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  • Question 1 - A 90-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 4-week history of sleep...

    Incorrect

    • A 90-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 4-week history of sleep difficulties. She reports difficulty falling asleep and waking up early in the morning, leading to fatigue. Her daughter mentions that she was seen in a COTE clinic 6 weeks ago for memory problems and started on a medication, but cannot recall the name. The patient has a medical history of COPD, restless legs syndrome (treated with pramipexole), and ischaemic heart disease. She was also treated for an infective COPD exacerbation with amoxicillin 3 weeks ago. Which medication is most likely causing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Rivastigmine

      Correct Answer: Donepezil

      Explanation:

      Insomnia is a possible side effect of donepezil.

      Management of Alzheimer’s Disease

      Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that progressively affects the brain and is the most common form of dementia in the UK. There are both non-pharmacological and pharmacological management options available for patients with Alzheimer’s disease.

      Non-pharmacological management involves offering activities that promote wellbeing and are tailored to the patient’s preferences. Group cognitive stimulation therapy, group reminiscence therapy, and cognitive rehabilitation are some of the options that can be considered.

      Pharmacological management options include acetylcholinesterase inhibitors such as donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease. Memantine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, is a second-line treatment option that can be used for patients with moderate Alzheimer’s who are intolerant of or have a contraindication to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. It can also be used as an add-on drug to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors for patients with moderate or severe Alzheimer’s or as monotherapy in severe Alzheimer’s.

      When managing non-cognitive symptoms, NICE doesn’t recommend the use of antidepressants for mild to moderate depression in patients with dementia. Antipsychotics should only be used for patients at risk of harming themselves or others or when the agitation, hallucinations, or delusions are causing them severe distress.

      It is important to note that donepezil is relatively contraindicated in patients with bradycardia, and adverse effects may include insomnia. Proper management of Alzheimer’s disease can improve the quality of life for patients and their caregivers.

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      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 2 - A 72-year-old man presents with a productive cough with yellow sputum. On auscultation...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man presents with a productive cough with yellow sputum. On auscultation of the chest, crackles can be heard in the right lower zone. He is on atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention of cardiovascular events. He is allergic to penicillin; therefore, a course of clarithromycin is prescribed for his chest infection.
      What is the most important information that needs to be provided?

      Your Answer: Stop atorvastatin while taking clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Managing Atorvastatin and Clarithromycin Interaction

      Explanation: When a patient is allergic to penicillin and requires treatment for a chest infection, clarithromycin may be prescribed. However, it is important to note that clarithromycin is a potent inhibitor of liver isoenzyme cytochrome P450 CYP3A4, which can affect the metabolism of drugs like atorvastatin. Here are some guidelines to manage the interaction between atorvastatin and clarithromycin:

      1. Stop atorvastatin while taking clarithromycin to avoid potential toxic effects like rhabdomyolysis.
      2. Simple linctus may help with cough, but stopping atorvastatin is the priority.
      3. Continuing to take 20 mg atorvastatin while taking clarithromycin increases the risk of myopathy.
      4. Report any muscle pain as it may be a sign of myopathy.
      5. If concurrent use of atorvastatin and clarithromycin is necessary, prescribe the lowest dose of atorvastatin and monitor for symptoms of myopathy.

      By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can manage the interaction between atorvastatin and clarithromycin and ensure the safety of their patients.

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  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old lady has come to see you about a DEXA scan result.
    You...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old lady has come to see you about a DEXA scan result.
      You would like to start treatment with a bisphosphonate.
      What specific advice should you give (and document) to this patient before starting treatment with a bisphosphonate?

      Your Answer: She should lie down for at least 15 minutes after taking a tablet

      Explanation:

      Risks and Precautions for Bisphosphonate Therapy

      Patients who are prescribed bisphosphonates should take certain precautions to ensure their safety and minimize the risk of adverse effects. It is important to maintain good oral hygiene, receive regular dental check-ups, and report any oral symptoms. Additionally, any disturbances in calcium and mineral metabolism should be corrected before starting treatment, and serum-calcium concentration should be monitored during therapy.

      Before starting bisphosphonate therapy, patients should be informed of the potential risks associated with the treatment. These risks are higher for patients receiving intravenous bisphosphonates in secondary care than those prescribed oral treatment by their family doctor. Atypical femoral fractures are a possible risk, and patients should be advised to report any thigh, hip, or groin pain during treatment. Osteonecrosis of the jaw is another potential risk, and patients should maintain good oral hygiene, receive routine dental check-ups, and report any oral symptoms. Finally, osteonecrosis of the external auditory canal is a rare but possible risk, and patients should be advised to report any ear pain, discharge from the ear, or ear infection during treatment with a bisphosphonate. By taking these precautions and being aware of the potential risks, patients can safely and effectively use bisphosphonate therapy to manage their conditions.

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  • Question 4 - Which one of the following statements regarding the registration and recording of controlled...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the registration and recording of controlled substances is accurate?

      Your Answer: Computerised records are acceptable

      Explanation:

      Controlled Drugs: Proper Storage and Register Keeping

      Proper storage and register keeping of controlled drugs (CDs) are crucial in ensuring their safety and preventing misuse. In the surgery, CDs should be stored in a locked cabinet, while those outside of the surgery must be kept in a locked receptacle or doctor’s bag with a lock. Storing CDs in a locked car boot is not acceptable.

      A register must be kept for the supply of Schedule 2 drugs. The register should be bound and each drug should have its own individual section. Entries should be made chronologically in indelible ink, and the following information should be recorded when receiving or supplying CDs: date, name and address of the supplier or person receiving the CD, quantity received or supplied, and name, form, and strength of the drug. The register must be kept for a minimum of 2 years after the date of the last entry.

      For doctor’s bags, a separate CD register should be kept for the CD stock held within that bag. The individual doctor is responsible for the receipt and supply of CDs from their own bag. Computerized records are acceptable as long as they are secure and auditable. Proper storage and register keeping of CDs are essential in ensuring their safe and appropriate use.

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  • Question 5 - You write a prescription for MST for a patient with metastatic breast cancer...

    Correct

    • You write a prescription for MST for a patient with metastatic breast cancer who is 65 years old. Later in the day, you receive a phone call from the local pharmacist. He has noticed that while you stated the total quantity to dispense in figures, you failed to write it in words. Of the following options, which one is most appropriate?

      Your Answer: The pharmacist may amend the prescription and add the total quantity in words

      Explanation:

      In order to dispense medication, a pharmacist must ensure that all legally required information is provided. However, for Schedule 2 and 3 drugs, a pharmacist may make amendments to the prescription if it only specifies the total quantity in words or figures, or if there are minor typographical errors. These amendments must be permanent and clearly identifiable as the work of the pharmacist.

      Controlled drugs are medications that have the potential for abuse and are regulated by the 2001 Misuse of Drugs Regulations act. The act divides these drugs into five categories or schedules, each with its own rules on prescribing, supply, possession, and record keeping. When prescribing a controlled drug, certain information must be present on the prescription, including the patient’s name and address, the form and strength of the medication, the total quantity or number of dosage units to be supplied, the dose, and the prescriber’s name, signature, address, and current date.

      Schedule 1 drugs, such as cannabis and lysergide, have no recognized medical use and are strictly prohibited. Schedule 2 drugs, including diamorphine, morphine, pethidine, amphetamine, and cocaine, have recognized medical uses but are highly addictive and subject to strict regulations. Schedule 3 drugs, such as barbiturates, buprenorphine, midazolam, temazepam, tramadol, gabapentin, and pregabalin, have a lower potential for abuse but are still subject to regulation. Schedule 4 drugs are divided into two parts, with part 1 including benzodiazepines (except midazolam and temazepam) and zolpidem, zopiclone, and part 2 including androgenic and anabolic steroids, hCG, and somatropin. Schedule 5 drugs, such as codeine, pholcodine, and Oramorph 10 mg/5ml, have a low potential for abuse and are exempt from most controlled drug requirements.

      Prescriptions for controlled drugs in schedules 2, 3, and 4 are valid for 28 days and must include all required information. Pharmacists are generally not allowed to dispense these medications unless all information is present, but they may amend the prescription if it specifies the total quantity only in words or figures or contains minor typographical errors. Safe custody requirements apply to schedules 2 and 3 drugs, but not to schedule 4 drugs. The BNF marks schedule 2 and 3 drugs with the abbreviation CD.

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      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 6 - You see a 62-year-old man with a recent diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR)....

    Incorrect

    • You see a 62-year-old man with a recent diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR). He was diagnosed 6 weeks ago. He has been on a tapering dose of prednisolone since diagnosis but after reducing his dose from 12.5mg to 10 mg, he reports a significant relapse in symptoms.

      What is the next most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer: Increase prednisolone to 12.5mg daily

      Correct Answer: Maintain same prednisolone tapering regimen but add simple analgesia

      Explanation:

      Managing Relapsing Symptoms in Rheumatoid Arthritis

      In cases of relapsing symptoms in rheumatoid arthritis, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends increasing prednisolone to the previous dose that controlled symptoms and monitoring response. The British Society of Rheumatologists and British Health Professionals in Rheumatology guidelines also support this approach but suggest considering referral for disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) therapy if more than two relapses occur. While erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) measurement may be useful, the decision to change prednisolone dose can be made based on clinical features. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage relapsing symptoms in patients with rheumatoid arthritis.

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  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old gentleman presents for a medication review. He is currently on sildenafil...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old gentleman presents for a medication review. He is currently on sildenafil for erectile dysfunction and has a longstanding history of stable angina. Which of the following medications should be avoided in this patient?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Correct Answer: Carvedilol

      Explanation:

      Sildenafil: A Treatment for Impotence

      Sildenafil is a well-established treatment for impotence that works by inhibiting phosphodiesterase type 5, which produces cavernous venodilation and erections in appropriately stimulated patients. It is important to note that sildenafil doesn’t increase sex drive or libido.

      While sildenafil is not contraindicated in patients with ischaemic heart disease, it is contraindicated in subjects taking nitrates due to the potential for severe hypotension. Additionally, drugs like nicorandil are inadvisable due to the nitrate component.

      Common side effects of sildenafil include flushing, which develops in the majority of patients, as well as nasal congestion and blue visual discolouration. It is important to discuss any potential risks and benefits of sildenafil with a healthcare provider before starting treatment.

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  • Question 8 - A 22-year-old female patient of yours who fell over and cut her scalp...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old female patient of yours who fell over and cut her scalp comes to the surgery with her boyfriend.

      It is a very minor laceration and there is no immediate threat to her well being, although it will require sutures.

      Your surgery is a considerable distance from the Emergency department and you are willing to do the suturing yourself, but she is visibly intoxicated.

      What is the most suitable course of action regarding the patient's consent?

      Your Answer: Ask her boyfriend if he will give consent on her behalf

      Correct Answer: Treat her under the Mental Health Act

      Explanation:

      Ethical Considerations for Treating Patients Who Lack Capacity

      When a patient lacks capacity to make decisions about their treatment and care, it is important to consider their best interests and respect their autonomy. In the case of a patient who is under the influence of alcohol or drugs, it is crucial to wait for them to sober up and give consent for any necessary treatment.

      The Mental Health Act is not applicable in this situation, as it only pertains to psychiatric conditions. Instead, the General Medical Council (GMC) provides guidance on making decisions for patients who lack capacity. This guidance emphasizes the importance of treating patients as individuals, respecting their dignity, and involving them in decisions about their care as much as possible.

      In emergency situations where a patient’s life is at risk or their condition is rapidly deteriorating, treatment can be provided without their consent. However, in non-emergency situations, it is necessary to wait for the patient to regain capacity and give informed consent before proceeding with any treatment.

      Overall, ethical considerations and respect for patient autonomy should guide decisions about treating patients who lack capacity.

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  • Question 9 - A 67-year-old diabetic patient of yours has recently been diagnosed with motor neurone...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old diabetic patient of yours has recently been diagnosed with motor neurone disease. He wants you to keep a copy in his notes of an advanced directive that he has written.

      Which one of the following statements regarding advanced directives are correct?

      Your Answer: Advance directives allow patients with the capacity to make their treatment wishes known to doctors if they should later lose capacity to indicate these wishes

      Correct Answer: Mentally competent patients have no absolute right to refuse treatment

      Explanation:

      Patient Rights and Advance Directives

      Patients have the right to refuse treatment if they are mentally competent at the time. However, an advance directive cannot authorize anything unlawful or force a healthcare provider to carry out a treatment they do not believe is in the patient’s best interest.

      This principle was tested in the case of Mr. Leslie Burke vs. GMC. In 2004, Mr. Burke argued successfully in the High Court that GMC guidelines on withdrawing nutrition were unlawful because they could allow his wishes to be overruled by a doctor. However, in July 2005, the High Court judgment was overturned by the Court of Appeal, which ruled that Mr. Burke’s fears of having artificial nutrition and hydration withdrawn were already addressed by common law. The Court of Appeal endorsed the GMC’s position that the decision as to what treatment is clinically appropriate and in the best interest of any patient is for the treating doctor, while the decision whether to accept such treatment remains with the patient.

      There is no time limit for advance directives, but if there is doubt about the validity of an advance directive because time has elapsed and a patient changed their mind, a ruling may need to be sought from the courts. It cannot simply be ignored.

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  • Question 10 - A physician needs a Home Office license to prescribe which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • A physician needs a Home Office license to prescribe which of the following controlled substances to a minor drug addict?

      Your Answer: Morphine

      Correct Answer: Pethidine

      Explanation:

      Prescribing Controlled Drugs to Addicts

      A doctor must obtain a Home Office licence to prescribe diamorphine, dipipanone, and cocaine to addicts. These drugs are classified as class A drugs under the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971, which means they are highly addictive and subject to strict control to prevent illegal misuse. However, non-addicts can receive these drugs without a licence if it is clinically appropriate.

      The Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001 outlines the authorised individuals who can supply and possess controlled drugs. It is important to note that prescribing these drugs to addicts requires a special licence due to the potential for misuse and addiction.

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  • Question 11 - A 75-year-old woman is taking multiple medications for different ailments and has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman is taking multiple medications for different ailments and has been diagnosed with macrocytic anaemia and low serum B12 levels. Which of the following medications could be responsible for the B12 deficiency?

      Your Answer: Sodium valproate

      Correct Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Medications and their potential effects on vitamin B12 levels

      Long-term use of metformin may increase the risk of vitamin B12 deficiency, which can lead to cognitive impairment, peripheral neuropathy, subacute combined degeneration of the cord, or anemia. Therefore, patients taking metformin should have their vitamin B12 levels regularly monitored.

      Amiodarone, ezetimibe, nicotinic acid, and sodium valproate are other medications that can cause blood disorders, such as anemia or thrombocytopenia, but they do not typically affect vitamin B12 levels. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential effects of medications on vitamin B12 levels and to monitor patients accordingly. Proper monitoring can help prevent or manage potential complications associated with vitamin B12 deficiency.

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  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old man visits your clinic. He recently returned from a trip to...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits your clinic. He recently returned from a trip to Africa and is experiencing feelings of depression. He believes that his friends who accompanied him on the trip turned against him during the vacation. Since returning, he has been having unusual dreams and is feeling anxious. He reports taking malaria prophylaxis. Which medication is the most probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Primaquine

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline

      Explanation:

      Mefloquine and antimalarial Medication

      Mefloquine is a commonly prescribed antimalarial medication that can cause side effects such as abnormal dreams, depression, psychosis, and panic attacks. As a GP, it is important to inform patients of the risks of malaria and the potential side effects of the medication so that they can make an informed decision.

      When it comes to prescribing antimalarial medication, there are administrative issues to consider. For example, GPs can charge a private fee for prescribing or providing drugs for malaria chemoprophylaxis or for drugs that a patient requires solely in anticipation of an ailment while outside the UK. Some antimalarial medications can also be purchased from chemists without a prescription, which may be financially advantageous for patients.

      It is important to follow national guidance when issuing prescriptions for travel abroad, and to not prescribe medication for longer than a period of three months for extended stays. By being familiar with these administrative issues, GPs can provide the best care for their patients traveling to areas with a high risk of malaria.

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  • Question 13 - After the implementation of revalidation, how frequently will physicians be required to provide...

    Incorrect

    • After the implementation of revalidation, how frequently will physicians be required to provide proof to evaluate their ability to practice?

      Your Answer: Every 2 years

      Correct Answer: Every 5 years

      Explanation:

      Understanding Revalidation for UK Doctors

      Revalidation is a process introduced in 2012 that changed the way UK doctors are licensed and certified. Previously, doctors automatically received their license to practice if they paid their annual fee and had no limitations on their registration. However, with revalidation, doctors are required to prove their fitness to practice every five years to continue working as a doctor. This process combines relicensing and recertification, and annual appraisals will continue as before, with a focus on progress towards the revalidation portfolio.

      The Royal College of General Practitioners (RCGP) is creating an ePortfolio for the process, which will contain various elements such as a description of work, special circumstances, previous appraisals, personal development plans, continuing professional development, significant event audits, formal complaints, probity/health statements, multi-source/colleague feedback, patient questionnaire surveys, and clinical audit/quality improvement projects.

      To meet the requirements for revalidation, doctors must earn at least 50 learning credits per year, with one credit for each hour of education. However, if the education leads to improvements in patient care, it will count as two credits. The ePortfolio will be submitted electronically for review by a Responsible Officer, who will be based in one of the 27 Area Teams. The Responsible Officer will be advised by a GP assessor and a trained lay person.

      Before recommending a doctor for revalidation, the Responsible Officer must be confident that the doctor has participated in an annual appraisal process, submitted appropriate supporting information to their appraisals, and has no unresolved issues regarding their fitness to practice. Overall, revalidation ensures that UK doctors continue to provide safe and effective care to their patients.

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  • Question 14 - You run a pediatric clinic in an area which has a high South...

    Incorrect

    • You run a pediatric clinic in an area which has a high South Asian Muslim population. Currently you operate clinic hours from 9 am-5 pm from Monday to Friday, with an extra clinic on a Saturday morning. The clinic manager comes to see you with a proposal to stop the clinic on a Thursday afternoon to allow for staff training.
      Which one of the following is true with respect to your obligations before changing the clinic hours?

      Your Answer: Asking the practice manager to carry out an informal survey amongst surgery attendees as to the impact of the change would be adequate

      Correct Answer: You should meet informally to consider possible impact on ethnic and religious groups of your change

      Explanation:

      Importance of Considering Equality and Diversity in Policy Changes

      By law, it is mandatory to consider equality and diversity issues before implementing any changes in practice policy. For instance, if consulting time is removed from Thursday afternoons and reallocated to Fridays, it could significantly disadvantage Muslim patients who observe Friday as a holy day. Therefore, the NHS guide to equality and diversity recommends conducting a formal impact assessment of the change to ensure that it doesn’t discriminate against any group.

      While the fifth option may seem like a reasonable first step, it doesn’t fully meet the obligations of ensuring equality and diversity. It is crucial to take into account the needs and preferences of all patients, regardless of their race, religion, gender, or any other characteristic. By doing so, healthcare providers can ensure that their policies and practices are inclusive and accessible to everyone.

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  • Question 15 - A 44-year-old patient is discharged from hospital following Covid-19 infection, during which time...

    Correct

    • A 44-year-old patient is discharged from hospital following Covid-19 infection, during which time she was treated with tocilizumab.

      Past medical history includes Chickenpox as a child and asthma.

      What advice would you give this patient after receiving treatment with tocilizumab or sarilumab?

      Your Answer: She should seek immediate medical attention if she develops signs or symptoms of diverticulitis

      Explanation:

      Important Information about Tocilizumab Treatment

      Tocilizumab is a medication used to treat severe rheumatoid arthritis and Covid-19 infection. However, it can lower the immune system’s ability to fight infections, increasing the risk of new or worsened infections. Additionally, it can suppress the C-Reactive Protein response for up to three months, making it a less reliable marker of infection.

      It is important for GPs to be aware of these points for patients who have been treated in the hospital. Patients may be at an increased risk of infections, and signs of infection may be reduced. Therefore, increased vigilance is advised for timely detection of serious infections. Tocilizumab and sarilumab can also increase the risk of bowel perforation in people with diverticular disease.

      Patients who have received tocilizumab treatment should avoid live vaccines for three months post-dose. If they are VZV IgG negative, they should avoid contact with anyone showing signs or symptoms of Chickenpox or shingles and seek medical advice if inadvertent exposure occurs. Women of childbearing potential must use effective contraception for three months after treatment.

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  • Question 16 - As a General Practitioner, which of the following items is NOT eligible for...

    Correct

    • As a General Practitioner, which of the following items is NOT eligible for personal administration claims?

      Your Answer: Salbutamol nebules

      Explanation:

      Understanding Personally Administered Items in General Medical Services

      Personally administered items are prescription items that are prescribed and administered by a member of the practice team. These items attract payment under General Medical Services Statement of Financial Entitlement 2005 section 17. Examples of personally administered items include vaccines, anaesthetics, injections, intrauterine contraceptive devices, contraceptive caps and diaphragms, diagnostic reagents, pessaries, and sutures.

      It is important to note that Nexplanon cannot be claimed as a personally administered item since it is an implant, not an injection. An FP10 prescription should be provided instead. However, Goserelin, Leuprorelin, and Triptorelin can be claimed as personally administered items, even though they are implants.

      High-volume vaccines such as influenza, typhoid, hepatitis A, hepatitis B, pneumococcal, and meningococcal are claimed on the form FP34PD. For other vaccines, an FP10 is needed. Dressings, hormonal implants, nebules, catheters, and clinical reagents cannot be claimed as personally administered items and require an FP10 prescription.

      It is important to note that items that are personally administered do not attract a prescription charge. Both dispensing and non-dispensing doctors can claim a fee from the Prescription Pricing Authority. The fee per item decreases with an increasing number of items. If a practice is claiming more than 400 items per month, it is financially beneficial to split them into batches for each doctor rather than send one batch for the whole practice.

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  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old man had a splenectomy after a car crash.

    Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man had a splenectomy after a car crash.

      Which of the following should he receive as prophylaxis against pneumococcal infection?

      Your Answer: Phenoxymethylpenicillin

      Correct Answer: No antibiotic

      Explanation:

      Management of Splenectomy Patients in Primary Care

      Splenectomy patients require lifelong antibiotics and pneumococcal vaccine to prevent infections. Phenoxymethylpenicillin is the recommended antibiotic for these patients. However, it is easy for these patients to be missed in primary care if their records are not properly coded. This can happen if incoming letters are not adequately summarised or coded.

      To ensure that new information in clinic letters is properly coded, it is important to have a system in place. Primary care providers can audit their patients to ensure that those with splenectomies are receiving the necessary antibiotics and vaccines. By doing so, primary care providers can ensure that their patients are receiving the best possible care and are protected against infections.

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  • Question 18 - A 52-year-old gentleman presents with an acute flare up of his gout. He...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old gentleman presents with an acute flare up of his gout. He has a history of gout over the past year and was recently switched from allopurinol to febuxostat. The current episode started three days ago and is causing pain in his left big toe. He has attempted to alleviate the pain with paracetamol, but it has not been effective. He is also on warfarin for atrial fibrillation.

      What recommendations would you make to the patient?

      Your Answer: Stop his febuxostat until his pain resolves and then restart and prescribe colchicine in the meantime

      Explanation:

      Management of Gout with Febuxostat

      In the management of gout, NICE recommends febuxostat as a second-line therapy if allopurinol is not tolerated or contraindicated. It is important to start febuxostat 1-2 weeks after inflammation has settled and adjust the dose according to the serum uric acid level. Urate-lowering medication is usually Lifelong and requires monitoring. Patients should not stop taking febuxostat during acute attacks if it has already been started. However, ibuprofen should not be used if the patient is taking warfarin.

      It is important to note that if the patient is already taking febuxostat, switching back to allopurinol would not be indicated. A rheumatology referral is not necessary at this stage unless complications arise or febuxostat is not tolerated or ineffective. For more information on the management of gout, please refer to the NICE guidelines.

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  • Question 19 - Is it true that Isoniazid inhibits the P450 system?

    Important for me

    Less...

    Correct

    • Is it true that Isoniazid inhibits the P450 system?

      Important for me

      Less important

      Your Answer: Isoniazid

      Explanation:

      The P450 system is inhibited by isoniazid.

      P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors

      The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing many drugs in the body. Induction of this system occurs when a drug or substance causes an increase in the activity of the P450 enzymes. This process usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug. On the other hand, P450 inhibitors decrease the activity of the enzymes and their effects are often seen rapidly.

      Some common inducers of the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking. Smoking affects CYP1A2, which is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.

      In contrast, some common inhibitors of the P450 system include antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, acute alcohol intake, and quinupristin.

      It is important to be aware of the potential for drug interactions when taking medications that affect the P450 enzyme system. Patients should always inform their healthcare provider of all medications and supplements they are taking to avoid any adverse effects.

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  • Question 20 - A 21-year-old woman has HIV infection. She is taking treatment and is asymptomatic.

    She...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old woman has HIV infection. She is taking treatment and is asymptomatic.

      She has a boyfriend and has unprotected intercourse but tells you that she douches before and after intercourse, and says she cannot infect him.

      What should you do first?

      Your Answer: Educate her and urge her to tell the partner

      Explanation:

      Confidentiality and HIV Disclosure

      Confidentiality is a crucial aspect of the doctor-patient relationship, as it fosters trust and encourages patients to seek medical attention. However, in cases of serious communicable diseases like HIV, there may be circumstances where disclosing information to a patient’s sexual partner is necessary to prevent further transmission.

      In the scenario presented, the correct answer is to educate the patient about the importance of HIV disclosure and urge her to tell her partner. Advising her to use condoms without informing her partner is not enough, as he may still be at risk of contracting HIV. The other answer options are incorrect, as they would violate the patient’s confidentiality.

      According to the GMC’s supplementary guidance on confidentiality and serious communicable diseases, doctors may disclose information to a patient’s sexual partner if they are at risk of infection and the patient has not informed them. However, doctors should inform the patient before making the disclosure, if possible, and be prepared to justify their decision to disclose personal information without consent.

      In summary, confidentiality is essential in the doctor-patient relationship, but in cases of serious communicable diseases like HIV, there may be circumstances where disclosure is necessary to prevent further transmission. Doctors should educate patients about the importance of HIV disclosure and safe sexual practices, and consider disclosing information to a patient’s sexual partner if necessary.

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      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 21 - What is the most accurate description of raloxifene in the management of osteoporosis?...

    Correct

    • What is the most accurate description of raloxifene in the management of osteoporosis?

      Your Answer: A selective oestrogen receptor modulator

      Explanation:

      Raloxifene: A Selective Oestrogen Receptor Modulator

      Raloxifene is a medication that belongs to the class of selective oestrogen receptor modulators (SERMs). It works by selectively binding to oestrogen receptors in different parts of the body, acting as an agonist or antagonist depending on the location.

      There are two types of oestrogen receptors, alpha and beta, which are found in various locations such as the breast, uterus, bone, and vasculature. Raloxifene acts as an oestrogen agonist in the bone, promoting mineralisation, while acting as an antagonist in the uterus and breast, preventing hyperplasia.

      This is different from tamoxifen, another SERM, which acts as a partial agonist in the endometrium and can promote endometrial hyperplasia. Raloxifene’s selective action makes it a useful medication for treating osteoporosis and reducing the risk of breast cancer in postmenopausal women.

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      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 22 - A 57-year-old man comes to the clinic with a cough that produces purulent...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man comes to the clinic with a cough that produces purulent and blood-stained sputum. During the examination, he has a fever of 38.2°C and shows signs of consolidation on the right side. Based on guidelines, what would be the most suitable antibiotic regimen for him?

      Your Answer: Oral co-amoxiclav

      Correct Answer: Oral amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Antibiotic Treatment Options for Community-Acquired Infections

      When it comes to treating community-acquired infections, amoxicillin is still the preferred antibiotic at a dosage of 500 mg taken three times a day. However, for patients who are allergic to penicillins or require an alternative option, either doxycycline or clarithromycin can be used. If a staphylococcal infection is suspected, flucloxacillin should be added to the treatment plan. On the other hand, if a mycoplasma infection is suspected, erythromycin is the drug of choice. It’s important to note that the appropriate antibiotic treatment will depend on the specific type of infection and the patient’s medical history. By selecting the right antibiotic, healthcare providers can effectively treat community-acquired infections and help prevent the development of antibiotic resistance.

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      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 23 - Whilst taking a stroll in the countryside on a Saturday afternoon, you are...

    Incorrect

    • Whilst taking a stroll in the countryside on a Saturday afternoon, you are unexpectedly approached by one of your patients seeking advice. She is a 55-year old insulin-dependent diabetic and has just discovered that her insulin pen is empty. She urgently needs a prescription for a replacement, but there is no out-of-hours surgery nearby. You inform her that a pharmacist can offer her an emergency supply. What is the maximum number of days' supply that the pharmacist can provide her with?

      Your Answer: 30 days

      Correct Answer: Smallest pack possible

      Explanation:

      Emergency Supply of Medication Guidelines

      In cases of emergency, the Human Medicines Regulation 2012 provides guidance on the amount of medication that can be supplied. According to the British National Formulary (BNF), the quantity of medication supplied should not exceed five days’ treatment for phenobarbital, phenobarbital sodium, or Controlled Drugs in Schedules 4 or 5, or 30 days’ treatment for other prescription-only medicines. However, there are exceptions to this rule. For instance, insulin, ointments or creams, and preparations for the relief of asthma in an aerosol dispenser can be supplied in the smallest pack available. A full cycle of oral contraceptives can also be supplied, as well as the smallest quantity of an antibiotic in liquid form for oral administration that will provide a full course of treatment. These guidelines ensure that patients have access to the medication they need in emergency situations while also preventing the overuse or misuse of prescription drugs.

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      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 24 - A colleague in your Practice collects data about the care of all patients...

    Correct

    • A colleague in your Practice collects data about the care of all patients at the practice who received palliative care over the past six months, anonymises it, collates it, and compares it to local guidelines.

      He presents the findings to the rest of the team and actions to improve care are identified.

      This is an example of which of the following processes?

      Your Answer: Clinical audit

      Explanation:

      Clinical audit aims to enhance patient care and results by conducting a methodical evaluation of care against specific standards and implementing modifications accordingly. This involves comparing practice with guidelines to evaluate the quality of care and pinpointing areas that require improvement. To ensure that care has improved, the audit process should be repeated after implementing any changes.

      Understanding Clinical Audit

      Clinical audit is a process that aims to improve the quality of patient care and outcomes by systematically reviewing care against specific criteria and implementing changes. It is a quality improvement process that involves the collection and analysis of data to identify areas where improvements can be made. The process involves reviewing current practices, identifying areas for improvement, and implementing changes to improve patient care and outcomes.

      Clinical audit is an essential tool for healthcare professionals to ensure that they are providing the best possible care to their patients. It helps to identify areas where improvements can be made and provides a framework for implementing changes. The process involves a team of healthcare professionals working together to review current practices and identify areas for improvement. Once areas for improvement have been identified, changes can be implemented to improve patient care and outcomes.

      In summary, clinical audit is a quality improvement process that seeks to improve patient care and outcomes through systematic review of care against explicit criteria and the implementation of change. It is an essential tool for healthcare professionals to ensure that they are providing the best possible care to their patients. By identifying areas for improvement and implementing changes, clinical audit helps to improve patient care and outcomes.

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      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 25 - Which one of the following is a valid reason for exception reporting a...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is a valid reason for exception reporting a patient under the quality and outcomes framework (QOF)?

      Your Answer: A patient who is on the maximum tolerated doses of medication whose treatment remains suboptimal

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Quality and Outcomes Framework (QOF)

      The Quality and Outcomes Framework (QOF) is a program that rewards and incentivizes GP practices for achieving certain standards in patient care. It was introduced as part of the General Medical Services (GMS) to improve the management of chronic diseases like diabetes and enhance the overall patient experience. The QOF is based on three key areas, namely clinical indicators, public health, and public health including additional services sub-domain.

      Clinical indicators are standards linked to the care of patients suffering from chronic diseases and make up the largest domain of QOF. The value of a point for clinical indicators is determined by the prevalence of the condition in the practice. The public health domain includes indicators for smoking cessation, cervical screening, child health surveillance, and more. The public health including additional services sub-domain has indicators across two service areas of cervical screening and contraceptive services.

      Participation in the QOF is voluntary, but 5% of practices should be visited at random to prevent fraud. Patients may be exception reported in certain situations, such as when they have refused to attend review after being invited on at least three occasions during the preceding 12 months or when they have a supervening condition that makes treatment of their condition inappropriate.

      Overall, the QOF is a program that aims to improve patient care and incentivize GP practices to achieve certain standards. By understanding the different domains and indicators, patients can have a better understanding of the care they should expect from their GP practice.

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      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 26 - A 5-year-old child is brought to see you by his parents. They have...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old child is brought to see you by his parents. They have noticed that he has developed a skin rash and bruising over last one to two days.

      On reviewing the history the parents tell you that he has previously been a well child and the only recent unwellness was a viral upper respiratory tract infection just over a week ago.

      On examination, he appears well in himself, with no temperature and is interacting and playful. However, there is marked superficial bruising and purpura over his trunk and legs. The purpura is not palpable. You also note two blood blisters on his tongue.

      There is no lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly and the remainder of the clinical examination is unremarkable with normal urine on dipstick testing.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemolytic-uraemic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Immune-Mediated Thrombocytopenic Purpura in Children

      Immune-mediated thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is the most common cause of low platelets in children. It occurs due to immune-mediated platelet destruction and typically affects children between 2 and 10 years of age, usually after a viral infection. Children with ITP develop purpura, bruising, nosebleeds, and mucosal bleeding. Although intracranial hemorrhage is a rare complication, it can be serious. However, ITP is usually an acute and self-limiting condition.

      Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) can also present with abnormal bruising, but the history and clinical features of the above child are more consistent with ITP. Other features of ALL include malaise, recurrent infections, pallor, hepatosplenomegaly, and lymphadenopathy, which are absent in this case.

      Haemolytic-uraemic syndrome, Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP), meningococcal septicaemia, and Von Willebrand disease are other conditions that can cause purpura. However, HSP typically presents with a palpable purpura that affects the buttocks and extensor surfaces, while the trunk is usually spared. Meningococcal septicaemia causes serious illness, and Von Willebrand disease presents with a more chronic timescale.

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      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 27 - A menopausal woman in her early 50s comes to discuss a change in...

    Incorrect

    • A menopausal woman in her early 50s comes to discuss a change in hormone replacement therapy (HRT) with you. She is experiencing PMS type symptoms, breast tenderness, and low mood with her current formulation. She finds it difficult to cope with the mood swings and the hot flashes are very troublesome despite wearing loose fitting clothing and opening windows at night. She doesn't have any risk factors preventing the use of HRT. She has never had any operations, has 2 grown up children by normal delivery, and uses no contraception.

      Which of the following would be most appropriate to use instead?

      Your Answer: Oral oestrogen therapy

      Correct Answer: Tibolone

      Explanation:

      Dealing with Progestogenic Side Effects of HRT

      When a woman experiences progestogenic side effects from her current hormone replacement therapy (HRT), there are several options for managing the symptoms. However, the best solution is switching to Mirena and oestrogen therapy. The levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (IUS), also known as Mirena, delivers progestogen locally to the uterus, resulting in low systemic levels of levonorgestrel. This can significantly reduce bleeding and amenorrhoea in women experiencing persistent progestogenic adverse effects from systemic HRT. The levonorgestrel-releasing IUS is also appropriate for women who require contraception along with HRT in the perimenopause or have heavy withdrawal bleeds on sequential HRT.

      Oral oestrogen therapy alone is not suitable for women with an intact uterus as they require endometrial protection. Topical oestrogen therapy is generally used for women with vaginal atrophy and will not treat vasomotor symptoms. Tibolone can be used but is not as effective as combined HRT. The copper coil doesn’t offer endometrial protection. Therefore, the best viable option is oral oestrogen with protection afforded by the Mirena coil, which is licensed for this use.

      It is important to note that management of side effects of HRT is an important topic that may appear in exams. It is advisable to read through references to be fully prepared to answer questions correctly.

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      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 28 - Your surgery serves an area of West London that is frequented by large...

    Incorrect

    • Your surgery serves an area of West London that is frequented by large numbers of tourists and economic migrants who come to the UK for a few months for work.
      With respect to health service provision, which one of the following is true with respect to provision of health services and charging to elderly visitors?

      Your Answer: Pandemic influenza care is free, irrespective of where the patient originates

      Correct Answer: NATO staff are only partially eligible for free treatment

      Explanation:

      Eligibility for Free NHS Care

      The rules for receiving free NHS care can be complex and detailed, but in general, patients from the European Economic Area (EEA), certain Commonwealth countries, and Ukraine are entitled to free healthcare. Additionally, there is a list of procedures and consultations, such as family planning, that are also covered under free healthcare.

      If a patient has been accepted for permanent residence, they are not charged for NHS care, regardless of their home country. It is important to note that eligibility for free NHS care can vary depending on individual circumstances, so it is always best to check with the NHS or a healthcare professional to confirm eligibility.

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      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 29 - A 3-year-old girl is brought in by her father with symptoms of croup....

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl is brought in by her father with symptoms of croup. You decide to administer dexamethasone. Her weight is 12kg.

      The British National Formulary recommends:

      Dexamethasone (for croup):
      A single dose of 150 micrograms/kg by mouth is effective
      Oral solution, sugar-free, dexamethasone (as sodium phosphate) 2 mg/5ml

      What is the accurate dosage of dexamethasone?

      Your Answer: 1.5ml

      Correct Answer: 3.75ml

      Explanation:

      According to instructions, a dose of dexamethasone can be administered at a rate of 150 micrograms per kilogram. This is equivalent to 0.15 milligrams per kilogram. The patient weighs 10 kilograms, so they require a single dose of 1.5 milligrams. The medication is available in an oral suspension form with a concentration of 2 milligrams per 5 milliliters. Therefore, 1.5 milligrams divided by 2 milligrams equals 0.75. Multiplying 0.75 by 5 milliliters gives a single dose of 3.75 milliliters.

      Drug Dose Calculations Made Simple

      Drug dose calculations are becoming increasingly important due to the rise of prescription errors. These errors can result in serious harm to patients, which is why it is crucial to ensure that the calculations are correct. Although the calculations themselves are relatively straightforward, it is easy to make a mistake.

      Most calculations involve drugs given as solutions or infusions. To calculate the correct dose for a patient’s weight, you need to multiply the weight by the recommended dosage. For example, if a child weighs 18kg and the recommended dosage for paracetamol is 20 mg/kg, the calculation would be 18 x 20 = 360mg.

      Paracetamol oral suspension is available in a concentration of 120mg/5ml. To determine the amount of oral suspension to give, divide the total dose by the concentration of the oral suspension. In this case, 360 mg divided by 120 mg equals 3. Multiply this by the volume of the oral suspension, which is 5ml, to get the final dose of 15ml.

      By following these simple steps, you can ensure that drug dose calculations are accurate and prevent any potential harm to patients.

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      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 30 - Which of the following drugs doesn't inhibit cytochrome P450? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs doesn't inhibit cytochrome P450?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Correct Answer: Clopidogrel

      Explanation:

      P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors

      The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing many drugs in the body. Induction of this system occurs when a drug or substance causes an increase in the activity of the P450 enzymes. This process usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug. On the other hand, P450 inhibitors decrease the activity of the enzymes and their effects are often seen rapidly.

      Some common inducers of the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking. Smoking affects CYP1A2, which is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.

      In contrast, some common inhibitors of the P450 system include antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, acute alcohol intake, and quinupristin.

      It is important to be aware of the potential for drug interactions when taking medications that affect the P450 enzyme system. Patients should always inform their healthcare provider of all medications and supplements they are taking to avoid any adverse effects.

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