infection on his 2nd and 5th toenails of his left foot and proceed to take some nail clippings.
After a week, you receive the mycology results which confirm the presence of Trichophyton rubrum.
What is the most suitable course of treatment?Your Answer: Oral terbinafine
Explanation:When it comes to dermatophyte nail infections, the preferred treatment is oral terbinafine, especially when caused by Trichophyton rubrum, which is a common organism responsible for such infections. It is important to note that not treating the infection is not an option, especially when the patient is experiencing symptoms such as pain while walking. Oral itraconazole may be more appropriate for Candida infections or as a second-line treatment for dermatophyte infections. Amorolfine nail lacquer is not recommended according to NICE CKS guidelines if more than two nails are affected.
Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.
The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.
Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 28-year-old man who is living in a hostel complains of a 2-week history of intense itching. Papules and burrows can be seen between his fingers.
What is the most appropriate treatment?Your Answer: Permethrin 5% preparation
Explanation:Treatment Options for Scabies and Head Lice
Scabies is a skin condition characterized by intense itching and visible burrows in the finger webs. The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, which should be applied to all household members and followed by washing of bedding and towels. If permethrin cannot be used due to allergy, malathion 0.5% aqueous solution can be used as a second-line treatment. Benzyl benzoate 25% emulsion is an older treatment for scabies and has been replaced by more effective methods.
On the other hand, head lice can be treated with permethrin 1%, which is not strong enough for scabies treatment. It is important to note that ivermectin 200 µg/kg orally is only used for crusted scabies, which causes a generalized rash with lots of scale. Topical permethrin remains the ideal treatment for scabies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 18
Correct
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John is a 44-year-old man who presents to your clinic with a complaint of a severely itchy rash on his wrist that appeared suddenly a few weeks ago. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications.
Upon examination of the flexor aspect of John's left wrist, you observe multiple 3-5 mm shiny flat-topped papules that are violet in color. Upon closer inspection, you notice white streaks on the surface of the papules. There are no other affected skin areas, and no oromucosal changes are present.
What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient, given the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: A potent topical steroid such as betamethasone valerate 0.1%
Explanation:Lichen planus is typically treated with potent topical steroids as a first-line treatment, especially for managing the itching caused by the rash. While this condition can occur at any age, it is more common in middle-aged individuals. Mild topical steroids are not as effective as potent ones in treating the rash. Referral to a dermatologist and skin biopsy may be necessary if there is diagnostic uncertainty, but in this case, it is not required. Severe or widespread lichen planus may require oral steroids, and if there is little improvement, narrow band UVB therapy may be considered as a second-line treatment.
Lichen planus is a skin condition that has an unknown cause, but is believed to be related to the immune system. It is characterized by an itchy rash that appears as small bumps on the palms, soles, genital area, and inner surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive pattern of white lines on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon. Oral involvement is common, with around 50% of patients experiencing a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes, such as thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging, may also occur.
Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, including gold, quinine, and thiazides. Treatment for lichen planus typically involves the use of potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more severe cases, oral steroids or immunosuppressive medications may be necessary. Overall, lichen planus can be a challenging condition to manage, but with proper treatment, symptoms can be controlled and quality of life can be improved.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which of the following antibiotics is most commonly linked to the onset of Stevens-Johnson syndrome?
Your Answer: Gentamicin
Correct Answer: Co-trimoxazole
Explanation:Understanding Stevens-Johnson Syndrome
Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe reaction that affects the skin and mucosa, and is usually caused by a drug reaction. It was previously thought to be a severe form of erythema multiforme, but is now considered a separate entity. The condition can be caused by drugs such as penicillin, sulphonamides, lamotrigine, carbamazepine, phenytoin, allopurinol, NSAIDs, and oral contraceptive pills.
The rash associated with Stevens-Johnson syndrome is typically maculopapular, with target lesions being characteristic. It may develop into vesicles or bullae, and the Nikolsky sign is positive in erythematous areas, meaning that blisters and erosions appear when the skin is rubbed gently. Mucosal involvement and systemic symptoms such as fever and arthralgia may also occur.
Hospital admission is required for supportive treatment of Stevens-Johnson syndrome. It is important to identify and discontinue the causative drug, and to manage the symptoms of the condition. With prompt and appropriate treatment, the prognosis for Stevens-Johnson syndrome can be good.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 62-year-old woman presents with pruritus vulvae. On examination, there are white thickened shiny patches on the labia minora. There is no abnormal vaginal discharge. The patient reports intense itching.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Lichen sclerosus
Explanation:Dermatological Conditions of the Anogenital Region
Lichen sclerosus is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that commonly affects the anogenital region in women and the glans penis and foreskin in men. It presents as white thickened or crinkled patches that can be extremely itchy or sore and may bruise or ulcerate due to friction. Adhesions or scarring can occur in the vulva or foreskin.
Psoriasis, on the other hand, forms well-demarcated plaques that are bright red and lacking in scale in the flexures. Candidiasis of the groins and vulval area presents with an erythematous inflammatory element and inflamed satellite lesions.
Vitiligo, characterized by the loss of pigment, doesn’t cause itching and is an unlikely diagnosis for this patient. Vulval carcinoma, which involves tumour formation and ulceration, is also not present in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 65-year-old man presented with a small lump on his temple that is shiny with visible telangiectasiae and is gradually increasing in size.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Basal cell carcinoma
Explanation:Skin Tumours: Types, Symptoms, and Management
Skin tumours are abnormal growths of skin cells that can be benign or malignant. Basal cell carcinomas are the most common malignant skin tumour, usually caused by excessive sun exposure in early life and previous sunburn. They often present as a slow-growing nodule or papule that forms an ulcer with a raised ‘rolled’ edge. Basal cell carcinomas grow slowly and rarely metastasise.
Low-risk basal cell carcinomas can be managed in primary care if the GP meets the requirements to perform skin surgery. A specialist referral is appropriate for most people with a suspicious skin lesion, and urgent referral is necessary if there is a concern that a delay may have a significant impact.
Squamous cell carcinomas have a crusted or ulcerated surface, while seborrhoeic warts have a warty pigmented surface appearance. Lentigo maligna is a melanoma in situ that progresses slowly and can remain non-invasive for years. In amelanotic melanoma, the colour may be pink, red, purple, or the colour of normal skin, and growth is likely to be rapid with a poor prognosis.
In conclusion, early detection and management of skin tumours are crucial for better outcomes. Regular skin checks and seeking medical advice for any suspicious skin lesion are recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 25-year-old single man comes to the GP with a severe psoriatic type rash on the palmar surface of his hands and the soles of his feet. He has recently returned from a trip to Thailand.
He also reports experiencing conjunctivitis, joint pains, and a rash on his penis.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Rash on Soles and Palms: Possible Causes
A rash on the soles and palms can be a symptom of various conditions, including reactive arthritis (Reiter’s), syphilis, psoriasis (excluding guttate form), eczema (pompholyx), and erythema multiforme. Palmoplantar psoriasis may also present as a pustular form, while athlete’s foot can be caused by Trichophyton rubrum.
In this particular case, the symptoms are most consistent with reactive arthritis, which can be associated with sexually transmitted infections or bacterial gastroenteritis. The fact that the patient recently traveled to Ibiza raises the possibility of a sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old man with psoriasis is seeking a review of his skin and topical treatments. He has recently been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and prescribed warfarin. Which of the following topical treatments, as per the British National Formulary, is most likely to interfere with his anticoagulation and should be excluded?
Your Answer: Daktacort (miconazole and hydrocortisone)
Correct Answer: Eumovate (clobetasone butyrate)
Explanation:Resources for Further Reading on Miconazole and Warfarin Interaction
The following links offer valuable resources for those seeking more information on the interaction between miconazole and warfarin. It is important to note that even non-oral preparations of miconazole can greatly affect the International Normalized Ratio (INR) in individuals taking warfarin. Therefore, caution should be exercised when using these medications together. To learn more about this topic, please refer to the following resources.
– Link 1: [insert link]
– Link 2: [insert link]
– Link 3: [insert link] -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 24
Correct
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You see a 3-year-old boy who has presented with a high fever.
He was first seen almost two weeks ago by a colleague and diagnosed with a viral upper respiratory tract infection and given simple advice. His parents have brought him back today as his fever doesn't seem to be settling and they have noticed that his eyes have become irritated and his lips are very red and have cracked.
On examination, the child has a temperature of 38.1°C and has dry fissured lips. There is an obvious widespread polymorphous skin rash present. Examination of the mouth reveals pharyngeal injection and a prominent red tongue. Significant cervical lymphadenopathy and conjunctival inflammation is noted. There is palmar erythema bilaterally and his hands and feet appear puffy with peeling of the skin of the fingers and toes.
Which of the following is a complication of this condition?Your Answer: Coronary artery aneurysms
Explanation:Kawasaki’s Disease: A Rare but Serious Condition in Children
Kawasaki’s disease (KD) is a rare but serious condition that primarily affects children between 6 months to 4 years old. The exact cause of KD is unknown, but it is believed to be caused by a bacterial toxin acting as a superantigen similar to staphylococcal and streptococcal toxic shock syndromes.
The hallmark symptom of KD is a sustained fever lasting more than five days, accompanied by cervical lymphadenopathy, conjunctival infection, rash, mucous membrane signs (such as dry fissured lips, red ‘strawberry’ tongue, and pharyngeal injection), and erythematous and oedematous hands and feet with subsequent peeling of the fingers and toes.
It is crucial to make a clinical diagnosis of KD as about a third of those affected may develop coronary artery involvement, which can lead to the formation of coronary artery aneurysms. Early treatment with intravenous immunoglobulin within the first 10 days can help reduce the risk of this complication. Aspirin is also an important treatment in this condition, used to reduce the risk of thrombosis.
In conclusion, KD is a rare but serious condition that can have severe consequences if not diagnosed and treated promptly. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the symptoms and to consider KD in children presenting with a prolonged fever and other associated symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 56-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a rash. During the examination, the doctor observes multiple distinct purple papules on the patient's forearms. The papules have thin white lines visible on them. The patient reports that the lesions are extremely itchy but not painful and wants to know if there is any treatment available to alleviate the symptoms. What is the best course of action for managing this condition?
Your Answer: Topical steroids
Explanation:The first-line treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids.
This statement accurately reflects the recommended treatment for lichen planus, which is a rash characterized by itchy purple polygonal papules with white lines known as Wickham’s striae. While the condition can persist for up to 18 months, topical steroids are typically effective in relieving symptoms. Oral steroids may be necessary in severe cases, but are not typically used as a first-line treatment. No treatment is not recommended, as the symptoms can be distressing for patients. Topical retinoids are not indicated for lichen planus, as they are used for acne vulgaris.
Lichen planus is a skin condition that has an unknown cause, but is believed to be related to the immune system. It is characterized by an itchy rash that appears as small bumps on the palms, soles, genital area, and inner surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive pattern of white lines on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon. Oral involvement is common, with around 50% of patients experiencing a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes, such as thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging, may also occur.
Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, including gold, quinine, and thiazides. Treatment for lichen planus typically involves the use of potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more severe cases, oral steroids or immunosuppressive medications may be necessary. Overall, lichen planus can be a challenging condition to manage, but with proper treatment, symptoms can be controlled and quality of life can be improved.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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In what year was the shingles vaccination added to the routine immunisation schedule, and at what age is it typically administered?
Your Answer: Age 70 and 80
Correct Answer: Age 70
Explanation:The recommended age for receiving the shingles vaccine is 70, with only one dose required. Shingles is more prevalent and can have severe consequences for individuals over the age of 70, with a mortality rate of 1 in 1000.
Varicella-Zoster Vaccination: Protection Against Chickenpox and Shingles
Varicella-zoster is a herpesvirus that causes Chickenpox and shingles. There are two types of vaccines available to protect against these infections. The first type is a live attenuated vaccine that prevents primary varicella infection or Chickenpox. This vaccine is recommended for healthcare workers who are not immune to VZV and for individuals who are in close contact with immunocompromised patients.
The second type of vaccine is designed to reduce the incidence of herpes zoster or shingles caused by reactivation of VZV. This live-attenuated vaccine is given subcutaneously and is offered to patients aged 70-79 years. The vaccine is also available as a catch-up campaign for those who missed out on their vaccinations in the previous two years of the program. However, the shingles vaccine is not available on the NHS to anyone aged 80 and over because it seems to be less effective in this age group.
The main contraindication for both vaccines is immunosuppression. Side effects of the vaccines include injection site reactions, and less than 1 in 10,000 individuals may develop Chickenpox. It is important to note that vaccination is the most effective way to prevent varicella-zoster infections and their complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 27
Correct
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An obese 57-year-old man presents with a discharge from under the foreskin and a sore penis. There are small, red erosions on the glans, and the foreskin is also swollen and red. He denies any recent sexual contact. He is otherwise fit and well and doesn't take any regular medications.
Which condition is most likely to have led to these signs and symptoms?Your Answer: Diabetes mellitus
Explanation:Causes of Balanitis and their Risk Factors
Balanitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the glans penis. There are several causes of balanitis, and identifying the underlying cause is crucial for effective treatment. Here are some of the common causes of balanitis and their associated risk factors:
Diabetes Mellitus: Diabetes is the most common underlying condition associated with adult balanitis, especially if the blood sugar is poorly controlled. It predisposes the patient to a bacterial or candida infection. Obesity is also a risk factor for underlying diabetes.
Human Immunodeficiency Virus Infection: While immunosuppression (such as secondary to HIV infection) predisposes to balanitis, there are no indications that he is at risk of HIV.
Contact Dermatitis: Contact or irritant dermatitis is a cause of balanitis; however, there are no risk factors described. Common causes of contact dermatitis balanitis include condoms, soap, and poor hygiene.
Syphilis: Syphilis is a cause of infective balanitis; however, it is not the most common cause and is unlikely in a patient who denies recent sexual contact.
Trichomonas: Although a cause of infective balanitis, trichomonas is not the most common cause and is unlikely in a patient who denies recent sexual contact.
In conclusion, identifying the underlying cause of balanitis is crucial for effective treatment. Diabetes, HIV infection, contact dermatitis, syphilis, and trichomonas are some of the common causes of balanitis, and their associated risk factors should be considered during diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You are asked by one of your practice nurses to see a new health care support worker at the practice who has become unwell. She is a young adult and has just put on a pair of latex gloves to assist the nurse with a procedure. Immediately after putting the gloves on she has developed diffuse itch and widespread urticaria is present. She has some mild angioedema and a slight wheeze is audible.
Which of the following describes this scenario?Your Answer: Type I allergic reaction
Correct Answer: Type II allergic reaction
Explanation:Allergic Reactions to Natural Rubber Latex
Natural rubber latex (NRL) is commonly found in healthcare products, including gloves. However, NRL proteins can cause a type I immediate hypersensitivity allergic reaction, which can be severe. In addition, some products made with NRL may contain chemical additives that cause an irritant contact dermatitis, resulting in localized skin irritation. This is not an allergic response to NRL.
Another type of allergic reaction, a type IV allergic contact dermatitis, can occur due to sensitization to the chemical additives used in NRL gloves. This type of reaction may take months or even years to develop, but once sensitized, symptoms usually occur within 10-24 hours of exposure and can worsen over a 72 hour period. It is important for healthcare workers and patients to be aware of the potential for allergic reactions to NRL and to take appropriate precautions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 55-year-old patient presents with abdominal symptoms and also requests that you examine a skin lesion on their shoulder. The patient reports having noticed the lesion for a few years and that it has slowly been increasing in size. They mention having worked as a builder and property developer, resulting in significant sun exposure. On examination, you note an irregular pale red patch on the right shoulder measuring 6x4mm. The lesion has a slightly raised 'rolled' pearly edge and a small eroded area in the center. There is no surrounding inflammation, and the lesion doesn't feel indurated.
What is your plan for managing this patient's skin lesion?Your Answer: Routine referral to dermatology
Explanation:When a superficial basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is suspected, it is recommended to make a standard referral. This presentation is typical of BCC, which usually grows slowly and hardly ever spreads to other parts of the body. Dermatology referral is necessary in such cases. While Efudix and cryotherapy may be used as substitutes for excision in treating superficial BCC, it is important to seek the guidance of a dermatologist.
Understanding Basal Cell Carcinoma
Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is a type of skin cancer that is commonly found in the Western world. It is characterized by slow growth and local invasion, with metastases being extremely rare. Lesions are also known as rodent ulcers and are typically found on sun-exposed areas, particularly on the head and neck. The most common type of BCC is nodular BCC, which initially appears as a pearly, flesh-colored papule with telangiectasia. As it progresses, it may ulcerate, leaving a central crater.
If a BCC is suspected, a routine referral should be made. There are several management options available, including surgical removal, curettage, cryotherapy, topical cream such as imiquimod or fluorouracil, and radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman presents with multiple flat pustules on the soles of her feet, accompanied by several flat brown lesions. These are scattered on a background of erythema and scaling.
What would be the most suitable course of action? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer: Calcipotriol + betamethasone
Correct Answer: Betamethasone ointment
Explanation:Treatment Options for Palmoplantar Pustulosis
Palmoplantar pustulosis is a skin condition that is linked to psoriasis and is more common in women over 50. It is characterized by erythematous skin with yellow pustules that settle to form brown macules on the palms and soles of the hands and feet. Here are some treatment options for this condition:
Betamethasone Ointment: This is a potent topical steroid that is effective in treating palmoplantar pustulosis.
Calcipotriol + Betamethasone: While the steroid component would be beneficial, calcipotriol is not used to treat palmoplantar pustulosis, which is where the management differs from plaque psoriasis.
Barrier Cream: A barrier cream is used to create a barrier between the skin and a potential irritant, so is useful in conditions such as contact dermatitis. Palmoplantar pustulosis is not caused by an irritant, so this would not be helpful.
Flucloxacillin Capsules: There is no indication that this is a bacterial infection, so there would be no role for antibiotics in this patient’s management.
Terbinafine Cream: A fungal infection would not cause pustules, so there is no indication for using an antifungal treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old female comes to the clinic from her nursing home with an atypical rash on her arms and legs. The rash appeared after starting furosemide for her mild ankle swelling. Upon examination, there are multiple tense lesions filled with fluid, measuring 1-2 cm in diameter on her arms and legs. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pemphigoid
Correct Answer: Erythema multiforme
Explanation:Pemphigoid: A Skin Condition Caused by Furosemide
Pemphigoid is a skin condition that typically affects elderly individuals, presenting as tense blisters on the arms and legs. In some cases, it can be caused by the use of furosemide, a diuretic medication. While other diuretics can also cause pemphigoid, it is a rarer occurrence.
A positive immunofluorescence test can confirm the diagnosis, and treatment typically involves the use of steroids. It is important to differentiate pemphigoid from pemphigus, which presents in younger age groups and causes flaccid blisters that easily erupt and leave widespread lesions.
Overall, recognizing the signs and causes of pemphigoid is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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How would you characterize an individual with asteatotic eczema?
Your Answer: A 63-year-old female with a past history of deep vein thrombosis and venous insufficiency complains of dry skin on the medial aspect of the lower legs which has developed a red-brown discolouration
Correct Answer: An 90-year-old female who has developed cracked fissured skin on her lower legs with a 'crazy-paving' appearance
Explanation:Types of Eczema and Asteatotic Eczema in Elderly Patients
There are various types of eczema, each with its own unique characteristics and triggers. Atopic eczema is common in children, while pompholyx affects middle-aged women and discoid eczema is more prevalent in older men. Varicose eczema is often seen in individuals with poor circulation, and asteatotic eczema is a common condition in elderly patients.
Asteatotic eczema is caused by a lack of epidermal lubrication, which can be exacerbated by factors such as over-washing, inadequate soap removal, diuretic use, and dry air with low humidity. This condition is characterized by dry, cracked skin with a crazy-paving appearance. Treatment involves addressing any underlying triggers and using topical emollients and steroids to soothe and moisturize the affected area. With proper care, asteatotic eczema can be effectively managed in elderly patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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As a teacher, you are educating a parent on the application of topical steroids for their adolescent with atopic eczema. The parent has come across the concept of fingertip Units (FTU) for measuring the amount of steroid to use. Can you explain what 1 FTU represents?
Your Answer: Sufficient to treat a skin area about 5 * 5 cm (2 * 2 inches)
Correct Answer: Sufficient to treat a skin area about twice that of the flat of an adult hand
Explanation:The measurement for steroids using the fingertip unit (FTU) is equivalent to twice the area of an adult hand’s flat surface.
Topical Steroids for Eczema Treatment
Eczema is a common skin condition that causes red, itchy, and inflamed skin. Topical steroids are often used to treat eczema, but it is important to use the weakest steroid cream that effectively controls the patient’s symptoms. The potency of topical steroids varies, and the table below shows the different types of topical steroids by potency.
To determine the appropriate amount of topical steroid to use, the fingertip rule can be applied. One fingertip unit (FTU) is equivalent to 0.5 g and is sufficient to treat an area of skin about twice the size of an adult hand. The table also provides the recommended number of FTUs per dose for different areas of the body.
The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends specific quantities of topical steroids to be prescribed for a single daily application for two weeks. The recommended amounts vary depending on the area of the body being treated.
In summary, when using topical steroids for eczema treatment, it is important to use the weakest steroid cream that effectively controls symptoms and to follow the recommended amounts for each area of the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 34
Correct
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A 67-year-old woman comes to see her GP with concerns about some small spots on her shoulder. She reports seeing small lesions with several tiny blood vessels emanating from the center. During the examination, you can press on them, causing them to turn white and then refill from the middle.
What is the condition associated with this type of lesion?Your Answer: Liver failure
Explanation:When differentiating between spider naevi and telangiectasia, it is important to note that spider naevi fill from the centre when pressed, while telangiectasia fill from the edge. A woman presenting with a small lesion surrounded by tiny blood vessels radiating from the middle that refills from the centre is likely to have a spider naevus. This condition is commonly associated with liver failure, making it the most likely diagnosis.
Understanding Spider Naevi
Spider naevi, also known as spider angiomas, are characterized by a central red papule surrounded by capillaries. These lesions can be found on the upper part of the body and blanch upon pressure. Spider naevi are more common in childhood, with around 10-15% of people having one or more of these lesions.
To differentiate spider naevi from telangiectasia, one can press on the lesion and observe how it fills. Spider naevi fill from the center, while telangiectasia fills from the edge.
Spider naevi can also be associated with liver disease, pregnancy, and the use of combined oral contraceptive pills. It is important to understand the characteristics and associations of spider naevi for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 35
Correct
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Which of the following is least commonly associated with acanthosis nigricans?
Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Explanation:Acanthosis nigricans is a condition characterized by the presence of brown, velvety plaques that are symmetrical and commonly found on the neck, axilla, and groin. This condition can be caused by various factors such as type 2 diabetes mellitus, gastrointestinal cancer, obesity, polycystic ovarian syndrome, acromegaly, Cushing’s disease, hypothyroidism, familial factors, Prader-Willi syndrome, and certain drugs like the combined oral contraceptive pill and nicotinic acid.
The pathophysiology of acanthosis nigricans involves insulin resistance, which leads to hyperinsulinemia. This, in turn, stimulates the proliferation of keratinocytes and dermal fibroblasts through interaction with insulin-like growth factor receptor-1 (IGFR1). This process results in the formation of the characteristic brown, velvety plaques seen in acanthosis nigricans. Understanding the underlying mechanisms of this condition is crucial in its diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 36
Correct
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An 72-year-old woman contacts her doctor suspecting shingles. The rash started about 48 hours ago and is localized to the T4 dermatome on her right trunk. It is accompanied by pain and blistering. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and is currently on metformin, canagliflozin, and atorvastatin. After confirming the diagnosis of shingles through photo review, the doctor prescribes aciclovir. What measures can be taken to prevent post-herpetic neuralgia in this patient?
Your Answer: Antiviral treatment
Explanation:Antiviral therapy, such as aciclovir, can effectively reduce the severity and duration of shingles. It can also lower the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia, especially in older patients. However, for antivirals to be effective, they must be administered within 72 hours of rash onset.
Individuals with chronic diseases such as diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease, inflammatory bowel disease, asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, rheumatoid arthritis, autoimmune diseases, and immunosuppressive conditions like HIV are at a higher risk of developing post-herpetic neuralgia.
Older patients, particularly those over 50 years old, are also at an increased risk of developing post-herpetic neuralgia. However, the relationship between gender and post-herpetic neuralgia is still unclear, with some studies suggesting that females are at a higher risk, while others indicate the opposite or no association.
Unfortunately, having a shingles rash on either the trunk or face is associated with an increased risk of post-herpetic neuralgia, not a reduced risk.
Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The diagnosis is usually clinical and management includes analgesia, antivirals, and reminding patients they are potentially infectious. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, herpes zoster ophthalmicus, and herpes zoster oticus. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old male presents with a widespread skin rash. He had a coryzal illness and a sore throat last week, which has now improved. The rash has spread extensively, but it is not itchy. On examination, you observe erythematous 'tear drop' shape, scaly plaques covering his whole torso and upper legs. You estimate that guttate psoriasis covers 25 percent of the patient's total body surface area. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this case?
Your Answer: Prescribe topical corticosteroids
Correct Answer: Refer urgently to dermatology for phototherapy
Explanation:Referral is the most appropriate option if the psoriatic lesions are widespread and affecting a large area of the patient’s body. However, if the lesions are not widespread, reassurance may be a reasonable management option as they may self-resolve in 3-4 months. In cases where the psoriatic lesions are not widespread, treatment similar to that used for trunk and limb psoriasis can be applied, including the use of topical steroids, emollients, and vitamin D analogues.
Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that is more commonly seen in children and adolescents. It is often triggered by a streptococcal infection that occurred 2-4 weeks prior to the appearance of the lesions. The condition is characterized by the presence of tear drop-shaped papules on the trunk and limbs, along with pink, scaly patches or plaques of psoriasis. The onset of guttate psoriasis tends to be acute, occurring over a few days.
In most cases, guttate psoriasis resolves on its own within 2-3 months. There is no clear evidence to support the use of antibiotics to treat streptococcal infections associated with the condition. Treatment options for guttate psoriasis include topical agents commonly used for psoriasis and UVB phototherapy. In cases where the condition recurs, a tonsillectomy may be necessary.
It is important to differentiate guttate psoriasis from pityriasis rosea, which is another skin condition that can present with similar symptoms. Guttate psoriasis is typically preceded by a streptococcal sore throat, while pityriasis rosea may be associated with recent respiratory tract infections. The appearance of guttate psoriasis is characterized by tear drop-shaped, scaly papules on the trunk and limbs, while pityriasis rosea presents with a herald patch followed by multiple erythematous, slightly raised oval lesions with a fine scale. Pityriasis rosea is self-limiting and resolves after around 6 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 38
Correct
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A 55-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease and psoriasis presents with a significant worsening of his plaque psoriasis on his elbows and knees over the past two weeks. His medications have been recently altered at the cardiology clinic. Which medication is most likely to have exacerbated his psoriasis?
Your Answer: Atenolol
Explanation:Plaque psoriasis is known to worsen with the use of beta-blockers.
Psoriasis can be worsened by various factors, including trauma, alcohol consumption, and certain medications such as beta blockers, lithium, antimalarials (chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine), NSAIDs, ACE inhibitors, and infliximab. Additionally, the sudden withdrawal of systemic steroids can also exacerbate psoriasis symptoms. It is important to note that streptococcal infection can trigger guttate psoriasis, a type of psoriasis characterized by small, drop-like lesions on the skin. Therefore, individuals with psoriasis should be aware of these exacerbating factors and take steps to avoid or manage them as needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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How many milligrams of corticosteroid cream are present in a single 'fingertip unit'?
Your Answer: 1 mg
Correct Answer: 10 mg
Explanation:How to Measure the Amount of Topical Corticosteroids to Apply
Topical corticosteroids are commonly used to treat skin conditions such as eczema and psoriasis. It is important to apply the cream or ointment in the correct amount to ensure effective treatment and avoid side effects. The length of cream or ointment expelled from a tube can be used to specify the quantity to be applied to a given area of skin. This length can be measured in terms of a fingertip unit (ftu), which is the distance from the tip of the adult index finger to the first crease. One fingertip unit (approximately 500 mg or 0.5 g) is sufficient to cover an area that is twice that of the flat adult hand (palm and fingers together).
It is important to spread the corticosteroid thinly on the skin but in sufficient quantity to cover the affected areas. The amount of cream or ointment used should not be confused with potency, as one gram of a potent steroid is the same in terms of mass as one gram of a mild steroid. Potency doesn’t come into play when measuring the amount of cream to use. If you need to make an educated guess, think about the units. One milligram is an exceptionally small amount and is unlikely to represent a fingertip unit. By using the fingertip unit measurement, you can ensure that you are applying the correct amount of topical corticosteroid for effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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Working in the minor injury unit on bonfire night, you see a 7-year-old girl with a burn from a sparkler on her forearm.
Select from the list the single statement regarding the management of burns that is correct.Your Answer: Burns should be treated immediately with an ice pack
Correct Answer: Full thickness burns are associated with loss of sensation on palpation of the affected area
Explanation:Management of Burn Injuries
Burn injuries can cause thermal damage and inflammation, which can be reduced by cooling the affected area with water at 15oC. However, ice-cold water should be avoided as it can cause vasospasm and further ischaemia. Sensation and capillary refill should be assessed at initial presentation, as full thickness burns are insensitive. Silver sulfadiazine has not been proven to prevent infection. Epidermal burns are characterized by erythema, while larger or awkwardly positioned blisters should be aspirated under aseptic technique to prevent bursting and infection. De-roofing blisters should not be routinely done.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 41
Correct
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A 48-year-old male with a history of dermatomyositis secondary to small cell lung cancer presents with roughened red papules on the extensor surfaces of his fingers. What is the medical term for these lesions?
Your Answer: Gottron's papules
Explanation:Dermatomyositis is characterized by the presence of roughened red papules, known as Gottron’s papules, on the extensor surfaces. Osteoarthritis is associated with the development of Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes. Aschoff nodules are a definitive sign of rheumatic fever.
Understanding Dermatomyositis
Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and weakness in the muscles, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying malignancies. Patients with dermatomyositis may experience symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness, and photosensitive skin rashes. The skin lesions may include a macular rash over the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash in the periorbital region, Gottron’s papules, and mechanic’s hands. Other symptoms may include Raynaud’s, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease, dysphagia, and dysphonia.
To diagnose dermatomyositis, doctors may perform various tests, including screening for underlying malignancies. The majority of patients with dermatomyositis are ANA positive, and around 30% have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, such as anti-synthetase antibodies, antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.
In summary, dermatomyositis is a condition that affects both the muscles and skin. It can be associated with other disorders or malignancies, and patients may experience a range of symptoms. Proper diagnosis and management are essential for improving outcomes and quality of life for those with dermatomyositis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man comes to you with concerns about several scaly patches on his scalp. He mentions that they are not causing him any discomfort. Upon examination, you observe numerous rough scaly lesions on his sun-damaged skin, accompanied by extensive erythema and telangiectasia.
What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5-fluorouracil cream
Explanation:Topical diclofenac can be utilized to treat mild actinic keratoses in this individual.
Actinic keratoses, also known as solar keratoses, are skin lesions that develop due to prolonged exposure to the sun. These lesions are typically small, crusty, and scaly, and can appear in various colors such as pink, red, brown, or the same color as the skin. They are commonly found on sun-exposed areas like the temples of the head, and multiple lesions may be present.
To manage actinic keratoses, prevention of further risk is crucial, such as avoiding sun exposure and using sun cream. Treatment options include a 2 to 3 week course of fluorouracil cream, which may cause redness and inflammation. Topical hydrocortisone may be given to help settle the inflammation. Topical diclofenac is another option for mild AKs, with moderate efficacy and fewer side-effects. Topical imiquimod has shown good efficacy in trials. Cryotherapy and curettage and cautery are also available as treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old patient complains of toe-nail problems. She has been experiencing discoloration of her left great toe for the past 6 weeks. The patient is seeking treatment as it is causing her significant embarrassment. Upon examination, there is a yellowish discoloration on the medial left great toe with nail thickening and mild onycholysis.
What would be the most suitable course of action in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Take nail sample for laboratory testing
Explanation:Before prescribing any treatment, laboratory testing should confirm the presence of a fungal nail infection. Although it is likely that the patient’s symptoms are due to onychomycosis, other conditions such as psoriasis should be ruled out. Oral terbinafine would be a suitable treatment option if the test confirms a fungal infection. However, topical antifungal treatments are generally not ideal for nail infections. A topical corticosteroid is not appropriate for treating a fungal nail infection, but may be considered if the test reveals no fungal involvement and there are signs of an inflammatory dermatosis like psoriasis. While taking a nail sample is necessary, antifungal treatment should not be initiated until the fungal cause is confirmed. This is because different nail conditions can have similar appearances, and starting treatment without confirmation would not be beneficial.
Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.
The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.
Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with a complaint of a 'facial rash'. Upon examination, you note a blotchy, brownish pigmentation on both cheeks. She reports starting the combined oral contraceptive a few months ago and believes that her skin began to develop the pigmentation after starting the pill. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chloasma
Explanation:Chloasma, also known as melasma, is a skin condition characterized by brown pigmentation that typically develops across the cheeks. It is more common in women and in people with darker skin, and commonly presents between the ages of 30-40. Hormonal contraceptives, pregnancy, sun exposure, and certain cosmetics are well-documented triggers for developing the condition.
It is important to note that other conditions can cause facial rashes, but they would not fit into the description of chloasma. Acne rosacea causes papules and pustules, as well as facial flushing. Dermatomyositis causes a heliotrope rash across the face, eyelids, and light-exposed areas. Perioral dermatitis, also known as muzzle rash, causes papules that are usually seen around the mouth. Seborrhoeic dermatitis causes a scaling, flaky rash.
Overall, chloasma is a common skin condition that can be triggered by hormonal changes and sun exposure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents with complaints of persistent dandruff and greasy skin. He has observed a pink skin lesion with scaling along his hairline and has previously experienced similar symptoms under his eyebrows. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis
Explanation:Identifying Seborrhoeic Dermatitis: A Comparison with Other Skin Conditions
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a common skin condition that produces a scaled rash. However, it can be difficult to distinguish from other skin conditions that also produce scaling lesions. Here, we compare seborrhoeic dermatitis with psoriasis, atopic eczema, folliculitis, and tinea capitis to help identify the key features of each condition.
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is characterized by a poorly defined rash, greasy skin, and a specific distribution pattern. Psoriasis, on the other hand, produces well-defined plaques and doesn’t typically involve greasy skin. Atopic eczema produces dry, scaling skin and often affects flexural sites, whereas folliculitis is inflammation of the hair follicles and doesn’t typically involve greasy skin. Tinea capitis, which causes hair loss and scaling of the skin, is less likely in this case as there is no hair loss present.
By comparing the key features of each condition, it becomes clear that the greasy skin and distribution pattern make seborrhoeic dermatitis the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 65 year-old-gentleman with varicose veins has tried conservative management options, but these have led to little improvement. Other than aching in his legs, he is otherwise well. An ABPI was measured at 0.7.
Which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Class 2 compression stockings
Explanation:Understanding ABPI and Compression Stockings
When a patient is found to have an ABPI of 0.7, it is likely that they have other symptoms of arterial insufficiency. An ABPI less than 0.8 indicates severe arterial insufficiency, while an ABPI greater than 1.3 may be due to calcified and incompressible arteries. It is important to note that compression stockings are contraindicated in patients with ABPIs less than 0.8 or greater than 1.3.
The class of stocking used is not based on the ABPI, but rather the condition being treated. Closed toe stockings are generally used, but open toe stockings may be necessary if the patient has arthritic or clawed toes, has a fungal infection, prefers to wear a sock over the compression stocking, or has a long foot size compared with their calf size. Understanding ABPI and the appropriate use of compression stockings can help improve patient outcomes and prevent potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with a pigmented skin lesion on her back that has grown quickly over the past few months. She has a history of frequent sunbed use. The lesion measures 9.5 mm in diameter. She is referred to Dermatology, where a diagnosis of malignant melanoma is confirmed.
What characteristic of the lesion would indicate the worst prognosis for this disease?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Breslow thickness > 3 mm
Explanation:Prognostic Factors for Malignant Melanoma
Malignant melanoma is a type of skin cancer that can be staged based on several prognostic factors. The Breslow thickness, measured in millimetres from the dermo-epidermal junction, is a key factor. A thickness greater than 3.5 mm is associated with a poor prognosis, while a thickness less than 1.5 mm has a 5-year survival rate of over 90%. The diameter of the melanoma, however, has not been found to be a significant factor.
Clarke’s level is another important factor, measured from I to IV based on the level of invasion through the dermis. A Clarke’s level of I indicates that the melanoma has not invaded past the basement membrane, which is associated with a better outcome for the patient.
Microsatellite metastases, which are cutaneous metastases around the primary melanoma, can increase the TNM staging score and result in a worse prognosis. Therefore, the lack of microsatellite metastasis is a positive prognostic factor.
Surface ulceration, or the presence of an open sore on the skin, is a poor prognostic indicator and is accounted for in TNM scoring. The absence of surface ulceration is a positive factor for the patient’s prognosis.
Overall, these factors can help predict the prognosis for patients with malignant melanoma and guide treatment decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man has developed small, well differentiated, scaly salmon-pink papules affecting his trunk, arms, and thighs over the past month. He has some mild itching but is otherwise well. He last presented to the surgery two months ago with tonsillitis.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Guttate psoriasis
Explanation:Distinguishing Guttate Psoriasis from Other Skin Conditions: A Clinical Analysis
Guttate psoriasis is a skin condition that often appears 7-10 days after a streptococcal infection. It is characterized by numerous teardrop-shaped lesions on the trunk and proximal limbs, which are red and covered with a fine scale. While the scale may be less evident in the early stages, the lesions typically resolve on their own after 2-3 months.
When diagnosing guttate psoriasis, it is important to consider other skin conditions that may present with similar symptoms. Atopic eczema, for example, is less well differentiated than psoriasis lesions and may not have a history of a preceding sore throat. A delayed hypersensitivity reaction to amoxicillin would typically result in skin reactions that resolve spontaneously and would not last for a month. Lichen planus, an autoimmune condition, causes shiny papules without scale and is characterized by Whickham’s striae, which are white lines on the surface of the skin. Pityriasis rosea, another skin condition that causes a widespread rash with scale and well-defined edges, may also be considered but is less likely if there is a history of a preceding sore throat.
In summary, a thorough clinical analysis is necessary to distinguish guttate psoriasis from other skin conditions with similar symptoms. A careful consideration of the patient’s medical history and physical examination can help clinicians arrive at an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man presents with a lesion on the right side of his nose that has been gradually increasing in size over the past few months. Upon examination, you notice a raised, circular, flesh-colored lesion with a central depression. The edges of the lesion are rolled and contain some telangiectasia.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Basal cell carcinoma
Explanation:A basal cell carcinoma is a commonly observed type of skin cancer.
Understanding Basal Cell Carcinoma
Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is a type of skin cancer that is commonly found in the Western world. It is characterized by slow growth and local invasion, with metastases being extremely rare. Lesions are also known as rodent ulcers and are typically found on sun-exposed areas, particularly on the head and neck. The most common type of BCC is nodular BCC, which initially appears as a pearly, flesh-colored papule with telangiectasia. As it progresses, it may ulcerate, leaving a central crater.
If a BCC is suspected, a routine referral should be made. There are several management options available, including surgical removal, curettage, cryotherapy, topical cream such as imiquimod or fluorouracil, and radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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You are examining a 3-month-old infant and observe a patch of blotchy skin on the back of the neck. The irregular, smooth pink patch measures around 3 cm in diameter and is not palpable. The parents mention that it becomes more noticeable when the baby cries. What is the probable diagnosis for this skin lesion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Salmon patch
Explanation:Understanding Salmon Patches in Newborns
Salmon patches, also known as stork marks or stork bites, are a type of birthmark that can be found in approximately 50% of newborn babies. These marks are characterized by their pink and blotchy appearance and are commonly found on the forehead, eyelids, and nape of the neck. While they may cause concern for new parents, salmon patches typically fade over the course of a few months. However, marks on the neck may persist. These birthmarks are caused by an overgrowth of blood vessels and are completely harmless. It is important for parents to understand that salmon patches are a common occurrence in newborns and do not require any medical treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man visits his GP urgently due to a recent increase in his INR levels. He has been on Warfarin for a decade and has consistently maintained an INR reading between 2 and 3. However, his most recent blood test showed an INR of 6.2. He reports receiving a topical medication for a facial rash at a walk-in centre two weeks ago.
What is the most probable treatment that led to the elevation in his INR?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mupirocin
Explanation:Miconazole Oral Gel and Warfarin Interaction
Miconazole oral gel, commonly known as Daktarin, is often used to treat candidal infections of the mouth and face. However, it can interact with the anticoagulant drug warfarin, which is metabolized by the CYP2C9 enzyme. Miconazole inhibits this enzyme, leading to increased levels of warfarin in the bloodstream and potentially causing bleeding. Other antimicrobial agents like Aciclovir, Clotrimazole, Fucidin, and Mupirocin can be used to treat infected rashes on the face, but they do not have significant interactions with warfarin. As a core competence of clinical management, safe prescribing and medicines management approaches should include awareness of common drug interactions, especially those that can affect patient safety when taking warfarin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old girl presents to you with concerns about her acne on her face, chest, and upper back. She is feeling self-conscious about it, especially after her boyfriend made some comments about her skin. She has been using a combination of topical benzoyl peroxide and antibiotics for the past few months.
Upon examination, you note the presence of comedones, papules, and pustules, but no nodules or cysts. There is no scarring.
What is the recommended first-line treatment for her acne at this stage?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lymecycline
Explanation:Since the topical preparation did not work for the patient, the next step would be to try an oral antibiotic. The recommended first-line options are lymecycline, oxytetracycline, tetracycline, or doxycycline. Lymecycline is preferred as it only needs to be taken once a day, which can improve the patient’s adherence to the treatment.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 53
Incorrect
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You see a pediatric patient with a suspected fungal skin infection but the appearance is atypical and so you want to send skin samples for fungal microscopy and culture.
Which of the following forms part of best practice with regards the sample?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The patient should be informed that microscopy and culture results should be available within 1-2 days
Explanation:Obtaining Skin Samples for Fungal Microscopy and Culture
To obtain skin samples for fungal microscopy and culture, it is recommended to scrape the skin from the advancing edge of the lesion(s) using a blunt scalpel blade. This area typically provides a higher yield of dermatophyte. It is important to obtain at least 5 mm2 of skin flakes, which should be placed into folded dark paper and secured with a paperclip. Alternatively, commercially available packs can be used.
The sample should be kept at room temperature as dermatophytes are inhibited at low temperatures. Microscopy results typically take 1-2 days, while culture results take 2-3 weeks. By following these steps, accurate and timely results can be obtained for the diagnosis and treatment of fungal infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old obese woman had a deep venous thrombosis several years ago. She has an ulcer over the left medial malleolus with fibrosis and purpura of the surrounding skin.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A venous ulcer
Explanation:Understanding Venous Leg Ulcers: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options
Venous leg ulcers are a common condition in the UK, accounting for approximately 3% of new cases seen in dermatological clinics. These ulcers are more prevalent in patients who are obese, have a history of varicose veins, or have experienced deep vein thrombosis. The underlying cause of venous leg ulcers is venous stasis, which leads to an increase in capillary pressure, fibrin deposits, and poor oxygenation of the skin. This, in turn, can result in poorly nourished skin and minor trauma, leading to ulceration.
Treatment for venous leg ulcers focuses on reducing exudates and promoting healing using dressings such as Granuflex® or Sorbisan®. Compression bandaging is the primary treatment option, and preventive therapy may include weight loss, wearing support stockings, or surgical treatment of varicose veins.
It is important to note that other conditions may present with similar symptoms, such as absent pulses, widespread purpura on the legs, injury, or diabetes. Therefore, a proper diagnosis is crucial to ensure appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 55
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the least probable cause of a bullous rash?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lichen planus
Explanation:The bullous form of lichen planus is an exceptionally uncommon occurrence.
Bullous Disorders: Causes and Types
Bullous disorders are characterized by the formation of fluid-filled blisters or bullae on the skin. These can be caused by a variety of factors, including congenital conditions like epidermolysis bullosa, autoimmune diseases like bullous pemphigoid and pemphigus, insect bites, trauma or friction, and certain medications such as barbiturates and furosemide.
Epidermolysis bullosa is a rare genetic disorder that affects the skin’s ability to adhere to the underlying tissue, leading to the formation of blisters and sores. Autoimmune bullous disorders occur when the immune system mistakenly attacks proteins in the skin, causing blistering and inflammation. Insect bites can also cause bullae to form, as can trauma or friction from activities like sports or manual labor.
Certain medications can also cause bullous disorders as a side effect. Barbiturates, for example, have been known to cause blistering and skin rashes in some people. Furosemide, a diuretic used to treat high blood pressure and edema, can also cause bullae to form in some cases.
Overall, bullous disorders can be caused by a variety of factors and can range from mild to severe. Treatment options depend on the underlying cause and may include medications, wound care, and lifestyle modifications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent comes in for a routine check-up. During a thorough skin examination, a darkly pigmented macule is observed on the palmar side of his left index finger. The lesion measures approximately 4 mm in size and displays poorly defined, irregular borders with an irregular pigment network on dermoscopy. No other pigmented lesions are detected on the patient. He has never noticed it before and is uncertain if it is evolving.
What is the probable diagnosis in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acral lentiginous melanoma
Explanation:The patient’s atypical lesion, with three of the five following characteristics, suggests a diagnosis of melanoma. The most common subtype in this patient population is acral lentiginous melanoma, which can occur in areas not exposed to the sun, such as the soles of the feet and palms.
It is unlikely that the lesion is an acquired or congenital naevus. New-onset pigmented lesions in patients over 50 should always be referred to a dermatologist for assessment. Congenital naevi are present at birth and the patient would have a long history with them.
Nodular melanoma is less likely in this case, as it typically presents as dark papules on sun-exposed areas of skin in the Caucasian population.
While superficial spreading melanoma is a possibility, a dark-skinned patient with a lesion on the palmar hand or soles of the feet is more likely to have acral lentiginous melanoma.
Malignant melanoma is a type of skin cancer that has four main subtypes: superficial spreading, nodular, lentigo maligna, and acral lentiginous. Nodular melanoma is the most aggressive, while the other forms spread more slowly. Superficial spreading melanoma typically affects young people on sun-exposed areas such as the arms, legs, back, and chest. Nodular melanoma appears as a red or black lump that bleeds or oozes and affects middle-aged people. Lentigo maligna affects chronically sun-exposed skin in older people, while acral lentiginous melanoma appears on nails, palms, or soles in people with darker skin pigmentation. Other rare forms of melanoma include desmoplastic melanoma, amelanotic melanoma, and melanoma arising in other parts of the body such as ocular melanoma.
The main diagnostic features of melanoma are changes in size, shape, and color. Secondary features include a diameter of 7mm or more, inflammation, oozing or bleeding, and altered sensation. Suspicious lesions should undergo excision biopsy, and the lesion should be completely removed to facilitate subsequent histopathological assessment. Once the diagnosis is confirmed, the pathology report should be reviewed to determine whether further re-excision of margins is required. The margins of excision are related to Breslow thickness, with lesions 0-1 mm thick requiring a margin of 1 cm, lesions 1-2 mm thick requiring a margin of 1-2 cm (depending on site and pathological features), lesions 2-4mm thick requiring a margin of 2-3 cm (depending on site and pathological features), and lesions over 4mm thick requiring a margin of 3 cm. Further treatments such as sentinel lymph node mapping, isolated limb perfusion, and block dissection of regional lymph node groups should be selectively applied.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has a history of depression and is currently taking citalopram. Despite returning from a recent trip to Italy, she complains of feeling constantly fatigued. During the examination, you notice a slightly raised red rash on the bridge of her nose and cheeks. Although she reports having stiff joints, there is no evidence of arthritis. You order some basic blood tests:
Hb 12.5 g/dl
Platelets 135 * 109/l
WBC 3.5 * 109/l
Na+ 140 mmol/l
K+ 4.2 mmol/l
Urea 3.2 mmol/l
Creatinine 80 µmol/l
Free T4 11.8 pmol/l
TSH 1.30 mu/l
CRP 8 mg/l
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus
Explanation:The presence of a malar rash, arthralgia, lethargy, and a history of mental health issues suggest a possible diagnosis of SLE. It is important to note that the CRP levels are usually within normal range in SLE, unlike the ESR.
Understanding Systemic Lupus Erythematosus: A Multisystem Autoimmune Disorder
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a complex autoimmune disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. It typically develops in early adulthood and is more common in women and individuals of Afro-Caribbean descent. The condition is characterized by a range of symptoms, including fatigue, fever, mouth ulcers, and lymphadenopathy.
SLE can also affect the skin, causing a malar (butterfly) rash that spares the nasolabial folds, as well as a discoid rash that is scaly, erythematous, and well-demarcated in sun-exposed areas. Other skin symptoms may include photosensitivity, Raynaud’s phenomenon, livedo reticularis, and non-scarring alopecia.
Musculoskeletal symptoms of SLE may include arthralgia and non-erosive arthritis, while cardiovascular symptoms may include pericarditis and myocarditis. Respiratory symptoms may include pleurisy and fibrosing alveolitis, and renal symptoms may include proteinuria and glomerulonephritis, with diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis being the most common type.
Finally, neuropsychiatric symptoms of SLE may include anxiety and depression, psychosis, and seizures. Overall, SLE is a complex and challenging condition that requires careful management and ongoing support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female presents with tender, erythematous nodules over her thighs. Blood tests reveal:
Calcium 2.78 mmol/l
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythema nodosum
Explanation:Understanding Erythema Nodosum
Erythema nodosum is a condition characterized by inflammation of the subcutaneous fat, resulting in tender, erythematous, nodular lesions. These lesions typically occur over the shins but may also appear on other parts of the body, such as the forearms and thighs. Fortunately, erythema nodosum usually resolves within six weeks, and the lesions heal without scarring.
There are several potential causes of erythema nodosum. Infections such as streptococci, tuberculosis, and brucellosis can trigger the condition. Systemic diseases like sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, and Behcet’s syndrome may also be responsible. In some cases, erythema nodosum may be linked to malignancy or lymphoma. Certain drugs, including penicillins, sulphonamides, and the combined oral contraceptive pill, as well as pregnancy, can also cause erythema nodosum.
Overall, understanding the potential causes of erythema nodosum can help individuals recognize the condition and seek appropriate treatment. While the condition can be uncomfortable, it typically resolves on its own within a few weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old patient complains of pruritic lesions on the soles of their feet that have persisted for the last two months. Upon examination, small blisters are observed, accompanied by dry and cracked skin in the surrounding area. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pompholyx
Explanation:Understanding Pompholyx Eczema
Pompholyx eczema, also known as dyshidrotic eczema, is a type of skin condition that affects both the hands and feet. It is often triggered by humidity and high temperatures, such as sweating. The main symptom of pompholyx eczema is the appearance of small blisters on the palms and soles, which can be intensely itchy and sometimes accompanied by a burning sensation. Once the blisters burst, the skin may become dry and crack.
To manage pompholyx eczema, cool compresses and emollients can be used to soothe the affected areas. Topical steroids may also be prescribed to reduce inflammation and itching. It is important to avoid further irritation of the skin by avoiding triggers such as excessive sweating and using gentle, fragrance-free products. With proper management, the symptoms of pompholyx eczema can be controlled and minimized.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 60
Incorrect
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During a 4-week baby check, you observe a flat, pink-colored, vascular skin lesion measuring 30x20mm over the baby's nape. The lesion blanches on pressure and has been present since birth without any significant changes. The baby is developing normally. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Salmon patch
Explanation:Salmon patches are a type of birthmark caused by excess blood vessels, but they typically go away on their own. If a person has a flat birthmark that was present from birth, it could only be a port-wine stain or a salmon patch. Salmon patches are more common and often appear as a pink discoloration on the back of the neck. Atopic dermatitis, a type of eczema, doesn’t appear at birth but may develop later in life, often on the neck and other areas that bend. Strawberry birthmarks, on the other hand, usually appear shortly after birth and are raised above the skin’s surface. They can either disappear, shrink, or remain the same over time.
Understanding Salmon Patches in Newborns
Salmon patches, also known as stork marks or stork bites, are a type of birthmark that can be found in approximately 50% of newborn babies. These marks are characterized by their pink and blotchy appearance and are commonly found on the forehead, eyelids, and nape of the neck. While they may cause concern for new parents, salmon patches typically fade over the course of a few months. However, marks on the neck may persist. These birthmarks are caused by an overgrowth of blood vessels and are completely harmless. It is important for parents to understand that salmon patches are a common occurrence in newborns and do not require any medical treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents for follow-up. He underwent ileostomy surgery six years ago, which has been successful until recently. He is currently experiencing significant pain in the area around the stoma site. Upon examination, a deep erythematous ulcer with a ragged edge is observed, along with swollen and erythematous surrounding skin. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum
Explanation:Pyoderma gangrenosum, which can be observed around the stoma site, is linked to inflammatory bowel disease. Surgery is not recommended as it may exacerbate the condition, and immunosuppressants are typically used for treatment. It is important to consider malignancy as a possible alternative diagnosis, and lesions should be referred to a specialist for evaluation and potential biopsy. While irritant contact dermatitis is a common occurrence, it is unlikely to result in such a profound ulcer.
Understanding Pyoderma Gangrenosum
Pyoderma gangrenosum is a rare inflammatory disorder that causes painful skin ulceration. While it can affect any part of the skin, it is most commonly found on the lower legs. This condition is classified as a neutrophilic dermatosis, which means that it is characterized by the infiltration of neutrophils in the affected tissue. The exact cause of pyoderma gangrenosum is unknown in 50% of cases, but it can be associated with inflammatory bowel disease, rheumatological conditions, haematological disorders, and other conditions.
The initial symptoms of pyoderma gangrenosum may start suddenly with a small pustule, red bump, or blood-blister. The skin then breaks down, resulting in an ulcer that is often painful. The edge of the ulcer is typically described as purple, violaceous, and undermined. The ulcer itself may be deep and necrotic and may be accompanied by systemic symptoms such as fever and myalgia. Diagnosis is often made by the characteristic appearance, associations with other diseases, the presence of pathergy, histology results, and ruling out other causes of an ulcer.
Treatment for pyoderma gangrenosum typically involves oral steroids as first-line therapy due to the potential for rapid progression. Other immunosuppressive therapies, such as ciclosporin and infliximab, may be used in difficult cases. It is important to note that any surgery should be postponed until the disease process is controlled on immunosuppression to avoid worsening the condition. Understanding pyoderma gangrenosum and its potential causes and treatments can help patients and healthcare providers manage this rare and painful condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old obese woman presents with a leg ulcer. This followed a superficial traumatic abrasion a month ago that never healed. She has a past history of ischaemic heart disease. Examination reveals a 5cm ulcer over the left shin; it is superficial with an irregular border and slough in the base. There is mild pitting oedema and haemosiderin deposition bilaterally on the legs. The ipsilateral foot pulses are weakly palpable.
Which diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Venous ulcer
Explanation:Differentiating Venous Ulcers from Other Types of Leg Ulcers
Venous leg ulcers are a common type of leg ulcer in the UK, accounting for around 3% of all new cases attending dermatology clinics. These ulcers are typically large and superficial, and are accompanied by signs of chronic venous insufficiency. This condition leads to venous stasis and increased capillary pressure, resulting in secondary skin changes whose mechanisms are not well understood. Predisposing factors to venous insufficiency include obesity, history of varicose veins, leg trauma, and deep vein thrombosis.
In contrast, arterial ulcers are typically small and punched out, occurring most commonly over a bony prominence such as a malleolus or on the toes. Bowen’s disease, a form of squamous cell carcinoma in situ, commonly occurs on the legs in women but would not reach a size of 5cm in only a month. Neuropathic ulcers, on the other hand, occur on the feet in the context of peripheral neuropathy. Vasculitic ulcers are also a possibility, but there are no clues in the history or findings to suggest their presence.
To differentiate venous ulcers from other types of leg ulcers, it is important to look for corroborating signs of chronic venous insufficiency, such as peripheral edema, venous eczema, haemosiderin deposition, lipodermatosclerosis, and atrophie blanche. Workup should include measurement of the ankle brachial pressure indices (ABPIs) to exclude coexistent arterial disease. If the ABPIs are satisfactory, the cornerstone of management is compression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male presents for follow-up. He has a medical history of acne and is currently taking oral lymecycline. Despite treatment, there has been no improvement and upon examination, scarring is evident on his face. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Referral for oral isotretinoin
Explanation:Referral for oral retinoin is recommended for patients with scarring.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman comes to your clinic after noticing that a mole on the side of her neck has recently grown. Upon examination, you observe an irregularly shaped lesion with variable pigmentation and a diameter of 7 mm.
What would be the best course of action for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassess in two weeks
Explanation:Urgent Referral Needed for Suspicious Lesion
This patient’s lesion is highly suspicious of a melanoma and requires immediate referral to a dermatologist. Any delay in monitoring in primary care could result in delayed treatment and potentially worse outcomes. The lesion’s recent increase in size, irregular pigmentation, and margin are all factors that raise suspicions. To aid in decision-making, the 7-point weighted checklist can be used, which includes major features such as change in size, irregular shape, and irregular color, as well as minor features like inflammation, oozing, change in sensation, and largest diameter 7 mm or more. Lesions scoring 3 or more points are considered suspicious and should be referred, even if the score is less than 3. If the lesion were low risk, it would be reasonable to monitor over an eight-week period using the 7-point checklist, photographs, and a marker scale and/or ruler. However, it is not appropriate to excise or biopsy suspicious pigmented lesions in primary care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 65
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old female presents with a three month history of a dry, pruritic rash affecting the lower arms and thighs.
What is the most appropriate initial management of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Patch testing to ascertain contact allergen
Explanation:Asteatotic Eczema and Xerotic Skin in the Elderly
Asteatotic eczema is a common problem that often affects the elderly population. This condition can be improved with the use of plain emollients. Xerotic skin is also common in the elderly, particularly during the winter months when central heating can cause dryness. While other treatments may be necessary for patients who do not respond to emollients, these moisturizers should be the first line of defense against asteatotic eczema and xerotic skin. By using emollients regularly, patients can help to keep their skin hydrated and healthy.
Overall, it is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these common skin conditions in the elderly and to recommend appropriate treatments to help manage symptoms and improve quality of life. By addressing asteatotic eczema and xerotic skin early on, healthcare providers can help to prevent more serious complications from developing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old girl has poorly demarcated erythematous patches, with scale and crusting on both cheeks. Milder patches are also to be found on the limbs and trunk. The limbs are predominantly affected in the flexures. The child has been scratching and has disturbed sleep because of the itch.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atopic eczema
Explanation:Distinguishing Skin Conditions: Atopic Eczema, Impetigo, Acute Urticaria, Psoriasis, and Scabies
When examining a child with skin complaints, it is important to distinguish between different skin conditions. Atopic eczema is a common cause of skin complaints in young children, presenting with poorly demarcated erythematous lesions, scale, and crusting. It typically affects the face in young children and only starts to predominate in the flexures at an older age.
Impetigo, on the other hand, would cause lesions in a less widespread area and present with a yellow/golden crust. Acute urticaria would cause several raised smooth lesions that appear rapidly, without crust or scale. Psoriasis produces well-demarcated lesions, which are not seen in atopic eczema.
Scabies would normally produce a more widespread rash with papules and excoriation, and sometimes visible burrows. It would not produce the scaled crusted lesions described in atopic eczema. By understanding the unique characteristics of each skin condition, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with a 25-year history of chronic plaque psoriasis is being seen in clinic. Despite having severe psoriasis at times, he is currently managing well with only topical therapy. Which of the following conditions is he NOT at an elevated risk for due to his psoriasis history?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Melanoma
Explanation:The risk of non-melanoma skin cancer is higher in individuals with psoriasis.
Psoriasis is a condition that can have both physical and psychological complications, beyond just psoriatic arthritis. While it may be tempting to focus solely on topical treatments, it’s important to keep in mind the potential risks associated with psoriasis. Patients with this condition are at a higher risk for cardiovascular disease, hypertension, venous thromboembolism, depression, ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease, non-melanoma skin cancer, and other types of cancer such as liver, lung, and upper gastrointestinal tract cancers. Therefore, it’s crucial to consider these potential complications when managing a patient with psoriasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents with a skin lesion on his anterior chest wall. He reports that he noticed it about four weeks ago and it has grown in size so he has come to get it checked. It is not causing the patient any symptoms.
On examination there is a pigmented lesion which is 5 mm in diameter. It is two-tone with a dark brown portion and an almost black portion. The lesion has an irregular notched border and is asymmetrical.
You are unsure of the diagnosis.
What is the most appropriate management plan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer urgently to a dermatologist as a suspected cancer
Explanation:The ABCDEF Checklist for Assessing Suspicious Pigmented Lesions
The ABCDEF checklist is a useful tool for assessing suspicious pigmented lesions, particularly for identifying potential melanomas. The checklist includes six criteria: asymmetry, irregular border, irregular colour, dark or diameter greater than 6 mm, evolutionary change, and funny looking.
Asymmetry refers to a lack of mirror image in any of the quadrants when the lesion is divided into four quadrants. Irregular border and irregular colour are self-explanatory, with irregular colour indicating at least two different colours in the lesion and lack of even pigmentation throughout the lesion being particularly suspicious. Dark or diameter greater than 6 mm refers to the size and colour of the lesion, with blue or black colour being particularly concerning. Evolutionary change refers to changes in size, colour, shape, or elevation.
The presence of any one of these criteria should raise suspicion of melanoma and prompt urgent referral to a dermatologist. Additionally, the funny looking criterion, also known as the ugly duckling sign, should be considered. This refers to a mole that appears different from the rest, even if ABCD and E criteria are absent.
Overall, the ABCDEF checklist is a valuable tool for identifying potentially cancerous pigmented lesions and ensuring prompt referral for specialist assessment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 69
Incorrect
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During a follow up visit at an asthma clinic a 39-year-old female complains of the appearance of a mole.
Which of the following characteristics of the lesion would raise suspicion that it is a malignant melanoma?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lesion has irregular outline
Explanation:Characteristics of Melanoma: The ABCDE Mnemonic
Melanoma is a type of skin cancer that can be deadly if not detected and treated early. To help identify potential melanomas, dermatologists use the ABCDE mnemonic. Each letter represents a characteristic that may indicate the presence of melanoma.
A stands for asymmetry. If one half of a mole or lesion doesn’t match the other half, it may be a sign of melanoma. B is for border irregularity. Melanomas often have uneven or jagged edges. C represents color variegation. Melanomas may have multiple colors or shades within the same lesion. D is for diameter. Melanomas are typically larger than a pencil eraser, but any mole or lesion that is 6mm or more in diameter should be examined by a dermatologist. Finally, E stands for evolution. Any changes in size, shape, or color of a mole or lesion should be monitored closely.
By remembering the ABCDE mnemonic, individuals can be more aware of the characteristics of melanoma and seek medical attention if they notice any concerning changes in their skin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 70
Incorrect
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Sophie is a 5-year-old girl who has been brought to your clinic by her father. He reports that she developed a rash with small spots on her upper lip 3 days ago. The spots have now burst and formed a yellowish crust. Sophie has no medical history and no known allergies.
During the examination, Sophie appears to be in good health. She has a red rash on the left side of her upper lip with a few visible blisters and an area of yellow crust. There are no other affected areas.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe hydrogen peroxide cream
Explanation:If fusidic acid resistance is suspected or confirmed, mupirocin is the appropriate treatment for impetigo. Advising the person and their carers about good hygiene measures is important to aid healing and reduce the spread of impetigo, but it is not a treatment for the condition itself. Oral flucloxacillin is typically used for widespread non-bullous impetigo or in cases of bullous impetigo, systemic illness, or high risk of complications, none of which apply to Timothy’s localized impetigo.
Understanding Impetigo: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that is caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. It can occur as a primary infection or as a complication of an existing skin condition such as eczema. Impetigo is most common in children, especially during warm weather. The infection can develop anywhere on the body, but it tends to occur on the face, flexures, and limbs not covered by clothing.
The infection spreads through direct contact with discharges from the scabs of an infected person. The bacteria invade the skin through minor abrasions and then spread to other sites by scratching. Infection is spread mainly by the hands, but indirect spread via toys, clothing, equipment, and the environment may occur. The incubation period is between 4 to 10 days.
Symptoms of impetigo include ‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth. It is highly contagious, and children should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment.
Management of impetigo depends on the extent of the disease. Limited, localized disease can be treated with hydrogen peroxide 1% cream or topical antibiotic creams such as fusidic acid or mupirocin. MRSA is not susceptible to either fusidic acid or retapamulin, so topical mupirocin should be used in this situation. Extensive disease may require oral flucloxacillin or oral erythromycin if penicillin-allergic. The use of hydrogen peroxide 1% cream was recommended by NICE and Public Health England in 2020 to cut antibiotic resistance. The evidence base shows it is just as effective at treating non-bullous impetigo as a topical antibiotic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man comes to your clinic in the afternoon. He is concerned about his risk of developing acral lentiginous melanoma after learning that his brother has been diagnosed with the condition. He has read that this subtype of melanoma is more prevalent in certain ethnic groups and wants to know which group is most commonly affected.
Can you provide information on the ethnicity that is at higher risk for acral lentiginous melanoma?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Asians
Explanation:The acral-lentiginous melanoma is a subtype of melanoma that is often disregarded and not commonly seen in Caucasians. It is more prevalent in individuals from the Far East. This type of melanoma typically grows slowly and may not be noticeable in its early stages, presenting as pigmented patches on the sole. As it progresses, nodular areas may develop, indicating deeper growth. Sadly, the Jamaican musician Bob Marley passed away at the age of 36 due to complications from an acral lentiginous melanoma.
Malignant melanoma is a type of skin cancer that has four main subtypes: superficial spreading, nodular, lentigo maligna, and acral lentiginous. Nodular melanoma is the most aggressive, while the other forms spread more slowly. Superficial spreading melanoma typically affects young people on sun-exposed areas such as the arms, legs, back, and chest. Nodular melanoma appears as a red or black lump that bleeds or oozes and affects middle-aged people. Lentigo maligna affects chronically sun-exposed skin in older people, while acral lentiginous melanoma appears on nails, palms, or soles in people with darker skin pigmentation. Other rare forms of melanoma include desmoplastic melanoma, amelanotic melanoma, and melanoma arising in other parts of the body such as ocular melanoma.
The main diagnostic features of melanoma are changes in size, shape, and color. Secondary features include a diameter of 7mm or more, inflammation, oozing or bleeding, and altered sensation. Suspicious lesions should undergo excision biopsy, and the lesion should be completely removed to facilitate subsequent histopathological assessment. Once the diagnosis is confirmed, the pathology report should be reviewed to determine whether further re-excision of margins is required. The margins of excision are related to Breslow thickness, with lesions 0-1 mm thick requiring a margin of 1 cm, lesions 1-2 mm thick requiring a margin of 1-2 cm (depending on site and pathological features), lesions 2-4mm thick requiring a margin of 2-3 cm (depending on site and pathological features), and lesions over 4mm thick requiring a margin of 3 cm. Further treatments such as sentinel lymph node mapping, isolated limb perfusion, and block dissection of regional lymph node groups should be selectively applied.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 72
Incorrect
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You are reviewing one of your elderly patients with chronic plaque psoriasis. You are contemplating prescribing calcipotriol as a monotherapy.
Which of the following statements about calcipotriol is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It can be safely used long-term on an ongoing basis
Explanation:Psoriasis can be treated with calcipotriol for an extended period of time.
Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.
For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.
When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man inquires about the 'shingles vaccine'. Which of the following statements about Zostavax is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is suitable for patients who've had Chickenpox
Explanation:Regardless of whether a person has had Chickenpox or shingles previously, Zostavax should still be administered.
Varicella-Zoster Vaccination: Protection Against Chickenpox and Shingles
Varicella-zoster is a herpesvirus that causes Chickenpox and shingles. There are two types of vaccines available to protect against these infections. The first type is a live attenuated vaccine that prevents primary varicella infection or Chickenpox. This vaccine is recommended for healthcare workers who are not immune to VZV and for individuals who are in close contact with immunocompromised patients.
The second type of vaccine is designed to reduce the incidence of herpes zoster or shingles caused by reactivation of VZV. This live-attenuated vaccine is given subcutaneously and is offered to patients aged 70-79 years. The vaccine is also available as a catch-up campaign for those who missed out on their vaccinations in the previous two years of the program. However, the shingles vaccine is not available on the NHS to anyone aged 80 and over because it seems to be less effective in this age group.
The main contraindication for both vaccines is immunosuppression. Side effects of the vaccines include injection site reactions, and less than 1 in 10,000 individuals may develop Chickenpox. It is important to note that vaccination is the most effective way to prevent varicella-zoster infections and their complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy presents with acne affecting his face. On examination, there are multiple comedones on his face and a handful of papules and pustules. There are no nodules or scarring. The treating doctor decides to start him on topical benzoyl peroxide combined with an antibiotic.
Which of the following is the single most appropriate topical antibiotic to use?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clindamycin
Explanation:Treatment Options for Mild to Moderate Acne: Clindamycin, Lymecycline, Flucloxacillin, Minocycline, and Trimethoprim
Acne is classified as mild to moderate if there are less than 35 inflammatory lesions and less than 2 nodules. For this type of acne, topical clindamycin is recommended as a first-line treatment, which can be combined with benzoyl peroxide, adapalene, or tretinoin. On the other hand, oral lymecycline is not recommended for mild to moderate acne but is effective for moderate to severe acne. Flucloxacillin is not used in acne treatment, while minocycline is effective but can cause liver problems and a lupus-like syndrome. Lastly, trimethoprim is used for people with moderate to severe acne who cannot tolerate or have a contraindication to oral lymecycline or doxycycline. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best treatment option for each individual case of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 75
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding hirsutism is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Co-cyprindiol (Dianette) may be a useful treatment for patients moderate-severe hirsutism
Explanation:Understanding Hirsutism and Hypertrichosis
Hirsutism is a term used to describe excessive hair growth in women that is dependent on androgens, while hypertrichosis refers to hair growth that is not androgen-dependent. Polycystic ovarian syndrome is the most common cause of hirsutism, but other factors such as Cushing’s syndrome, obesity, and certain medications can also contribute to this condition. To assess hirsutism, the Ferriman-Gallwey scoring system is often used, which assigns scores to nine different body areas. Management of hirsutism may involve weight loss, cosmetic techniques, or the use of oral contraceptive pills or topical medications.
Hypertrichosis, on the other hand, can be caused by a variety of factors such as certain medications, congenital conditions, and even anorexia nervosa. It is important to identify the underlying cause of excessive hair growth in order to determine the most appropriate treatment approach. By understanding the differences between hirsutism and hypertrichosis, individuals can better manage these conditions and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents with a severe flare-up of hand eczema. She has vesicular lesions on both hands, which are typical of bilateral pompholyx. The patient has been using Eumovate (clobetasone butyrate 0.05%) for a week, but her symptoms have not improved. You decide to prescribe Betnovate (betamethasone valerate 0.1%) for two weeks and then review her condition. According to the BNF guidelines, what is the appropriate amount of Betnovate to prescribe?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 30 g
Explanation:Topical Steroids for Eczema Treatment
Eczema is a common skin condition that causes red, itchy, and inflamed skin. Topical steroids are often used to treat eczema, but it is important to use the weakest steroid cream that effectively controls the patient’s symptoms. The potency of topical steroids varies, and the table below shows the different types of topical steroids by potency.
To determine the appropriate amount of topical steroid to use, the fingertip rule can be applied. One fingertip unit (FTU) is equivalent to 0.5 g and is sufficient to treat an area of skin about twice the size of an adult hand. The table also provides the recommended number of FTUs per dose for different areas of the body.
The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends specific quantities of topical steroids to be prescribed for a single daily application for two weeks. The recommended amounts vary depending on the area of the body being treated.
In summary, when using topical steroids for eczema treatment, it is important to use the weakest steroid cream that effectively controls symptoms and to follow the recommended amounts for each area of the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man presents with tear-drop papules on his trunk and limbs, covering less than 10% of his body. He appears to be in good health and guttate psoriasis is suspected. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassurance + topical treatment if lesions are symptomatic
Explanation:According to the psoriasis guidelines of the British Association of Dermatologists, there is no evidence to suggest that antibiotic therapy provides any therapeutic benefits.
Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that is more commonly seen in children and adolescents. It is often triggered by a streptococcal infection that occurred 2-4 weeks prior to the appearance of the lesions. The condition is characterized by the presence of tear drop-shaped papules on the trunk and limbs, along with pink, scaly patches or plaques of psoriasis. The onset of guttate psoriasis tends to be acute, occurring over a few days.
In most cases, guttate psoriasis resolves on its own within 2-3 months. There is no clear evidence to support the use of antibiotics to treat streptococcal infections associated with the condition. Treatment options for guttate psoriasis include topical agents commonly used for psoriasis and UVB phototherapy. In cases where the condition recurs, a tonsillectomy may be necessary.
It is important to differentiate guttate psoriasis from pityriasis rosea, which is another skin condition that can present with similar symptoms. Guttate psoriasis is typically preceded by a streptococcal sore throat, while pityriasis rosea may be associated with recent respiratory tract infections. The appearance of guttate psoriasis is characterized by tear drop-shaped, scaly papules on the trunk and limbs, while pityriasis rosea presents with a herald patch followed by multiple erythematous, slightly raised oval lesions with a fine scale. Pityriasis rosea is self-limiting and resolves after around 6 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman presents with a 3-year history of recurrent painful pustules and nodules in both axillae. She frequently goes to the gym and initially attributed her symptoms to deodorant use, although there have been no signs of improvement since stopping these.
She doesn't take any regular medication and is allergic to macrolides.
Upon examination, there are numerous lesions in both axillae consisting of pustules and nodules, as well as sinus tract formation. Mild scarring is also evident.
What is the most suitable course of treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3-6 month course of lymecycline
Explanation:To manage her hidradenitis suppurativa, which is a chronic follicular occlusive disorder affecting intertriginous areas, such as the axillae, groin, perineal and infra-mammary areas, long-term topical or oral antibiotics may be used. As she is experiencing severe symptoms with nodules, sinuses, and scarring, it would be appropriate to offer her long-term systemic antibiotics. Tetracycline is the first-line antibiotic, making lymecycline the correct answer. Macrolides, such as clarithromycin, can be offered as a second-line option, but she is allergic to this antibiotic. Oral fluconazole and ketoconazole shampoo are used to treat various fungal skin conditions, but hidradenitis suppurativa is not related to a fungal infection. Topical clindamycin can be effective in mild localised hidradenitis suppurativa, but this woman requires systemic treatment due to her severe bilateral symptoms.
Understanding Hidradenitis Suppurativa
Hidradenitis suppurativa (HS) is a chronic skin disorder that causes painful and inflammatory nodules, pustules, sinus tracts, and scars in intertriginous areas. It is more common in women and typically affects adults under 40. HS occurs due to chronic inflammatory occlusion of folliculopilosebaceous units that obstructs the apocrine glands and prevents keratinocytes from properly shedding from the follicular epithelium. Risk factors include family history, smoking, obesity, diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and mechanical stretching of skin.
The initial manifestation of HS involves recurrent, painful, and inflamed nodules that can rupture and discharge purulent, malodorous material. The axilla is the most common site, but it can also occur in other areas such as the inguinal, inner thighs, perineal and perianal, and inframammary skin. Coalescence of nodules can result in plaques, sinus tracts, and ‘rope-like’ scarring. Diagnosis is made clinically.
Management of HS involves encouraging good hygiene and loose-fitting clothing, smoking cessation, and weight loss in obese patients. Acute flares can be treated with steroids or antibiotics, and surgical incision and drainage may be needed in some cases. Long-term disease can be treated with topical or oral antibiotics. Lumps that persist despite prolonged medical treatment are excised surgically. Complications of HS include sinus tracts, fistulas, comedones, scarring, contractures, and lymphatic obstruction.
HS can be differentiated from acne vulgaris, follicular pyodermas, and granuloma inguinale. Acne vulgaris primarily occurs on the face, upper chest, and back, whereas HS primarily involves intertriginous areas. Follicular pyodermas are transient and respond rapidly to antibiotics, unlike HS. Granuloma inguinale is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Klebsiella granulomatis and presents as an enlarging ulcer that bleeds in the inguinal area.
Overall, understanding HS is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management of this chronic and painful skin disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents with symptoms of an upper respiratory infection and suddenly develops a painful red rash on her trunk that spreads to her face and limbs. The rash consists of macules, some of which resemble target lesions, and numerous flaccid bullae. Skin erosion is present in areas where the bullae have ruptured. She has conjunctivitis, crusted red lips, mouth ulcers, and dysuria. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Drug induced
Explanation:Stevens-Johnson Syndrome: A Serious Skin Reaction
Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a rare but serious skin reaction that can be fatal. It is considered to be part of a disease spectrum that includes erythema multiforme and toxic epidermal necrolysis. However, some experts believe that erythema multiforme should not be classified as part of the same spectrum as it is associated with infections while SJS and TEN are reactions to certain drugs.
The most common drugs implicated in SJS are sulphonamides, but other medications such as penicillins, antifungals, and anticonvulsants can also cause the reaction. Less than 10% of the epidermis sloughs off in SJS, compared to over 30% in TEN.
Management involves stopping the suspected causative drugs as soon as possible and immediate admission to an intensive care or burns unit. The prognosis is better if the drugs are stopped within 24 hours of bullae appearing.
Staphylococcal scalded-skin syndrome is a differential diagnosis that can be mistaken for SJS. It is caused by a bacterial infection and tends to occur in young children.
Herpes simplex virus can cause erythema multiforme, but this rash is not the same as SJS. Shingles, caused by varicella-zoster virus, is another condition with a painful blistering rash that is confined to a dermatome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 80
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman who is pregnant for the first time presents at 10 weeks gestation with an itchy erythematous papular rash on the flexures of her arms. She has been experiencing significant nausea for the past 4 weeks and vomits approximately every 3 days. She has no significant medical history.
What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atopic eruption of pregnancy
Explanation:The most common skin disorder found in pregnancy is atopic eruption of pregnancy, which usually starts in the first or second trimester. Patients often have a widespread eczematous eruption on the face, neck, and flexural areas. Other presentations include prurigo of pregnancy or pruritic folliculitis of pregnancy. Dermatitis herpetiformis is a vesicular autoimmune skin eruption associated with gluten sensitivity, while intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy presents with severe, intractable pruritus on the palms and soles in the third trimester. Pemphigoid gestationis is a rare condition that typically occurs later in pregnancy with urticarial lesions or papules around the umbilicus, and vesicles may also be present. The nausea and vomiting experienced during pregnancy are likely due to typical nausea and vomiting of pregnancy. Immunofluorescence shows deposition of IgA within the dermal papillae.
Understanding Atopic Eruption of Pregnancy
Atopic eruption of pregnancy (AEP) is a prevalent skin condition that occurs during pregnancy. It is characterized by a red, itchy rash that resembles eczema. Although it can be uncomfortable, AEP is not harmful to the mother or the baby. Fortunately, no specific treatment is required, and the rash usually disappears after delivery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 81
Incorrect
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The School Nurse requests your evaluation of a leg ulcer she has been treating, as it is not improving. The ulcer is situated on the lower leg, has an irregular shape, and a purple border that is undermined. The student reports that it began as a tiny red bump on the skin and that the ulcer is causing discomfort. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum
Explanation:When faced with a skin ulcer that doesn’t heal, it is important to consider pyoderma gangrenosum as a possible diagnosis. This condition typically begins as a red bump that eventually turns into a painful ulcer with a purple, indented border. It is often linked to autoimmune disorders in approximately 50% of cases.
Understanding Pyoderma Gangrenosum
Pyoderma gangrenosum is a rare inflammatory disorder that causes painful skin ulceration. While it can affect any part of the skin, it is most commonly found on the lower legs. This condition is classified as a neutrophilic dermatosis, which means that it is characterized by the infiltration of neutrophils in the affected tissue. The exact cause of pyoderma gangrenosum is unknown in 50% of cases, but it can be associated with inflammatory bowel disease, rheumatological conditions, haematological disorders, and other conditions.
The initial symptoms of pyoderma gangrenosum may start suddenly with a small pustule, red bump, or blood-blister. The skin then breaks down, resulting in an ulcer that is often painful. The edge of the ulcer is typically described as purple, violaceous, and undermined. The ulcer itself may be deep and necrotic and may be accompanied by systemic symptoms such as fever and myalgia. Diagnosis is often made by the characteristic appearance, associations with other diseases, the presence of pathergy, histology results, and ruling out other causes of an ulcer.
Treatment for pyoderma gangrenosum typically involves oral steroids as first-line therapy due to the potential for rapid progression. Other immunosuppressive therapies, such as ciclosporin and infliximab, may be used in difficult cases. It is important to note that any surgery should be postponed until the disease process is controlled on immunosuppression to avoid worsening the condition. Understanding pyoderma gangrenosum and its potential causes and treatments can help patients and healthcare providers manage this rare and painful condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman has moderately severe acne consisting mainly of inflamed papules. There has been no visible response in spite of taking erythromycin 500 mg twice daily for three months. She also uses benzoyl peroxide but finds it irritates her face if she uses it too frequently. She found oxytetracycline upset her stomach. Her only other medication is Microgynon 30®, which she uses for contraception.
What is the most appropriate primary care management option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Co-cyprindiol in place of Microgynon 30®
Explanation:Treatment Options for Moderate to Severe Acne
Explanation:
When treating moderate to severe acne, it is important to consider various options and their associated risks and benefits. In cases where topical treatments and oral antibiotics have not been effective, alternative options should be explored.
One option is to switch to a combined oral contraceptive pill, such as co-cyprindiol, which can provide better control over acne. However, it is important to discuss the higher risk of venous thromboembolism associated with this type of contraceptive.
If primary care treatments continue to fail, referral to a dermatologist for consideration of isotretinoin may be necessary. Isotretinoin tablets can be effective in treating severe acne, but they must be prescribed by a dermatologist.
Extending the course of systemic antibiotics beyond three months, as advised by NICE guidance, is not recommended. Similarly, topical antibiotics and tretinoin gel are unlikely to be effective when systemic antibiotics have not worked.
In summary, when treating moderate to severe acne, it is important to consider all options and their associated risks and benefits. Referral to a dermatologist may be necessary if primary care treatments are not effective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man has been diagnosed with scabies after presenting with itchy lesions on his hands. As part of the treatment plan, it is important to advise him to apply permethrin 5% cream as directed. Additionally, he should be reminded to treat all members of his household and wash all bedding and clothes in hot water. What instructions should be given regarding the application of the cream?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All skin including scalp + leave for 12 hours + repeat in 7 days
Explanation:Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Scabies is a skin condition caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which is spread through prolonged skin contact. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults. The mite burrows into the skin, laying its eggs in the outermost layer. The resulting intense itching is due to a delayed hypersensitivity reaction to the mites and eggs, which occurs about a month after infection. Symptoms include widespread itching, linear burrows on the fingers and wrists, and secondary features such as excoriation and infection.
The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, followed by malathion 0.5% if necessary. Patients should be advised to avoid close physical contact until treatment is complete and to treat all household and close contacts, even if asymptomatic. Clothing, bedding, and towels should be laundered, ironed, or tumble-dried on the first day of treatment to kill off mites. The insecticide should be applied to all areas, including the face and scalp, and left on for 8-12 hours for permethrin or 24 hours for malathion before washing off. Treatment should be repeated after 7 days.
Crusted scabies, also known as Norwegian scabies, is a severe form of the condition seen in patients with suppressed immunity, particularly those with HIV. The skin is covered in hundreds of thousands of mites, and isolation is essential. Ivermectin is the treatment of choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old gentleman presents with a small non-tender lump in the natal cleft. He reports no discharge from the lump. You suspect this to be a pilonidal sinus.
What is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to general surgeons
Explanation:Management of Asymptomatic Pilonidal Sinus Disease
A watch and wait approach is recommended for individuals with asymptomatic pilonidal sinus disease. It is important for patients to maintain good perianal hygiene through regular bathing or showering. However, there is no evidence to support the removal of buttock hair in these patients. If cellulitis is suspected, antibiotic treatment should be considered. Referral to a surgical team may be necessary if the pilonidal sinus is discharging or if an acute pilonidal abscess requires incision and drainage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old female has been diagnosed with a small area of Bowen's disease on her right foot. She is concerned about the possibility of it developing into invasive squamous cell carcinoma and is asking whether she should consider having it surgically removed instead of using 5-fluorouracil cream.
As her healthcare provider, you explain the diagnosis and the likelihood of the Bowen's disease progressing into invasive cancer.
What is the risk of it developing into invasive squamous cell carcinoma?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5-10%
Explanation:In some instances, it may develop into an invasive squamous cell carcinoma.
Understanding Bowen’s Disease: A Precursor to Skin Cancer
Bowen’s disease is a type of skin condition that is considered a precursor to squamous cell carcinoma, a type of skin cancer. It is more commonly found in elderly patients and is characterized by red, scaly patches that are often 10-15 mm in size. These patches are slow-growing and typically occur on sun-exposed areas such as the head, neck, and lower limbs.
If left untreated, there is a 5-10% chance of developing invasive skin cancer. However, Bowen’s disease can often be diagnosed and managed in primary care if the diagnosis is clear or if it is a repeat episode. Treatment options include topical 5-fluorouracil, which is typically used twice daily for four weeks. This treatment often results in significant inflammation and erythema, so topical steroids are often given to control these side effects. Other management options include cryotherapy and excision.
In summary, understanding Bowen’s disease is important as it is a precursor to skin cancer. Early diagnosis and management can prevent the development of invasive skin cancer and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 86
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding fungal nail infections is inaccurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Treatment is successful in around 90-95% of people
Explanation:Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.
The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.
Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a pigmented lesion on her left cheek. She reports that the lesion has been present for a while but has recently increased in size. Upon examination, it is evident that she has significant sun damage on her face, legs, and arms due to living in South Africa. The lesion appears flat, pigmented, and has an irregular border.
What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lentigo maligna
Explanation:Skin Lesions and Their Characteristics
Lentigo Maligna: This pre-invasive lesion has the potential to develop into malignant melanoma. It appears as a pigmented, flat lesion against sun-damaged skin. Surgical excision is the ideal intervention, but cryotherapy and topical immunotherapy are possible alternatives.
Squamous Cell Carcinoma: This common type of skin cancer presents as enlarging scaly or crusted nodules, often associated with ulceration. It may arise in areas of actinic keratoses or Bowen’s disease.
Basal Cell Carcinoma: This skin cancer usually occurs in photo-exposed areas of fair-skinned individuals. It looks like pearly nodules with surface telangiectasia.
Pityriasis Versicolor: This is a common yeast infection of the skin that results in an annular, erythematous scaling rash on the trunk.
Actinic Keratosis: These scaly lesions occur in sun-damaged skin in fair-skinned individuals and are considered to be a pre-cancerous form of SCC.
Understanding Skin Lesions and Their Characteristics
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 88
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with a complaint of itching, fatigue and malaise for the past six months. She has had no major medical history and is not on any regular medications. There are no visible signs of a skin rash.
What is the most suitable investigation that is likely to result in a diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Liver function tests (LFTs)
Explanation:Diagnosis of Pruritis without a Rash: Primary Biliary Cholangitis
Pruritis without a rash can be a challenging diagnosis. In this case, the symptoms suggest the possibility of primary biliary cholangitis, an autoimmune disease of the liver that leads to cholestasis and can progress to fibrosis and cirrhosis. To diagnose this condition, a full blood count, serum ferritin, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, urea and electrolytes, thyroid function tests, and liver function tests are necessary. A chest X-ray may be useful to rule out malignancy, but skin biopsy and skin scraping for microscopy are unlikely to be helpful in the absence of a rash. Low serum B12 is not relevant to pruritis. Overall, a thorough evaluation is necessary to diagnose pruritis without a rash, and primary biliary cholangitis should be considered as a potential cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents with concerns regarding hair loss.
She has been noticing patches of hair loss over the past three months without any associated itching. Her medical history includes hypothyroidism, for which she takes 100 micrograms of thyroxine daily, and she takes the combined oral contraceptive for regular withdrawal bleeds.
During examination, she appears healthy with a BMI of 22 kg/m2 and a blood pressure of 122/72 mmHg. Upon examining her scalp, two distinct patches of hair loss, approximately 2-3 cm in diameter, are visible on the vertex of her head and the left temporo-occipital region.
What is the most probable cause of her hair loss?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Drug induced
Explanation:Hair Loss and Autoimmune Conditions
This young woman is experiencing hair loss and has been diagnosed with an autoimmune condition and hypothyroidism. Her symptoms are consistent with alopecia areata, a condition where hair loss occurs in discrete patches. While only 1% of cases of alopecia are associated with thyroid disease, it is a possibility in this case. However, scarring alopecia is more typical of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), which is not present in this patient. Androgenic alopecia, which causes thinning at the vertex and temporal areas, is also not consistent with this patient’s symptoms. Over-treatment with thyroxine or the use of oral contraceptives can cause generalised hair loss, but this is not the case for this patient. It is important to properly diagnose the underlying condition causing hair loss in order to provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 90
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl with eczema comes in with a bumpy, gooseflesh-like texture on her upper arms. She denies any itching or redness. What is the MOST SUITABLE course of action to take next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Routine bloods
Explanation:Understanding Keratosis Pilaris
Keratosis pilaris is a prevalent skin condition that is characterised by small bumps on the skin. These bumps are caused by the buildup of keratin in the hair follicles, resulting in a rough, bumpy texture. While the condition can resolve on its own over time, there is no specific treatment that has been proven to be effective.
It is important to note that referral, blood tests, and topical antibacterials are not recommended for the treatment of keratosis pilaris. Instead, individuals with this condition may benefit from taking tepid showers instead of hot baths. This can help to prevent further irritation of the skin. With proper care and attention, individuals with keratosis pilaris can manage their symptoms and enjoy healthy, smooth skin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of a recurrent itchy rash on his hands and feet. He travels frequently to the Middle East for business purposes and has engaged in unprotected sexual activity during one of his trips. Upon examination, the palms and soles show an itchy vesicular rash with erythema and excoriation. What is the probable cause of this rash, considering the patient's exposure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Humidity
Explanation:Pompholyx eczema can be triggered by high humidity levels, such as sweating, and hot temperatures. This is evidenced by the recurrent vesicles that appear on the palms and soles, accompanied by erythema. The patient’s frequent travels to the Middle East, which is known for its high humidity levels, may have contributed to the development of this condition.
Chlamydia is not a factor in the development of pompholyx eczema. While chlamydia can cause keratoderma blennorrhagica, which affects the soles of the feet and palms, it has a different appearance and is not typically itchy or erythematous.
Cold temperatures are not a trigger for pompholyx eczema, although they may cause Raynaud’s phenomenon.
Sunlight exposure is not a trigger for pompholyx eczema, although it may cause other skin conditions such as lupus and polymorphic light eruption.
Understanding Pompholyx Eczema
Pompholyx eczema, also known as dyshidrotic eczema, is a type of skin condition that affects both the hands and feet. It is often triggered by humidity and high temperatures, such as sweating. The main symptom of pompholyx eczema is the appearance of small blisters on the palms and soles, which can be intensely itchy and sometimes accompanied by a burning sensation. Once the blisters burst, the skin may become dry and crack.
To manage pompholyx eczema, cool compresses and emollients can be used to soothe the affected areas. Topical steroids may also be prescribed to reduce inflammation and itching. It is important to avoid further irritation of the skin by avoiding triggers such as excessive sweating and using gentle, fragrance-free products. With proper management, the symptoms of pompholyx eczema can be controlled and minimized.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old female patient complains of a skin rash that has been bothering her for a week. She reports experiencing a burning sensation and itchiness around her mouth. Despite using hydrocortisone cream, the rash has not improved significantly. On examination, you observe a bilateral perioral papular eruption consisting of 4-5 clusters of 1-2 mm papules with sparing of the vermillion border. What would be the most suitable next step in managing this patient's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical metronidazole
Explanation:Hydrocortisone is the most appropriate treatment for this patient’s perioral dermatitis, as it is a milder steroid compared to other options. Stronger steroids can worsen the condition with prolonged use. While using only emollients is not unreasonable, it may not provide complete relief within a reasonable timeframe. It is also recommended to minimize the use of skin products. Fusidic acid is typically used for localized impetigo, but it is not suitable for this patient as there are no signs of golden-crusted lesions.
Understanding Periorificial Dermatitis
Periorificial dermatitis is a skin condition that is commonly observed in women between the ages of 20 and 45 years old. The use of topical corticosteroids, and to a lesser extent, inhaled corticosteroids, is often linked to the development of this condition. The symptoms of periorificial dermatitis include the appearance of clustered erythematous papules, papulovesicles, and papulopustules, which are typically found in the perioral, perinasal, and periocular regions. However, the skin immediately adjacent to the vermilion border of the lip is usually spared.
When it comes to managing periorificial dermatitis, it is important to note that steroids may actually worsen the symptoms. Instead, the condition should be treated with either topical or oral antibiotics. By understanding the features and management of periorificial dermatitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to address this condition and improve their skin health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 93
Incorrect
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When assessing the respiratory system of a middle-aged patient, you observe some alterations in the skin. The skin on the back of the neck and axillae is hyperkeratotic and hyperpigmented. What underlying condition do you think is causing these changes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type 2 diabetes
Explanation:Acanthosis nigricans is a condition where certain areas of the skin, such as the neck, armpits, and skin folds, become thickened and darkened with a velvety texture. Skin tags may also be present. While it can occur on its own in individuals with darker skin tones, it is often a sign of insulin resistance and related conditions like type 2 diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, Cushing’s syndrome, or hypothyroidism. Certain medications like corticosteroids, insulin, and hormone medications can also cause acanthosis nigricans. If it develops quickly and in unusual areas like the mouth, it may indicate an internal malignancy, particularly gastric cancer.
Acanthosis nigricans is a condition characterized by the presence of brown, velvety plaques that are symmetrical and commonly found on the neck, axilla, and groin. This condition can be caused by various factors such as type 2 diabetes mellitus, gastrointestinal cancer, obesity, polycystic ovarian syndrome, acromegaly, Cushing’s disease, hypothyroidism, familial factors, Prader-Willi syndrome, and certain drugs like the combined oral contraceptive pill and nicotinic acid.
The pathophysiology of acanthosis nigricans involves insulin resistance, which leads to hyperinsulinemia. This, in turn, stimulates the proliferation of keratinocytes and dermal fibroblasts through interaction with insulin-like growth factor receptor-1 (IGFR1). This process results in the formation of the characteristic brown, velvety plaques seen in acanthosis nigricans. Understanding the underlying mechanisms of this condition is crucial in its diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male patient visits his general practitioner complaining of an itchy rash on his genitals and palms. He has also observed the rash around the area of a recent scar on his forearm. Upon examination, the doctor notices papules with a white-lace pattern on the surface. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lichen planus
Explanation:Lichen planus is a skin condition characterized by a rash of purple, itchy, polygonal papules on the flexor surfaces of the body. The affected area may also have Wickham’s striae. Oral involvement is common. In elderly women, lichen sclerosus may present as itchy white spots on the vulva.
Lichen planus is a skin condition that has an unknown cause, but is believed to be related to the immune system. It is characterized by an itchy rash that appears as small bumps on the palms, soles, genital area, and inner surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive pattern of white lines on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon. Oral involvement is common, with around 50% of patients experiencing a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes, such as thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging, may also occur.
Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, including gold, quinine, and thiazides. Treatment for lichen planus typically involves the use of potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more severe cases, oral steroids or immunosuppressive medications may be necessary. Overall, lichen planus can be a challenging condition to manage, but with proper treatment, symptoms can be controlled and quality of life can be improved.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old Jewish woman presents with recurrent mouth ulcers for several months. Recently, she has developed painful blisters on her back that seem to be spreading after attempting to pop them with a needle.
The patient is typically healthy and not taking any medications. She works at an elementary school and denies using any over-the-counter drugs recently.
During the examination, the patient exhibits mucosal blistering and extensive flaccid vesicles and bullae that are sensitive to touch. She has no fever.
A biopsy of the lesions reveals acantholysis.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pemphigus vulgaris
Explanation:Mucosal blistering is a common symptom of Pemphigus vulgaris, while skin blisters are typically painful but not itchy. This condition is often seen in middle-aged patients and is characterized by flaccid blisters and erosions that are Nikolsky’s sign positive. Mucous membrane involvement is also frequently observed. Bullous pemphigoid is a similar condition but is more prevalent in the elderly and features tense blisters without acantholysis on biopsy.
Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune condition that occurs when the body’s immune system attacks desmoglein 3, a type of cell adhesion molecule found in epithelial cells. This disease is more prevalent in the Ashkenazi Jewish population. The most common symptom is mucosal ulceration, which can be the first sign of the disease. Oral involvement is seen in 50-70% of patients. Skin blistering is also a common symptom, with easily ruptured vesicles and bullae. These lesions are typically painful but not itchy and may appear months after the initial mucosal symptoms. Nikolsky’s sign is a characteristic feature of pemphigus vulgaris, where bullae spread following the application of horizontal, tangential pressure to the skin. Biopsy results often show acantholysis.
The first-line treatment for pemphigus vulgaris is steroids, which help to reduce inflammation and suppress the immune system. Immunosuppressants may also be used to manage the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 96
Incorrect
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You encounter a 40-year-old woman with psoriasis. She has a flare-up on her leg and you prescribe topical Dermovate cream (Clobetasol propionate 0.05%) as part of her treatment plan. She asks you about the duration for which she can use this cream on her leg. What is the maximum duration recommended by NICE for the use of this type of corticosteroid?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Do not use continuously at any site for longer than 4 weeks
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for the Use of Topical Corticosteroids
According to NICE guidelines, it is not recommended to use highly potent corticosteroids continuously at any site for more than 4 weeks. The duration of use may vary depending on the potency of the steroid being used. It is important to note that it can be challenging to remember the potency of different steroid formulations based on their trade names. Therefore, it is advisable to have a reference handy. The Eczema Society provides a useful table of commonly used topical steroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A 75 year-old woman comes to the clinic with a non-healing skin area on her ankle. She had a deep vein thrombosis 15 years ago after a hip replacement surgery. She is currently taking Adcal D3 and no other medications. During the examination, a superficial ulcer is observed in front of the medial malleolus. Apart from this, she appears to be in good health.
What test would be the most beneficial in deciding the next course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ankle-brachial pressure index
Explanation:The patient exhibits typical signs of a venous ulcer and appears to be in good overall health without any indications of infection. The recommended treatment for venous ulcers involves the use of compression dressings, but it is crucial to ensure that the patient’s arterial circulation is sufficient to tolerate some level of compression.
Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly found above the medial malleolus. To determine the cause of non-healing ulcers, it is important to conduct an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) test. A normal ABPI value is between 0.9 to 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. However, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease due to arterial calcification, especially in diabetic patients.
The most effective treatment for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, specifically four-layer bandaging. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate of venous ulcers. While there is some evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, there is little evidence to suggest the benefit of hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 98
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a three week history of painful, red, raised lesions on the front of her shins. A chest x ray reveals bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. She also reports experiencing polyarthralgia and a slight dry cough.
What is the association with her presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Use of the combined oral contraceptive
Explanation:Understanding Sarcoidosis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
Sarcoidosis is a granulomatous disease that affects multiple systems in the body. It is more common in Afro-Caribbean patients and typically affects adults aged 20-40. The disease can present with erythema nodosum (EN), polyarthralgia, and a slight dry cough. A chest x-ray is necessary to confirm the diagnosis, which is characterized by bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (BHL).
Acute sarcoidosis can resolve spontaneously, but in some cases, the disease becomes chronic and progressive. Blood investigations may show raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), lymphopenia, elevated serum ACE, and elevated calcium. Hypercalciuria is a common occurrence in sarcoidosis.
It is important to differentiate sarcoidosis from lymphoma, which can also cause BHL. Burkitt’s lymphoma is associated with EBV, while sarcoidosis is not associated with HLA-B27. Hypercalcaemia, rather than hypocalcaemia, is a common occurrence in sarcoidosis.
The combined oral contraceptive is known to be associated with developing EN, but it would not cause the other symptoms and signs. Early diagnosis and management can prevent the disease from becoming chronic and progressive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to her GP for the second time with complaints of multiple bites on her legs, three weeks after returning from a beach holiday in The Gambia. She has a medical history of type 1 diabetes that is well managed with basal bolus insulin. Upon examination, she has several ulcers on both lower legs that are causing her significant itching. The previous physician ordered the following blood tests:
- Haemoglobin: 120 g/L (115-160)
- White cell count: 7.0 ×109/L (4-10)
- Platelets: 182 ×109/lL (150-400)
- Sodium: 138 mmol/L (134-143)
- Potassium: 4.3 mmol/L (3.5-5)
- Creatinine: 115 μ/L (60-120)
- CRP: 25 (<10)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sandfly bites
Explanation:Sandfly Bites and Cutaneous Leishmaniasis
The location of the ulcers on the patient’s skin, especially after returning from a beach holiday, is a common sign of sandfly bites that can lead to cutaneous leishmaniasis. The slight increase in CRP levels indicates a localized skin infection, which usually heals on its own within a few weeks. However, systemic leishmaniasis requires treatment with antimony-based compounds like sodium stibogluconate. Therefore, it is essential to identify the cause of the ulcers and seek appropriate medical attention to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of sudden anal pain. During the examination, the doctor notices a tender, oedematous, purplish subcutaneous perianal lump.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thrombosed haemorrhoids
Explanation:The posterior midline is where anal fissures, hemorrhoids, and pilonidal sinuses are commonly found. Genital warts, on the other hand, are small fleshy growths that are slightly pigmented and may cause itching or bleeding. These warts are usually caused by HPV types 6 and 11. Pilonidal sinus, which is characterized by cycles of pain and discharge, is caused by hair debris creating sinuses in the skin. If the sinus is located near the anus, it may cause anal pain.
Thrombosed haemorrhoids are characterized by severe pain and the presence of a tender lump. Upon examination, a purplish, swollen, and tender subcutaneous perianal mass can be observed. If the patient seeks medical attention within 72 hours of onset, referral for excision may be necessary. However, if the condition has progressed beyond this timeframe, patients can typically manage their symptoms with stool softeners, ice packs, and pain relief medication. Symptoms usually subside within 10 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 101
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner for a consultation. She has just been diagnosed with Herpes Simplex Virus Type 1 and has developed a rash that is consistent with erythema multiforme.
What is the most probable finding in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Target lesions with a central blister
Explanation:Understanding Erythema Multiforme: Symptoms and Characteristics
Erythema multiforme is a self-limiting skin condition that is characterized by sharply demarcated, round, red or pink macules that evolve into papular plaques. The lesions typically develop a central blister or crust and a surrounding paler pink ring that is raised due to oedema, creating the classic target appearance. However, atypical targets may also occur, with just two zones and/or an indistinct border. Mucous membranes may also be involved.
The most common cause of erythema multiforme is Herpes Simplex Virus Type 1, followed by Mycoplasma, although many other viruses have been reported to cause the eruption. Drugs are an infrequent cause, and conditions such as Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis are now considered distinct from erythema multiforme.
Unlike monomorphic eruptions, the lesions in erythema multiforme are polymorphous, meaning they take on many forms. The rash may also involve the palms and soles, although this is not always the case. While there may be a mild itch associated with the condition, intense itching is more commonly seen in Chickenpox in children.
Lesions in erythema multiforme typically start on the dorsal surfaces of the hands and feet and spread along the limbs towards the trunk. The condition usually resolves without complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 102
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old lady comes to your clinic for a new patient health check. While conducting the examination, you observe an 8 mm pigmented lesion on her back. She informs you that she had no knowledge of the lesion. The lesion has a uniform pigmentation and a regular outline. It is dry and inflamed, but appears distinct from all of her other moles on her back. She also mentions that her brother was recently diagnosed with melanoma.
What is the best course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Monitor for eight weeks
Explanation:Urgent Referral Needed for Suspicious Lesion
This lesion on the patient’s skin may be a melanoma, and there are several clinical concerns that warrant urgent referral. Firstly, the lesion appears to be new and is greater than 7 mm in diameter. Additionally, there is a family history of melanoma, and the lesion is inflamed. It is important to be aware of the ugly duckling sign, which refers to a pigmented lesion that looks different from the surrounding ones.
Given the patient’s age and family history, she is at high risk of melanoma and should be referred urgently to a dermatologist. It is important to note that excision in primary care should be avoided, as the guidance for excising lesions in primary care may differ depending on the country. Prompt referral and evaluation by a specialist is crucial in cases like this to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 103
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the least acknowledged as a negative consequence of using phenytoin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alopecia
Explanation:Hirsutism is a known side effect of phenytoin, while alopecia is not commonly associated with it.
Understanding the Adverse Effects of Phenytoin
Phenytoin is a medication commonly used to manage seizures. Its mechanism of action involves binding to sodium channels, which increases their refractory period. However, the drug is associated with a large number of adverse effects that can be categorized as acute, chronic, idiosyncratic, and teratogenic.
Acute adverse effects of phenytoin include dizziness, diplopia, nystagmus, slurred speech, ataxia, confusion, and seizures. Chronic adverse effects may include gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, coarsening of facial features, drowsiness, megaloblastic anemia, peripheral neuropathy, enhanced vitamin D metabolism causing osteomalacia, lymphadenopathy, and dyskinesia.
Idiosyncratic adverse effects of phenytoin may include fever, rashes, including severe reactions such as toxic epidermal necrolysis, hepatitis, Dupuytren’s contracture, aplastic anemia, and drug-induced lupus. Finally, teratogenic adverse effects of phenytoin are associated with cleft palate and congenital heart disease.
It is important to note that phenytoin is also an inducer of the P450 system. While routine monitoring of phenytoin levels is not necessary, trough levels should be checked immediately before a dose if there is a need for adjustment of the phenytoin dose, suspected toxicity, or detection of non-adherence to the prescribed medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 104
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man visits his primary care physician with great anxiety about having scabies. His partner has disclosed that he was treated for scabies recently, and the physician observes the typical burrows in the man's finger webs. The man has no other skin ailments or allergies to drugs/foods.
What is the most suitable initial treatment option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Permethrin 5% cream applied to all skin, rinsed after 12 hours with re-treatment after 1 week
Explanation:The recommended first-line treatment for scabies is the application of permethrin cream to all skin, including the scalp, which should be left on for 12 hours before rinsing off. This treatment should be repeated after 7 days. Malathion is a second-line treatment that should be rinsed off after 24 hours. Steroids may be used by dermatologists in cases of resistant scabies or scabies pruritus, but only under specialist guidance. Salt water bathing is not recommended as a treatment for scabies. Mupirocin cream is used to eliminate MRSA in asymptomatic hospital inpatients.
Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Scabies is a skin condition caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which is spread through prolonged skin contact. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults. The mite burrows into the skin, laying its eggs in the outermost layer. The resulting intense itching is due to a delayed hypersensitivity reaction to the mites and eggs, which occurs about a month after infection. Symptoms include widespread itching, linear burrows on the fingers and wrists, and secondary features such as excoriation and infection.
The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, followed by malathion 0.5% if necessary. Patients should be advised to avoid close physical contact until treatment is complete and to treat all household and close contacts, even if asymptomatic. Clothing, bedding, and towels should be laundered, ironed, or tumble-dried on the first day of treatment to kill off mites. The insecticide should be applied to all areas, including the face and scalp, and left on for 8-12 hours for permethrin or 24 hours for malathion before washing off. Treatment should be repeated after 7 days.
Crusted scabies, also known as Norwegian scabies, is a severe form of the condition seen in patients with suppressed immunity, particularly those with HIV. The skin is covered in hundreds of thousands of mites, and isolation is essential. Ivermectin is the treatment of choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 105
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman has developed a polymorphic eruption over the dorsa of both hands and feet. The lesions started 2 days ago and she now has some lesions on the arms and legs. Individual lesions are well-demarcated red macules or small urticarial plaques. Some lesions have a small blister or crusting in the centre, which seems darker than the periphery.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythema multiforme
Explanation:Understanding Erythema Multiforme: Symptoms and Characteristics
Erythema multiforme is a skin condition that typically begins with lesions on the hands and feet before spreading to other areas of the body. The upper limbs are more commonly affected than the lower limbs, and the palms and soles may also be involved. The initial lesions are red or pink macules that become raised papules and gradually enlarge to form plaques up to 2-3 cm in diameter. The center of a lesion darkens in color and may develop blistering or crusting. The typical target lesion of erythema multiforme has a sharp margin, regular round shape, and three concentric color zones. Atypical targets may show just two zones and/or an indistinct border. The rash is polymorphous, meaning it can take many forms, and lesions may be at various stages of development. The rash usually fades over 2-4 weeks, but recurrences are common. In more severe cases, there may be blistering of mucous membranes, which can be life-threatening. Some consider erythema multiforme to be part of a spectrum of disease that includes Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis, while others argue that it should be classified separately as it is associated with infections rather than certain drugs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 106
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl comes to you with acne. Upon examination, you observe several whiteheads and blackheads, but no facial scarring. The patient expresses interest in treatment. What is the initial course of action in this scenario?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical retinoid
Explanation:For the treatment of mild acne, the NICE guidance recommends starting with a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide. This is particularly appropriate for boys. However, if the patient is female, a combined oral contraceptive may be prescribed instead of a retinoid due to the teratogenic effects of retinoids. Mild acne is characterized by the presence of blackheads, whiteheads, papules, and pustules. While scarring is unlikely, the condition can have a significant psychosocial impact. If topical retinoids and benzoyl peroxide are poorly tolerated, azelaic acid may be prescribed. Combined treatment is rarely necessary. Follow-up should be arranged after 6-8 weeks to assess the effectiveness and tolerability of treatment and the patient’s compliance.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 107
Incorrect
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You see a 35-year-old man with psoriasis. As part of his treatment plan, you prescribe topical Betnovate (Betamethasone valerate 0.1%) cream for a psoriasis flare-up on his leg. He inquires about the duration for which he can use this cream on his leg.
According to NICE guidelines, what is the maximum duration for which this type of corticosteroid can be used?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Do not use continuously at any site for longer than 8 weeks
Explanation:NICE Guidelines on the Use of Potent Corticosteroids
Potent corticosteroids should not be used continuously at any site for longer than 8 weeks, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines. It is important to note that the potency of steroid formulations can be difficult to remember from the trade name, so it is recommended to have a reference on hand. The Eczema Society provides a helpful table of commonly used topical steroids. Remembering these guidelines can help ensure safe and effective use of potent corticosteroids.
Spacing:
Potent corticosteroids should not be used continuously at any site for longer than 8 weeks, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines.
It is important to note that the potency of steroid formulations can be difficult to remember from the trade name, so it is recommended to have a reference on hand. The Eczema Society provides a helpful table of commonly used topical steroids.
Remembering these guidelines can help ensure safe and effective use of potent corticosteroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 108
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man returns from a holiday in Spain. He is worried about the multiple white patches on his upper chest where he failed to get a proper suntan. Upon examination, these patches have well-defined scaly white skin and a significant lack of pigmentation compared to the tanned areas. What is the most suitable treatment option from the following list?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clotrimazole cream
Explanation:Understanding and Treating Pityriasis Versicolor
Pityriasis versicolor is a skin condition caused by the yeast Malassezia furfur. It presents as patches of scaling skin that become depigmented compared to surrounding normal skin areas, particularly noticeable during the summer months. The lesions primarily involve the trunk but may spread to other areas. The condition is not contagious as the organism is commensal.
Treatment usually involves topical antifungals such as clotrimazole, terbinafine, or miconazole. Selenium sulphide, an anti-dandruff shampoo, can also be used. However, the condition may recur, and repeat treatments may be necessary. Oral agents such as itraconazole or fluconazole are only used if topical treatments fail.
Skin camouflage can be used to disguise lesions of vitiligo, which may be distressing for patients. The charity organization ‘Changing Faces’ provides this service. Hydrocortisone and fusidic acid are ineffective in treating pityriasis versicolor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 109
Incorrect
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A young woman is referred acutely with a sudden onset of erythematous vesicular eruption affecting upper and lower limbs bilaterally also affecting trunk back and face. She had marked oral cavity ulceration, micturition was painful. She had recently been commenced on a new drug (Methotrexate) for rheumatoid arthritis. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Explanation:Stevens-Johnson Syndrome: A Severe Drug Reaction
Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS), also known as erythema multiforme major, is a severe and extensive drug reaction that always involves mucous membranes. This condition is characterized by the presence of blisters that tend to become confluent and bullous. One of the diagnostic signs of SJS is Nikolsky’s sign, which is the extension of blisters with gentle sliding pressure.
In addition to skin lesions, patients with SJS may experience systemic symptoms such as fever, prostration, cheilitis, stomatitis, vulvovaginitis, and balanitis. These symptoms can lead to difficulties with micturition. Moreover, SJS can affect the eyes, causing conjunctivitis and keratitis, which carry a risk of scarring and permanent visual impairment.
If there are lesions in the pharynx and larynx, it is important to seek an ENT opinion. SJS is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 110
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner with a concern about excessive hair growth on her arms. She has a slim build and olive skin with dark brown hair. The patient shaves the hair to remove it. Her menstrual cycles are regular, occurring every 33 days, and she reports no heavy bleeding or pain. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Genetic phenotype
Explanation:Excessive hair growth on the arms may be noticeable in this woman due to her genetic makeup, as she has olive skin and dark hair. However, hirsutism, which is characterized by excessive hair growth on the face and body, is often associated with polycystic ovarian syndrome. Although her menstrual cycle is regular at 33 days, it is important to note that a normal cycle can range from 24 to 35 days. A cycle variation of 8 days or more is considered moderately irregular, while a variation of 21 days or more is considered very irregular. Additionally, this patient has light periods and a slim physique.
Understanding Hirsutism and Hypertrichosis
Hirsutism is a term used to describe excessive hair growth in women that is dependent on androgens, while hypertrichosis refers to hair growth that is not androgen-dependent. Polycystic ovarian syndrome is the most common cause of hirsutism, but other factors such as Cushing’s syndrome, obesity, and certain medications can also contribute to this condition. To assess hirsutism, the Ferriman-Gallwey scoring system is often used, which assigns scores to nine different body areas. Management of hirsutism may involve weight loss, cosmetic techniques, or the use of oral contraceptive pills or topical medications.
Hypertrichosis, on the other hand, can be caused by a variety of factors such as certain medications, congenital conditions, and even anorexia nervosa. It is important to identify the underlying cause of excessive hair growth in order to determine the most appropriate treatment approach. By understanding the differences between hirsutism and hypertrichosis, individuals can better manage these conditions and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 111
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents with a persistent cough. He reports no other health concerns and is not taking any regular medications. During the consultation, he requests a brief examination of his toenail, which has recently changed in appearance without any known cause. Specifically, the nail on his right big toe is thickened and yellowed at the outer edge. Although he experiences no discomfort or other symptoms, he is curious about the cause of this change.
What initial management approach would you recommend in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No treatment necessary if he is happy to leave it; give self-care advice
Explanation:If a patient has a fungal nail infection that is asymptomatic and doesn’t bother them in terms of appearance, treatment may not be necessary according to NICE CKS guidelines. However, if treatment is desired, topical antifungal treatment for 9-12 months may be appropriate for minor involvement of a single nail. Liver function tests should be checked before prescribing oral antifungal medication such as terbinafine. Self-care advice can be given to the patient, including keeping feet clean and dry, wearing breathable socks and footwear, and avoiding going barefoot in changing rooms. Referral to podiatry is not necessary unless the patient is unable to perform their own foot-care. Swabbing the skin for microscopy and culture may not be useful in cases where the skin is not involved.
Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.
The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.
Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 112
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl comes to your clinic complaining of cracked and peeling feet for the past 3 weeks. Her soles appear shiny and glazed, but her heels are not affected. The web spaces between her toes are also spared. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Juvenile plantar dermatosis
Explanation:It is crucial to correctly diagnose juvenile plantar dermatosis as it can be misidentified as athlete’s foot, and therefore requires different treatment.
Juvenile plantar dermatosis is a prevalent condition that causes dry skin on the feet in children and adolescents, typically affecting those aged 3 to 14, although it can occur in individuals of any age. One key distinguishing factor is that juvenile plantar dermatosis spares the web spaces, whereas tinea pedis (athlete’s foot) commonly affects these areas.
The initial treatment for juvenile plantar dermatosis involves using moisturizing cream at night and barrier cream during the day. Additionally, patients can be advised to reduce friction by wearing well-fitting shoes, two pairs of cotton socks, and changing socks frequently.
Eczema typically presents as scaly, red patches in flexor creases, such as the elbow or knee.
Contact dermatitis may appear similar to juvenile plantar dermatosis, but there would be a history of exposure to a potential trigger.
In summary, accurately diagnosing juvenile plantar dermatosis is crucial to ensure appropriate treatment is provided, as it can be mistaken for other conditions such as athlete’s foot.
Understanding Athlete’s Foot
Athlete’s foot, medically known as tinea pedis, is a common fungal infection that affects the skin on the feet. It is caused by fungi in the Trichophyton genus and is characterized by scaling, flaking, and itching between the toes. The condition is highly contagious and can spread through contact with infected surfaces or people.
To treat athlete’s foot, clinical knowledge summaries recommend using a topical imidazole, undecenoate, or terbinafine as a first-line treatment. These medications work by killing the fungi responsible for the infection and relieving symptoms. It is important to maintain good foot hygiene and avoid sharing personal items such as socks and shoes to prevent the spread of the infection. With proper treatment and prevention measures, athlete’s foot can be effectively managed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 113
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman presents with a rash on her face. She reports having a facial rash with flushing for a few weeks. Upon examination, there is a papulopustular rash with telangiectasia on both cheeks and nose. What is the probable diagnosis, and what is the potential complication associated with it?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blepharitis
Explanation:Acne rosacea is a skin condition that results in long-term facial flushing, erythema, telangiectasia, pustules, papules, and rhinophyma. It can also impact the eyes, leading to blepharitis, keratitis, and conjunctivitis. Treatment options include topical antibiotics such as metronidazole gel or oral tetracycline, particularly if there are ocular symptoms.
Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a skin condition that is chronic in nature and its cause is unknown. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Telangiectasia, which are small blood vessels that are visible on the skin, are common, and the condition can progress to persistent erythema with papules and pustules. Rhinophyma, a condition where the nose becomes enlarged and bulbous, can also occur. Ocular involvement, such as blepharitis, can also be present, and sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.
Management of rosacea depends on the severity of the symptoms. For mild symptoms, topical metronidazole may be used, while topical brimonidine gel may be considered for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics such as oxytetracycline. It is recommended that patients apply a high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia, and those with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist for further management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 114
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a rash on his elbows. He has no other medical issues except for occasional migraines, which he has been treating with atenolol. Upon examination, the lesions appear as distinct, elevated, scaly plaques. What is the most suitable initial treatment option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dovobet®
Explanation:Treatment Options for Chronic Plaque Psoriasis
Chronic plaque psoriasis is a skin condition that can be exacerbated by beta-blockers. Therefore, it is important to discontinue the use of beta-blockers and explore alternative prophylactic drugs for migraine in patients with psoriasis. In addition, regular use of emollients is recommended.
For active therapy, potent corticosteroids, vitamin D analogues, dithranol, and tar preparations are all acceptable first-line options. However, corticosteroids and topical vitamin D analogues are typically preferred due to their ease of application and cosmetic acceptability. A Cochrane review found that combining a potent corticosteroid with a vitamin D analogue was the most effective treatment, with a lower incidence of local adverse events. Dovobet®, which combines betamethasone 0.1% with calcipotriol, is one such option. Calcipotriol used alone is also an acceptable alternative treatment.
For psoriasis of the face, flexures, and genitalia, calcineurin inhibitors such as tacrolimus and pimecrolimus are second-line options after moderately potent corticosteroids.
Managing Chronic Plaque Psoriasis: Treatment Options and Considerations
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 115
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man visits your GP clinic with concerns about spots on his face that have been present for a few months. Despite using an over-the-counter facial wash, the spots have not improved and the patient is becoming more self-conscious about them. He is seeking treatment. During examination, you observe comedones and inflamed lesions on his face, but no nodules.
What is the best initial approach to managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trial of low-strength topical benzoyl peroxide
Explanation:The recommended first-line management for acne is non-antibiotic topical treatment. For mild to moderate acne, a trial of low-strength topical benzoyl peroxide, topical azelaic acid, or topical antibacterial is appropriate. Referral to dermatology is not necessary for mild to moderate acne. Oral antibiotics should only be considered if topical management options have failed. It is important to reassure the patient that treatment is available and necessary, and to review their progress in 2 months.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 116
Incorrect
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A mother brings in her 5-year-old son and shows you a picture of some concerning lesions on his body. She is worried about whether he should stay home from school. Upon examination, you diagnose him with molluscum contagiosum. What advice would you give her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No school exclusion is required
Explanation:Molluscum contagiosum doesn’t require school exclusion or antiviral treatment as it is a self-limiting condition. Unlike Chickenpox, the lesions do not crust over. Antibiotics are not effective against this viral infection. It may take several months for the lesions to disappear, making unnecessary and impractical to consider other options.
Understanding Molluscum Contagiosum
Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection that is commonly found in children, particularly those with atopic eczema. It is caused by the molluscum contagiosum virus and can be transmitted through direct contact or contaminated surfaces. The infection presents as pinkish or pearly white papules with a central umbilication, which can appear anywhere on the body except for the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. In children, the lesions are commonly found on the trunk and flexures, while in adults, they can appear on the genitalia, pubis, thighs, and lower abdomen.
While molluscum contagiosum is a self-limiting condition that usually resolves within 18 months, it is important to avoid sharing towels, clothing, and baths with uninfected individuals to prevent transmission. Scratching the lesions should also be avoided, and treatment may be necessary to alleviate itching or if the lesions are considered unsightly. Treatment options include simple trauma or cryotherapy, depending on the age of the child and the parents’ wishes. In some cases, referral may be necessary, such as for individuals who are HIV-positive with extensive lesions or those with eyelid-margin or ocular lesions and associated red eye.
Overall, understanding molluscum contagiosum and taking appropriate precautions can help prevent the spread of the infection and alleviate symptoms if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 117
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old male is referred to dermatology for evaluation of a non-healing skin ulcer on his lower leg that has persisted for 8 weeks despite a course of oral flucloxacillin. What is the initial investigation that should be prioritized?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ankle-brachial pressure index
Explanation:To rule out arterial insufficiency as a potential cause, it would be beneficial to conduct an ankle-brachial pressure index measurement. If the results are abnormal, it may be necessary to refer the patient to vascular surgeons.
If the ulcer doesn’t respond to active management, such as compression bandaging, it may be necessary to consider a biopsy to rule out malignancy and a referral should be made.
It is uncommon for non-healing leg ulcers to be caused by persistent infection.
Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly found above the medial malleolus. To determine the cause of non-healing ulcers, it is important to conduct an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) test. A normal ABPI value is between 0.9 to 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. However, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease due to arterial calcification, especially in diabetic patients.
The most effective treatment for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, specifically four-layer bandaging. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate of venous ulcers. While there is some evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, there is little evidence to suggest the benefit of hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 118
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old male presents with irregular skin discoloration on his upper back after returning from a 2-week vacation in Ibiza. Although he applied sunscreen intermittently, he did experience mild sunburn in the area, which has since healed. He doesn't experience any pain or itching, but he is self-conscious about the appearance of his skin. During the examination, there are scattered pale pink macules covered with fine scales visible over his upper back, despite having a suntan. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pityriasis versicolor
Explanation:The patient has pityriasis Versicolor, a fungal infection that affects sebum-rich areas of skin. It presents as multiple round or oval macules that may coalesce, with light pink, red or brown colour and fine scale. Itching is mild. It is not vitiligo, sunburn or pityriasis rosea, nor tinea corporis.
Understanding Pityriasis Versicolor
Pityriasis versicolor, also known as tinea versicolor, is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is caused by Malassezia furfur, which was previously known as Pityrosporum ovale. This condition is characterized by patches that are commonly found on the trunk area. These patches may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and may become more noticeable after sun exposure. Scaling is also a common feature, and mild itching may occur.
Pityriasis versicolor can affect healthy individuals, but it may also occur in people with weakened immune systems, malnutrition, or Cushing’s syndrome. Treatment for this condition typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents. According to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, ketoconazole shampoo is a cost-effective option for treating large areas. If topical treatment fails, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed.
In summary, pityriasis versicolor is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is characterized by patches that may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and scaling is a common feature. Treatment typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed if topical treatment fails.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 119
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 3-week-old baby boy into the clinic for evaluation. She has observed a well-defined, lobulated, and bright red lesion appearing on his left cheek. The lesion was not present at birth but has now grown to 6 mm in diameter. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure the mother that most lesions spontaneously regress
Explanation:If the strawberry naevus on this baby is not causing any mechanical issues or bleeding, treatment is typically unnecessary.
Strawberry naevi, also known as capillary haemangiomas, are not usually present at birth but can develop quickly within the first month of life. They appear as raised, red, and lobed tumours that commonly occur on the face, scalp, and back. These growths tend to increase in size until around 6-9 months before gradually disappearing over the next few years. However, in rare cases, they can obstruct the airway if they occur in the upper respiratory tract. Capillary haemangiomas are more common in white infants, particularly in females, premature infants, and those whose mothers have undergone chorionic villous sampling.
Complications of strawberry naevi include obstruction of vision or airway, bleeding, ulceration, and thrombocytopaenia. Treatment may be necessary if there is visual field obstruction, and propranolol is now the preferred choice over systemic steroids. Topical beta-blockers such as timolol may also be used. Cavernous haemangioma is a type of deep capillary haemangioma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 120
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man presents with peeling, dryness and mild itching of the palm of his right hand. On examination, there is hyperkeratosis of the palm with prominent white skin lines. The left hand appears normal.
What is the most appropriate investigation for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Skin scraping for fungus
Explanation:Understanding Tinea Manuum: A Unilateral Scaly Rash
Tinea manuum is a type of fungal infection that affects the hands. It is characterized by a unilateral scaly rash that can also involve the back of the hand and nails. In some cases, both hands may be affected, but the involvement tends to be asymmetrical.
The most common cause of tinea manuum is an anthropophilic fungus such as Tricophyton rubrum, Tricophyton mentagrophytes, or Epidermophyton floccosum. These fungi are typically found on human skin and can be easily transmitted through direct contact.
In some cases, tinea manuum may present as a raised border with clearing in the middle, resembling a ringworm. This is more likely to occur when a zoophilic fungus is responsible, such as Trichophyton erinacei from a hedgehog or Microsporum canis from a cat or dog.
It is important to suspect dermatophyte fungus when a unilateral scaly rash is present on the hands. Treatment typically involves antifungal medication, and it is important to maintain good hand hygiene to prevent further spread of the infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 121
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man comes in with plaque psoriasis on his body, elbows, and knees. He has been using a potent corticosteroid ointment and a vitamin D preparation once daily for the past 8 weeks, but there has been no improvement in his skin. What should be the next course of action in managing his plaque psoriasis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop the corticosteroid and continue with topical vitamin D preparation twice daily for up to 12 weeks
Explanation:The best course of action would be to discontinue the corticosteroid and increase the frequency of vitamin D application to twice daily, as per NICE guidelines. It is necessary to take a 4-week break from the topical steroid, which has already been used for 8 weeks. Therefore, continuing or increasing the steroid usage to twice daily would be inappropriate. Dithranol and referral to Dermatology are not necessary at this point, as the treatment plan has not been finished.
Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.
For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.
When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 122
Incorrect
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What is the most potent topical steroid used for treating dermatological conditions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Locoid (hydrocortisone butyrate 0.1%)
Explanation:Topical Steroid Potencies: Understanding the Differences
Topical steroids are commonly used in general practice to treat various skin conditions. However, it is crucial to understand the relative potencies of these medications to prescribe them safely and effectively.
Dermovate is the most potent topical steroid, classified as very potent. Betnovate and hydrocortisone butyrate are both considered potent, while eumovate falls under the moderate potency category. Hydrocortisone 1% is classified as mild.
To gain a better understanding of topical steroid potencies, the British National Formulary provides a helpful overview. By knowing the differences between these medications, healthcare professionals can prescribe the appropriate treatment for their patients’ skin conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 123
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man has evidence of sun damage on his bald scalp including several actinic keratoses.
Select from the list the single most correct statement regarding actinic keratoses.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Induration under the surface keratin suggests malignant change
Explanation:Understanding Actinic Keratoses: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options
Actinic keratoses (AK) or solar keratoses are skin lesions caused by prolonged exposure to ultraviolet light. This condition is commonly seen in fair-skinned individuals who have spent a lot of time in the sun. While AK is similar to Bowen’s disease, which is a type of skin cancer, most solitary lesions do not progress to malignancy. However, patients with more than 10 AKs have a 10 to 15% risk of developing skin cancer, making it a significant concern.
AKs typically start as small rough spots that are more easily felt than seen. Over time, they enlarge and become red and scaly. Lesions with pronounced hyperkeratosis, increased erythema, or induration, ulceration, and lesions that recur after treatment or are unresponsive to treatment should be suspected of malignant change.
For mild AKs, no therapy or emollients are necessary. However, curettage or excision, cryotherapy, and photodynamic therapy are the most effective treatments. 5-fluorouracil cream can clear AKs, but it produces a painful inflammatory response. Diclofenac gel has moderate efficacy but has fewer side effects than other topical preparations and is used for mild AKs.
In conclusion, understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for AKs is crucial for early detection and prevention of skin cancer. Regular skin checks and sun protection measures are essential for individuals at risk of developing AKs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 124
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man who has recently moved to the UK from Uganda presents with complaints of fatigue and purple skin lesions all over his body. During examination, multiple raised purple lesions are observed on his trunk and arms. Additionally, smaller purple lesions are noticed in his mouth. The patient has recently begun taking acyclovir for herpes zoster infection.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kaposi's sarcoma
Explanation:The patient’s raised purple lesions suggest Kaposi’s sarcoma, which is often associated with HIV infection. The recent herpes zoster infection also suggests underlying immunocompromise. Other conditions such as dermatofibromas, psoriasis, and drug reactions are unlikely to present in this way, and a haemangioma is less likely than Kaposi’s sarcoma.
Kaposi’s sarcoma is a type of cancer that is caused by the human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8). It is characterized by the appearance of purple papules or plaques on the skin or mucosa, such as in the gastrointestinal and respiratory tract. These skin lesions may eventually ulcerate, while respiratory involvement can lead to massive haemoptysis and pleural effusion. Treatment options for Kaposi’s sarcoma include radiotherapy and resection. It is commonly seen in patients with HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 125
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman complains of bullae on her forearms after returning from a trip to Spain. She also reports that her hands have delicate skin that tears easily. The patient has a history of hypertrichosis and has previously been referred to a dermatologist. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Porphyria cutanea tarda
Explanation:Understanding Porphyria Cutanea Tarda
Porphyria cutanea tarda is a type of hepatic porphyria that is commonly inherited due to a defect in uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase. However, it can also be caused by liver damage from factors such as alcohol, hepatitis C, or estrogen. The condition is characterized by a rash that is sensitive to sunlight, with blistering and skin fragility on the face and hands being the most common features. Other symptoms include hypertrichosis and hyperpigmentation.
To diagnose porphyria cutanea tarda, doctors typically look for elevated levels of uroporphyrinogen in the urine, as well as pink fluorescence under a Wood’s lamp. Additionally, serum iron ferritin levels are used to guide therapy.
Treatment for porphyria cutanea tarda typically involves the use of chloroquine or venesection. Venesection is preferred if the iron ferritin level is above 600 ng/ml. With proper management, individuals with porphyria cutanea tarda can lead normal lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 126
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female presents to the clinic with a 4-week history of a mild rash on her face. She reports that the rash is highly sensitive to sunlight and has been wearing hats for protection. The patient is six months postpartum and has no significant medical history.
During the examination, an erythematous rash with superficial pustules is observed on the forehead, nose, and cheeks.
What is the most effective treatment for the underlying condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical metronidazole
Explanation:Acne rosacea is a skin condition that commonly affects fair-skinned individuals over the age of 30, with symptoms appearing on the nose, cheeks, and forehead. Flushing, erythema, and telangiectasia can progress to papules and pustules. Exacerbating factors include sunlight, pregnancy, certain drugs, and food. For mild to moderate cases, NICE recommends metronidazole as a first-line treatment, with other topical agents such as brimonidine, oxymetazoline, benzoyl peroxide, and tretinoin also being effective. Systemic antibiotics like erythromycin and tetracycline can be used for moderate to severe cases. Camouflage creams and sunscreen can help manage symptoms, but do not treat the underlying condition. Steroid creams are not recommended for acne rosacea, while topical calcineurin inhibitors may be used for other skin conditions like seborrheic dermatitis, lichen planus, and vitiligo.
Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a skin condition that is chronic in nature and its cause is unknown. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Telangiectasia, which are small blood vessels that are visible on the skin, are common, and the condition can progress to persistent erythema with papules and pustules. Rhinophyma, a condition where the nose becomes enlarged and bulbous, can also occur. Ocular involvement, such as blepharitis, can also be present, and sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.
Management of rosacea depends on the severity of the symptoms. For mild symptoms, topical metronidazole may be used, while topical brimonidine gel may be considered for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics such as oxytetracycline. It is recommended that patients apply a high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia, and those with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist for further management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 127
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old Caucasian woman with a history of type 1 diabetes presents for review. She has just returned from a summer holiday in Spain and has noticed some patches on her limbs that do not appear to have tanned. Otherwise the skin in these patches appears normal.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitiligo
Explanation:Understanding Vitiligo: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options
Vitiligo is a skin condition that results in the loss of melanocyte function, leading to areas of depigmentation on the skin. It is believed to be an autoimmune disorder and is often associated with other autoimmune diseases. While it affects around 0.4% of the Caucasian population, it can be more distressing for those with darker skin tones. Symptoms include patches of skin that fail to tan, particularly during the summer months.
Treatment options for vitiligo include using strong protection on affected areas and using potent topical corticosteroids for up to two months to stimulate repigmentation. However, these should not be used on the face or during pregnancy. Hospital referral may be necessary if more than 10% of the body is involved, and treatment may include topical calcineurin inhibitors or phototherapy.
It is important to differentiate vitiligo from other skin conditions such as pityriasis versicolor, lichen sclerosus, psoriasis, and chloasma. Macules and patches are flat, while papules and plaques are raised. A lesion becomes a patch or a plaque when it is greater than 2 cm across.
Overall, understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for vitiligo can help individuals manage this condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 128
Incorrect
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You are assessing a patient with chronic plaque psoriasis. Previously, a combination of beclomethasone and calcipotriol was attempted but proved ineffective. Subsequently, calcipotriol monotherapy was prescribed twice daily, but this also failed to alleviate symptoms. The patient, who is in his mid-thirties, presents with plaques measuring approximately 6-7 cm on his elbows and knees. According to NICE guidelines, what are the two most suitable options to discuss with him?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Beclomethasone twice a day OR a coal tar preparation
Explanation:Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.
For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.
When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 129
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man who is a recent immigrant from Tanzania complains about an ulcer on his penis. This is painless and has been present for some months, but is slowly enlarging. On examination he has an ulcer at the base of his glans and an offensive exudate. He also has bilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy.
Select the most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Penile cancer
Explanation:Penile Cancer, Chancroid, and Syphilis: A Comparison
Penile cancer is a rare condition in the UK, but is more commonly seen in patients from Asia and Africa. It is often associated with poor hygiene and herpes infections, and can cause difficulty in retracting the foreskin. The 5-year survival rate with lymph-node involvement is around 50%.
Chancroid, on the other hand, is characterized by a painful ulcer. Lymphadenitis is also painful, and may progress to a suppurative bubo. Multiple ulcers may be present.
In syphilis, the primary chancre typically heals within 4-8 weeks, with or without treatment.
While these conditions may have some similarities, they are distinct and require different approaches to diagnosis and treatment. It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you may have any of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 130
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents with a fungal nail infection. You determine that terbinafine is the appropriate treatment. Choose the one accurate statement regarding the use of terbinafine.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3 months’ therapy is needed
Explanation:Fungal Nail Infection Treatment Options
Fungal nail infections are commonly caused by Trichophyton rubrum and Trichophyton mentagrophytes fungi. These two types of fungi are responsible for over 90% of cases, with T. rubrum being the most common culprit. Systemic treatment is recommended for fungal nail infections as it is more effective. However, the slow growth of nails means that they may not appear normal even after successful treatment.
Terbinafine is currently the first-line treatment for fungal nail infections, with evidence showing greater efficacy compared to itraconazole. However, itraconazole is more effective against candida. Treatment with terbinafine usually takes around 3 months to be effective. It is important to note that terbinafine is not licensed for use in children under 12 years old, in which case griseofulvin must be used.
There have been rare cases of liver toxicity with terbinafine, and very rare reports of severe skin reactions such as Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis. Therefore, it is advisable to monitor hepatic function before treatment and every 4-6 weeks during treatment. If abnormalities in liver function tests occur, treatment should be discontinued.
Itraconazole can be given in pulses for 7 days every month to treat fungal nail infections. Two pulses are recommended for fingernails, and three for toenails.
In conclusion, fungal nail infections can be effectively treated with systemic antifungal medications such as terbinafine and itraconazole. However, it is important to monitor for potential side effects and to follow the recommended treatment regimen for optimal results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 131
Incorrect
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What condition is characterized by a rash that causes itching?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meningococcal purpura
Explanation:Common Skin Rashes and Their Associated Conditions
Dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin rash that causes vesicles and intense itching. It is often linked to coeliac disease. Erythema chronicum migrans is a rash that appears as a red macule or papule and grows into an annular lesion. It is associated with Lyme disease, which is caused by a spirochaete infection. Erythema nodosum is a painful nodular rash that typically appears on the shins. If it is accompanied by arthritis of the ankles and wrists and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, it is indicative of acute sarcoidosis. Granuloma annulare is a benign condition that produces firm nodules that merge to form ring-shaped lesions. Finally, the non-blanching purpuric rash of meningococcal disease is not itchy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 132
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old obese man has hyperpigmented, thickened, velvety skin, with surrounding skin tags in both axillae.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acanthosis nigricans
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Hyperpigmented Skin: Acanthosis Nigricans, Erythrasma, Melasma, Necrobiosis Lipoidica Diabeticorum, and Post-Inflammatory Hyperpigmentation
Hyperpigmented skin can be caused by a variety of conditions. One possible cause is acanthosis nigricans, which presents with thick, velvety skin in the neck and flexures, often accompanied by skin tags. This condition is commonly associated with obesity and hereditary factors. However, it can also be a sign of an internal malignancy, particularly gastric cancer.
Another possible cause of hyperpigmented skin is erythrasma, a bacterial infection that causes pink-red macules that turn brown, typically in the groin and axilla. However, the bilateral distribution of the pigmentation in this case makes erythrasma less likely.
Melasma is another condition that can cause hyperpigmentation, but it typically presents with symmetrical blotchy brown pigmentation on the face. The distribution described in the scenario makes melasma less likely.
Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is a rare condition that affects the shins of people with diabetes. However, the distribution of the pigmentation in this case rules out this condition as a cause.
Finally, post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation can occur after trauma such as burns, causing flat macules. However, it doesn’t cause skin thickening, as described in this case.
In summary, the differential diagnosis for hyperpigmented skin includes acanthosis nigricans, erythrasma, melasma, necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum, and post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation. A thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying cause and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 133
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions results in non-scarring hair loss?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alopecia areata
Explanation:Types of Alopecia and Their Causes
Alopecia, or hair loss, can be categorized into two types: scarring and non-scarring. Scarring alopecia occurs when the hair follicle is destroyed, while non-scarring alopecia is characterized by the preservation of the hair follicle.
Scarring alopecia can be caused by various factors such as trauma, burns, radiotherapy, lichen planus, discoid lupus, and untreated tinea capitis. On the other hand, non-scarring alopecia can be attributed to male-pattern baldness, certain drugs like cytotoxic drugs, carbimazole, heparin, oral contraceptive pill, and colchicine, nutritional deficiencies such as iron and zinc deficiency, autoimmune disorders like alopecia areata, telogen effluvium, hair loss following a stressful period like surgery, and trichotillomania.
It is important to identify the type of alopecia and its underlying cause in order to determine the appropriate treatment. In some cases, scarring may develop in untreated tinea capitis if a kerion develops. Understanding the different types and causes of alopecia can help individuals take necessary steps to prevent or manage hair loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 134
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old lady has a limited superficial thrombophlebitis around her left ankle.
She describes pain and tenderness of the superficial veins.
There is no fever or malaise and no evidence of arterial insufficiency (her ankle brachial pressure index is 1).
She is allergic to penicillin.
What are the two most appropriate treatments for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical non-steroidal
Explanation:Management of Limited Superficial Thrombophlebitis
In the management of limited superficial thrombophlebitis, the most appropriate treatment option is the use of class 1 compression stockings. This is because most patients find class 2 compression stockings too painful. Additionally, an ankle brachial pressure index of between 0.8 and 1.3 means that arterial disease is unlikely, and compression stockings are generally safe to wear. Antibiotics are not indicated unless there are signs of infection, and the patient’s allergy to penicillin precludes the use of antibiotics as a treatment option. Topical non-steroidals can be used for mild and limited superficial thrombophlebitis, such as is presented here. Although an oral non-steroidal or paracetamol may be suggested, it is not presented as an option. As this condition is relatively common in primary care, it is important to be familiar with the most appropriate treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 135
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman comes in for follow-up after a laparoscopic appendectomy that went smoothly. She reports feeling fine and has no issues to report. During the examination, linear, clearly defined abrasions are observed on her forearms and scalp. The patient appears unconcerned about these lesions and has a history of severe anxiety and depression. A punch biopsy is performed, which reveals nonspecific results.
What could be the probable reason for these symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dermatitis artefacta
Explanation:The sudden appearance of linear, well-defined skin lesions with a lack of concern from the patient may indicate dermatitis artefacta, a condition where the lesions are self-inflicted. A punch biopsy has ruled out other potential causes, and the patient’s history of psychiatric disorders supports this diagnosis. Atopic dermatitis is a possibility, but typically presents with additional symptoms such as pruritus and scaly erythematous plaques. Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma cannot be ruled out without a biopsy, and lichen planus is unlikely due to the patient’s lack of distress from pruritus.
Understanding Dermatitis Artefacta
Dermatitis artefacta is a rare condition that affects individuals of any age, but is more common in females. It is characterised by self-inflicted skin lesions that patients typically deny are self-induced. The condition is strongly associated with personality disorder, dissociative disorders, and eating disorders, with a prevalence of up to 33% in patients with bulimia or anorexia.
Patients with dermatitis artefacta present with well-demarcated linear or geometric lesions that appear suddenly and do not evolve over time. The lesions may be caused by scratching with fingernails or other objects, burning skin with cigarettes, or chemical exposure. Commonly affected areas include the face and dorsum of the hands. Despite the severity of the skin lesions, patients may display a nonchalant attitude, known as la belle indifference.
Diagnosis of dermatitis artefacta is based on clinical history and exclusion of other dermatological conditions. Biopsy of skin lesions is not routine but may be helpful to exclude other conditions. Psychiatric assessment may be necessary. Differential diagnosis includes other dermatological conditions and factitious disorders such as Munchausen syndrome and malingering.
Management of dermatitis artefacta involves a multidisciplinary approach with dermatologists, psychologists, and psychiatrists. Direct confrontation is unhelpful and may discourage patients from seeking medical help. Treatment includes providing occlusive dressing, topical antibiotics, and bland emollients. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors and cognitive behavioural therapy may be helpful, although evidence is limited.
In summary, dermatitis artefacta is a rare condition that requires a multidisciplinary approach for management. Understanding the clinical features, risk factors, and differential diagnosis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 136
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman comes in with a persistent erythematous rash on her cheeks and a 'red nose'. She reports experiencing occasional facial flushing. During examination, erythematous skin is observed on the nose and cheeks, along with occasional papules. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical metronidazole
Explanation:For the treatment of mild rosacea symptoms, the recommended first-line option is topical metronidazole. However, if the symptoms are severe or resistant, oral tetracycline may be necessary.
Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a skin condition that is chronic in nature and its cause is unknown. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Telangiectasia, which are small blood vessels that are visible on the skin, are common, and the condition can progress to persistent erythema with papules and pustules. Rhinophyma, a condition where the nose becomes enlarged and bulbous, can also occur. Ocular involvement, such as blepharitis, can also be present, and sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.
Management of rosacea depends on the severity of the symptoms. For mild symptoms, topical metronidazole may be used, while topical brimonidine gel may be considered for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics such as oxytetracycline. It is recommended that patients apply a high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia, and those with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist for further management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 137
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female patient comes to you with circular patches of non-scarring hair loss on her scalp that have developed in the last 3 months. You diagnose her with alopecia areata. Although you suggest a watch-and-wait approach, she is distressed by the condition and wishes to try treatment. What management options could you initiate in Primary Care?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical steroid
Explanation:Patients with hair loss may experience natural recovery within a year, but those who do not see regrowth or have more than 50% hair loss may require further treatment.
Understanding Alopecia Areata
Alopecia areata is a condition that is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response, resulting in localized hair loss that is well-defined and demarcated. This condition is characterized by the presence of small, broken hairs that resemble exclamation marks at the edge of the hair loss. While hair regrowth occurs in about 50% of patients within a year, it eventually occurs in 80-90% of patients. In many cases, a careful explanation of the condition is sufficient for patients. However, there are several treatment options available, including topical or intralesional corticosteroids, topical minoxidil, phototherapy, dithranol, contact immunotherapy, and wigs. It is important to understand the causes and treatment options for alopecia areata to effectively manage this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 138
Incorrect
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You are working in a GP practice, and your next patient is a female aged 35, who has recently registered. She is living in a hostel near to the practice. She has a previous medical history of anxiety and depression, and is coded to be an ex-intravenous drug user.
She reports having intensely itchy 'lumps' on her arms and legs for the past two weeks. Upon examination, she has multiple red bumps and raised areas on her limbs and torso, with some of these appearing in a curved line pattern. Her hands, feet, and groin are unaffected.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bedbug infestation
Explanation:If a patient complains of intensely itchy bumps on their arms, torso, or legs, it may be a sign of a bed bug infestation. This is especially true if the patient has recently stayed in a hotel, hostel, or other temporary accommodation, as bed bugs can easily travel on clothing and luggage.
While scabies is a possible differential diagnosis, it is less likely if the patient doesn’t have involvement of the finger webs or linear burrows beneath the skin. Bed bug bites tend to appear as lumps or welts, rather than small spots.
If the lesions are aligned in a line or curve, this is also suggestive of a bed bug infestation, as the insects tend to move across the skin in a linear fashion.
Dealing with Bed Bugs: Symptoms, Treatment, and Prevention
Bed bugs are a type of insect that can cause a range of clinical problems, including itchy skin rashes, bites, and allergic reactions. Infestation with Cimex hemipterus is the primary cause of these symptoms. In recent years, bed bug infestations have become increasingly common in the UK, and they can be challenging to eradicate. These insects thrive in mattresses and fabrics, making them difficult to detect and eliminate.
Topical hydrocortisone can help control the itch. However, the definitive treatment for bed bugs is through a pest management company that can fumigate your home. This process can be costly, but it is the most effective way to eliminate bed bugs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 139
Incorrect
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As part of your role in coordinating the introduction of the shingles vaccine (Zostavax) to the surgery, the Practice Manager has asked you to identify which age group should be offered the vaccine.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All adults aged 70-79 years
Explanation:Serologic studies reveal that adults aged 60 years and above have been exposed to Chickenpox to a great extent. Hence, it is recommended that individuals within the age range of 70-79 years should receive the vaccine, irrespective of their memory of having had Chickenpox. However, the vaccine may not be as efficacious in individuals above 80 years of age.
Varicella-Zoster Vaccination: Protection Against Chickenpox and Shingles
Varicella-zoster is a herpesvirus that causes Chickenpox and shingles. There are two types of vaccines available to protect against these infections. The first type is a live attenuated vaccine that prevents primary varicella infection or Chickenpox. This vaccine is recommended for healthcare workers who are not immune to VZV and for individuals who are in close contact with immunocompromised patients.
The second type of vaccine is designed to reduce the incidence of herpes zoster or shingles caused by reactivation of VZV. This live-attenuated vaccine is given subcutaneously and is offered to patients aged 70-79 years. The vaccine is also available as a catch-up campaign for those who missed out on their vaccinations in the previous two years of the program. However, the shingles vaccine is not available on the NHS to anyone aged 80 and over because it seems to be less effective in this age group.
The main contraindication for both vaccines is immunosuppression. Side effects of the vaccines include injection site reactions, and less than 1 in 10,000 individuals may develop Chickenpox. It is important to note that vaccination is the most effective way to prevent varicella-zoster infections and their complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 140
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female is worried about the unsightly appearance of her toenails. She has noticed a whitish discoloration that extends up the nail bed in several toes on both feet. After confirming a dermatophyte infection, she has been diligently cutting her nails and applying topical amorolifine, but with no improvement. What is the best course of treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical terbinafine
Explanation:Treatment for Fungal Nail Infection
If an adult has a confirmed fungal nail infection and self-care measures or topical treatment are not successful or appropriate, treatment with an oral antifungal agent should be offered. The first-line recommendation is Terbinafine because it is effective against both dermatophytes and Candida species. On the other hand, the ‘-azoles’ such as fluconazole do not have as much efficacy against dermatophytes. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent the spread of infection and improve the appearance of the affected nail.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 141
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents for follow-up. She has been experiencing recurrent genital warts for the last 3 years and has not seen improvement with topical podophyllum. She previously underwent cryotherapy but is hesitant to do it again due to discomfort. During the exam, numerous fleshy genital warts are observed around her introitus. What is the best course of action for treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical imiquimod
Explanation:Understanding Genital Warts
Genital warts, also known as condylomata accuminata, are a common reason for visits to genitourinary clinics. These warts are caused by various types of the human papillomavirus (HPV), with types 6 and 11 being the most common. It is important to note that HPV, particularly types 16, 18, and 33, can increase the risk of cervical cancer.
The warts themselves are small, fleshy growths that are typically 2-5 mm in size and may be slightly pigmented. They can also cause itching or bleeding. Treatment options for genital warts include topical podophyllum or cryotherapy, depending on the location and type of lesion. Topical agents are generally used for multiple, non-keratinised warts, while solitary, keratinised warts respond better to cryotherapy. Imiquimod, a topical cream, is typically used as a second-line treatment. It is important to note that genital warts can be resistant to treatment, and recurrence is common. However, most anogenital HPV infections clear up on their own within 1-2 years without intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 142
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a 6-week history of an itchy rash. The rash appeared on the medial and anterior aspects of the thigh and the trunk. It consisted of numerous small fluid-filled vesicles and a number of larger lesions measuring 2-3 cm, filled with serous fluid. Many of the lesions have burst, leaving erosions.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bullous pemphigoid
Explanation:Common Blistering Skin Conditions: Causes and Symptoms
Blisters on the skin can be caused by various conditions, each with their own unique symptoms. Here are some common blistering skin conditions and their characteristics:
1. Bullous pemphigoid: This autoimmune disorder results in blisters that are tense and do not rupture easily. They are usually symmetrical and appear on the trunk and limbs, with the mouth being affected in some cases.
2. Dermatitis herpetiformis: This condition causes intensely itchy vesicles on the elbows, knees, and buttocks. It is associated with gluten intolerance and coeliac disease, and can be controlled by excluding gluten from the diet.
3. Bullous impetigo: This superficial infection is caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus spp. and results in a golden-crusted eruption on a red base. Occasionally, a toxin produced by the organism can cause a blister.
4. Scabies: This condition causes itchy papules and burrows of the scabies mite on the finger webs, elbows, ankles, axillae, and genitalia. In rare cases, it can cause blistering. Norwegian (crusted) scabies is a severe form that occurs in immunosuppressed individuals.
5. Vesicular insect bite eruption: Insect bites can occasionally result in tense blisters on a wheal at the site of the bite. They are usually short-lived and accompanied by itching.
If you experience blistering skin, it is important to seek medical attention to determine the underlying cause and receive appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 143
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 26-year-old female who has a medical history of seborrhoeic dermatitis and eczema, which have been well controlled for a few years. However, over the past two months, she has experienced a flare-up, particularly around her mouth. She attempted to alleviate the symptoms with an over-the-counter steroid cream, but it only made the condition worse.
During the examination, you observed clustered erythematous papules around her mouth, but the skin immediately adjacent to the vermilion border was unaffected. Her cheeks and forehead were also unaffected.
Based on the most probable diagnosis, which of the following management options is the most appropriate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral lymecycline tablets
Explanation:Peri-oral dermatitis cannot be treated with potent steroids as they are not effective. Emollients are also not recommended for improving the condition. Patients are advised to stop using all face care products until the flare-up of peri-oral dermatitis has subsided. The British Association of Dermatology (BAD) provides a useful leaflet on this condition that should be consulted.
Understanding Periorificial Dermatitis
Periorificial dermatitis is a skin condition that is commonly observed in women between the ages of 20 and 45 years old. The use of topical corticosteroids, and to a lesser extent, inhaled corticosteroids, is often linked to the development of this condition. The symptoms of periorificial dermatitis include the appearance of clustered erythematous papules, papulovesicles, and papulopustules, which are typically found in the perioral, perinasal, and periocular regions. However, the skin immediately adjacent to the vermilion border of the lip is usually spared.
When it comes to managing periorificial dermatitis, it is important to note that steroids may actually worsen the symptoms. Instead, the condition should be treated with either topical or oral antibiotics. By understanding the features and management of periorificial dermatitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to address this condition and improve their skin health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 144
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman visits her GP for a regular check-up and expresses concern about her facial acne. She has a combination of comedones and pustules, but no significant scarring. Despite using a topical retinoid, she is hesitant to try another oral antibiotic after experiencing no improvement with three months of lymecycline. She has no risk factors for venous thromboembolism, her blood pressure is normal, and her cervical screening is up to date. She is interested in exploring hormonal treatments for her acne. What is the most appropriate medication to prescribe?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Microgynon
Explanation:When treating moderate acne that doesn’t respond to topical treatments, it may be appropriate to add an oral antibiotic like lymecycline or doxycycline for up to three months. If there is no improvement, the acne worsens, or the patient cannot tolerate side effects, a different antibiotic can be tried. However, if the patient doesn’t want to try a different antibiotic, combined oral contraceptives can be considered as long as there are no contraindications. Second or third-generation combined oral contraceptives are typically preferred, such as Microgynon. It is important to note that Cerelle, a progesterone-only contraceptive, can worsen acne due to its androgenic activity. Dianette (co-cyprindiol) is a second-line contraceptive option for moderate to severe acne, but it comes with an increased risk of VTE and should only be used after careful discussion of the risks and benefits with the patient. It should be discontinued three months after acne has been controlled. Similarly, Cerazette is not a suitable option due to its androgenic activity.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 145
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female patient complains of a rash on her neck and forehead. She recently came back from a trip to Greece a week ago and had her hair colored two days ago. Upon examination, there is a vesicular rash around her hairline that is oozing, but her scalp is not severely affected. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Allergic contact dermatitis
Explanation:Understanding Contact Dermatitis
Contact dermatitis is a skin condition that can be caused by two main types of reactions. The first type is irritant contact dermatitis, which is a non-allergic reaction that occurs due to exposure to weak acids or alkalis, such as detergents. This type of dermatitis is commonly seen on the hands and is characterized by erythema, but crusting and vesicles are rare.
The second type of contact dermatitis is allergic contact dermatitis, which is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction. This type of dermatitis is uncommon and is often seen on the head following hair dyes. It presents as an acute weeping eczema that predominantly affects the margins of the hairline rather than the hairy scalp itself. Topical treatment with a potent steroid is indicated for this type of dermatitis.
Cement is a frequent cause of contact dermatitis. The alkaline nature of cement may cause an irritant contact dermatitis, while the dichromates in cement can also cause an allergic contact dermatitis. It is important to understand the different types of contact dermatitis and their causes to effectively manage and treat this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 146
Incorrect
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You see a 4-year-old girl who has had a fever for the past five days. Her mother reports her mouth looks more red and sore than usual. She also reports discomfort in her eyes.
On examination, you note a widespread non-vesicular rash and cervical lymphadenopathy.
What is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure
Explanation:Kawasaki Disease Treatment and Follow-Up
Patients diagnosed with Kawasaki disease typically require hospitalization for treatment with intravenous immunoglobulin and to monitor for potential myocardial events. Due to the risk of cardiac complications, follow-up echocardiograms are necessary to detect any coronary artery aneurysms. It is important to note that Kawasaki disease is not a notifiable disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 147
Incorrect
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You encounter a 35 year old woman during her routine medication review. She has chronic plaque psoriasis on her trunk and her repeat prescription includes emollients, a topical coal-tar preparation, and a potent topical steroid cream for use during flare-ups. What guidance should you provide her regarding self-care with potent topical steroids for her psoriasis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Should not be used continuously on the same site for longer than 8 weeks; aim for at least 4 weeks break between courses
Explanation:According to NICE, it is not recommended to use potent topical steroids for psoriasis on the same area for more than 8 weeks without a break of at least 4 weeks between courses. For very potent topical steroids, continuous use should not exceed 4 weeks, and patients should aim for a break of at least 4 weeks between courses. Prolonged use can lead to irreversible skin atrophy and striae, systemic steroid side effects, or destabilization of psoriasis. To maintain control when not using topical steroids, other topical therapies such as coal tar or vitamin D analogues can be used.
Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.
For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.
When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 148
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old man has an ulcer on his right foot. He has had type 1 diabetes for 20 years.
There is a small ulcer of 2 cm diameter on the outer aspect of his right big toe.
His peripheral pulses are all palpable. He has a peripheral neuropathy to the mid shins. The ulcer has an erythematous margin and is covered by slough.
Which is the most likely infective organism?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes
Explanation:Diabetic Foot Ulcers and Infections
Diabetic foot ulcers can be categorized into two types: those in neuropathic feet and those in feet with ischemia. The former is warm and well-perfused with decreased sweating and dry skin, while the latter is cool and pulseless with thin, shiny skin and atrophy of subcutaneous tissues. Diabetic foot infections are serious and range from superficial paronychia to gangrene. Diabetics are more susceptible to foot ulceration due to neuropathy, vascular insufficiency, and reduced neutrophil function. Once skin ulceration occurs, pathogenic organisms can colonize the underlying tissues, and early signs of infection may be subtle. Local signs of wound infection include friable granulation tissue, yellow or grey moist tissue, purulent discharge, and an unpleasant odor. The most common pathogens are aerobic Gram-positive bacteria, particularly Staphylococcus aureus and beta-hemolytic Streptococci. If infection is suspected, deep swab and tissue samples should be sent for culture, and broad-spectrum antibiotics started. Urgent surgical intervention is necessary for a large area of infected sloughy tissue, localised fluctuance and expression of pus, crepitus in the soft tissues on radiological examination, and purplish discoloration of the skin. Antibiotic treatment should be tailored according to the clinical response, culture results, and sensitivity. If osteomyelitis is present, surgical resection should be considered, and antibiotics continued for four to six weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 149
Incorrect
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A 23 year old female presents for a routine contraception pill check. She has been taking co-cyprindiol for the past year. Her blood pressure and BMI are normal, she doesn't smoke, and has no personal or family history of stroke, venous thromboembolism, or migraine. She previously had acne but reports it has been clear for the past 4 months and wishes to continue on the same pill. She is in a committed relationship. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Discontinue co-cyprindiol and change to standard combined oral contraceptive pill
Explanation:The MHRA recommends discontinuing co-cyprindiol (Dianette) 3-4 cycles after acne has cleared due to the increased risk of venous thromboembolism. It should not be used solely for contraception. However, the patient still requires contraception, and a combined pill may offer better contraceptive coverage than a progesterone-only pill, while also providing some benefit for her skin. Other contraceptive options should also be considered.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 150
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old female visits her general practitioner with concerns about hair loss on her scalp. Which of the following conditions is the least probable cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Porphyria cutanea tarda
Explanation:Hypertrichosis can be caused by Porphyria cutanea tarda.
Types of Alopecia and Their Causes
Alopecia, or hair loss, can be categorized into two types: scarring and non-scarring. Scarring alopecia occurs when the hair follicle is destroyed, while non-scarring alopecia is characterized by the preservation of the hair follicle.
Scarring alopecia can be caused by various factors such as trauma, burns, radiotherapy, lichen planus, discoid lupus, and untreated tinea capitis. On the other hand, non-scarring alopecia can be attributed to male-pattern baldness, certain drugs like cytotoxic drugs, carbimazole, heparin, oral contraceptive pill, and colchicine, nutritional deficiencies such as iron and zinc deficiency, autoimmune disorders like alopecia areata, telogen effluvium, hair loss following a stressful period like surgery, and trichotillomania.
It is important to identify the type of alopecia and its underlying cause in order to determine the appropriate treatment. In some cases, scarring may develop in untreated tinea capitis if a kerion develops. Understanding the different types and causes of alopecia can help individuals take necessary steps to prevent or manage hair loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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