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  • Question 1 - The action of warfarin is characterized by which of the following statements? ...

    Incorrect

    • The action of warfarin is characterized by which of the following statements?

      Your Answer: Warfarin necrosis is a late-onset complication of warfarin therapy

      Correct Answer: It interacts with miconazole to increase anticoagulant effect

      Explanation:

      Warfarin, a medication used to prevent blood clots, can interact with other drugs and have various effects on the body. For example, certain antimicrobial agents can increase the risk of bleeding in patients taking warfarin, including azole antifungals, macrolides, quinolones, co-trimoxazole, penicillins, and cephalosporins. Miconazole, in particular, can greatly enhance the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Warfarin works by blocking the action of vitamin K epoxide reductase, which reactivates vitamin K1. This decreases the clotting ability of certain factors in the blood. However, warfarin can also have negative effects, such as warfarin necrosis, a rare but serious complication that can lead to skin necrosis and limb gangrene. When taking warfarin, it is important to consider drug interactions, such as displacement from protein-binding sites or enzyme inhibition or induction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following conditions is not screened for in the blood spot...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is not screened for in the blood spot screening test for infants?

      Your Answer: Sickle cell disease

      Correct Answer: Galactosaemia

      Explanation:

      Neonatal Blood Spot Screening: Identifying Potential Health Risks in Newborns

      Neonatal blood spot screening, also known as the Guthrie test or heel-prick test, is a routine procedure performed on newborns between 5-9 days of life. The test involves collecting a small sample of blood from the baby’s heel and analyzing it for potential health risks. Currently, there are nine conditions that are screened for, including congenital hypothyroidism, cystic fibrosis, sickle cell disease, phenylketonuria, medium chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD), maple syrup urine disease (MSUD), isovaleric acidaemia (IVA), glutaric aciduria type 1 (GA1), and homocystinuria (pyridoxine unresponsive) (HCU).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Methimazole (MMI) has a modest therapeutic advantage over carbimazole in the treatment of...

    Incorrect

    • Methimazole (MMI) has a modest therapeutic advantage over carbimazole in the treatment of thyrotoxicosis.
      Which of the following properties causes this?
      Select the SINGLE property from the list below.

      Your Answer: Inhibits the organification of iodine at the thyroid gland

      Correct Answer: Inhibits T4 to T3 conversion

      Explanation:

      Comparison of PTU and Carbimazole in the Treatment of Hyperthyroidism

      PTU and carbimazole are two commonly used medications in the treatment of hyperthyroidism. While both drugs are effective in reducing thyroid hormone levels, there are some differences in their mechanisms of action and adverse effects.

      One advantage of PTU over carbimazole is its ability to inhibit the conversion of T4 to the more active form T3. This is due to its inhibition of the enzyme 5′-deiodinase. However, both drugs inhibit the organification of iodine at the thyroid gland by inhibiting the enzyme thyroperoxidase.

      While both drugs are present in breast milk, the amount is likely too small to affect the infant. However, high doses may impact neonatal thyroid function, so monitoring is necessary.

      Carbimazole is considered to be at least 10 times as potent as PTU. Additionally, the two drugs have different chemical structures and therefore have slightly different adverse effects profiles. Common side effects include rash, hair loss, and skin pigmentation, while rare but serious side effects include aplastic anaemia, agranulocytosis, and fulminant liver failure.

      Patients taking either medication should be aware of the signs of liver disease and seek medical attention if they experience symptoms such as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, fatigue, abdominal pain, jaundice, dark urine, or pruritus. Regular liver function monitoring is also recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      36.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - As a foundation doctor in the endocrine department, if you were to assess...

    Correct

    • As a foundation doctor in the endocrine department, if you were to assess a patient with hypoparathyroidism resulting in hypocalcaemia, what findings may you discover during your investigation?

      Your Answer: Chvostek's sign: percussion over the facial nerve

      Explanation:

      Hypocalcaemia: Symptoms and Signs

      Hypocalcaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of calcium in the blood. Since calcium is essential for proper muscle and nerve function, many of the symptoms and signs of hypocalcaemia are related to neuromuscular excitability. The most common features of hypocalcaemia include muscle twitching, cramping, and spasms, as well as perioral paraesthesia. In chronic cases, patients may experience depression and cataracts.

      An electrocardiogram (ECG) may show a prolonged QT interval, while Trousseau’s sign may be present when the brachial artery is occluded by inflating the blood pressure cuff and maintaining pressure above systolic. This causes wrist flexion and fingers to be drawn together, and is seen in around 95% of patients with hypocalcaemia and around 1% of normocalcaemic people. Chvostek’s sign, which is seen in around 70% of patients with hypocalcaemia and around 10% of normocalcaemic people, involves tapping over the parotid gland to cause facial muscles to twitch.

      In summary, hypocalcaemia can cause a range of symptoms and signs related to neuromuscular excitability, including muscle twitching, cramping, and spasms, as well as perioral paraesthesia, depression, and cataracts. Trousseau’s sign and Chvostek’s sign are also commonly observed in patients with hypocalcaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      42.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to see her GP by her mother. She...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to see her GP by her mother. She is noted to be on the 4th centile for weight. Her mother notes that for the past few months her daughter has been tired and passes greasy foul-smelling stools three times a day. Blood tests reveal mild anaemia, positive serum IgA anti-endomysial antibody (EMA-IgA) and very elevated tissue transglutaminase (tTG) levels.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
      Select the SINGLE most likely cause from the list below. Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Coeliac Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Coeliac disease (CD) is a common autoimmune disorder that affects almost 1% of individuals in developed countries. It is triggered by gluten and related prolamins present in wheat, rye, and barley, and primarily affects the small intestine, leading to flattening of the small intestinal mucosa. CD can present in various ways, including typical GI symptoms, atypical symptoms, or no symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made through serology tests for specific autoimmune markers, and treatment involves a lifelong avoidance of gluten ingestion.

      Other potential diagnoses, such as travellers’ diarrhoea, growth hormone deficiency, hypothyroidism, and severe combined immunodeficiency, have different clinical presentations and are not consistent with this patient’s symptoms. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of CD is crucial for proper management and improved quality of life for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      92.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old female presents with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections over...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections over the past year. An abdominal ultrasound is performed and the results indicate normal size kidneys and no abnormalities in the urinary tract. The liver, spleen, and pancreas are also normal. The right ovary and uterus appear normal, but a 4 cm simple ovarian cyst is noted on the left ovary. What would be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Routine referral to gynaecology

      Correct Answer: Repeat ultrasound in 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Consider referral if the cyst remains after 12 weeks.

      Ovarian enlargement is typically diagnosed through ultrasound imaging, which can determine whether the cyst is simple or complex. Simple cysts are unilocular and more likely to be benign, while complex cysts are multilocular and more likely to be malignant. Management of ovarian enlargement depends on the patient’s age and symptoms. Younger women may be treated conservatively if the cyst is small and simple, with a repeat ultrasound scheduled in 8-12 weeks. Postmenopausal women, however, should always be referred to a gynecologist for assessment, as physiological cysts are unlikely in this population. It’s important to note that ovarian cancer can present with vague symptoms, leading to delayed diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      47.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - After expressing discomfort in their chest, a 75-year-old patient suddenly collapses on the...

    Correct

    • After expressing discomfort in their chest, a 75-year-old patient suddenly collapses on the surgical ward with no detectable pulse. The medical team initiates cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and calls for immediate assistance.
      Once the defibrillator is connected, the team pauses to check the rhythm. Although there is organised electrical activity, there is still no pulse or signs of life.
      In addition to continuing CPR with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 breaths, what other actions should the team take at this stage?

      Your Answer: Give intravenous adrenaline

      Explanation:

      In the case of pulseless electrical activity, which is a non-shockable rhythm, the ALS algorithm requires the administration of adrenaline as soon as intravascular access is achieved. This should be done immediately after the rhythm check, following two more minutes of CPR. The recommended dose is 1mg IV, which should be repeated every 3-5 minutes. It is important to note that intramuscular adrenaline is not appropriate for cardiac arrest, and IV amiodarone is not indicated for non-shockable rhythms. While it is correct to avoid shocking the patient, it is incorrect to delay drug administration until the next rhythm check. The most recent Resuscitation Council Guidelines (2021) support the immediate administration of adrenaline in non-shockable rhythms.

      The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      53.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner (GP) by his mother....

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner (GP) by his mother. She is concerned that he has had consistently delayed motor milestones and that he has severe behavioural difficulties. To stand up from a sitting position, he first kneels on all fours and then uses his hands to ‘walk himself up’. The GP notices that the child has hypertrophy of his calf muscles.
      Which of the following tests is useful in the diagnosis of the underlying condition?
      Select the SINGLE most useful test from the list below.

      Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) spine

      Correct Answer: Creatine kinase

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy and Wilson’s Disease

      Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) and Wilson’s disease are two conditions that can present with non-specific symptoms. Here, we discuss the diagnostic tests used to identify these conditions.

      DMD is an X-linked recessive condition that predominantly affects males. Diagnosis is usually made by significantly elevated creatine kinase levels and genetic testing. Muscle biopsy may also be required. Symptoms usually present by age three and include delayed walking, muscle weakness, pseudohypertrophy of calf muscles, and learning difficulties. An MRI spine or head is not helpful in diagnosis as DMD is not caused by a central nervous system or spinal pathology.

      Wilson’s disease often presents with signs of liver failure and non-specific symptoms such as tiredness, weight loss, and abdominal pain. Neurological symptoms such as tremors, loss of motor skills, and behavioural problems are more common in teenagers and adults. Diagnosis is made by measuring serum caeruloplasmin levels and genetic testing.

      In summary, elevated creatine kinase levels and genetic testing are used to diagnose DMD, while serum caeruloplasmin levels and genetic testing are used to diagnose Wilson’s disease. MRI scans are not helpful in the diagnosis of either condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 68-year-old man with atrial fibrillation (AF) visits the Emergency Room (ER) with...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man with atrial fibrillation (AF) visits the Emergency Room (ER) with complaints of intense abdominal pain that has been ongoing for the past two hours. His arterial blood gas results reveal metabolic acidosis with elevated lactate levels.

      What is the most probable diagnosis from the options below?

      Your Answer: Ischaemic colitis

      Explanation:

      Ischaemic colitis is a condition where a segment of the colon does not receive enough blood supply, resulting in varying degrees of tissue death. It is typically seen in older individuals with atherosclerosis of the mesenteric vessels, but can also be caused by other factors such as embolic disease, vasculitis, and trauma. The main symptom is severe pain that is not proportional to physical exam findings. Serum lactate levels may be elevated, but this does not necessarily indicate GI ischemia. Diagnosis can be confirmed with contrast-enhanced CT or early endoscopy. Prognosis is poor, especially in cases of occlusive mesenteric infarction. Colorectal cancer typically presents with bleeding, change in bowel habits, and abdominal pain, but the patient’s hyperacute onset of symptoms makes this diagnosis unlikely. Diverticulitis is inflammation of a diverticulum in the colon and presents with left lower quadrant pain, but the patient’s other symptoms are not consistent with this diagnosis. Community-acquired pneumonia and pyelonephritis also have different clinical presentations and are not likely in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      36.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 42-year-old man presents for follow-up. He was prescribed paroxetine for depression six...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man presents for follow-up. He was prescribed paroxetine for depression six months ago, but stopped taking it five days ago due to perceived lack of efficacy. He has a history of asthma but no other significant medical history. Over the past two days, he has been experiencing heightened anxiety, sweating, headaches, and a sensation of needles in his head. During the appointment, he is restless and pacing. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor`discontinuation syndrome

      Explanation:

      Compared to other selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, paroxetine has a greater likelihood of causing discontinuation symptoms.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 67-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents for a check-up. He is...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents for a check-up. He is currently on metformin 1g twice daily and gliclazide 160 mg twice daily. His BMI is 29 kg/m². Blood tests are taken.
      Sodium 140 mmol/L
      Potassium 4.0mmol/L
      Urea 5.8mmol/L
      Creatinine 135 umol/L
      eGFR 44 ml/min/1.73m²
      HbA1c 7.5% (58 mmol/mol)
      What modification to his current treatment plan is recommended based on the provided information?

      Your Answer: No change to medication

      Explanation:

      Metformin is typically the first choice for diabetes treatment due to its positive impact on weight. Sulphonylureas are usually the second option, unless they cause hypoglycaemia or are not well-tolerated. If sulphonylureas are not an option, alternatives like DPP4 inhibitors or thiazolidinediones may be considered. Insulin is the next line of treatment after metformin and sulphonylureas, but DPP4 inhibitors may be preferred if insulin is not suitable or if the patient wants to avoid injections or weight gain. However, DPP4 inhibitors should only be continued if they are effective, as they can be expensive.

      When it comes to metformin and renal function, it is recommended to stop using it if creatinine levels exceed 150mmol/L or eGFR is below 30ml/min/1.73m². Caution is advised when eGFR is between 30-45ml/min/1.73m², taking into account the rate of deterioration in renal function. For example, if eGFR has remained stable at 33ml/min/1.73m² for six months, it may be reasonable to continue using metformin. However, if eGFR has decreased from 50 to 38ml/min/1.73m², it is likely that metformin should be discontinued due to the risk of lactic acidosis.

      NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      98.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 67-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner reporting a feeling of weakness...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner reporting a feeling of weakness in his right arm that occurred about 10 hours ago. He states that the weakness lasted for around one hour and has since disappeared. He has a history of hypertension and takes amlodipine, but is typically healthy.
      What is the most suitable course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Give aspirin 300 mg and refer immediately to be seen in the Stroke Clinic within 24 hours

      Explanation:

      Management of Transient Ischaemic Attack (TIA)

      Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a medical emergency that requires prompt management to prevent a subsequent stroke. Here are some management strategies for TIA:

      Immediate administration of aspirin 300 mg and referral to the Stroke Clinic within 24 hours is recommended, unless contraindicated. Clopidogrel 75 mg once daily is the preferred secondary prevention following a stroke or TIA.

      An outpatient magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) head scan may be considered to determine the territory of ischaemia, but only after assessment by a specialist at a TIA clinic.

      Patients who have had a suspected TIA within the last week should be offered aspirin 300 mg at once and be seen by a stroke specialist within 24 hours. If the suspected TIA was more than one week ago, patients should be seen by a specialist within the next seven days.

      Dual antiplatelet therapy with aspirin and clopidogrel may be considered for the first three months following a TIA or ischaemic stroke if the patient has severe symptomatic intracranial stenosis or for another condition such as acute coronary syndrome.

      Management Strategies for Transient Ischaemic Attack (TIA)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      134.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 45-year-old woman presents with macroscopic haematuria, proteinuria of 2.0 g/24 h (reference...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with macroscopic haematuria, proteinuria of 2.0 g/24 h (reference range <0.2 g/24 h) and a serum creatinine level of 167 µmol/l (reference range 50–110 µmol/l). What potential diagnosis should be considered?

      Your Answer: IgA nephropathy

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Glomerular Disease: Clinical Features and Characteristics

      Glomerular diseases are a group of conditions that affect the tiny filters in the kidneys responsible for removing waste and excess fluids from the blood. Here are some of the most common causes of glomerular disease, along with their clinical features and characteristics:

      1. IgA Nephropathy: This is the most common cause of glomerulonephritis worldwide. It is characterized by IgA deposition in the glomerular mesangium and can range from asymptomatic haematuria to rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. It is often associated with persistent microscopic haematuria or recurrent macroscopic haematuria.

      2. Henoch-Schönlein Purpura: This is an acute IgA-mediated disorder that involves generalised vasculitis. It affects the small vessels of the skin, gastrointestinal tract, kidneys, joints, and rarely lungs and central nervous system. Haematuria, when present, is usually microscopic.

      3. Diabetic Nephropathy: This is a clinical syndrome characterized by persistent albuminuria, progressive decline in the glomerular filtration rate, and elevated arterial blood pressure. Macroscopic haematuria is uncommon and more suggestive of an alternative aetiology.

      4. Membranous Glomerulonephritis: This is one of the more common forms of nephrotic syndrome in adults. It causes asymptomatic proteinuria, but the major presenting complaint is oedema. Macroscopic haematuria is uncommon and more suggestive of an alternative aetiology.

      5. Focal Glomerulosclerosis: This is one of the most common causes of primary glomerular disease in adults. It causes asymptomatic proteinuria or nephrotic syndrome with or without renal insufficiency. The most common clinical presenting feature is nephrotic syndrome, characterized by generalised oedema, massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminaemia, and hyperlipidaemia.

      In summary, glomerular diseases can present with a range of clinical features and characteristics. Understanding these features can help clinicians diagnose and manage these conditions effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old woman with a history of eczema and Crohn's disease presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with a history of eczema and Crohn's disease presents with a pruritic, red rash in the right and left popliteal regions. She works as a nurse and frequently scratches the back of her knees while on duty. This is the third time she has experienced such a popliteal rash. She reports having had similar skin conditions affecting her posterior neck and inguinal areas in the past.
      Upon examination, both popliteal areas are inflamed with mild swelling and exudation. There are some accompanying vesicles and papules.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis

      Correct Answer: Atopic dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Dermatological Conditions and Their Distribution: Understanding the Diagnosis

      When it comes to diagnosing skin conditions, the location and distribution of the rash or lesion are just as important as their appearance. For instance, a rash in the flexural regions of an adult patient, such as the popliteal region, is likely to be atopic dermatitis, especially if the patient has a history of asthma. Acute dermatitis typically presents with erythema, oedema, vesicles, and papules.

      On the other hand, dermatitis herpetiformis, which is often associated with coeliac disease and malabsorption, presents with grouped vesicles and papules over the extensor surfaces of the elbows, knees, upper back, and buttocks. A rash limited to the popliteal region is unlikely to be dermatitis herpetiformis.

      Lichen planus, characterized by flat-topped, pruritic, polygonal, red-to-violaceous papules or plaques, is mostly found on the wrists, ankles, or genitalia. Psoriasis, which presents with silvery, scaling, erythematous plaques, is primarily found on the extensor surfaces. Seborrhoeic dermatitis, which is found in the distribution of the sebaceous glands, such as the nasolabial folds, scalp, eyebrows, genitalia, and presternal regions, is unlikely to be the cause of a rash limited to the popliteal region.

      In summary, understanding the distribution and location of skin lesions is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis of dermatological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      60.4
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  • Question 15 - A mother requests a home visit for her 10-year-old daughter who is too...

    Correct

    • A mother requests a home visit for her 10-year-old daughter who is too unwell to come to the clinic. Upon arrival, the girl is observed to have a fever, cold extremities, and purplish spots on her legs. What steps should be taken?

      Your Answer: IM benzylpenicillin 1200mg

      Explanation:

      The RCGP has previously provided feedback that doctors are required to have knowledge of emergency medication dosages, with a specific emphasis on suspected cases of meningococcal septicaemia.

      Paediatric Drug Doses for Emergency Situations

      When it comes to prescribing drugs for children in emergency situations, it is important to consult the current British National Formulary (BNF) beforehand. However, as a guide, the following doses can be used for intramuscular (IM) benzylpenicillin in suspected cases of meningococcal septicaemia in the community. For children under one year old, the dose is 300 mg. For children between one and ten years old, the dose is 600mg. For children over ten years old, the dose is 1200mg. It is important to note that these doses are only a guide and should be adjusted based on the individual child’s weight and medical history. Always consult with a healthcare professional before administering any medication to a child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      24.3
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  • Question 16 - A 30-year-old woman presents with a swollen first finger and wrist pain associated...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with a swollen first finger and wrist pain associated with a 5 month history of generalised fatigue. She has no other symptoms including no skin changes, and no previous medical history. Her mother suffers from psoriasis. She had the following blood tests as part of her investigations.

      Hb 125 g/l

      Platelets 390 * 109/l

      WBC 9.5 * 109/l

      ESR 78 mm/h

      Rheumatoid Factor Negative

      Antinuclear Antibody Negative

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Although females in this age group can be affected by SLE and rheumatoid arthritis, the most probable diagnosis for this patient is psoriatic arthritis due to the presence of dactylitis and a first-degree relative with psoriasis. Furthermore, rheumatoid factor and antinucleur antibody are typically positive in rheumatoid arthritis, while antinucleur antibody is mainly positive in SLE. Gout usually targets the first metatarsophalangeal joint of the first toe.

      Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is known to have a poor correlation with cutaneous psoriasis. In fact, it often precedes the development of skin lesions. This condition affects both males and females equally, with around 10-20% of patients with skin lesions developing an arthropathy.

      The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with different patterns of joint involvement. The most common type is symmetric polyarthritis, which is very similar to rheumatoid arthritis and affects around 30-40% of cases. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is another type, which typically affects the hands and feet and accounts for 20-30% of cases. Sacroiliitis, DIP joint disease, and arthritis mutilans (severe deformity of fingers/hand) are other patterns of joint involvement. Other signs of psoriatic arthropathy include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, enthesitis, tenosynovitis, dactylitis, and nail changes.

      To diagnose psoriatic arthropathy, X-rays are often used. These can reveal erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as periostitis and a pencil-in-cup appearance. Management of this condition should be done by a rheumatologist, and treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis. However, there are some differences, such as the use of monoclonal antibodies like ustekinumab and secukinumab. Mild peripheral arthritis or mild axial disease may be treated with NSAIDs alone, rather than all patients being on disease-modifying therapy as with RA. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      60.4
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  • Question 17 - A 16-year-old male presents to the dermatology clinic for follow-up. He has a...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old male presents to the dermatology clinic for follow-up. He has a previous medical history of acne and is currently taking oral lymecycline. Despite treatment, there has been no improvement and upon examination, scarring is evident on his face. What is the most appropriate course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Oral retinoin

      Explanation:

      Referral for oral retinoin is recommended for patients with scarring.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that typically affects adolescents, with the face, neck, and upper trunk being the most commonly affected areas. It is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, leading to the formation of comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the presence and extent of inflammatory lesions, papules, and pustules.

      The management of acne vulgaris typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy such as topical retinoids or benzoyl peroxide. If this is not effective, topical combination therapy may be used, which includes a topical antibiotic, benzoyl peroxide, and topical retinoid. Oral antibiotics such as tetracyclines may also be prescribed, but they should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and children under 12 years of age. Erythromycin may be used in pregnancy, while minocycline is now considered less appropriate due to the possibility of irreversible pigmentation. Oral antibiotics should be used for a maximum of three months and always co-prescribed with a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance.

      Combined oral contraceptives (COCP) are an alternative to oral antibiotics in women, and Dianette (co-cyrindiol) may be used as it has anti-androgen properties. However, it has an increased risk of venous thromboembolism compared to other COCPs, so it should generally be used second-line and for only three months. Oral isotretinoin is a potent medication that should only be used under specialist supervision, and it is contraindicated in pregnancy. Finally, there is no evidence to support dietary modification in the management of acne vulgaris.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      155.9
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  • Question 18 - How frequently is the Depo Provera (medroxyprogesterone acetate) injectable birth control administered? ...

    Correct

    • How frequently is the Depo Provera (medroxyprogesterone acetate) injectable birth control administered?

      Your Answer: Every 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera

      Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucus thickening and endometrial thinning.

      However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.

      It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      5.5
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  • Question 19 - A 47-year-old man presents to the clinic with concerns about his risk of...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old man presents to the clinic with concerns about his risk of coronary heart disease after a friend recently had a heart attack. He has a history of anxiety but is not currently taking any medication. He is a smoker, consuming around 20 cigarettes a day. On examination, his cardiovascular system appears normal, with a BMI of 26 kg/m² and blood pressure of 126/82 mmHg.

      As his healthcare provider, you strongly advise him to quit smoking. What would be the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Arrange a lipid profile then calculate his QRISK2 score

      Explanation:

      The 2014 NICE guidelines recommend using the QRISK2 tool to identify patients over 40 years old who are at high risk of CVD, with a 10-year risk of 10% or greater. A full lipid profile should be checked before starting a statin, and atorvastatin 20mg should be offered first-line. Lifestyle modifications include a cardioprotective diet, physical activity, weight management, limiting alcohol intake, and smoking cessation. Follow-up should occur at 3 months, with consideration of increasing the dose of atorvastatin up to 80 mg if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      244.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 35-year-old man visits the Neurology Clinic after being referred by his General...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man visits the Neurology Clinic after being referred by his General Practitioner for experiencing numbness and tingling in his left arm. He also reports an incident of visual blurring and pain in his left eye about six months ago.
      What is the most suitable type of cross-sectional scan to determine the cause of this man's symptoms?
      Choose the ONE most appropriate investigation from the options provided.

      Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) brain and spine with contrast

      Explanation:

      Imaging Modalities for Multiple Sclerosis Diagnosis

      To diagnose multiple sclerosis, imaging modalities are necessary to assess for acute demyelination and anatomical changes in the grey and white matter. The preferred imaging modality is magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) with contrast, which can visualize acute inflammatory changes and demyelinating lesions. Dopamine Active Transfer scan (DaTscan) is not useful for multiple sclerosis diagnosis but can confirm Parkinson’s disease. Computed tomography (CT) with contrast is best for vascular lesions, while CT without contrast is only appropriate for acute trauma. MRI without contrast is the second-best option but cannot differentiate between acute and chronic lesions. Both brain and spine should be imaged to avoid missing the lesion responsible for the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      125.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 26-year-old patient visits the GP clinic seeking a sexual health examination. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old patient visits the GP clinic seeking a sexual health examination. He engages in sexual activity with men and practices unprotected anal intercourse as both the insertive and receptive partner. He has never undergone any HIV testing and desires a prompt result. What is the most suitable test to request for this patient?

      Your Answer: HIV p24 antigen test

      Correct Answer: HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody test

      Explanation:

      The current standard for HIV diagnosis and screening involves a combination of p24 antigen and HIV antibody tests. This is because the HIV antibody may not be detectable until 4-6 weeks after infection, while the p24 antigen can show up as early as 1 week after infection. By using both tests, a more accurate assessment of infectious status can be made, allowing for discussions about pre-exposure prophylaxis and safe sexual practices. HIV viral load levels are not used for diagnosis, but can be helpful in assessing treatment efficacy after diagnosis has been confirmed. It is important to note that viral load testing should not be used alone, but rather in conjunction with the antibody and antigen tests.

      Understanding HIV Seroconversion and Diagnosis

      HIV seroconversion is a process where the body develops antibodies to the HIV virus after being infected. This process is symptomatic in 60-80% of patients and usually presents as a glandular fever type illness. Symptoms may include sore throat, lymphadenopathy, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhea, maculopapular rash, mouth ulcers, and rarely meningoencephalitis. The severity of symptoms is associated with a poorer long-term prognosis and typically occurs 3-12 weeks after infection.

      Diagnosing HIV involves testing for HIV antibodies, which may not be present in early infection. However, most people develop antibodies to HIV at 4-6 weeks, and 99% do so by 3 months. The diagnosis usually consists of both a screening ELISA test and a confirmatory Western Blot Assay. Additionally, a p24 antigen test may be used to detect a viral core protein that appears early in the blood as the viral RNA levels rise. Combination tests that test for both HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody are now standard for the diagnosis and screening of HIV. If the combined test is positive, it should be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. Testing for HIV in asymptomatic patients should be done at 4 weeks after possible exposure, and after an initial negative result, a repeat test should be offered at 12 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      42.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 25 year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of a two week...

    Correct

    • A 25 year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of a two week history of pale and homogenous vaginal discharge that has an offensive odor but is not causing any itching or irritation. Upon examination, there is no inflammation of the cervix or vagina and the discharge has a pH of 6.3. A sample of the discharge is collected. What is the probable result of the analysis of the discharge sample?

      Your Answer: Gram-positive and negative bacteria

      Explanation:

      Bacterial vaginosis is the identified condition, primarily caused by an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms in the vagina, with Gardnerella vaginalis being the most prevalent. This results in the displacement of lactobacilli, which would not be detected in the sample. The presence of hyphae suggests the existence of Candida (thrush).

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.

      Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimes. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      19.9
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  • Question 23 - A 68-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of left-sided chest pain...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of left-sided chest pain that has been ongoing for 2 hours. He mentions experiencing similar pains that occur during exercise and subside when he rests. The patient appears to be in distress, sweating, and having difficulty breathing. An ECG is conducted, revealing new T-wave inversion in V3-V6. His troponin and d-dimer levels are as follows:
      Troponin 223 ng/L (<5)
      D-Dimer 932 ng/mL (< 400)
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI)

      Explanation:

      Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a term that covers various acute presentations of ischaemic heart disease, including ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. ACS develops in patients with ischaemic heart disease, which is the gradual build-up of fatty plaques in the coronary arteries. ACS can cause chest pain, dyspnoea, sweating, and nausea and vomiting. The two most important investigations for ACS are an ECG and cardiac markers. Treatment for ACS includes preventing worsening of presentation, revascularising the vessel is occluded, and treating pain. Patients who have had an ACS require lifelong drug therapy to reduce the risk of a further event.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 24 - A 24-year-old man with a history of recurrent otitis media, two bouts of...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old man with a history of recurrent otitis media, two bouts of pneumonia, and a recent Giardia infection suffered a severe allergic reaction to a blood transfusion after a road traffic accident. His investigations showed slightly decreased immunoglobulins, a mild obstructive pattern on spirometry, and normal values for haemoglobin, white cell count, and platelets. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Immunoglobulin E (IgE) deficiency

      Correct Answer: Immunoglobulin A (IgA) deficiency

      Explanation:

      Understanding Immunoglobulin Deficiencies and Their Symptoms

      Immunoglobulin deficiencies are a group of disorders that affect the body’s ability to produce specific types of antibodies, leading to an increased risk of infections and autoimmune diseases. Here, we will discuss the different types of immunoglobulin deficiencies and their associated symptoms.

      IgA Deficiency:
      This deficiency is characterized by a decrease in immunoglobulin A, which can lead to an increased incidence of mucosal infections, particularly gastrointestinal infections with Giardia. Patients may also experience recurrent ear infections, sinusitis, bronchitis, pneumonia, and urinary tract infections. Additionally, IgA deficiency increases the risk of autoimmune diseases, such as rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus.

      IgE Deficiency:
      IgE is responsible for fighting parasitic and helminthic infections, so patients with IgE deficiency are more likely to develop these types of infections. They are also at an increased risk of autoimmune disease and non-allergic reactive airways disease.

      IgG Deficiency:
      Patients with IgG deficiency are prone to developing infections from encapsulated bacteria, such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Neisseria meningitidis. This deficiency can lead to upper and lower respiratory tract infections and meningitis.

      IgM Deficiency:
      Primary selective IgM deficiency results in increased infections by bacteria, fungi, and viruses, as well as increased autoimmune diseases. However, this deficiency does not have the selectivity for mucosal membrane infections seen in IgA deficiency.

      Severe Combined Immunoglobulin Deficiency (SCID):
      SCID is a rare disorder that results from abnormal T- and B-cell development due to inherited genetic mutations. Patients with SCID are affected early in life with multiple severe bacterial, viral, and fungal infections, as well as failure to thrive, interstitial lung disease, and chronic diarrhea.

      In conclusion, understanding the different types of immunoglobulin deficiencies and their associated symptoms is crucial for prompt recognition and treatment of opportunistic bacterial infections and autoimmune diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      82.4
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  • Question 25 - A 20-year-old male returns from Ghana and presents with a fever of 40°C....

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male returns from Ghana and presents with a fever of 40°C. He reports having bloody stools prior to this. Upon examination, he displays abdominal distension, hepatosplenomegaly, and rose spots on his abdomen. Unfortunately, he passes away before receiving empirical treatment due to bowel perforation, leading to severe sepsis. What is the causative organism responsible for this type of pathology?

      Your Answer: Salmonella typhi

      Explanation:

      Infections caused by Salmonella typhi can result in the development of rose spots on the abdomen. While these spots are also associated with C.psittaci infections, they are more commonly seen in cases of typhoid fever. Giardiasis typically does not cause such severe and sudden symptoms, while syphilis is characterized by the presence of painless chancres. Staphylococcus aureus infections, on the other hand, typically result in rapid onset of symptoms, including violent vomiting.

      Enteric fever, also known as typhoid or paratyphoid, is caused by Salmonella typhi and Salmonella paratyphi respectively. These bacteria are not normally found in the gut and are transmitted through contaminated food and water or the faecal-oral route. The symptoms of enteric fever include headache, fever, and joint pain, as well as abdominal pain and distension. Constipation is more common in typhoid than diarrhoea, and rose spots may appear on the trunk in some patients. Complications can include osteomyelitis, gastrointestinal bleeding or perforation, meningitis, cholecystitis, and chronic carriage. Chronic carriage is more likely in adult females and occurs in approximately 1% of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      18.4
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  • Question 26 - A patient with pyogenic meningitis has been admitted and the husband is worried...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with pyogenic meningitis has been admitted and the husband is worried about contracting the disease. What is the recommended prophylaxis in this situation? Choose ONE option from the list provided.

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics for Meningitis: Recommended Drugs and Dosages

      Meningitis is a serious infection that affects the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord. Antibiotics are the mainstay of treatment for meningitis, and prophylactic antibiotics are also recommended for close contacts of infected individuals. Here are the recommended drugs and dosages for meningitis treatment and prophylaxis:

      Ciprofloxacin: This antibiotic is now the preferred choice for prophylaxis in all age groups and in pregnancy. It is a single dose and readily available in pharmacies, and does not interact with oral contraceptives. It should be given to all close contacts of probable or confirmed meningococcal meningitis, with dosages ranging from 250 mg to 500 mg depending on age.

      Metronidazole: This drug has no role in the treatment of acute meningitis.

      Ceftriaxone: This antibiotic has good penetration into inflamed meninges and can be given via intramuscular or oral route. It can be used in monotherapy in adults under 60 years old, or in dual therapy with amoxicillin in older adults.

      Co-trimoxazole: This drug is an alternative to cefotaxime or ceftriaxone in older adults, and is also used in individuals with meningitis from Listeria monocytogenes infection.

      Vancomycin: This antibiotic is recommended in cases of penicillin resistance or suspected penicillin-resistant pneumococci, but should never be used in monotherapy due to doubts about its penetration into adult CSF.

      Chemoprophylaxis: Close contacts of infected individuals should receive prophylactic antibiotics to prevent nasopharyngeal carriage of the organism. Ciprofloxacin is the first-line choice, with dosages ranging from 10 mg/kg to 600 mg depending on age. Rifampicin can be given as an alternative for those unable to take ciprofloxacin.

      It is important to seek microbiology and public health advice if in doubt about the appropriate antibiotics and dosages for meningitis treatment and prophylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 22-year-old woman presents to her GP for a follow-up appointment regarding her...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old woman presents to her GP for a follow-up appointment regarding her generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). During her previous visit, she was provided with information about GAD and referred for individual guided self-help. However, she continues to experience persistent worry throughout the day and has difficulty relaxing. Her family has also noticed that she is more irritable. The patient expresses interest in trying medication for her anxiety. What would be the most suitable medication to prescribe for her?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Sertraline is the recommended first-line medication for treating generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). This patient exhibits typical symptoms of GAD and has already undergone step 1 and step 2 of treatment without improvement. Therefore, she requires step 3, which involves either high-intensity psychological intervention or drug treatment. As the patient prefers drug treatment, sertraline is the appropriate choice as it is the most cost-effective SSRI for GAD according to NICE guidelines. Citalopram and fluoxetine are also SSRIs that may be used as second-line treatments if sertraline is not effective or tolerated. Diazepam, a benzodiazepine, is not recommended for GAD due to the risk of dependence, except in short-term crisis situations.

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing anxiety disorders, such as hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a step-wise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). This includes education about GAD and active monitoring, low-intensity psychological interventions, high-intensity psychological interventions or drug treatment, and highly specialist input. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI for drug treatment, and if it is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the patient cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under 30 years old, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach, including recognition and diagnosis, treatment in primary care, review and consideration of alternative treatments, review and referral to specialist mental health services, and care in specialist mental health services. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment in primary care. SSRIs are the first-line drug treatment, and if contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 28 - A 55-year-old man presents with a chronic cough and is diagnosed with lung...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents with a chronic cough and is diagnosed with lung cancer. He asks if his occupation could be a contributing factor. What is the most probable occupational risk factor for developing lung cancer?

      Your Answer: Passive smoking

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Lung Cancer

      Lung cancer is a deadly disease that can be caused by various factors. The most significant risk factor for lung cancer is smoking, which increases the risk by a factor of 10. However, other factors such as exposure to asbestos, arsenic, radon, nickel, chromate, and aromatic hydrocarbon can also increase the risk of developing lung cancer. Additionally, cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis has been linked to an increased risk of lung cancer.

      It is important to note that not all factors are related to lung cancer. For example, coal dust exposure has not been found to increase the risk of lung cancer. However, smoking and asbestos exposure are synergistic, meaning that a smoker who is also exposed to asbestos has a 50 times increased risk of developing lung cancer (10 x 5). Understanding these risk factors can help individuals make informed decisions about their health and take steps to reduce their risk of developing lung cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      64.4
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  • Question 29 - You are scheduled to evaluate a 56-year-old patient in clinic who was initiated...

    Correct

    • You are scheduled to evaluate a 56-year-old patient in clinic who was initiated on cholesterol treatment with ezetimibe during his last clinic visit.
      Which of the following statements is accurate regarding ezetimibe?

      Your Answer: Its principal action is to reduce intestinal cholesterol absorption

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Ezetimibe: Effects on Cholesterol Absorption, Cytochrome P450 Enzyme System, and Drug Interactions

      Ezetimibe is a medication commonly used to lower cholesterol levels in patients with primary cholesterolaemia. Its principal action is to reduce intestinal cholesterol absorption by selectively inhibiting the uptake of cholesterol through the Niemann-Pick C1-like 1 (NPC1L1) protein mediator on small intestine epithelial cells. This mechanism of action also reduces intracellular hepatic cholesterol levels, leading to an upregulation of hepatic low-density lipoprotein receptors (LDLRs) and ultimately lowering plasma cholesterol levels.

      Unlike ion-exchange resins, ezetimibe does not decrease the absorption of anionic drugs or fat-soluble vitamins. Additionally, ezetimibe lacks inhibitor or inducer effects on cytochrome P450 isoenzymes, which explains its limited number of drug interactions. However, it is important to note that if used in combination with a statin, there is an increased risk of rhabdomyolysis, which is not seen in ezetimibe monotherapy.

      Overall, while ezetimibe has a modest effect on lowering low-density lipoprotein (LDL)-cholesterol, it is most commonly used as an adjunct to dietary measures and statin treatment in primary cholesterolaemia. Understanding its mechanism of action and potential effects on drug interactions and vitamin absorption is crucial for safe and effective use in clinical practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 30 - A 72-year-old man presents to the cardiology clinic with symptomatic aortic stenosis. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to the cardiology clinic with symptomatic aortic stenosis. Despite his overall good health, he is eager for intervention. What intervention is most likely to be recommended for him?

      Your Answer: Mechanical aortic valve replacement

      Correct Answer: Bioprosthetic aortic valve replacement

      Explanation:

      Mechanical valves are typically preferred for younger patients as they have a longer lifespan compared to other types of prosthetic heart valves.

      Prosthetic Heart Valves: Options for Replacement

      Prosthetic heart valves are commonly used to replace damaged aortic and mitral valves. There are two main options for replacement: biological (bioprosthetic) or mechanical. Biological valves are usually sourced from bovine or porcine origins and are commonly used in older patients. However, they have a major disadvantage of structural deterioration and calcification over time. On the other hand, mechanical valves have a low failure rate but require long-term anticoagulation due to the increased risk of thrombosis. Warfarin is still the preferred anticoagulant for patients with mechanical heart valves, and the target INR varies depending on the valve type. Aspirin is only given in addition if there is an additional indication, such as ischaemic heart disease. Following the 2008 NICE guidelines, antibiotics are no longer recommended for common procedures such as dental work for prophylaxis of endocarditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      10.3
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology/Therapeutics (1/3) 33%
Paediatrics (1/3) 33%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (2/2) 100%
Renal Medicine/Urology (2/3) 67%
Cardiovascular (3/4) 75%
Psychiatry (2/2) 100%
Neurology (2/2) 100%
Dermatology (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Reproductive Medicine (2/2) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/3) 33%
Immunology/Allergy (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Medicine (1/1) 100%
Passmed