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  • Question 1 - John is a 42-year-old man who visits you as his younger brother Robert...

    Correct

    • John is a 42-year-old man who visits you as his younger brother Robert has recently been diagnosed with hereditary haemochromatosis. He is concerned that he might also have the condition and wants to undergo a blood test to confirm.

      Initially, you order an iron study profile that includes ferritin, transferrin saturation, and total iron binding capacity (TIBC).

      Which of the following blood test outcomes is most probable to suggest that John has the same ailment as Robert?

      Your Answer: Raised transferrin saturation, raised ferritin, low TIBC

      Explanation:

      To diagnose haemochromatosis, it is important to assess the patient’s risk factors and perform tests to determine their susceptibility. This includes evaluating their family history, age, and gender. Additionally, serum ferritin and transferrin saturation levels should be measured, and HFE mutation analysis may be recommended after genetic counselling.

      In haemochromatosis, transferrin saturation and ferritin levels are typically elevated, while TIBC is low. Serum ferritin is a highly sensitive test for iron overload in this condition, and normal levels essentially rule out iron overload. However, it has low specificity, as elevated levels can also be caused by other conditions such as diabetes, alcohol consumption, and liver damage.

      Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy using Perl’s stain.

      A typical iron study profile in patients with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation levels, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC. The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may also show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis.

      It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene. As HFE gene analysis becomes less expensive, guidelines for investigating and managing haemochromatosis may change.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 2 - A 42-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about decreased libido and erectile...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about decreased libido and erectile dysfunction. His wife notes that he has a constant tan and lacks energy. He also reports experiencing hand pains. What investigation is most likely to uncover the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ferritin

      Explanation:

      To screen for haemochromatosis in the general population, a transferrin saturation level higher than ferritin is used. For family members, HFE genetic testing is recommended. It is important to note that while the patient in question is experiencing symptoms associated with haemochromatosis, diabetes mellitus alone would not typically result in decreased libido.

      Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy using Perl’s stain.

      A typical iron study profile in patients with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation levels, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC. The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may also show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis.

      It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene. As HFE gene analysis becomes less expensive, guidelines for investigating and managing haemochromatosis may change.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old male comes to his doctor with a complaint of cough, shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male comes to his doctor with a complaint of cough, shortness of breath, and purulent sputum for the past week. He has a medical history of G6PD deficiency, COPD, and gallstones. The lab report shows that his sputum sample is positive for Streptococcus pneumoniae. What class of medications could potentially cause a severe adverse reaction in this patient?

      Your Answer: Tetracyclines

      Correct Answer: Sulpha-containing drugs

      Explanation:

      Sulphur-containing drugs such as sulphonamides, sulphasalazine, and sulfonylureas can cause haemolysis in individuals with G6PD deficiency. On the other hand, penicillins, cephalosporins, macrolides, and tetracyclines are considered safe for use in individuals with G6PD deficiency.

      Understanding G6PD Deficiency

      G6PD deficiency is a common red blood cell enzyme defect that is inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion and is more prevalent in people from the Mediterranean and Africa. The deficiency can be triggered by many drugs, infections, and broad (fava) beans, leading to a crisis. G6PD is the first step in the pentose phosphate pathway, which converts glucose-6-phosphate to 6-phosphogluconolactone and results in the production of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH). NADPH is essential for converting oxidized glutathione back to its reduced form, which protects red blood cells from oxidative damage by oxidants such as superoxide anion (O2-) and hydrogen peroxide. Reduced G6PD activity leads to decreased reduced glutathione and increased red cell susceptibility to oxidative stress, resulting in neonatal jaundice, intravascular hemolysis, gallstones, splenomegaly, and the presence of Heinz bodies on blood films. Diagnosis is made by using a G6PD enzyme assay, and some drugs are known to cause hemolysis, while others are considered safe.

      Compared to hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency is more common in males of African and Mediterranean descent and is characterized by neonatal jaundice, infection/drug-induced hemolysis, and gallstones. On the other hand, hereditary spherocytosis affects both males and females of Northern European descent and is associated with chronic symptoms, spherocytes on blood films, and the presence of erythrocyte membrane protein band 4.2 (EMA) binding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old woman presents with menorrhagia and is found to have a haemoglobin...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with menorrhagia and is found to have a haemoglobin level of 80 g/l, microcytosis and a serum ferritin of 10 μg/l. The menorrhagia has been treated by the insertion of the Mirena® intrauterine system. She has commenced ferrous sulphate 200 mg once daily. She has a further blood count performed after three weeks.
      What is the expected increase in haemoglobin level after three weeks of iron treatment?

      Your Answer: 20 g/l

      Explanation:

      Management of Iron Deficiency Anemia

      Iron deficiency anemia is a common condition that can be effectively managed with oral iron supplementation. The haemoglobin concentration should rise by about 20 g/l over 3-4 weeks if there is a response. It is important to check the full blood count at 2-4 months to ensure that the haemoglobin level has returned to normal. Treatment should be continued for a further three months to replenish the iron stores once the haemoglobin is in the reference range.

      Epithelial tissue changes such as atrophic glossitis and koilonychia may improve, but the response is often slow. If there is an inadequate response to oral iron, it is important to assess compliance and whether the iron treatment is tolerated. Malabsorption or other complicating factors such as another source of blood loss are also possible and should be considered. Effective management of iron deficiency anemia requires careful monitoring and evaluation to ensure optimal outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      210.4
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  • Question 5 - A 12-year-old boy is brought to the doctor by his mother due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy is brought to the doctor by his mother due to concerns about his recent behavior. The mother has noticed that he appears paler than usual and has been experiencing increased fatigue over the past few weeks, despite maintaining his regular routine. Additionally, he has been experiencing multiple colds and coughs over the past month, which is unusual for him. Upon examination, the boy's vital signs are all within normal range, and some pallor is noted, but no other abnormalities are observed. What would be the next step in investigating this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Bone marrow biopsy to be performed within 2 weeks

      Correct Answer: FBC to be performed within 48 hours

      Explanation:

      An urgent full blood count is required to evaluate for leukaemia in children and young adults (0-24 years) who exhibit symptoms suggestive of the disease. These symptoms may include persistent fatigue, unexplained infections, and pallor. The primary concern is to rule out leukaemia, and a full blood count should be conducted within 48 hours. While a lymph node biopsy and bone marrow biopsy may be necessary in the future, they are not currently required.

      Identifying Haematological Malignancy in Young People

      Young people aged 0-24 years who exhibit any of the following symptoms should undergo a full blood count within 48 hours to investigate for leukaemia: pallor, persistent fatigue, unexplained fever, unexplained persistent infections, generalised lymphadenopathy, persistent or unexplained bone pain, unexplained bruising, and unexplained bleeding. These symptoms may indicate the presence of haematological malignancy, which requires prompt diagnosis and management. It is important to identify these symptoms early to ensure timely treatment and improve outcomes for young people with suspected haematological malignancy. Therefore, healthcare professionals should be vigilant in recognising these symptoms and referring patients for urgent investigation. Proper management of haematological malignancy in young people can significantly improve their quality of life and long-term prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      115.5
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  • Question 6 - A 26-year-old Vietnamese woman has been feeling unwell for a few days with...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old Vietnamese woman has been feeling unwell for a few days with a sore throat. She visits her general practitioner who conducts a full blood count and finds the following results:
      Haemoglobin
      125 g/l (normal 115–155 g/l)
      White blood cell count (WCC)
      19 × 109/l (normal 4.0–11.0 × 109/l)
      Neutrophil
      14 × 109/l (normal 2.5–7.5 × 109/l)
      Platelets
      498 × 109/l (normal 150–400 × 109/l)
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia

      Correct Answer: Acute bacterial infection

      Explanation:

      Understanding Neutrophilia: Causes and Differential Diagnosis

      Neutrophilia, an increase in absolute neutrophil count, can be acute or chronic and is often seen as an accompanying feature of various medical conditions. Acute bacterial infections, inflammatory response to shock, gout, vasculitis, and malignancies are some of the common causes of neutrophilia. Additionally, certain drugs, activities, pregnancy, myeloproliferative states, and splenectomy can also increase the neutrophil count.

      However, it is important to note that neutrophilia alone cannot provide a definitive diagnosis. A thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, symptoms, and other laboratory tests is necessary to determine the underlying cause. For instance, in the case of a sore throat, acute bacterial infection is a likely cause of neutrophilia.

      On the other hand, conditions such as cytomegalovirus infection, chronic myeloid leukaemia, pregnancy, and tuberculosis are unlikely to cause neutrophilia as a primary symptom. Instead, they may present with other characteristic features such as atypical lymphocytosis, raised WCC with granulocytes, elevated IgM antibodies, or normocytic anaemia and lymphopenia.

      In summary, understanding the various causes and differential diagnosis of neutrophilia is crucial in providing accurate and timely medical care to patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      149.5
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  • Question 7 - What is the correct statement regarding folic acid deficiency? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement regarding folic acid deficiency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is responsible for neural tube defect in the fetus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Folic Acid Deficiency and Supplementation

      Folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in fetal development and overall health. Inadequate intake of folic acid can lead to various health problems, including neural tube defects in the fetus. Pregnant women are particularly at risk and are advised to take folic acid supplements to meet their increased requirements.

      Contrary to popular belief, intestinal bacterial overgrowth is not a common cause of folic acid deficiency. Instead, reduced intake is the primary cause, and deficiency can develop rapidly within four months in people with an inadequate diet. It is important to note that folic acid deficiency can cause megaloblastic anemia, but it doesn’t typically result in neurological symptoms like vitamin B12 deficiency.

      Methotrexate, a drug used to treat various conditions, can impair folate utilization and cause megaloblastic anemia. Concomitant folic acid supplementation can reduce the overall toxicity of the drug without affecting its efficacy. However, it is recommended to avoid taking folic acid on the same day as methotrexate to prevent adverse effects on absorption.

      In summary, understanding folic acid deficiency and supplementation is crucial for maintaining overall health, especially during pregnancy and when taking certain medications. Adequate intake of folic acid can prevent various health problems and improve overall well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 8 - A 68-year-old lady with recently diagnosed rheumatoid arthritis is seen with anaemia.

    She originally...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old lady with recently diagnosed rheumatoid arthritis is seen with anaemia.

      She originally presented three to four months ago with arthralgia affecting her hands and feet and was referred to secondary care for disease management.

      She has recently been started on methotrexate once weekly to try and control her symptoms. She also continues to take oral steroids which are being tapered off since the initiation of DMARD therapy. Her current prednisolone dose is 5 mg daily. Her other medications consist of folic acid 5 mg weekly and PRN ibuprofen 400 mg.

      She had a full blood count performed recently which revealed:

      Haemoglobin 98 g/L (115-155)
      MCV 74.4 fL (76-96)
      Red cell count 4.2 ×1012/L -

      Further tests were then arranged which revealed:

      Ferritin 22 μg/L (15-300)

      Which of the following tests is most useful in identifying the underlying cause of this patient's anaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum iron and total iron binding capacity measurement

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Microcytic Anaemia in a Patient with Rheumatoid Arthritis

      In a patient with rheumatoid arthritis presenting with microcytic anaemia, the possibility of anaemia of chronic disease should be considered. However, further tests should be done as a reversible or treatable factor may be found. B12 deficiency and haemolytic anaemia can be ruled out as they cause elevated MCV measurements. Microcytic anaemia should prompt consideration of iron deficiency, and thalassaemia trait should also be borne in mind if indicated clinically. Iron/TIBC measurement is the most likely test to diagnose microcytic anaemia due to iron deficiency. However, the normal ferritin should be interpreted with caution as it may be elevated due to underlying inflammation or infection. In this case, iron/total iron binding capacity may be more useful markers of iron deficiency. It is also worth mentioning that DMARDs such as methotrexate can cause anaemia, but this is typically macrocytic and not the case in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 9 - A 29-year-old man with a history of moderate ulcerative colitis and mesalazine use...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man with a history of moderate ulcerative colitis and mesalazine use presents with a fever and sore throat lasting for a week. What is the primary investigation that should be conducted initially?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Full blood count

      Explanation:

      If a patient is taking aminosalicylates, they may experience various haematological adverse effects, including agranulocytosis. Therefore, it is crucial to conduct a full blood count promptly if the patient presents with symptoms such as fever, sore throat, fatigue, or bleeding gums.

      While C-reactive protein may be a part of the overall management plan, it is not the most critical initial investigation and is unlikely to alter the management plan.

      Although the monospot test for glandular fever may be useful if glandular fever is suspected, it is not the primary investigation that needs to be conducted urgently.

      Similarly, while a throat swab may be necessary as part of the overall management plan, it is not the most crucial initial investigation that needs to be performed urgently.

      Aminosalicylate Drugs for Inflammatory Bowel Disease

      Aminosalicylate drugs are commonly used to treat inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). These drugs work by releasing 5-aminosalicyclic acid (5-ASA) in the colon, which acts as an anti-inflammatory agent. The exact mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed that 5-ASA may inhibit prostaglandin synthesis.

      Sulphasalazine is a combination of sulphapyridine and 5-ASA. However, many of the side effects associated with this drug are due to the sulphapyridine component, such as rashes, oligospermia, headache, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and lung fibrosis. Mesalazine is a delayed release form of 5-ASA that avoids the sulphapyridine side effects seen in patients taking sulphasalazine. However, it is still associated with side effects such as gastrointestinal upset, headache, agranulocytosis, pancreatitis, and interstitial nephritis.

      Olsalazine is another aminosalicylate drug that consists of two molecules of 5-ASA linked by a diazo bond, which is broken down by colonic bacteria. It is important to note that aminosalicylates are associated with a variety of haematological adverse effects, including agranulocytosis. Therefore, a full blood count is a key investigation in an unwell patient taking these drugs. Pancreatitis is also more common in patients taking mesalazine compared to sulfasalazine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 10 - A 6-year-old child is brought to your clinic by their parents due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old child is brought to your clinic by their parents due to concerns about bruising and nosebleeds. The child's medical history shows only a previous case of croup as a toddler. The parents report a cold one week prior to the current symptoms. On examination, the child appears healthy and active, but there is significant bruising and purpura on the trunk and legs. There is no enlargement of lymph nodes or liver and spleen, and a dipstick test of urine is normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immune-mediated thrombocytopenic purpura

      Explanation:

      Immune-Mediated Thrombocytopenic Purpura in Children

      This child is experiencing immune-mediated thrombocytopenic purpura, which is the most common cause of low platelets in children. It occurs due to immune-mediated platelet destruction and typically affects children between 2 and 10 years old, usually after a viral infection. Symptoms include purpura, bruising, nosebleeds, and mucosal bleeding. While intracranial hemorrhage is a rare complication, it can be serious. However, in most cases, ITP is self-limiting and acute.

      While abnormal bruising can also be a symptom of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), the child’s history and clinical features are more consistent with ITP. ALL typically presents with malaise, recurrent infections, pallor, hepatosplenomegaly, and lymphadenopathy, none of which are present in this case.

      Other conditions that can cause purpura include haemolytic uraemic syndrome, Henoch-Schönlein purpura, and meningococcal septicaemia. However, these conditions have distinct symptoms and presentations that differ from ITP.

      In summary, immune-mediated thrombocytopenic purpura is a common cause of low platelets in children, typically occurring after a viral infection. While it can cause purpura and bruising, it is usually self-limiting and acute. Other conditions that can cause purpura have distinct symptoms and presentations that differ from ITP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Haematology (3/6) 50%
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