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Question 1
Correct
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A 56-year-old woman complains of experiencing pain during sexual intercourse with her partner for the past year. She denies any discharge but mentions that her vagina feels dry and sore frequently. She has attempted to alleviate the soreness by using vaginal moisturisers and lubricants, which she believes have provided some relief. During the examination, the vagina appears dry and pale. What is the most appropriate treatment method for the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Topical oestrogen cream
Explanation:Post-menopausal women often experience atrophic vaginitis, which is characterized by symptoms such as vaginal dryness, dyspareunia, and occasional spotting. During examination, the vagina may appear dry and pale. Treatment options include the use of vaginal lubricants and moisturizers. If these prove ineffective, topical oestrogen cream may be prescribed.
Atrophic vaginitis is a condition that commonly affects women who have gone through menopause. Its symptoms include vaginal dryness, pain during sexual intercourse, and occasional spotting. Upon examination, the vagina may appear dry and pale. The recommended treatment for this condition is the use of vaginal lubricants and moisturizers. If these do not provide relief, a topical estrogen cream may be prescribed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 2
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor worried that she may have been in contact with a child who has chickenpox. She is currently 20 weeks pregnant and unsure if she has ever had chickenpox before. Upon examination, no rash is present. Her blood test results show that she is Varicella Zoster IgG negative. What is the best course of action to take next?
Your Answer: Give varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG)
Explanation:If a pregnant woman is exposed to chickenpox before 20 weeks and has a negative IgG test, it indicates that she is not immune to the virus or has not been previously exposed to it. In such cases, it is recommended to administer varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) as soon as possible, which can be effective up to 10 days after exposure. It is not necessary to inform public health as chickenpox is not a notifiable disease.
If a pregnant woman develops a chickenpox rash, VZIG has no therapeutic benefit and should not be used. However, antiviral agents like aciclovir can be given within 24 hours of the rash onset. It is important to note that antiviral agents are recommended for post-exposure prophylaxis for immunosuppressed individuals.
Women who are not immune to varicella-zoster can receive the vaccine before pregnancy or after delivery, but it should not be administered during pregnancy. Therefore, option D cannot be correct in any situation.
Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral aciclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old female presents to the emergency department with left-sided pelvic pain and vaginal bleeding. She reports her last menstrual period was 8 weeks ago and has had a positive urinary pregnancy test. The patient is stable hemodynamically, and bloods have been taken for full blood count, renal and liver function, and C-reactive protein. What is the most suitable diagnostic test to determine the underlying cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Transabdominal pelvic ultrasound scan
Correct Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound scan
Explanation:To confirm or rule out ectopic pregnancy, the recommended investigation is transvaginal ultrasound. This is because it provides clearer images of the uterus, ovaries, and endometrium, making it more effective in detecting ectopic pregnancies compared to transabdominal scans. While serum Beta-HCG levels are helpful in managing ectopic pregnancies, a single test cannot completely rule out the possibility. Pregnant women are generally advised against undergoing CT scans and abdominal X-rays.
Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.
There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingotomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.
Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women with no other risk factors for infertility, while salpingotomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingotomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 4
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman reports leakage of urine, which is happening more often. She is unable to control her urine when she feels the urge to go and has had a few instances where she couldn't make it to the bathroom in time. There is no pain during urination and her urine dipstick test is negative. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Urge incontinence
Explanation:Urinary incontinence is a common problem that affects more women than men and increases with age. There are different types of urinary incontinence, each with its own set of symptoms. Functional incontinence occurs when a person is unable to hold urine due to reasons other than lower urinary tract dysfunction, such as delirium or impaired mobility. Mixed incontinence is a combination of stress and urge incontinence, while overflow incontinence occurs when the bladder is overdistended and urine overflows despite the absence of detrusor contraction. Stress incontinence is characterized by urine loss during periods of increased intra-abdominal pressure, while urge incontinence is associated with a sudden and intense desire to void that cannot be prevented. Symptoms of urge incontinence include urinary frequency and nocturia. Treatment is directed at the underlying cause of the incontinence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 5
Correct
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A 28-year-old female patient visits your clinic with a complaint of fishy-smelling vaginal discharge. You suspect bacterial vaginosis and decide to prescribe metronidazole. The patient has no known drug allergies and is generally healthy, except for taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). What is the most crucial advice you should provide her regarding the potential side effects of metronidazole?
Your Answer: She should abstain from alcohol whilst taking metronidazole
Explanation:Taking metronidazole and alcohol together can result in a disulfiram-like reaction, so patients should be cautioned against consuming alcohol while on the medication. Metronidazole is not associated with cholestasis, hepatotoxicity, or QT prolongation. As an enzyme inhibitor, metronidazole enhances the efficacy of the COCP. While Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a rare side effect of metronidazole, a photosensitive rash is not typically observed.
Metronidazole is an antibiotic that functions by producing reactive cytotoxic metabolites within bacteria. This medication can cause adverse effects such as a disulfiram-like reaction when combined with alcohol and an increased anticoagulant effect when taken with warfarin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 6
Incorrect
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As a foundation doctor in general practice, you examine a fifty-five-year-old patient during an outpatient clinic visit. The patient complains of weight loss and a painless, enlarging sore on the penis that has been present for more than two months. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Syphilis
Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma
Explanation:Penile cancer can manifest as an ulcer. The most prevalent form of penile cancer is squamous cell carcinoma, not adenocarcinoma. While stress ulcers cause abdominal pain and bleeding, they are not responsible for this presentation. Herpes outbreaks can be triggered by significant stress, but they typically cause painful lesions that heal within a week. Syphilis, caused by Treponema pallidum, can result in a painless ulcer called a chancre, but it does not cause weight loss, and the lesion usually resolves within six to eight weeks, even without treatment.
Understanding Penile Cancer: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Penile cancer is a rare type of cancer that is typically characterized by squamous cell carcinoma. It is a condition that affects the penis and can cause a variety of symptoms, including penile lump and ulceration. There are several risk factors associated with penile cancer, including human immunodeficiency virus infection, human papillomavirus virus infection, genital warts, poor hygiene, phimosis, paraphimosis, balanitis, and age over 50.
When it comes to treating penile cancer, there are several options available, including radiotherapy, chemotherapy, and surgery. The prognosis for penile cancer can vary depending on the stage of the cancer and the treatment options chosen. However, the overall survival rate for penile cancer is approximately 50% at 5 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 7
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden right iliac fossa pain. She reports the pain as sharp and radiating to her right shoulder. She has a medical history of endometriosis and type 2 diabetes mellitus and smokes 10 cigarettes per day. Her last menstrual period was 35 days ago, and she is concerned about being pregnant. She has a 4-year-old daughter, and her previous pregnancy was complicated by pre-eclampsia. Based on her history, what is a potential risk factor for her current presentation?
Your Answer: Endometriosis
Explanation:Having endometriosis increases the risk of experiencing an ectopic pregnancy. This patient’s symptoms and positive pregnancy test suggest a likely diagnosis of an ectopic pregnancy. Other risk factors for ectopic pregnancy include previous ectopic pregnancy, fallopian tube damage, and IVF. However, multiparity, previous pre-eclampsia, twin pregnancy, and type 2 diabetes mellitus are not associated with an increased risk of ectopic pregnancy.
Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy: Incidence and Risk Factors
Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tubes. This condition is a serious medical emergency that requires immediate attention. According to epidemiological studies, ectopic pregnancy occurs in approximately 0.5% of all pregnancies.
Several risk factors can increase the likelihood of ectopic pregnancy. These include damage to the fallopian tubes due to pelvic inflammatory disease or surgery, a history of previous ectopic pregnancy, endometriosis, the use of intrauterine contraceptive devices (IUCDs), and the progesterone-only pill. In vitro fertilization (IVF) also increases the risk of ectopic pregnancy, with approximately 3% of IVF pregnancies resulting in ectopic implantation.
It is important to note that any factor that slows down the passage of the fertilized egg to the uterus can increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy. Early detection and prompt treatment are crucial in managing this condition and preventing serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman has been asked to come back for a follow-up cervical smear by her GP. She had her routine cervical smear done a year ago which revealed the presence of high-risk HPV but no abnormal cytology. Her follow-up cervical smear still shows positive for high-risk HPV with no cytological abnormalities.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Refer for colposcopy
Correct Answer: Repeat cervical smear in 12 months
Explanation:If the 1st repeat smear at 12 months is still positive for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV), the correct course of action is to repeat the smear 12 months later (i.e. at 24 months). Colposcopy is not indicated in this case, as it would only be necessary if this was her 3rd successive annual cervical smear that is still positive for hrHPV but with no cytological abnormalities. Repeating the cervical smear after 3 months is also not necessary, as this is only indicated if the first smear is inadequate. Similarly, repeating the cervical smear in 3 years is not appropriate, as hrHPV has been detected. Repeating the cervical smear after 6 months is also not necessary, as this is usually done as a test of cure following treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female patient attends a routine appointment at the GP surgery to discuss her use of the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She informs you that she has recently started taking some medications and is concerned about their potential impact on the effectiveness of the contraceptive pill. Can you identify which medication may decrease the efficacy of the COCP?
Your Answer: Fluconazole
Correct Answer: St John's wort
Explanation:If enzyme-inducing drugs are taken at the same time as the combined oral contraceptive pill, its effectiveness is decreased. Out of the given choices, only St John’s wort is an enzyme inducer, while the rest are enzyme inhibitors.
Counselling for Women Considering the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
Women who are considering taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COC) should receive counselling on the potential harms and benefits of the pill. The COC is highly effective if taken correctly, with a success rate of over 99%. However, there is a small risk of blood clots, heart attacks, and strokes, as well as an increased risk of breast and cervical cancer.
In addition to discussing the potential risks and benefits, women should also receive advice on how to take the pill. If the COC is started within the first 5 days of the menstrual cycle, there is no need for additional contraception. However, if it is started at any other point in the cycle, alternative contraception should be used for the first 7 days. Women should take the pill at the same time every day and should be aware that intercourse during the pill-free period is only safe if the next pack is started on time.
There have been recent changes to the guidelines for taking the COC. While it was previously recommended to take the pill for 21 days and then stop for 7 days to mimic menstruation, it is now recommended to discuss tailored regimes with women. This is because there is no medical benefit to having a withdrawal bleed, and options include never having a pill-free interval or taking three 21-day packs back-to-back before having a 4 or 7 day break.
Women should also be informed of situations where the efficacy of the pill may be reduced, such as vomiting within 2 hours of taking the pill, medication that induces diarrhoea or vomiting, or taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs. It is also important to discuss sexually transmitted infections and precautions that should be taken with enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin.
Overall, counselling for women considering the COC should cover a range of topics to ensure that they are fully informed and able to make an informed decision about their contraceptive options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 10
Correct
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A 28-year-old pregnant woman presents at 34 weeks gestation with a blood pressure reading of 175/105 mmHg and 3+ proteinuria. She is started on magnesium sulphate and labetalol. The patient reports decreased foetal movements. Upon examination, a cardiotocogram reveals late decelerations and a foetal heart rate of 90 beats/minute. What is the next course of action in managing this situation?
Your Answer: Emergency caesarian section
Explanation:Pre-eclampsia can be diagnosed based on the presence of high levels of protein in the urine and hypertension. To prevent the development of eclampsia, magnesium sulphate is administered, while labetalol is used to manage high blood pressure. If a cardiotocography (CTG) shows late decelerations and foetal bradycardia, this is a concerning sign and may necessitate an emergency caesarean section. Induction would not be recommended if the CTG is abnormal.
Cardiotocography (CTG) is a medical procedure that measures pressure changes in the uterus using either internal or external pressure transducers. It is used to monitor the fetal heart rate, which normally ranges between 100-160 beats per minute. There are several features that can be observed during a CTG, including baseline bradycardia (heart rate below 100 beats per minute), which can be caused by increased fetal vagal tone or maternal beta-blocker use. Baseline tachycardia (heart rate above 160 beats per minute) can be caused by maternal pyrexia, chorioamnionitis, hypoxia, or prematurity. Loss of baseline variability (less than 5 beats per minute) can be caused by prematurity or hypoxia. Early deceleration, which is a decrease in heart rate that starts with the onset of a contraction and returns to normal after the contraction, is usually harmless and indicates head compression. Late deceleration, on the other hand, is a decrease in heart rate that lags behind the onset of a contraction and does not return to normal until after 30 seconds following the end of the contraction. This can indicate fetal distress, such as asphyxia or placental insufficiency. Variable decelerations, which are independent of contractions, may indicate cord compression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old female patient visits the genitourinary medicine clinic seeking treatment for recurring genital warts. Which virus is the most probable cause of this condition?
Your Answer: Human papilloma virus 16 & 18
Correct Answer: Human papilloma virus 6 & 11
Explanation:Understanding Genital Warts
Genital warts, also known as condylomata accuminata, are a common reason for visits to genitourinary clinics. These warts are caused by various types of the human papillomavirus (HPV), with types 6 and 11 being the most common culprits. It is important to note that HPV, particularly types 16, 18, and 33, can increase the risk of cervical cancer.
The warts themselves are small, fleshy protrusions that are typically 2-5mm in size and may be slightly pigmented. They can cause discomfort, itching, and even bleeding. Treatment options for genital warts include topical podophyllum or cryotherapy, depending on the location and type of lesion. Topical agents are generally used for multiple, non-keratinised warts, while solitary, keratinised warts respond better to cryotherapy. Imiquimod, a topical cream, is often used as a second-line treatment. It is important to note that genital warts can be resistant to treatment, and recurrence is common. However, most anogenital HPV infections clear up on their own within 1-2 years without intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 12
Correct
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A 27-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner seeking information on emergency contraception. She engaged in unprotected sexual activity with a male partner a week ago. The patient has a consistent 28-day menstrual cycle and believes that today is the 17th day of her current cycle. What options are available for emergency contraception in this case?
Your Answer: Copper intrauterine device
Explanation:The copper intrauterine device is the only suitable method for this patient as it can be used as emergency contraception if inserted within 5 days of unprotected sexual intercourse or within 5 days of the estimated ovulation date, whichever is later. As the patient has a regular 28-day cycle and is currently at day 17, she is within the 5-day window for fitting of the IUD. Levonorgestrel, a tablet used for emergency contraception, would not be suitable as it must be taken within 72 hours of unprotected sexual intercourse. The Mirena intrauterine system is a hormonal device used for regular contraception but cannot be used as emergency contraception. Norethisterone is a drug used for dysfunctional uterine bleeding and period delay but not for emergency contraception.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 13
Correct
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A 25 year-old woman and her partner visit their GP due to their inability to conceive after trying for 4 months. The woman reports having regular periods and no identifiable cause in her medical history. What would be the most suitable course of action for her management?
Your Answer: Address how the couple are having sexual intercourse and reassure the patient
Explanation:When a couple is trying to conceive, it is normal for it to take up to one year for them to be successful. Therefore, medical examinations are typically conducted after one year of consistent attempts to conceive. However, it may be wise to address any physical barriers that could be hindering the couple’s ability to conceive, which is why their sexual history is taken into consideration.
Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. It is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sexual intercourse will conceive within the first year, and 92% within the first two years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.
When investigating infertility, there are some basic tests that can be done. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test. The serum progesterone test is done 7 days prior to the expected next period, typically on day 21 for a 28-day cycle. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if it is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it remains consistently low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.
It is important to counsel patients on lifestyle factors that can impact fertility. This includes taking folic acid, maintaining a healthy BMI between 20-25, and advising regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Additionally, patients should be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption to increase their chances of conceiving.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 14
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman is concerned about her risk of developing ovarian cancer due to a family history of the disease. She wants to learn more about screening options available in the UK.
Which of the following statements is correct?Your Answer: There is currently no screening programme for ovarian cancer
Explanation:Currently, there is no dependable screening test for detecting ovarian cancer in its early stages. However, women, especially those over 50 years old, who experience persistent symptoms such as abdominal bloating, early satiety, loss of appetite, pelvic or abdominal pain, and increased urinary urgency or frequency should be suspected of having ovarian cancer and should undergo further tests.
Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.
Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.
Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the antenatal clinic at 12 weeks gestation for discussion about testing for chromosomal disorders. She has no significant medical history and is concerned about the potential risks to her and her baby. Upon investigation, her b-hCG levels are elevated, PAPP-A levels are decreased, and ultrasound reveals thickened nuchal translucency. The calculated chance of a chromosomal disorder is 1/100. What is the recommended next step in her management?
Your Answer: Offer amniocentesis
Correct Answer: Offer non-invasive prenatal screening testing
Explanation:Women with a higher chance of Down’s syndrome based on combined or quadruple tests are offered further screening or diagnostic tests. In this case, the patient’s chance is 1 in 100, making non-invasive prenatal screening (NIPT) the most appropriate option. Amniocentesis and chorionic villous sampling (CVS) are less appropriate due to their invasive nature and higher risks.
NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The test includes nuchal translucency measurement, serum B-HCG, and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). The quadruple test is offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results are interpreted as either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ of chromosomal abnormalities. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she may be offered a non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities. Private companies offer NIPT screening from 10 weeks gestation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You are advising a 26-year-old woman who has recently discovered she is expecting a baby. She is a smoker and consumes 20 cigarettes per day. What is the primary risk factor linked to smoking while pregnant?
Your Answer: Microcephaly
Correct Answer: Increased risk of pre-term labour
Explanation:Risks of Smoking, Alcohol, and Illegal Drugs During Pregnancy
During pregnancy, drug use can have serious consequences for both the mother and the developing fetus. Smoking during pregnancy increases the risk of miscarriage, pre-term labor, stillbirth, and sudden unexpected death in infancy. Alcohol consumption can lead to fetal alcohol syndrome, which can cause learning difficulties, characteristic facial features, and growth restrictions. Binge drinking is a major risk factor for fetal alcohol syndrome. Cannabis use poses similar risks to smoking due to the tobacco content. Cocaine use can lead to hypertension in pregnancy, including pre-eclampsia, and placental abruption. Fetal risks include prematurity and neonatal abstinence syndrome. Heroin use can result in neonatal abstinence syndrome. It is important for pregnant women to avoid drug use to ensure the health and well-being of both themselves and their unborn child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old Caucasian female teacher visits the clinic to inquire about preconception care. She intends to conceive and is interested in learning about the supplements she should take. She has never given birth before and is in good health. She is not on any medication and has no known allergies. She does not smoke or consume alcohol.
What supplements do you suggest she take?Your Answer: Folic acid 5 mg once a day and vitamin D 10 micrograms once a day
Correct Answer: Folic acid 400 micrograms once a day and vitamin D 10 micrograms once a day
Explanation:For this patient, who has a low risk of having a baby with neural tube defects and is not at high risk of vitamin D deficiency, the standard care is recommended. This includes taking a daily supplement of 10 micrograms of vitamin D. There is no need for her to take folic acid 5mg or higher doses of vitamin D, as they exceed the recommended amount.
Antenatal care guidelines were issued by NICE in March 2008, which included specific points for the care of healthy pregnant women. Nausea and vomiting can be treated with natural remedies such as ginger and acupuncture on the ‘p6’ point, as recommended by NICE. Antihistamines, with promethazine as the first-line option according to the BNF, can also be used. Adequate vitamin D intake is crucial for the health of both the mother and baby, and women should be informed about this at their booking appointment. The Chief Medical Officer advises all pregnant and breastfeeding women to take a daily supplement containing 10 micrograms of vitamin D, with particular care taken for those at risk. In 2016, new guidelines were proposed by the Chief Medical Officer regarding alcohol consumption during pregnancy. The government now advises pregnant women not to drink any alcohol to minimize the risk of harm to the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with complaints of hot flashes that occur randomly and are affecting her work as a lawyer, especially during court sessions. She is hesitant to try hormone replacement therapy due to its side effects and is seeking alternative options. What medication can be prescribed to alleviate her symptoms?
Your Answer: Evening primrose oil
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, women experiencing vasomotor symptoms during menopause can be prescribed fluoxetine, a selective serotonin uptake inhibitor (SSRI). While clonidine is also approved for treating these symptoms, its effectiveness is not well-established and it can cause side effects such as dry mouth, sedation, depression, and fluid retention. Gabapentin is being studied for its potential to reduce hot flushes, but more research is needed.
Managing Menopause: Lifestyle Modifications, Hormone Replacement Therapy, and Non-Hormone Replacement Therapy
Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It is diagnosed when a woman has not had a period for 12 consecutive months. Menopausal symptoms are common and can last for up to 7 years, with varying degrees of severity and duration. The management of menopause can be divided into three categories: lifestyle modifications, hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and non-hormone replacement therapy.
Lifestyle modifications can help manage menopausal symptoms such as hot flushes, sleep disturbance, mood changes, and cognitive symptoms. Regular exercise, weight loss, stress reduction, and good sleep hygiene are recommended. For women who cannot or do not want to take HRT, non-hormonal treatments such as fluoxetine, citalopram, or venlafaxine for vasomotor symptoms, vaginal lubricants or moisturizers for vaginal dryness, and cognitive behavior therapy or antidepressants for psychological symptoms can be prescribed.
HRT is a treatment option for women with moderate to severe menopausal symptoms. However, it is contraindicated in women with current or past breast cancer, any estrogen-sensitive cancer, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, or untreated endometrial hyperplasia. HRT brings certain risks, including venous thromboembolism, stroke, coronary heart disease, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer. Women should be advised of these risks and the fact that symptoms typically last for 2-5 years.
When stopping HRT, it is important to gradually reduce the dosage to limit recurrence of symptoms in the short term. However, in the long term, there is no difference in symptom control. Women who experience ineffective treatment, ongoing side effects, or unexplained bleeding should be referred to secondary care. Overall, managing menopause requires a personalized approach that takes into account a woman’s medical history, preferences, and individual symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 19
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor to discuss her fertility and the possibility of conceiving. She is worried about the risk of spina bifida after a friend had a baby with the condition. The patient has no notable medical history and no family history of birth defects. What is the recommended dosage of the supplement used to prevent neural tube defects during the first 12 weeks of pregnancy?
Your Answer: 400 micrograms
Explanation:To prevent neural tube defects in the foetus, it is crucial to consume folic acid. It is advised that women who are planning to conceive should take a supplement of 400 micrograms of folic acid daily. This dose should be continued until the 12th week of pregnancy. If there is a family history or a previous pregnancy affected by neural tube defects, the recommended dose should be increased.
Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention
Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.
To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.
In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 20
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman who is 34 weeks pregnant has been found to have a urinary tract infection through routine dipstick testing. The cause is identified as group B streptococcus and treated with a brief course of oral antibiotics. What is the appropriate management plan for delivering her baby in a few weeks?
Your Answer: Intrapartum antibiotics
Explanation:GBS bacteriuria is linked to an increased risk of chorioamnionitis and neonatal sepsis, therefore, the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommends that women with GBS bacteriuria should receive intrapartum antibiotics along with appropriate treatment upon diagnosis. In cases where the patient is not allergic to penicillin, intravenous benzylpenicillin should be administered as soon as possible after the onset of labor and then every 4 hours until delivery. Postnatal antibiotic treatment is not necessary unless there are indications of neonatal infection. Caesarean section is not recommended. [RCOG Green-top Guideline No. 36]
Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is a common cause of severe infection in newborns. It is estimated that 20-40% of mothers carry GBS in their bowel flora, which can be passed on to their infants during labor and lead to serious infections. Prematurity, prolonged rupture of membranes, previous sibling GBS infection, and maternal pyrexia are all risk factors for GBS infection. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has published guidelines on GBS management, which include not offering universal screening for GBS to all women and not offering screening based on maternal request. Women who have had GBS detected in a previous pregnancy should be offered intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP) or testing in late pregnancy and antibiotics if still positive. IAP should also be offered to women with a previous baby with GBS disease, women in preterm labor, and women with a fever during labor. Benzylpenicillin is the preferred antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 21
Correct
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A 29-year-old female presents to the emergency department with lower abdominal pain. A pregnancy test and ultrasound confirms a tubal ectopic pregnancy measuring 32mm and associated with a foetal heartbeat. The patient has no past medical history of note. Her observations show:
Respiratory rate of 15 breaths/min
Pulse of 93 beats/min
Temperature of 36.7ºC
Blood pressure of 126/78 mmHg
Oxygen saturations of 96% on room air
What is the most appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer: Salpingectomy
Explanation:If a foetal heartbeat is detected on ultrasound in the case of an ectopic pregnancy, surgical management is necessary, and the appropriate procedure is a salpingectomy. This is the recommended course of action for a patient with no significant medical history and both fallopian tubes. Expectant management is not suitable in this scenario, as the foetal heartbeat is visible on ultrasound. Medical management with methotrexate is also not an option due to the foetal heartbeat, and mifepristone is not used for ectopic pregnancies.
Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.
There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingotomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.
Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women with no other risk factors for infertility, while salpingotomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingotomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old female patient visits her GP with complaints of dyspareunia, dysuria, and dysmenorrhoea. During a bimanual examination, the GP observes generalised tenderness, a fixed, retroverted uterus, and uterosacral ligament nodules. The GP suspects endometriosis and refers the patient for laparoscopy to confirm the diagnosis. What would be the most suitable initial treatment option?
Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill
Correct Answer: Ibuprofen
Explanation:The recommended initial treatments for endometriosis are NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. Ibuprofen is the most suitable option for managing pain, and it should be tried first. If the pain is not relieved with one medication, a combination of paracetamol and NSAIDs can be used. If these options are not effective, hormonal treatment can be considered. Codeine is not the first-line treatment and should only be used after other options have been tried. The combined oral contraceptive pill and Mirena coil are also not the initial interventions and should only be considered if analgesia and hormonal treatments are unsuccessful.
Understanding Endometriosis
Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.
First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.
It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 23
Incorrect
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You are having a conversation about contraceptive options with a 17-year-old girl. What would be the most appropriate method to suggest?
Your Answer: Intra-uterine system (Mirena)
Correct Answer: Progestogen-only implant (Nexplanon)
Explanation:When it comes to providing contraception to young people, there are legal and ethical considerations to take into account. In the UK, the age of consent for sexual activity is 16 years, but practitioners may still offer advice and contraception to young people they deem competent. The Fraser Guidelines are often used to assess a young person’s competence. Children under the age of 13 are considered unable to consent to sexual intercourse, and consultations regarding this age group should trigger child protection measures automatically.
It’s important to advise young people to have STI tests 2 and 12 weeks after an incident of unprotected sexual intercourse. Long-acting reversible contraceptive methods (LARCs) are often the best choice for young people, as they may be less reliable in remembering to take medication. However, there are concerns about the effect of progesterone-only injections (Depo-provera) on bone mineral density, and the UKMEC category of the IUS and IUD is 2 for women under the age of 20 years, meaning they may not be the best choice. The progesterone-only implant (Nexplanon) is therefore the LARC of choice for young people.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 24
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman who uses the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) contacted the clinic after missing one dose. She typically takes one tablet at 9 pm every day, but she forgot and remembered the next morning. Her last period was 12 days ago.
What guidance should be provided to this patient?Your Answer: Take the missed dose immediately and then take the next pill at 10pm
Explanation:If a woman on COCP misses one pill, she should take the missed pill immediately and then take the next pill at the usual time. There is no need for any further action or emergency contraception such as a copper IUD. She can continue with the 7-day pill-free break as normal. Discarding the missed pill is not recommended as it could increase the risk of an unwanted pregnancy. Starting the next pack without the 7-day break is also not necessary in this case. However, if she misses two pills and there are fewer than seven pills left in the pack, she would need to start the next pack without a break.
Missed Pills in Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
When taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol, it is important to know what to do if a pill is missed. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their recommendations in recent years. If one pill is missed at any time in the cycle, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed in this case.
However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. In this case, the woman should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row. If pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7), emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1. If pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14), after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception.
If pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21), the woman should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of 7 days on, 7 days off. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the effectiveness of the COC in preventing pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding endometrial cancer is false?
Your Answer: Pelvic pain is rarely a presenting feature
Correct Answer: Has a poor prognosis
Explanation:The prognosis for endometrial cancer is generally favorable.
Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.
When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. Progestogen therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 26
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She had her last period 6 weeks ago and is sexually active without using any hormonal contraception. She has no significant medical history. Upon examination, she has a heart rate of 84 bpm and a blood pressure of 128/78 mmHg. There is tenderness in the left iliac fossa. A pregnancy test confirms that she is pregnant, and further investigations reveal a 40 mm left adnexal mass with no heartbeat. The serum b-hCG level is 6200 IU/L. What is the most appropriate course of action for her management?
Your Answer: Laparoscopic salpingectomy and monitoring
Explanation:For women with no other risk factors for infertility, salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for ectopic pregnancy requiring surgical management, rather than salpingotomy. In the case of a patient with acute-onset abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding after 6-8 weeks following her last period, a positive pregnancy test, and ultrasound findings confirming an ectopic pregnancy, laparoscopic salpingectomy and monitoring is the correct course of action. This is especially true if the size of the ectopic pregnancy is greater than 35 mm and the beta-hCG levels are higher than 5000 IU/L. Salpingotomy may require further treatment with methotrexate and may not remove the ectopic pregnancy entirely, making salpingectomy the preferred method. Expectant management and monitoring, laparoscopic salpingotomy and monitoring, and methotrexate and monitoring are all inappropriate for this patient’s case.
Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.
There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingotomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.
Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women with no other risk factors for infertility, while salpingotomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingotomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 27
Correct
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A woman in her early thirties visits your GP clinic with a plan to conceive a baby in a year's time. She has barrister exams scheduled for this year and prefers not to get pregnant before that. However, she desires to conceive soon after her exams. Which contraceptive method is commonly linked with a prolonged delay in fertility restoration?
Your Answer: Depo-Provera
Explanation:Condoms act as a barrier contraceptive and do not have any impact on ovulation, therefore they do not cause any delay in fertility. The intrauterine system (IUS) functions by thickening cervical mucous and may prevent ovulation in some women, but most women still ovulate. Once the IUS is removed, most women regain their fertility immediately.
The combined oral contraceptive pill may postpone the return to a normal menstrual cycle in some women, but the majority of them can conceive within a month of discontinuing it. The progesterone-only pill is less likely to delay the return to a normal cycle as it does not contain oestrogen.
Depo-Provera can last up to 12 weeks, and it may take several months for the body to return to a normal menstrual cycle, which can delay fertility. As a result, it is not the most suitable method for a woman who wants to resume ovulatory cycles immediately.
Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera
Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucus thickening and endometrial thinning.
However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.
It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 28
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about her migraine prophylaxis medication and its potential effects on her unborn child. She reports that her migraines used to occur 1-2 times per week, but since starting the medication, they have decreased to 1-2 times per month. Which medication commonly used for migraine prophylaxis is associated with congenital abnormalities, specifically cleft lip and palate?
Your Answer: Topiramate
Explanation:If a person experiences more than 2 migraine attacks a month, they should be offered migraine prophylaxis. Propranolol and topiramate are both options for this, but propranolol is preferred for women of child-bearing age due to the risk of cleft lip/cleft palate in infants if topiramate is used during the first trimester of pregnancy. The combined oral contraceptive pill is not typically prescribed for migraines, and if a patient using it becomes pregnant, it will not harm the fetus. Triptan medications like sumatriptan and zolmitriptan are used for acute migraine treatment and should be taken as soon as a migraine starts. They may also be used for menstrual migraine prophylaxis, but should be avoided during pregnancy due to limited safety data.
Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.
Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.
Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to using combined oral contraceptive pills?
Your Answer: BMI of 38 kg/m^2
Correct Answer: 36-year-old woman smoking 20 cigarettes/day
Explanation:The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, breast feeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 30
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of pelvic pain and deep dyspareunia that has been ongoing for four days. During the examination, the GP notes a temperature of 37.9 degrees Celsius, lower abdominal tenderness, and cervical motion tenderness. The GP suspects that the woman may have pelvic inflammatory disease. What criteria should the GP use to determine whether antibiotics should be prescribed?
Your Answer: Clinical evidence - history and examination
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, clinicians should diagnose pelvic inflammatory disease based on clinical symptoms and start antibiotic treatment promptly. While investigations such as endocervical and high vaginal swabs for microscopy and culture should be performed, they should not delay treatment. Negative swab results do not exclude the possibility of the disease. Blood cultures are not necessary unless the patient shows signs of systemic illness. Transvaginal ultrasound is not the first choice but may be necessary if an abscess is suspected.
(NICE CKS – Pelvic Inflammatory Disease)Understanding Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition that occurs when the female pelvic organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and surrounding peritoneum, become infected and inflamed. The most common cause of PID is an ascending infection from the endocervix, often caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. Other causative organisms include Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycoplasma genitalium, and Mycoplasma hominis. Symptoms of PID include lower abdominal pain, fever, dyspareunia, dysuria, menstrual irregularities, vaginal or cervical discharge, and cervical excitation.
To diagnose PID, a pregnancy test should be done to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, and a high vaginal swab should be taken to screen for Chlamydia and Gonorrhoea. However, these tests are often negative, so consensus guidelines recommend having a low threshold for treatment due to the potential complications of untreated PID. Management typically involves a combination of antibiotics, such as oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole.
Complications of PID include perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh Curtis Syndrome), which occurs in around 10% of cases and is characterized by right upper quadrant pain that may be confused with cholecystitis. PID can also lead to infertility, with the risk as high as 10-20% after a single episode, chronic pelvic pain, and ectopic pregnancy. In mild cases of PID, intrauterine contraceptive devices may be left in, but recent guidelines suggest that removal of the IUD should be considered for better short-term clinical outcomes. Understanding PID and its potential complications is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 31
Correct
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A 20-year-old woman presents to your clinic seeking emergency contraception after forgetting to take 2 doses of her regular contraceptive pill. She reports engaging in sexual activity approximately 48 hours ago. Her medical history includes eczema and severe asthma. Although she missed her pill, she is hesitant to switch to a different form of contraception as she typically has no issues with her current pill but simply forgot to bring it with her while staying at her boyfriend's for the weekend. What is the most suitable emergency contraception option to suggest to her?
Your Answer: Levonorgestrel
Explanation:Levonorgestrel is the correct choice, as the patient has expressed reluctance to try a different form of contraception. It is important to prioritize pregnancy prevention while also discussing the benefits of long-acting reversible contraception and allowing the patient time to consider it. While ulipristal and levonorgestrel are both oral options, ulipristal should be used cautiously in patients with severe asthma. As the patient is still within the 72-hour window for levonorgestrel use and has missed two doses of her oral contraceptive pill, levonorgestrel is the preferred option.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female patient visits the GP clinic complaining of excessive pain during her menstrual cycle for the past 6 months. She experiences pain 1-2 days before the onset of menstruation, which lasts throughout the cycle. Additionally, she reports pain during sexual intercourse, particularly during deep penetration. Her last menstrual period occurred 2 days ago. She has been in a monogamous relationship with her partner for 8 years, and she has never been pregnant. She does not use any form of contraception except for condoms. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: A trial of combined oral contraceptive pill
Correct Answer: Refer to gynaecology
Explanation:Patients with secondary dysmenorrhoea require referral to gynaecology for investigation, including this patient who exhibits such symptoms. While tranexamic acid is effective for menorrhagia, it is not useful for dysmenorrhoea. While a transvaginal ultrasound scan may be part of the investigation, a specialist review is more crucial, particularly for this patient who displays symptoms indicative of endometriosis, which may not be visible on an ultrasound scan. Before using the intrauterine system or combined oral contraceptive pill to treat endometriosis, a diagnosis is necessary.
Dysmenorrhoea is a condition where women experience excessive pain during their menstrual period. There are two types of dysmenorrhoea: primary and secondary. Primary dysmenorrhoea affects up to 50% of menstruating women and is not caused by any underlying pelvic pathology. It usually appears within 1-2 years of the menarche and is thought to be partially caused by excessive endometrial prostaglandin production. Symptoms include suprapubic cramping pains that may radiate to the back or down the thigh, and pain typically starts just before or within a few hours of the period starting. NSAIDs such as mefenamic acid and ibuprofen are effective in up to 80% of women, and combined oral contraceptive pills are used second line for management.
Secondary dysmenorrhoea, on the other hand, typically develops many years after the menarche and is caused by an underlying pathology. The pain usually starts 3-4 days before the onset of the period. Causes of secondary dysmenorrhoea include endometriosis, adenomyosis, pelvic inflammatory disease, intrauterine devices, and fibroids. Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend referring all patients with secondary dysmenorrhoea to gynaecology for investigation. It is important to note that the intrauterine system (Mirena) may help dysmenorrhoea, but this only applies to normal copper coils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 33
Correct
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What is the primary mode of operation of Nexplanon (etonogestrel contraceptive implant)?
Your Answer: Inhibition of ovulation
Explanation:The primary way in which Nexplanon works is by preventing ovulation.
Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progestogen hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.
The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.
There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 34
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents to you for a discussion on contraception options. She is hesitant about getting an implant or coil and prefers to start taking the combined oral contraceptive pill. However, she is uncertain if she is eligible for the pill due to a family history of breast cancer in her mother and grandmother, both of whom were diagnosed in their 50s. She has undergone genetic testing privately and tested negative for the BRCA1 and BRCA2 gene. She has no significant medical history, is normotensive, and has a BMI of 22 kg/m². What method of contraception would you recommend?
Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill
Explanation:Prescribing the combined oral contraceptive pill is not recommended for women with a family history of breast cancer associated with a BRCA mutation. However, for those with a family history of breast cancer but no BRCA mutation, the contraceptive pill is considered safe and has no restrictions (UKMEC 1). Therefore, if a patient with this medical history requests the combined oral contraceptive pill, it should be prescribed to her as the preferred contraceptive method.
The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, breast feeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female with rheumatoid arthritis visits her GP for advice on starting a family. She and her partner are eager to conceive and she has been taking folic acid for the past four weeks. The patient has no other medical history and is currently taking methotrexate, paracetamol, ibuprofen, and lansoprazole. She is aware that her sister had to stop some of her rheumatoid arthritis medications before getting pregnant and wants to know if she needs to do the same.
What is the appropriate management advice for this patient?Your Answer: Stop methotrexate at least three months before conception
Correct Answer: Stop methotrexate at least six months before conception
Explanation:When it comes to methotrexate, it is important to discontinue the drug at least six months before attempting to conceive, regardless of gender. This is because methotrexate can potentially harm sperm in males and cause early abortion in females. By allowing for a full wash-out period, the risk of DNA changes in both gametes can be minimized. While some studies suggest that paternal exposure to methotrexate within 90 days before pregnancy may not lead to congenital malformations, stillbirths, or preterm births, current guidelines recommend avoiding the drug for six months to ensure proper folic acid repletion. Therefore, options suggesting stopping methotrexate for only one or three months before conception are incorrect.
Managing Rheumatoid Arthritis During Pregnancy
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a condition that commonly affects women of reproductive age, making issues surrounding conception and pregnancy a concern. While there are no official guidelines for managing RA during pregnancy, expert reviews suggest that patients with early or poorly controlled RA should wait until their disease is more stable before attempting to conceive.
During pregnancy, RA symptoms tend to improve for most patients, but only a small minority experience complete resolution. After delivery, patients often experience a flare-up of symptoms. It’s important to note that certain medications used to treat RA are not safe during pregnancy, such as methotrexate and leflunomide. However, sulfasalazine and hydroxychloroquine are considered safe.
Interestingly, studies have shown that the use of TNF-α blockers during pregnancy does not significantly increase adverse outcomes. However, many patients in these studies stopped taking the medication once they found out they were pregnant. Low-dose corticosteroids may also be used to control symptoms during pregnancy.
NSAIDs can be used until 32 weeks, but should be withdrawn after that due to the risk of early closure of the ductus arteriosus. Patients with RA should also be referred to an obstetric anaesthetist due to the risk of atlanto-axial subluxation. Overall, managing RA during pregnancy requires careful consideration and consultation with healthcare professionals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 36
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents with a breast lump. The lump has been present for around eight months and the patient is not sure if it has increased in size. On examination, there are no skin or nipple changes and there is a soft, mobile lump in the lower outer quadrant of the right breast which is nontender to palpation. She has no personal or family history of breast disease and is a non-smoker. What would be the next most appropriate step in this patient’s management? Select the SINGLE most likely option.
Your Answer: 2-week wait referral to the breast surgery team
Explanation:Management of Fibrocystic Breast Disease: Referral to Breast Surgery Team
Fibrocystic breast disease, also known as fibro-adenosis or fibrosclerosis, is a common benign condition that often presents with breast lumps or nodularity. According to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, patients under 30 years of age with a new breast lump without other suspicious features should be routinely referred to the Breast Clinic.
For patients presenting with a persistent lump, watch and wait may not be appropriate, and referral for assessment is indicated. Urgent 2-week wait referral is recommended for patients over 30 years of age with a new unexplained breast or axillary lump, or skin or nipple changes suggestive of breast cancer.
Mammography is not indicated for patients under 35 years of age with a suspected fibro-adenoma. Instead, triple assessment with ultrasonography is recommended. Antibiotics are not indicated unless there is evidence of infection or abscess.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about UPSI she had four days ago. She has a medical history of asthma and psoriasis, and is allergic to latex. She uses oral steroids for her asthma but takes no regular medication. You suggest the copper coil as a form of emergency contraception, but the patient prefers a pill and mentions that her housemate recently took the 'EllaOne emergency pill' (ulipristal acetate). Why is the same method not suitable for this patient?
Your Answer: UPSI being 4 days ago
Correct Answer: Asthma controlled by oral steroids
Explanation:When administering ulipristal acetate to individuals with severe asthma who are using oral steroids to control their condition, caution should be exercised due to the anti-glucocorticoid effect of the medication. The possibility of latex allergy should be considered when recommending barrier contraceptive methods or conducting a physical examination while wearing latex gloves. The failure to use regular contraception is a valid reason to offer emergency contraception following unprotected sexual intercourse. The use of ulipristal as emergency contraception may require caution in individuals with psoriasis, as this condition can be managed with oral steroids. However, it is important to note that oral steroids are only recommended for the individual’s asthma.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 38
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman complains of urine leakage when laughing or jumping. She has no other urinary symptoms, and her urine dipstick test is negative.
What is the most appropriate initial treatment option?Your Answer: Pelvic floor exercises
Explanation:Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Types and Treatment Options
Urinary incontinence is a common problem that affects people of all ages, but is more prevalent in elderly individuals and females. It is important to classify the type of urinary incontinence to determine the underlying cause and appropriate treatment.
Functional incontinence occurs due to reasons other than lower urinary tract dysfunction, such as delirium, psychiatric disorders, urinary infection, or impaired mobility. Treatment is directed at the underlying cause.
Mixed incontinence is a combination of stress incontinence and urge incontinence, characterized by mild-to-moderate urine loss with physical activities and acute urine loss without warning, respectively. Urinary frequency, urgency, and nocturia are also present.
Overflow incontinence occurs when the bladder is overdistended and urine overflows despite the absence of detrusor contraction. Symptoms may mimic those of mixed incontinence and may suggest a cause of bladder outlet obstruction or neurological dysfunction.
Stress incontinence is triggered by increased intra-abdominal pressure and is characterized by involuntary urine loss during coughing, laughing, and sneezing. Irritative voiding symptoms are typically absent.
Urge incontinence is associated with an overactive bladder and is characterized by uncontrolled urine loss associated with a strong desire to void, which occurs suddenly and without warning. Patients are unable to hold back urine and experience urinary frequency, urgency, and nocturia.
Treatment options include pelvic floor muscle training, anticholinergic medications such as oxybutynin and solifenacin, bladder retraining, and topical estrogen for postmenopausal women with vaginal atrophy. Treatment is directed at the underlying cause of urinary incontinence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old para 2, gravida 3 is in labour in the delivery ward. The labour is progressing normally until the midwife calls the obstetrician to assess the patient. The cervix is dilated to 6 cm, and the baby's position is 2 cm above the ischial spine. The cardiotocography shows a slow but steady heartbeat. The obstetrician decides to perform an emergency category 2 caesarian section. What is the maximum time allowed between this decision and the delivery of the baby, given the indication?
Your Answer: 2 hours
Correct Answer: 75 minutes
Explanation:Category 2 caesarean sections should be performed within 75 minutes of the decision being made. This is because these cases involve maternal or fetal compromise that is not immediately life-threatening, allowing the medical team to manage the emergency and plan the surgery to minimize risks to both the mother and the baby. A timeframe of 2 hours is incorrect as it would delay the necessary intervention. On the other hand, a timeframe of 30 minutes is only applicable to category 1 caesarean sections, where there is an immediate threat to the life of the mother or baby. A timeframe of 5 minutes is too short and may increase the risk of errors during the procedure.
Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks
Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.
C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.
It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.
Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female patient complains of a malodorous vaginal discharge that appears white. She denies any associated dyspareunia or itch. The clinician suspects bacterial vaginosis. Which organism is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Your Answer: Trichomonas
Correct Answer: Gardnerella
Explanation:Bacterial vaginosis is a condition characterized by the excessive growth of mainly bacteria.
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.
Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimes. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 41
Correct
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A 29-year-old female is 24 weeks pregnant and visits the midwife for a check-up. The foetal heart rate is detected on the Doppler scan and growth rates are appropriate for the gestational age. The mother reports to the midwife that she has been experiencing faster breathing than usual in the recent weeks. The midwife reassures her that an increase in ventilation is a typical occurrence during pregnancy. What other physiological changes are considered normal during pregnancy?
Your Answer: Red blood cell volume increases
Explanation:During pregnancy, women are checked for anaemia twice – once at the initial booking visit (usually around 8-10 weeks) and again at 28 weeks. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has set specific cut-off levels to determine if a pregnant woman requires oral iron therapy. These levels are less than 110 g/L in the first trimester, less than 105 g/L in the second and third trimesters, and less than 100 g/L postpartum.
If a woman’s iron levels fall below these cut-offs, she will be prescribed oral ferrous sulfate or ferrous fumarate. It is important to continue this treatment for at least three months after the iron deficiency has been corrected to allow the body to replenish its iron stores. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help ensure that pregnant women receive the appropriate care to prevent and manage anaemia during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 42
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman has a Mirena intrauterine device inserted for birth control on day 10 of her menstrual cycle. She has not engaged in sexual activity since her last period. What is the duration required before it can be considered a reliable contraceptive method?
Your Answer: Immediately
Explanation:Contraceptives – Time to become effective (if not used on the first day of period):
Immediate: IUD
2 days: Progestin-only pill (POP)
7 days: Combined oral contraceptive (COC), injection, implant, intrauterine system (IUS)Intrauterine contraceptive devices include copper IUDs and levonorgestrel-releasing IUS. Both are over 99% effective. The IUD prevents fertilization by decreasing sperm motility, while the IUS prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucus. Potential problems include heavier periods with IUDs and initial bleeding with the IUS. There is a small risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. New IUS systems, such as Jaydess® and Kyleena®, have smaller frames and less levonorgestrel, resulting in lower serum levels and different rates of amenorrhea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 43
Correct
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A 75 year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of a 1.5cm ulcerated lesion on her left labium majus. She has been experiencing vulval itching and soreness for the past three years, despite using topical steroid treatment. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Vulval carcinoma
Explanation:Understanding Vulval Carcinoma
Vulval carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the vulva, which is the external female genitalia. It is a relatively rare condition, with only around 1,200 cases diagnosed in the UK each year. The majority of cases occur in women over the age of 65 years, and around 80% of cases are squamous cell carcinomas.
There are several risk factors associated with vulval carcinoma, including human papilloma virus (HPV) infection, vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN), immunosuppression, and lichen sclerosus. Symptoms of vulval carcinoma may include a lump or ulcer on the labia majora, inguinal lymphadenopathy, and itching or irritation.
It is important for women to be aware of the risk factors and symptoms of vulval carcinoma, and to seek medical attention if they experience any concerning symptoms. Early detection and treatment can improve outcomes and increase the chances of a full recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 44
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman experiences a significant postpartum bleeding following the birth of her twins. The obstetrician in charge examines her and suspects that uterine atony is the underlying cause. The standard protocol for managing major PPH is initiated, but bimanual uterine compression proves ineffective in controlling the bleeding. What medication would be a suitable next step in treating uterine atony?
Your Answer: Intravenous oxytocin
Explanation:Postpartum haemorrhage caused by uterine atony can be treated with various medical options such as oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost and misoprostol.
Uterine atony is the primary cause of postpartum haemorrhage, which occurs when the uterus fails to contract fully after the delivery of the placenta, leading to difficulty in achieving haemostasis. This condition is often associated with overdistension, which can be caused by multiple gestation, macrosomia, polyhydramnios or other factors.
In addition to the standard approach for managing PPH, including an ABC approach for unstable patients, the following steps should be taken in sequence:
1. Bimanual uterine compression to stimulate contraction manually
2. Intravenous oxytocin and/or ergometrine
3. Intramuscular carboprost
4. Intramyometrial carboprost
5. Rectal misoprostol
6. Surgical intervention such as balloon tamponade(RCOG Green-top Guideline No. 52)
Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage
Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.
In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.
Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman who is currently 39 weeks pregnant presents with complaints of itching in her genital area and thick white discharge. What treatment options would you suggest for her likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Oral fluconazole 150mg for 3 days,
Correct Answer: Clotrimazole pessary
Explanation:The patient is suffering from thrush and requires antifungal medication. However, since the patient is pregnant, oral fluconazole cannot be prescribed due to its link with birth defects. Instead, metronidazole can be used to treat bacterial vaginosis and Trichomonas vaginalis.
Vaginal candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common condition that many women can diagnose and treat themselves. Candida albicans is responsible for about 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain factors such as diabetes mellitus, antibiotics, steroids, pregnancy, and HIV can increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions. A high vaginal swab is not routinely indicated if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy, with oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose being the first-line treatment according to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If there are vulval symptoms, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments. Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and a high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. A blood glucose test may be necessary to exclude diabetes, and differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime involving oral fluconazole may be considered. Induction involves taking oral fluconazole every three days for three doses, while maintenance involves taking oral fluconazole weekly for six months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 46
Correct
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A nurse updates you on a 29-year-old woman who is 24 weeks pregnant. The nurse reports that her blood pressure reading is 155/90 mmHg, which has increased from her previous reading of 152/85 mmHg taken 2 days ago. The woman had no health issues before her pregnancy. What is the initial course of action in this scenario?
Your Answer: Oral labetalol
Explanation:Oral labetalol is the recommended initial treatment for this woman with moderate gestational hypertension, as per the current guidelines.
Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.
There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.
The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 47
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about not having had a period for 6 months. She has also noticed increased sweating at night and occasional hot flashes, but attributes this to the warm weather. She has no desire for children and is only seeking reassurance that there is no underlying issue causing her amenorrhea. She has no significant medical history or family history.
The following blood tests were conducted:
- TSH: 2 mU/L (normal range: 0.5 - 5.5)
- T4: 10 pmol/L (normal range: 9 - 18)
- Prolactin: 15 µg/L (normal range: <25)
- FSH: 75 iu/L (normal range: <40)
- Oestradiol: 45 pmol/L (normal range: >100)
Repeat blood tests 6 weeks later show no changes. What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Combined hormone replacement therapy until the age of 51
Explanation:Women with premature ovarian insufficiency should be offered hormone replacement therapy (HRT) or a combined oral contraceptive pill until the age of 51 years to manage symptoms of low estrogen, prevent osteoporosis, and protect against possible cardiovascular complications. As this patient has a uterus, combined replacement therapy is necessary to avoid the risk of endometrial cancer from unopposed estrogen. Therefore, the most appropriate answer is combined hormone replacement therapy until the age of 51. It is important to note that hormone replacement therapy should be offered to all women with premature ovarian failure to protect bone mineral density and manage symptoms of low estrogen. The progestogen-only pill alone is not sufficient as estrogen is needed to treat symptoms and promote bone mineral density, while progesterone is added to oppose estrogen and reduce the risk of endometrial cancer.
Premature Ovarian Insufficiency: Causes and Management
Premature ovarian insufficiency is a condition where menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels occur before the age of 40. It affects approximately 1 in 100 women and can be caused by various factors such as idiopathic reasons, family history, bilateral oophorectomy, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, infection, autoimmune disorders, and resistant ovary syndrome. The symptoms of premature ovarian insufficiency are similar to those of normal menopause, including hot flushes, night sweats, infertility, secondary amenorrhoea, raised FSH and LH levels, and low oestradiol.
Management of premature ovarian insufficiency involves hormone replacement therapy (HRT) or a combined oral contraceptive pill until the age of the average menopause, which is 51 years. It is important to note that HRT does not provide contraception in case spontaneous ovarian activity resumes. Early diagnosis and management of premature ovarian insufficiency can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman attends the early pregnancy assessment clinic for a scan after a previous ectopic pregnancy treated with salpingotomy. The scan reveals an empty uterus and adnexal fluid with a yolk sac, indicating another ectopic pregnancy. The patient expresses a preference for the least invasive management option. What would be a contraindication for expectant management in this case?
Your Answer: An ectopic pregnancy of < 30mm in size
Correct Answer: Abdominal pain
Explanation:Expectant management of an ectopic pregnancy is only possible if the embryo is unruptured, less than 35mm in size, has no heartbeat, is asymptomatic, and has a B-hCG level of less than 1,000IU/L and is declining. However, this management option is very uncommon as most patients present with symptoms.
Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.
There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingotomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.
Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women with no other risk factors for infertility, while salpingotomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingotomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 49
Correct
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Which of the following is most commonly linked to male infertility?
Your Answer: Varicoceles
Explanation:Infertility may be linked to varicoceles.
Understanding Varicocele: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
Varicocele is a medical condition characterized by the abnormal enlargement of the veins in the testicles. Although it is often asymptomatic, it can lead to infertility, making it an important condition to address. Varicoceles are more commonly found on the left side of the testicles, with over 80% of cases occurring on this side. The condition is often described as a bag of worms due to the appearance of the affected veins.
Diagnosis of varicocele is typically done through ultrasound with Doppler studies. This allows doctors to visualize the affected veins and determine the extent of the condition. While conservative management is often recommended, surgery may be necessary if the patient experiences pain or discomfort. However, there is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility associated with varicocele.
Overall, understanding varicocele is important for men who may be experiencing infertility or other symptoms related to the condition. With proper diagnosis and management, it is possible to address the issue and improve overall reproductive health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 50
Correct
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At her booking appointment, a 29-year-old pregnant woman reports a history of pre-eclampsia in her previous pregnancy. To decrease the risk of intrauterine growth retardation, what medication should be initiated at 12-14 weeks gestation?
Your Answer: Low dose aspirin
Explanation:What is the effectiveness of secondary prevention measures for women with pre-eclampsia? A-level research has shown that low-dose aspirin, when started at 12-14 weeks’ gestation, is more effective than a placebo in reducing the occurrence of pre-eclampsia in high-risk women. This treatment also reduces perinatal mortality and the risk of babies being born small for gestational age. While low molecular weight heparin may reduce placental insufficiency in pre-eclampsia, there is currently a lack of long-term safety studies. Labetalol and methyldopa are commonly used antihypertensive drugs for acute management of pre-eclampsia, but they are not given prophylactically and do not reduce intrauterine growth retardation. Unfractionated heparin has also not been proven to prevent the development of uteroplacental insufficiency.
Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.
There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.
The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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