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Question 1
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A 42-year-old woman visits her doctor with concerns of feeling constantly overheated and experiencing early menopause. Her husband has also noticed a swelling in her neck over the past few weeks. During the examination, her pulse is recorded at 90/minute and a small, painless goitre is observed. The doctor orders blood tests which reveal the following results:
- TSH < 0.05 mu/l
- Free T4 24 pmol/l
- Anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies 102 IU/mL (< 35 IU/mL)
- ESR 23 mm/hr
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Graves' disease
Explanation:Based on the presence of thyrotoxic symptoms, goitre, and anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies, the likely diagnosis is
Graves’ Disease: Common Features and Unique Signs
Graves’ disease is the most frequent cause of thyrotoxicosis, which is commonly observed in women aged 30-50 years. The condition presents typical features of thyrotoxicosis, such as weight loss, palpitations, and heat intolerance. However, Graves’ disease also displays specific signs that are not present in other causes of thyrotoxicosis. These include eye signs, such as exophthalmos and ophthalmoplegia, as well as pretibial myxoedema and thyroid acropachy. The latter is a triad of digital clubbing, soft tissue swelling of the hands and feet, and periosteal new bone formation.
Graves’ disease is characterized by the presence of autoantibodies, including TSH receptor stimulating antibodies in 90% of patients and anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies in 75% of patients. Thyroid scintigraphy reveals a diffuse, homogenous, and increased uptake of radioactive iodine. These features help distinguish Graves’ disease from other causes of thyrotoxicosis and aid in its diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old woman with recently diagnosed type 2 diabetes presents to you seeking advice. Her husband, who is also diabetic, takes a statin and his specialist always aims to get his cholesterol below 4 mmol/L.
The patient is a non-smoker and her blood pressure is within target. She has no history of cardiovascular disease and is not currently taking any lipid lowering therapy. Her total cholesterol level is 4.2 mmol/L and her eGFR is 68 ml/min/1.73 m2. There is no evidence of albuminuria.
What would be your recommended next step in managing this patient's lipid levels?Your Answer: Assess her risk using a QRISK2 assessment tool
Correct Answer: Initiate treatment with atorvastatin 10 mg
Explanation:Management of Lipid Modification Therapy in Type 2 Diabetes
When managing lipid modification therapy in patients with type 2 diabetes, it is important to consider their risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD). According to NICE guidance issued in 2014, patients without established CVD should be offered lipid modification therapy if their 10-year risk of developing CVD using the QRISK2 assessment tool is 10% or more. However, this advice only applies to type 2 diabetes and not type 1 diabetes. Additionally, if the patient has pre-existing CV disease, a formal risk assessment is not needed, and lipid lowering therapy should be advised for secondary prevention.
Other factors that should be considered when managing lipid modification therapy include the patient’s estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) and the presence of albuminuria. A risk assessment tool should not be used for patients with an eGFR less than 60 ml/min/1.73 m2 and/or albuminuria, as they are at increased risk of CVD and should be offered atorvastatin 20 mg for primary or secondary prevention of CVD.
In summary, when managing lipid modification therapy in patients with type 2 diabetes, it is important to assess their risk of developing CVD, consider their eGFR and albuminuria, and determine if they have pre-existing CV disease. This information will help determine whether a formal risk assessment is needed or if lipid lowering therapy should be advised for secondary prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 3
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A 50-year-old man is referred to the Endocrine Clinic with a complaint that his shoe size has gone up from size 9 to size 11 and his wedding ring no longer fits him. He is sweating a lot and his wife complains he is snoring more at night.
What is the most useful test for confirming a diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Oral glucose tolerance test with growth-hormone measurements
Explanation:The most reliable test for diagnosing acromegaly is the 75 g oral glucose tolerance test, which measures growth hormone levels. In normal individuals, growth hormone levels decrease below 1.0 µg/l during the test, but in those with acromegaly, they remain elevated due to the antagonistic relationship between insulin and growth hormone. A random growth hormone level is not sufficient for diagnosis as there is a wide range of normal levels and secretion is episodic. MRI scans of the pituitary fossa may show abnormalities, but they are not specific to acromegaly. Serum insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1) levels are a recommended initial screening test, as they are highly specific and a normal level usually excludes acromegaly. Skull X-rays may show an enlarged sella turcica, but this is not unique to acromegaly and cannot confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old patient on your practice list has a BMI of 52 kg/m² and is interested in bariatric surgery. They have no co-morbidities or contraindications for surgery.
What should be the next course of action?Your Answer: Dietary management plan for 6 months before referral
Correct Answer: Refer for bariatric surgery
Explanation:For adults with a BMI greater than 50 kg/m², bariatric surgery can be considered as the first-line option without any restrictions on referral. However, if the patient has medical conditions that are affected by weight, referral for surgery can be considered at a BMI greater than 35 kg/m². The decision to undergo surgery will involve an anaesthetic risk assessment based on various factors. Patients with a BMI greater than 40 kg/m² can be referred for bariatric surgery without the need for a medical condition affected by weight. While a dietary management plan may be beneficial, it is not necessary to delay the request for surgical consideration by another 6 months. Orlistat can be tried while waiting for surgical assessment, but it doesn’t need to delay the referral.
Bariatric Surgery for Obesity Management
Bariatric surgery has become a significant option in managing obesity over the past decade. For obese patients who fail to lose weight with lifestyle and drug interventions, the risks and expenses of long-term obesity outweigh those of surgery. The NICE guidelines recommend that very obese patients with a BMI of 40-50 kg/m^2 or higher, particularly those with other conditions such as type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension, should be referred early for bariatric surgery rather than it being a last resort.
There are three types of bariatric surgery: primarily restrictive operations, primarily malabsorptive operations, and mixed operations. Laparoscopic-adjustable gastric banding (LAGB) is the first-line intervention for patients with a BMI of 30-39 kg/m^2. It produces less weight loss than malabsorptive or mixed procedures but has fewer complications. Sleeve gastrectomy reduces the stomach to about 15% of its original size, while the intragastric balloon can be left in the stomach for a maximum of six months. Biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch is usually reserved for very obese patients with a BMI of over 60 kg/m^2. Roux-en-Y gastric bypass surgery is both restrictive and malabsorptive in action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents to the clinic with a medical history of type 1 diabetes for the past 30 years. His blood pressure is 122/72, and his most recent HbA1c level is 53 mmol/mol. Upon examination, he is diagnosed with microalbuminuria.
What can be said about the man's condition?Your Answer: It is responsible for 25% of deaths in diabetic patients diagnosed before the age of 30 years
Correct Answer: Underlying nephropathy can be reversed by tight BP control
Explanation:Diabetic Nephropathy and Microalbuminuria
Death in young diabetics is often caused by end stage diabetic nephropathy, which can lead to ESRF within 10 years if proteinuria has developed. However, interventions can help prevent this outcome. One of the earliest signs of diabetic nephropathy is microalbuminuria, which is characterized by an albumin excretion of 30-300 micrograms per day. It is important to note that microalbuminuria doesn’t mean that the albumin is smaller. Tight control of both blood pressure and glucose levels can help reduce the progression of microalbuminuria and renal failure. Even if blood pressure is normal, ACE inhibition is still important in managing diabetic nephropathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman is admitted on the medical intake. She is 12 weeks postpartum and has been generally unwell for three weeks with malaise, sweats, and anxiety.
On examination she is haemodynamically stable, and clinically euthyroid.
TFTs show the following:
Free T4 35 pmol/L (9-23)
Free T3 7.5 nmol/L (3.5-6)
TSH <0.02 mU/L (0.5-5)
What is the appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer: Propranolol 20 mg/tds
Correct Answer: Carbimazole 40 mg/day
Explanation:Postpartum Thyroiditis
The likely diagnosis for the patient is postpartum thyroiditis, which typically occurs within three months of delivery and is followed by a hypothyroid phase at three to six months. In one third of cases, there is spontaneous recovery, while the remaining two-thirds may experience a single-phase pattern or the reverse. Management of this condition involves symptomatic treatment using beta blockers to alleviate tremors or anxiety, and observation for the development of persistent hypo- or hyperthyroidism.
Graves’ disease is a less likely diagnosis due to the proximity to delivery and the absence of other signs such as Graves’ ophthalmopathy, goitre, and bruit. Hashitoxicosis is a possibility but less likely than Graves’. While carbimazole and propylthiouracil (PTU) are thyroid peroxidase inhibitors used in thyrotoxicosis, postpartum thyroiditis is usually transient, and symptomatic treatment with beta blockers is typically sufficient. Radioactive iodine is used in cases of thyrotoxicosis that have not responded to PTU or carbimazole. Lugol’s iodine is part of the treatment for a thyrotoxic storm, which is not the diagnosis in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man comes to the surgery complaining of a productive cough. Upon examination, he has a fever and bronchial breathing in the right lower zone. The working diagnosis is pneumonia and amoxicillin is prescribed with a chest x-ray scheduled for the following day. The patient has a medical history of Addison's disease and takes hydrocortisone (20 mg in the morning and 10 mg in the afternoon). What is the best course of action regarding his steroid dosage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Double hydrocortisone to 40 mg mornings and 20 mg afternoon
Explanation:Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old boy presents with complaints of breast enlargement. Reviewing his medical history, he had mild developmental delay during childhood.
Upon examination, he is tall and slender, with bilateral gynaecomastia and inadequate secondary sexual development, including small testes.
What is the probable cause of his symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypogonadism
Explanation:Understanding Klinefelter’s Syndrome
Klinefelter’s syndrome is a genetic condition that affects males, characterised by gynaecomastia, typical habitus, developmental delay and hypogonadism. The patient in this scenario is likely to have Klinefelter’s syndrome, as only hypogonadism would account for poor sexual development and undersized testes in combination with gynaecomastia.
It is important to note that the exact diagnosis may not be immediately obvious, but understanding the symptoms and characteristics of Klinefelter’s syndrome can aid in identifying and treating the condition. Early diagnosis and treatment can improve outcomes and quality of life for individuals with Klinefelter’s syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Mr. Brent, a 36-year-old patient with type 1 diabetes, comes in for his yearly diabetes check-up. During the discussion of injection technique, he confesses that he only injects insulin into his abdomen because it is the least uncomfortable area. Upon examination of the injection sites, the nurse discovers a pouch of fat on either side of the lower abdomen.
What is the term used to describe this diabetes treatment complication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lipodystrophy
Explanation:Insulin therapy can lead to lipodystrophy, a well-known complication that can result in unpredictable insulin absorption. This condition is caused by repeated injections into the same site, which can alter the subcutaneous fat and affect diabetes management. To prevent lipodystrophy, it is recommended to rotate injection sites. Another skin condition that can occur in patients on insulin is necrobiosis lipoidica, which is characterized by atrophic plaques on the shins. Acanthosis nigricans is another skin manifestation that can be a sign of diabetes, endocrine disorders, or stomach cancer. This condition presents as brown, velvety patches of skin in areas such as the axillae or groin. Finally, intertrigo is a type of inflammation that occurs in skin folds, such as the groin or under the breasts, and is often caused by yeast infections. This condition is more common in diabetics and may be the first sign of type 2 diabetes.
Insulin therapy can have side-effects that patients should be aware of. One of the most common side-effects is hypoglycaemia, which can cause sweating, anxiety, blurred vision, confusion, and aggression. Patients should be taught to recognize these symptoms and take 10-20g of a short-acting carbohydrate, such as a glass of Lucozade or non-diet drink, three or more glucose tablets, or glucose gel. It is also important for every person treated with insulin to have a glucagon kit for emergencies where the patient is not able to orally ingest a short-acting carbohydrate. Patients who have frequent hypoglycaemic episodes may develop reduced awareness, and beta-blockers can further reduce hypoglycaemic awareness.
Another potential side-effect of insulin therapy is lipodystrophy, which typically presents as atrophy or lumps of subcutaneous fat. This can be prevented by rotating the injection site, as using the same site repeatedly can cause erratic insulin absorption. It is important for patients to be aware of these potential side-effects and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider. By monitoring their blood sugar levels and following their treatment plan, patients can manage the risks associated with insulin therapy and maintain good health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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An eighty-two-year-old gentleman with a history of renal stones is seen with an acute episode of left sided loin pain and dipstick haematuria. He has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and angina.
Bloods are requested which show:
Na+ 137 mmol/L (137-144)
K+ 5.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Urea 18.9 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Creatinine 296 µmol/L (60-110)
eGFR 17 -
Which one of his medications should be withheld?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:Contraindications to Metformin Use
Metformin is a commonly prescribed medication for the treatment of type 2 diabetes. However, there are certain situations where its use is contraindicated. Ketoacidosis, use of iodine-containing contrast media, and use of general anesthesia are all contraindications to metformin use. Additionally, patients with renal impairment are at an increased risk of lactic acidosis and should have their dose reviewed if their estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is less than 45. Metformin should be avoided if the eGFR is less than 30 and should be withdrawn or treatment interrupted in patients at risk of tissue hypoxia or sudden deterioration in renal function. These patients include those with shock, sepsis, acute heart failure, respiratory failure, and those who have recently had a myocardial infarction. In the case of a patient with a renal calculus and significantly impaired renal function, metformin should be withheld.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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