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Question 1
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A 27-year-old woman has been given a single dose of 1.5mg LevonelleTM (levonorgestrel) as emergency contraception after having unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) 24 hours ago. She wants to start taking oral combined hormonal contraception (‘the pill’) as ongoing contraception immediately as she anticipates having further UPSI. What is the appropriate time to begin ongoing contraception after taking emergency contraception?
Your Answer: Immediately
Explanation:According to FSRH guidelines, it is acceptable to begin hormonal contraception immediately after taking levonorgestrel (Levonelle) for emergency contraception. It is important to wait 5 days after taking ulipristal acetate (Ella-OneTM) before starting ongoing hormonal contraception. Waiting until the start of the next menstrual period is not necessary for quick-starting hormonal contraception, which can be done if the patient prefers it or if there is ongoing risk of pregnancy. While a negative pregnancy test at 21 days post-UPSI can reasonably exclude pregnancy, it is still recommended to take a pregnancy test 21 days after the episode of UPSI in case emergency contraception has failed.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 2
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A 30-year-old woman who is 10 weeks postpartum and currently breastfeeding presents with a complaint of a foul odor in her vaginal area. Upon examination, clue cells are detected. What treatment option would you suggest for this probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Metronidazole 400mg bd for 5 days
Explanation:The recommended treatment for bacterial vaginosis in this patient is metronidazole, but high doses of this medication are not safe for breastfeeding. Fluconazole is used to treat thrush, while azithromycin is used for Chlamydia. Clarithromycin is prescribed for pneumonia, strep throat, and H. pylori infections.
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.
Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimes. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 3
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A 28-year-old female patient visits the GP clinic complaining of left eye redness, a sensation of grittiness, and a foreign body feeling in the left eye for the past three days. She also reports experiencing significant photophobia and a watering eye. The patient has a history of using contact lenses. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Keratitis
Explanation:Keratitis, which is likely caused by contact lens wear, is characterized by a red eye, sensitivity to light, and a feeling of grittiness. Episcleritis typically does not cause pain or light sensitivity. Blepharitis is inflammation of the eyelid and does not typically result in light sensitivity. Conjunctivitis usually causes minimal pain or light sensitivity.
Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea
Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.
Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.
Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 4
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A 67-year-old woman has just been prescribed gliclazide for her T2DM. What is the mechanism of action of gliclazide?
Your Answer: Stimulates insulin secretion from the b-cells of the islets of Langerhans
Explanation:Different medications used to treat diabetes have varying mechanisms of action. Sulfonylureas like gliclazide stimulate insulin secretion from the pancreas, making them effective for type II diabetes but not for type I diabetes. However, they can cause hypoglycemia and should be used with caution when combined with other hypoglycemic medications. Biguanides like metformin increase glucose uptake and utilization while decreasing gluconeogenesis, making them a first-line treatment for type II diabetes. Glucosidase inhibitors like acarbose delay the digestion of starch and sucrose, but are not commonly used due to gastrointestinal side effects. DPP-4 inhibitors like sitagliptin increase insulin production and decrease hepatic glucose overproduction by inhibiting the action of DPP-4. Thiazolidinediones like pioglitazone increase insulin sensitivity in the liver, fat, and skeletal muscle, but their use is limited due to associated risks of heart failure, bladder cancer, and fractures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 5
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As a foundation doctor on the postnatal ward, you conduct a newborn examination on a two-day-old baby girl. She was delivered normally and in good condition. During the hip examination, you notice that the left hip can be relocated, which raises concerns. What is the next appropriate step in management?
Your Answer: Urgent referral for hip ultrasound
Explanation:The Ortolani manoeuvre was performed on a newborn to relocate the femoral head after dislocation caused by the Barlow manoeuvre. The result was abnormal, indicating a need for urgent assessment to check for potential developmental dysplasia of the hip. The best imaging option is ultrasound, which avoids radiation and provides optimal visualization of the hip’s development. Referring the child for routine assessment would cause unnecessary delay in treatment, and providing reassurance would be inappropriate given the abnormal screening result.
Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be bilateral in 20% of cases. Screening for DDH is recommended for infants with certain risk factors, and all infants are screened using the Barlow and Ortolani tests at the newborn and six-week baby check. Clinical examination includes testing for leg length symmetry, restricted hip abduction, and knee level when hips and knees are flexed. Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected, but x-ray is the first line investigation for infants over 4.5 months. Management includes the use of a Pavlik harness for children under 4-5 months and surgery for older children with unstable hips.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 6
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A 30-year-old female comes to the surgery complaining of painless rectal bleeding that has been going on for 2 weeks. Upon inspection of the perineum and rectal examination, there are no notable findings. However, proctoscopy reveals haemorrhoidal cushions located at the left lateral and right anterior position. What is the crucial aspect of management?
Your Answer: Fibre supplementation
Explanation:In certain studies, it has been demonstrated that fibre supplementation is equally effective to injection sclerotherapy.
Understanding Haemorrhoids
Haemorrhoids are a normal part of the anatomy that contribute to anal continence. They are mucosal vascular cushions found in specific areas of the anal canal. However, when they become enlarged, congested, and symptomatic, they are considered haemorrhoids. The most common symptom is painless rectal bleeding, but pruritus and pain may also occur. There are two types of haemorrhoids: external, which originate below the dentate line and are prone to thrombosis, and internal, which originate above the dentate line and do not generally cause pain. Internal haemorrhoids are graded based on their prolapse and reducibility. Management includes softening stools through dietary changes, topical treatments, outpatient procedures like rubber band ligation, and surgery for large, symptomatic haemorrhoids. Acutely thrombosed external haemorrhoids may require excision if the patient presents within 72 hours, but otherwise can be managed with stool softeners, ice packs, and analgesia.
Overall, understanding haemorrhoids and their management is important for individuals experiencing symptoms and healthcare professionals providing care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 7
Correct
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A 14-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of right knee pain. She is an avid hockey player but has not experienced any recent injuries. During the examination, a painful swelling is observed over the tibial tubercle. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Osgood-Schlatter disease
Explanation:Common Knee Problems in Children and Young Adults
Knee problems are common in children and young adults, especially those who are active in sports.
Chondromalacia patellae is a condition that is more common in teenage girls. It is characterized by the softening of the cartilage of the patella, which can cause anterior knee pain when walking up and down stairs or rising from prolonged sitting. This condition usually responds well to physiotherapy.Osgood-Schlatter disease, also known as tibial apophysitis, is often seen in sporty teenagers. It causes pain, tenderness, and swelling over the tibial tubercle.
Osteochondritis dissecans can cause pain after exercise, as well as intermittent swelling and locking of the knee.
Patellar subluxation can cause medial knee pain due to lateral subluxation of the patella. The knee may also give way.
Patellar tendonitis is more common in athletic teenage boys. It causes chronic anterior knee pain that worsens after running. On examination, the area below the patella is tender. It is important to note that referred pain may come from hip problems such as slipped upper femoral epiphysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 8
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A 25 year-old woman and her partner visit their GP due to their inability to conceive after trying for 4 months. The woman reports having regular periods and no identifiable cause in her medical history. What would be the most suitable course of action for her management?
Your Answer: Address how the couple are having sexual intercourse and reassure the patient
Explanation:When a couple is trying to conceive, it is normal for it to take up to one year for them to be successful. Therefore, medical examinations are typically conducted after one year of consistent attempts to conceive. However, it may be wise to address any physical barriers that could be hindering the couple’s ability to conceive, which is why their sexual history is taken into consideration.
Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. It is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sexual intercourse will conceive within the first year, and 92% within the first two years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.
When investigating infertility, there are some basic tests that can be done. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test. The serum progesterone test is done 7 days prior to the expected next period, typically on day 21 for a 28-day cycle. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if it is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it remains consistently low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.
It is important to counsel patients on lifestyle factors that can impact fertility. This includes taking folic acid, maintaining a healthy BMI between 20-25, and advising regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Additionally, patients should be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption to increase their chances of conceiving.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 9
Correct
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Which one of the following statements regarding pancreatic cancer is true?
Your Answer: High-resolution CT scanning is the diagnostic investigation of choice
Explanation:Pancreatic cancer is best diagnosed through high-resolution CT scanning. Although chronic pancreatitis increases the risk, neither alcohol nor gallstone disease are significant independent risk factors. Radiotherapy is not effective for surgical resection. Unfortunately, most patients are diagnosed with unresectable lesions.
Understanding Pancreatic Cancer: Risk Factors, Symptoms, and Management
Pancreatic cancer is a type of cancer that is often diagnosed late due to its non-specific symptoms. Adenocarcinomas, which occur at the head of the pancreas, make up over 80% of pancreatic tumors. Risk factors for pancreatic cancer include increasing age, smoking, diabetes, chronic pancreatitis, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, and genetic mutations such as BRCA2 and KRAS.
Symptoms of pancreatic cancer can include painless jaundice, pale stools, dark urine, pruritus, anorexia, weight loss, epigastric pain, loss of exocrine and endocrine function, and atypical back pain. Migratory thrombophlebitis, also known as Trousseau sign, is more common in pancreatic cancer than in other cancers.
Diagnosis of pancreatic cancer can be made through ultrasound or high-resolution CT scanning, which may show the double duct sign – simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts. However, less than 20% of patients are suitable for surgery at diagnosis. A Whipple’s resection, or pancreaticoduodenectomy, may be performed for resectable lesions in the head of the pancreas. Adjuvant chemotherapy is usually given following surgery, and ERCP with stenting may be used for palliation.
In summary, pancreatic cancer is a serious disease with non-specific symptoms that can be difficult to diagnose. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms can help with early detection and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 10
Correct
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A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of worsening right knee pain and limited mobility. He reports falling off his bike a few days ago but did not experience any knee pain until yesterday. Upon examination, the right knee appears red and hot with only 20º of flexion and a small effusion. The patient has a history of a conservatively treated ACL rupture in the other knee.
The patient's vital signs are as follows: heart rate 100 beats/min, respiratory rate 18/min, saturations 98% on room air, blood pressure 102/67 mmHg, and temperature 37.9ºC. Blood tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 145 g/L, platelets of 500 * 109/L, a white cell count of 13.6 * 109/L, a sodium level of 142 mmol/L, a potassium level of 5.0 mmol/L, a urea level of 4.0 mmol/L, a creatinine level of 110 µmol/L, and a CRP level of 130 mg/L. X-ray results show no obvious bony injury.
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Urgent orthopaedic review
Explanation:Septic arthritis is most commonly observed in adults’ knees, which presents as sudden joint pain and immobility, accompanied by fever and elevated inflammatory markers. Urgent orthopaedic evaluation is necessary for aspiration and potential washout, as untreated septic arthritis can lead to joint destruction within hours to days. Discharging the patient with oral antibiotics or physiotherapy is not recommended. Administering colchicine is not appropriate as there is no history of gout or pseudogout, and X-ray results do not indicate chondrocalcinosis. Ordering an MRI knee scan may delay appropriate treatment and will not impact management.
Septic Arthritis in Adults: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Septic arthritis is a condition that occurs when bacteria infect a joint, leading to inflammation and pain. The most common organism that causes septic arthritis in adults is Staphylococcus aureus, but in young adults who are sexually active, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most common organism. The infection usually spreads through the bloodstream from a distant bacterial infection, such as an abscess. The knee is the most common location for septic arthritis in adults. Symptoms include an acute, swollen joint, restricted movement, warmth to the touch, and fever.
To diagnose septic arthritis, synovial fluid sampling is necessary and should be done before administering antibiotics if necessary. Blood cultures may also be taken to identify the cause of the infection. Joint imaging may also be used to confirm the diagnosis.
Treatment for septic arthritis involves intravenous antibiotics that cover Gram-positive cocci. Flucloxacillin or clindamycin is recommended if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Antibiotic treatment is typically given for several weeks, and patients are usually switched to oral antibiotics after two weeks. Needle aspiration may be used to decompress the joint, and arthroscopic lavage may be required in some cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 11
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A 70-year-old man presented to the clinic with proximal muscle weakness and a cough lasting eight weeks. He also reported pain in the small joints of his hands and small haemorrhages in the nailfolds. On examination, there was no lymphadenopathy or clubbing, but bibasal crackles were heard. A chest radiograph revealed diffuse reticular infiltrates, and lung function tests showed a restrictive pattern. What is the most likely underlying cause of his interstitial lung disease?
Your Answer: Polymyositis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Polymyositis: A Comparison with Other Connective Tissue Diseases
Polymyositis is a systemic connective tissue disease that causes inflammation of the striated muscle and skin in the case of dermatomyositis. Patients typically present with muscle weakness, pain in the small joints of the fingers, and dermatitis. The disease is associated with HLA-B8 and HLA-DR3, and underlying malignancy is present in at least 5-8% of cases. Here, we compare polymyositis with other connective tissue diseases to aid in differential diagnosis.
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is another systemic inflammatory disease that affects mainly the joints, in particular, the proximal interphalangeal joints, in a symmetrical fashion. Pulmonary fibrosis is a known complication of RA, and muscular weakness is also a possible feature. However, in RA, joint-related symptoms are typically more prominent than muscle weakness, making polymyositis a more likely diagnosis in cases of predominant muscle weakness.
Cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis, also known as idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, presents with diffuse reticular infiltrates on chest radiographs and a restrictive pattern on lung function tests. However, the history of proximal muscle weakness and pain in the small joints of the hands does not fit with this diagnosis and suggests polymyositis instead.
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. While SLE would be in the differential diagnosis for polymyositis, the prominent proximal muscle weakness and the fact that the patient is a man (SLE affects women in 90% of cases) make polymyositis a more likely diagnosis.
Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) is an inflammatory rheumatic disease that primarily affects the axial joints and entheses. AS can be associated with pulmonary fibrosis and produces a restrictive pattern on spirometry. However, the more prominent complaint of proximal muscle weakness and the involvement of the small joints of the hands make AS a less likely diagnosis in cases of predominant muscle weakness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 12
Correct
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A 65-year-old patient is brought to the emergency department after falling off a ladder and hitting their head. The ambulance crew suspects an intracranial haemorrhage. Upon examination, the patient responds to verbal instruction by opening their eyes, but only makes incomprehensible groans. Painful stimulation causes abnormal flexing on the left side, while the right side has no motor response. What is the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score for this patient?
Your Answer: 8
Explanation:Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale for Adults
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in adults who have suffered a brain injury or other neurological condition. It is based on three components: motor response, verbal response, and eye opening. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to 6, with a higher score indicating a better level of consciousness.
The motor response component assesses the patient’s ability to move in response to stimuli. A score of 6 indicates that the patient is able to obey commands, while a score of 1 indicates no movement at all.
The verbal response component assesses the patient’s ability to communicate. A score of 5 indicates that the patient is fully oriented, while a score of 1 indicates no verbal response at all.
The eye opening component assesses the patient’s ability to open their eyes. A score of 4 indicates that the patient is able to open their eyes spontaneously, while a score of 1 indicates no eye opening at all.
The GCS score is expressed as a combination of the scores from each component, with the motor response score listed first, followed by the verbal response score, and then the eye opening score. For example, a GCS score of 13, M5 V4 E4 at 21:30 would indicate that the patient had a motor response score of 5, a verbal response score of 4, and an eye opening score of 4 at 9:30 PM.
Overall, the Glasgow Coma Scale is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to assess the level of consciousness in adults with neurological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 35-year-old patient is admitted with vomiting and abdominal pain. He was noted to have marked buccal pigmentation.
On examination, he is dehydrated. His pulse is 95 beats per minute, while his blood pressure (BP) is 100/70 mmHg.
Investigations reveal the following:
Investigation Result Normal values
Glucose 3.5 mmol/l 3.9–7.1 mmol/l
Sodium (Na+) 130 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 7.8 mmol/l 2.5–7.1 mmol/l
Creatinine (Cr) 95 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Addison’s disease
Explanation:Endocrine Disorders: Addison’s Disease, Cushing Syndrome, and Conn Syndrome
Addison’s Disease:
Addison’s disease, or primary hypoadrenalism, is a condition characterized by chronic adrenal insufficiency. It is most commonly caused by autoimmune destruction of the adrenals in the UK, while tuberculosis is the most common cause worldwide. Other causes include long-term exogenous steroid use, cancer, or hemorrhage damage. Symptoms develop gradually, but patients can present in Addisonian crisis if there is a sudden deterioration in adrenal function or a physiological stress that the residual adrenal function cannot cope with. Treatment is with long-term replacement of corticosteroids and aldosterone.Cushing Syndrome:
Cushing syndrome is a result of excess corticosteroid. It can be caused by exogenous steroids, primary hyperadrenalism, or secondary hyperadrenalism. Signs and symptoms include weight gain with moon facies and buffalo hump, hypertension, hyperglycemia, mood changes, hirsutism, baldness, and sleep disturbance.Conn Syndrome:
Conn syndrome, also known as primary hyperaldosteronism, is caused most commonly by adrenal hyperplasia or adenomas. It results in excess aldosterone release, causing difficult-to-treat hypertension, hypernatremia, and hypokalemia.Other Disorders:
Hypoglycemia occurs in insulinoma, but the other features are absent. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition characterized by perioral freckling and small bowel polyps, which may present with vomiting secondary to intussusception from the small polyps but does not explain the hypoglycemia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 14
Correct
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A 45-year-old patient was referred with a 2-year history of persistent cough productive of yellowish sputum throughout the year. He has been treated by his GP for frequent chest infections.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bronchiectasis
Explanation:Bronchiectasis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Bronchiectasis is a condition characterized by permanent and irreversible dilatations of the bronchial walls. It can be caused by various factors, including cystic fibrosis, immune system deficiencies, lung infections, foreign body aspiration, and smoking. Common symptoms of bronchiectasis include high sputum production, recurrent chest infections, and frequent but usually not severe haemoptysis. Patients may also experience postnasal drip, chronic sinusitis, and undue tiredness. A high-resolution computed tomography (HR-CT) scan is usually used to diagnose bronchiectasis. Treatment involves a multidisciplinary approach, including chest physiotherapy, patient education on airway-clearing techniques, antibiotic treatment during infective exacerbations, and bronchodilators in case of airflow obstruction. While treatment of the underlying cause may be necessary, it does not provide reversal of the existing bronchiectasis. Other conditions, such as sarcoidosis, fibrosing alveolitis, lung cancer, and asthma, are unlikely to produce the same clinical picture as bronchiectasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 15
Correct
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A 27-year-old man has come back from a vacation at the beach in Tenerife with a fresh rash on his neck and arms. The rash consists of patches that are coppery brown in color and lighter than the surrounding skin. There is no itching or pain associated with the rash. When examined with a Wood's light, the affected areas show yellow-green fluorescence.
What is the recommended initial treatment for this skin condition?Your Answer: Ketoconazole shampoo
Explanation:Ketoconazole shampoo is the recommended first-line therapy for treating pityriasis versicolor, a fungal infection caused by Malassezia furfur that commonly affects the trunk, neck, and arms following sun exposure. While the rash is usually asymptomatic, an emollient may help with any associated itch or irritation, but it is not sufficient to treat the underlying fungal infection. Oral antifungals like itraconazole may be necessary for extensive or unresponsive cases, but for limited non-extensive disease, ketoconazole shampoo is the preferred treatment. Topical steroids and vitamin D analogues are not effective in treating pityriasis versicolor.
Understanding Pityriasis Versicolor
Pityriasis versicolor, also known as tinea versicolor, is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is caused by Malassezia furfur, which was previously known as Pityrosporum ovale. This condition is characterized by patches that may be hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and it is most commonly found on the trunk. The patches may become more noticeable following a suntan, and scaling is a common symptom. Mild pruritus may also occur.
Pityriasis versicolor can affect healthy individuals, but it is more likely to occur in those who are immunosuppressed, malnourished, or have Cushing’s syndrome. Treatment typically involves the use of topical antifungal medications, with ketoconazole shampoo being the recommended option due to its cost-effectiveness for larger areas. If topical treatment fails, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed. Scrapings may also be sent for confirmation of the diagnosis. Understanding the features, predisposing factors, and management of pityriasis versicolor can help individuals recognize and effectively treat this common fungal infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 50-year-old man residing in the UK has been diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis and his sputum test is positive for acid-fast bacilli. He has a medical history of hypertension and takes bendroflumethiazide and amlodipine. What is the recommended initial medication combination for him?
Your Answer: Rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide and ethambutol
Explanation:Managing Tuberculosis: Treatment and Complications
Tuberculosis is a serious infectious disease that requires prompt and effective treatment. The standard therapy for active tuberculosis involves an initial phase of two months, during which patients are given a combination of four drugs: rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. The continuation phase lasts for four months and involves the use of rifampicin and isoniazid. Patients with latent tuberculosis are typically treated with a combination of isoniazid and rifampicin for three or six months, depending on the severity of the infection.
In some cases, patients may require prolonged treatment, particularly if they have meningeal tuberculosis. Steroids may be added to the treatment regimen in these cases. Directly observed therapy may also be necessary for certain groups, such as homeless individuals, prisoners, and patients who are likely to have poor concordance.
While tuberculosis treatment is generally effective, there are some potential complications to be aware of. Immune reconstitution disease can occur several weeks after starting treatment and may present with enlarging lymph nodes. Drug adverse effects are also possible, with rifampicin being a potent liver enzyme inducer and isoniazid causing peripheral neuropathy. Pyrazinamide can cause hyperuricaemia and ethambutol may lead to optic neuritis, so it is important to monitor patients closely for any signs of adverse effects. Overall, with proper management and monitoring, tuberculosis can be successfully treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 17
Correct
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A 3-day-old infant is presented to the Emergency Department due to increased irritability, poor feeding, and decreased muscle tone as observed by the mother in the last 24 hours. Meningitis is confirmed through lumbar puncture. What is the probable causative agent in this scenario?
Your Answer: Group B streptococcus
Explanation:Meningitis poses a higher risk to neonates, particularly those with low birth weight, prematurity, traumatic delivery, fetal hypoxia, and maternal peripartum infection. The initial symptoms are usually vague and may include elevated body temperature, respiratory distress, apnea, episodes of bradycardia, low blood pressure, difficulty feeding, irritability, and decreased activity.
Organisms causing meningitis in children
Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children of all ages. The organisms that cause meningitis vary depending on the age of the child. In neonates up to 3 months old, Group B Streptococcus is the most common cause, which is usually acquired from the mother during birth. E. coli and other Gram-negative organisms, as well as Listeria monocytogenes, can also cause meningitis in this age group.
From 1 month to 6 years old, Neisseria meningitidis (meningococcus), Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus), and Haemophilus influenzae are the most common organisms that cause meningitis. In children over 6 years old, Neisseria meningitidis and Streptococcus pneumoniae are the most common causes.
It is important for parents to be aware of the signs and symptoms of meningitis, such as fever, headache, stiff neck, and sensitivity to light. If a child is showing these symptoms, they should be taken to a doctor immediately for evaluation and treatment. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent serious complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 18
Correct
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A 64-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of pain when swallowing for the past 2 months. He works as a construction worker and has had two colds in the past 2 months since the new building project started - despite his cold symptoms resolving, he reports an ongoing painful swallow. He has noticed some hoarseness in his voice, but attributes this to drinking less water than usual due to his painful swallow. He has no past medical history. He has a 25 pack-year smoking history and does not drink alcohol.
What should be the GP's next course of action?Your Answer: Refer for upper GI endoscopy
Explanation:The presence of odynophagia in a patient with risk factors such as smoking and age is a concerning symptom that may indicate oesophageal cancer. In this case, the patient should be referred for a 2 week wait upper GI endoscopy and questioned about other symptoms such as difficulty swallowing, reflux, weight loss, and nausea. It would be inappropriate to reassure the patient and advise over-the-counter medications without further investigation. A chest x-ray is unlikely to show any clear oesophageal pathologies and a barium swallow is only useful if a benign pathology is suspected. As the patient has two features of oesophageal cancer and a smoking history, she should be worked up as a potential cancer patient. There are no emergency symptoms that warrant referral to the emergency department for same-day investigation and blood tests are unlikely to indicate malignancy in a clear and obvious manner.
Oesophageal Cancer: Types, Risk Factors, Features, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Oesophageal cancer used to be mostly squamous cell carcinoma, but adenocarcinoma is now becoming more common, especially in patients with a history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) or Barrett’s. Adenocarcinoma is usually located near the gastroesophageal junction, while squamous cell tumours are found in the upper two-thirds of the oesophagus.
Risk factors for adenocarcinoma include GORD, Barrett’s oesophagus, smoking, achalasia, and obesity. Squamous cell cancer is more common in the developing world and is associated with smoking, alcohol, achalasia, Plummer-Vinson syndrome, and diets rich in nitrosamines.
The most common presenting symptom for both types of oesophageal cancer is dysphagia, followed by anorexia and weight loss. Other possible features include odynophagia, hoarseness, melaena, vomiting, and cough.
Diagnosis is done through upper GI endoscopy with biopsy, endoscopic ultrasound for locoregional staging, CT scanning for initial staging, and FDG-PET CT for detecting occult metastases. Laparoscopy may also be performed to detect occult peritoneal disease.
Operable disease is best managed by surgical resection, with the most common procedure being an Ivor-Lewis type oesophagectomy. However, the biggest surgical challenge is anastomotic leak, which can result in mediastinitis. Adjuvant chemotherapy may also be used in many patients.
Overall, oesophageal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the types, risk factors, features, diagnosis, and treatment options can help patients and healthcare providers make informed decisions about managing this disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 19
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A 19-year-old long-distance runner who is currently preparing for a regional marathon seeks an appointment with the team doctor due to an unusual sensation in her legs. She reports feeling numbness below her knee. During the examination, the doctor observes sensory loss below the left knee in a non-dermatomal distribution. The team doctor suspects a non-organic cause of her symptoms. What type of disorder is this an example of?
Your Answer: Conversion disorder
Explanation:Conversion disorder is a condition that often results in the loss of motor or sensory function and is believed to be triggered by stress.
Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms
There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.
Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.
Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 20
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A 40-year-old woman undergoing treatment for rheumatoid arthritis complains of nephrotic syndrome.
Which medication is the probable cause of this issue?Your Answer: Penicillamine
Explanation:Overview of Medications Used in the Treatment of Rheumatoid Arthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the joints and can lead to disability. There are several medications used in the management of this condition, each with their own benefits and potential side effects.
Penicillamine is a drug commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, but it can also cause secondary membranous nephropathy, a condition characterized by proteinuria. Hydroxychloroquine is another medication that can be used for active rheumatoid arthritis, but its main complication is ocular toxicity. Sulfasalazine is primarily used for ulcerative colitis, but can also be used for rheumatoid arthritis under expert advice. Cyclophosphamide is rarely used for rheumatoid arthritis and is associated with the rare but serious complication of haemorrhagic cystitis. Methotrexate is a commonly used medication for severe Crohn’s disease and moderate to severe rheumatoid arthritis, but its main complication is bone marrow suppression.
It is important for patients to work closely with their healthcare providers to determine the most appropriate medication for their individual needs and to monitor for potential side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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