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  • Question 1 - A man with known ulcerative colitis presents to Accident and Emergency with a...

    Incorrect

    • A man with known ulcerative colitis presents to Accident and Emergency with a flare-up. He tells you that he is passing eight stools a day with blood and has severe nausea with abdominal pain at present. He normally takes oral mesalazine to control his condition. On examination, the patient is cool peripherally, with a heart rate of 120 bpm and blood pressure of 140/80 mmHg. Blood tests are done and relevant findings shown below.
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 32 mm/hour < 20 mm/hour
      Albumin 34 g/l 35–50 g/l
      Temperature 37.9 °C 36.1–37.2 °C
      Haemoglobin 98 g/l 115–155 g/l
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Add azathioprine to control the flare-up and iron supplements for anaemia. Review in 7 days

      Correct Answer: Admit to hospital for intravenous (IV) corticosteroids, fluids and monitoring

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Treatment Options for Severe Ulcerative Colitis Flare-Ups

      Severe flare-ups of ulcerative colitis (UC) require prompt and appropriate treatment to manage the symptoms and prevent complications. Here are some treatment options that are appropriate for severe UC flare-ups:

      Admit to Hospital for Intravenous (IV) Corticosteroids, Fluids, and Monitoring

      For severe UC flare-ups with evidence of significant systemic upset, hospital admission is necessary. Treatment should involve nil by mouth, IV hydration, IV corticosteroids as first-line treatment, and close monitoring.

      Avoid Topical Aminosalicylates and Analgesia

      Topical aminosalicylates and analgesia are not indicated for severe UC flare-ups with systemic upset.

      Inducing Remission with Topical Aminosalicylates is Inappropriate

      For severe UC flare-ups, inducing remission with topical aminosalicylates is not appropriate. Admission and monitoring are necessary.

      Azathioprine is Not Routinely Used for Severe Flare-Ups

      Immunosuppression with azathioprine is not routinely used to induce remission in severe UC flare-ups. It should only be used in cases where steroids are ineffective or if prolonged use of steroids is required.

      Medical Therapy Before Surgical Options

      Surgical options should only be considered after medical therapy has been attempted for severe UC flare-ups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 2 - A 61-year-old retiree with a history of gallstone disease is scheduled for ERCP...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old retiree with a history of gallstone disease is scheduled for ERCP to extract a common bile duct stone discovered during an episode of biliary colic.
      What is the primary medical condition for which ERCP would be the most beneficial diagnostic procedure?

      Your Answer: Pancreatic duct strictures

      Explanation:

      ERCP and its Indications for Diagnosis and Management of Pancreatic Duct Strictures

      Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) is a diagnostic and therapeutic procedure used for imaging the biliary tree and pancreatic ducts. It involves the injection of contrast to outline the ducts, allowing for visual inspection of the ampullary region of the pancreas and outlining of the pancreatic duct. ERCP is helpful in identifying stones, strictures, and tumors that cause obstruction, as well as for therapeutic interventions such as stone extraction or stent insertion.

      ERCP is indicated for patients with evidence or suspicion of obstructive jaundice, biliary/pancreatic duct disease, pancreatic cancer, pancreatitis of unknown origin, pancreatic pseudocysts, sphincter of Oddi dysfunction, and for therapeutic drainage. However, ERCP is not indicated for the diagnosis or management of alcoholic cirrhosis or hereditary hemochromatosis. Diagnosis of alcoholic cirrhosis can generally be based on clinical and laboratory findings, while liver biopsy can be used to confirm diagnosis if the cause is unclear. Gilbert syndrome, a mild self-limiting condition that causes pre-hepatic jaundice, does not require ERCP for diagnosis. Although ERCP may be used in the therapeutic management of patients with hepatocellular carcinoma with obstructive jaundice, it is not useful in the diagnosis of the condition itself.

      In conclusion, ERCP is a valuable tool for the diagnosis and management of pancreatic duct strictures, but its indications should be carefully considered in each individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 3 - A 20-year-old male has been referred by his doctor due to experiencing severe...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male has been referred by his doctor due to experiencing severe bloody diarrhoea on and off for the past three months. After undergoing a barium enema, it was discovered that he has multiple ulcers and signs of inflammation that extend from his rectum to the mid transverse colon. A colonoscopy was performed and biopsies were taken from various sites, revealing acute and chronic inflammation that is limited to the mucosa. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Ulcerative colitis

      Explanation:

      Differences between Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn’s Disease

      Ulcerative colitis (UC) and Crohn’s disease are both types of inflammatory bowel disease that can cause bloody diarrhoea. However, UC is more likely to result in the passage of blood. The onset of UC usually begins in the distal part of the colon and progresses towards the proximal end. On the other hand, Crohn’s disease can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract and can skip areas, resulting in disease occurring at different sites.

      Histologically, Crohn’s disease affects the entire thickness of the bowel wall, while UC typically only affects the mucosa. This means that Crohn’s disease can cause more severe damage to the bowel wall and lead to complications such as strictures and fistulas. In contrast, UC is more likely to cause inflammation and ulceration of the mucosa, which can lead to symptoms such as abdominal pain and diarrhoea.

      In summary, while both UC and Crohn’s disease can cause similar symptoms, there are important differences in their presentation and histological features. these differences is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 4 - A 55-year-old man, with a 25-pack-year history of smoking, presents to his General...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man, with a 25-pack-year history of smoking, presents to his General Practitioner with a 3-month history of epigastric pain. He has been unable to mow his lawn since the pain began and is often woken up at night. He finds that the pain is relieved by taking antacids. He has also had to cut back on his spicy food intake.
      What is the most probable reason for this man's epigastric pain?

      Your Answer: Duodenal ulcer

      Explanation:

      Common Gastrointestinal Conditions and Their Symptoms

      Gastrointestinal conditions can cause a range of symptoms, from mild discomfort to severe pain. Here are some of the most common conditions and their symptoms:

      Duodenal Ulcer: These are breaks in the lining of the duodenum, which is part of the small intestine. They are more common than gastric ulcers and are often caused by an overproduction of gastric acid. Symptoms include epigastric pain that is relieved by eating or drinking milk.

      Gastric Ulcer: These are less common than duodenal ulcers and tend to occur in patients with normal or low levels of gastric acid. Risk factors are similar to those of duodenal ulcers. Symptoms include epigastric pain.

      Oesophagitis: This condition occurs when stomach acid flows back into the oesophagus, causing inflammation. Treatment is aimed at reducing reflux symptoms. Patients may need to be assessed for Barrett’s oesophagus.

      Pancreatitis: This condition is characterized by inflammation of the pancreas and typically presents with epigastric pain that radiates to the back.

      Gallstones: These are hard deposits that form in the gallbladder and can cause right upper quadrant pain. Symptoms may be aggravated by eating fatty foods. While historically more common in females in their forties, the condition is becoming increasingly common in younger age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 5 - A homeless alcoholic woman was brought to the Emergency Department by the police...

    Correct

    • A homeless alcoholic woman was brought to the Emergency Department by the police when she was found disoriented in the street. The Emergency Department recognises her as she has been brought in numerous times before. She appears malnourished and smells of alcohol. On examination, she is confused and ataxic. On eye examination, she has normal pupillary responses and a horizontal nystagmus on lateral gaze.
      Which one of the following vitamin deficiencies is likely responsible for the patient’s condition?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B1

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Vitamins in Alcoholism: A Brief Overview

      Alcoholism can lead to various vitamin deficiencies, which can cause serious health problems. Thiamine deficiency, also known as vitamin B1 deficiency, is common in alcoholics and can cause Wernicke’s encephalopathy, a medical emergency that requires urgent treatment with intravenous or intramuscular thiamine. If left untreated, it can lead to Korsakoff’s psychosis. Prophylactic treatment with vitamin replacement regimes is important to prevent the development of these conditions. Vitamin A deficiency can cause photophobia, dry skin, and growth retardation, but it is not associated with alcohol abuse. Pellagra, characterized by diarrhea, dermatitis, and dementia, is caused by vitamin B3 (niacin) deficiency. Vitamin B12 deficiency can cause subacute combined degeneration, megaloblastic anemia, and is commonly seen in patients with pernicious anemia, malabsorption, and gastrectomy. Vitamin K deficiency may present in patients with alcoholic cirrhosis, but it will not cause the neurological findings observed in thiamine deficiency. Overall, it is important for alcohol-dependent patients to receive proper vitamin supplementation to prevent serious health complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 6 - A 56-year-old patient with a history of alcoholism is admitted to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old patient with a history of alcoholism is admitted to the emergency department after experiencing acute haematemesis. During emergency endoscopy, bleeding oesophageal varices are discovered and treated with banding. The patient's hospital stay is uneventful, and they are ready for discharge after 10 days. What medication would be the most appropriate prophylactic agent to prevent the patient from experiencing further variceal bleeding?

      Your Answer: Ethacrynic acid

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Portal Hypertension and Varices in Alcoholic Cirrhosis

      The portal vein is responsible for carrying blood from the gut and spleen to the liver. In cases of alcoholic cirrhosis, this flow can become obstructed, leading to increased pressure and the need for blood to find alternative routes. This often results in the development of porto-systemic collaterals, with the gastro-oesophageal junction being the most common site. As a result, patients with alcoholic cirrhosis often present with varices, which are superficial and prone to rupture, causing acute and massive haematemesis.

      To prevent rebleeding and reduce portal pressures, beta blockers such as propranolol have been found to be the most effective treatment for portal hypertension. Propranolol is licensed for this purpose and can help manage the complications associated with varices in alcoholic cirrhosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 7 - A 36-year-old man presents with abnormal liver function tests. He has no history...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man presents with abnormal liver function tests. He has no history of alcohol consumption and no known risk factors for liver disease. However, his grandfather passed away from liver cancer. Upon investigation, his serum albumin is 38 g/L (37-49), serum total bilirubin is 41 μmol/L (1-22), serum alanine aminotransferase is 105 U/L (5-35), serum alkaline phosphatase is 135 U/L (45-105), serum ferritin is 1360 mcg/L, and serum iron saturation is 84%. A liver biopsy reveals Perls' Prussian blue positive deposits in the liver. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Correct Answer: Venesection

      Explanation:

      Venesection is the primary treatment for haemochromatosis, with a target serum ferritin of less than 50 mcg/L achieved within three to six months. Azathioprine and prednisolone are not used in treatment, while iron chelators such as desferrioxamine are reserved for certain cases. Ursodeoxycholic acid is used in treating primary biliary cirrhosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old man presents to the clinic with a complaint of losing 1...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the clinic with a complaint of losing 1 stone in weight over the past three months. Apart from this, he has no significant medical history. During the physical examination, his abdomen is soft, and no palpable masses are detected. A normal PR examination is also observed. The patient's blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 80 g/L (120-160) and an MCV of 70 fL (80-96). What is the most appropriate initial investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Upper GI endoscopy and colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      Possible GI Malignancy in a Man with Weight Loss and Microcytic Anaemia

      This man is experiencing weight loss and has an unexplained microcytic anaemia. The most probable cause of his blood loss is from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, as there is no other apparent explanation. This could be due to an occult GI malignancy, which is why the recommended initial investigations are upper and lower GI endoscopy. These tests will help to identify any potential sources of bleeding in the GI tract and determine if there is an underlying malignancy. It is important to diagnose and treat any potential malignancy as early as possible to improve the patient’s prognosis. Therefore, prompt investigation and management are crucial in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 9 - A 23-year-old woman developed sudden-onset, severe epigastric pain 12 hours ago. She subsequently...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman developed sudden-onset, severe epigastric pain 12 hours ago. She subsequently began having episodes of nausea and vomiting, especially after trying to eat or drink. The pain now feels more generalised, and even slight movement makes it worse. She has diminished bowel sounds and exquisite tenderness in the mid-epigastrium with rebound tenderness and board-like rigidity. Her pulse is 110 bpm and blood pressure 130/75. She reports taking ibuprofen for dysmenorrhoea. She had last taken ibuprofen the day before the pain began.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute gastritis

      Correct Answer: Perforated peptic ulcer

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Abdominal Pain: Perforated Peptic Ulcer

      Abdominal pain can have various causes, and it is important to consider the differential diagnosis to determine the appropriate treatment. In this case, the patient’s use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) suggests a possible perforated peptic ulcer as the cause of her symptoms.

      Perforated peptic ulcer is a serious complication of peptic ulcer disease that can result from the use of NSAIDs. The patient’s symptoms, including increasing generalised abdominal pain that is worse on moving, rebound tenderness, and board-like rigidity, are classic signs of generalised peritonitis. These symptoms suggest urgent surgical review and definitive surgical management.

      Other possible causes of abdominal pain, such as acute gastritis, acute pancreatitis, appendicitis, and cholecystitis, have been considered but are less likely based on the patient’s symptoms. It is important to consider the differential diagnosis carefully to ensure appropriate treatment and avoid potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-hour history of...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-hour history of abdominal pain. Upon further inquiry, she reveals a 3-week history of right-sided abdominal pain and considerable weight loss. She reports consuming 3 units of alcohol per week and has smoked for 10 pack-years. She is not taking any medications except for the contraceptive pill and has no known allergies. During the physical examination, she displays oral ulcers and exhibits signs of fatigue and pallor.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Crohn’s disease

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Abdominal Conditions: Crohn’s Disease, Ulcerative Colitis, Peptic Ulcer Disease, Gallstones, and Diverticulitis

      Abdominal pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, making it important to differentiate between them. Crohn’s disease is an inflammatory bowel disease that can affect the entire bowel and typically presents between the ages of 20 and 50. It is chronic and relapsing, with skip lesions of normal bowel in between affected areas. Ulcerative colitis is another inflammatory bowel disease that starts at the rectum and moves upward. It can be classified by the extent of inflammation, with symptoms including bloody diarrhea and mucous. Peptic ulcer disease causes epigastric pain and may present with heartburn symptoms, but it is not consistent with the clinical picture described in the vignette. Gallstones typically cause right upper quadrant pain and are more common in females. Diverticulitis presents with left iliac fossa abdominal pain and is more common in elderly patients. Complications of untreated diverticulitis include abscess formation, bowel obstruction, or perforation. Understanding the differences between these conditions can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology (6/10) 60%
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