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Question 1
Correct
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A 75-year-old male presents with a 4-day history of vomiting and profuse watery diarrhoea, up to 7 times a day, with abdominal pain and a fever. He denies any haematemesis or melaena. He returned from a holiday to India 8 weeks ago and also visited his nephew in the Lake District, where he had a barbecue about 10 days prior. He has minimal medical history except a 'cough and cold' treated by his GP with 3 days of oral augmentin last week. His past medical history includes hypertension, gastric reflux and type 2 diabetes mellitus, for which he takes metformin, ramipril and lansoprazole. On examination, abdomen generally tender and distended, resonant to percussion. Bowel sounds are absent. Stool cultures were initially sent five days ago but the results are still awaited, the laboratory reports that the sample has been lost. A flexible sigmoidoscopy was performed, with the report stating yellow membranes in an inflamed sigmoid colon. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Clostridium difficile infection
Explanation:If a patient has recently taken antibiotics and lansoprazole and is experiencing fever, abdominal pain, and diarrhea, it is important to consider the possibility of a Clostridium difficile infection. The presence of yellow membranes during a colonoscopy may indicate pseudomembranous colitis, which is caused by exudates and cell debris from the C diff infection. Bacillus cereus typically presents within 24 hours, E Coli within 72 hours (with bloody stool), and giardiasis within 3 weeks. Flexible sigmoidoscopy may reveal diverticulitis.
Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.
To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 60-year-old man visits his GP to inquire about bowel cancer screening after receiving an invitation by mail. What is the most accurate statement about the screening process according to the National Health Service guidelines?
Your Answer: Screening is to be offered to all men and women aged 60-74
Explanation:The Genetics of Huntington’s Disease
Huntington’s disease is a degenerative neurological disease that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. This means that only one copy of the faulty gene is needed for an individual to develop the disease. In the case of a heterozygous father and a mother with no copies of the gene, there is a 50% chance that their offspring will inherit the faulty gene and develop the disease.
Symptoms of Huntington’s disease typically appear in early middle age and include unsteady gait, involuntary movements, behavioral changes, and progressive dementia. The defective gene responsible for the disease is located on chromosome 4, and there is a phenomenon known as genetic anticipation where the disease can manifest earlier in life in subsequent generations.
Fortunately, genetic screening is now available to identify individuals who carry the faulty gene. This can help individuals make informed decisions about family planning and allow for early intervention and treatment. The genetics of Huntington’s disease is crucial for individuals and families affected by the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 40-year-old woman with no history of alcohol consumption presents with liver failure. She has been experiencing fatigue, upper abdominal discomfort, nausea, anorexia, and itching for several months. She has also noticed increased bruising. On examination, she has scratch marks, spider naevi, mild jaundice, and hepatomegaly. Her blood tests show low haemoglobin, platelets, and albumin, high prothrombin time, and elevated ALT and bilirubin. She is positive for anti-soluble liver antigen antibody and has increased gamma-globulins. A liver biopsy confirms hepatic cirrhosis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Autoimmune hepatitis Type 3
Explanation:Autoimmune Hepatitis Type 3: A Brief Overview and Comparison with Other Subtypes
Autoimmune hepatitis type 3 is a condition that primarily affects women in the 30-50 age group. It is characterized by the presence of specific autoantibodies and often leads to cirrhosis. Treatment with corticosteroids can induce remission in about two-thirds of patients, but relapse rates are high after steroid withdrawal. Azathioprine is commonly used as a steroid-sparing agent.
Compared to other subtypes of autoimmune hepatitis, type 3 is associated with a higher prevalence of concurrent immune diseases and a greater likelihood of progression to cirrhosis. Type 1, on the other hand, is characterized by anti-smooth muscle antibodies, while type 2 is associated with anti-liver-kidney microsomal antibodies.
Other liver conditions, such as Wilson’s disease and hemochromatosis, present with different symptoms and at different ages. Primary biliary cholangitis, which is characterized by itching and obstructive liver function tests, is another condition that can be distinguished from autoimmune hepatitis type 3.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents for a colonoscopy due to chronic diarrhea. During the procedure, a polyp is discovered on the right side of his colon and removed via snare polypectomy. Six hours later, while in the Recovery Ward, he becomes lethargic and begins experiencing intense abdominal pain and vomiting. What is the best course of action for managing his symptoms?
Your Answer: Involve colorectal surgeons at an early stage to exclude colonic perforation
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Management of a Patient with Abdominal Pain Post-Colonoscopy
When a patient presents with severe abdominal pain after a recent colonoscopy, it is important to consider the possibility of a colonic perforation. The first step in management is to keep the patient nil by mouth and arrange an urgent erect chest X-ray to look for air under the diaphragm, which would be consistent with a perforated abdominal viscus.
It is also important to involve colorectal surgeons at an early stage to exclude a colonic perforation, especially if the patient has recently had a polyp removed. Administering flumazenil may be necessary to address any side effects from the sedation given, but it would not explain the patient’s severe abdominal pain.
A water-soluble contrast enema would not be appropriate in this situation, as it could exacerbate the problem. Similarly, scheduling a repeat colonoscopy to identify the site of perforation may also worsen the patient’s condition.
Reassurance and discharge with analgesia are not appropriate options for a patient in significant discomfort. Therefore, it is crucial to identify the cause of the patient’s symptoms and provide appropriate management as soon as possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old patient presents with a perianal lesion that is discharging. During colonoscopy, a small defect is noted at 2 o'clock, 2 cm from the anal verge, which releases a small amount of pus upon palpation. The patient has been experiencing discharge in their underwear for a few months. On rectal examination, there is induration of the anal canal anteriorly. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Perianal abscess
Correct Answer: Anal fistula
Explanation:Anal Fistulae and Other Perianal Conditions
Anal fistulae are a common cause of chronic discharge in the perianal area. They are characterized by both an internal and external opening, with the external opening typically located at 2 o’clock and the internal opening at 12 o’clock. While the internal opening is rarely palpable during a digital rectal exam, the track associated with the fistulae often causes induration that can be felt.
In contrast, anal carcinoma is characterized by a palpable mass within the anal canal, while anal intraepithelial neoplasia presents as a skin abnormality. Perianal abscesses, on the other hand, typically present with a palpable, fluctuant swelling and tenderness, while pilonidal sinus occurs within the natal cleft rather than the perianal area.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man with a history of Crohn's disease presents with a complaint of fatigue for the past year. Recently, he has been experiencing muscle pain and weakness, as well as multiple falls.
During the examination, the patient appears thin and pale. His heart rate is 85 beats per minute, and his blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg. His chest is clear, and his heart sounds are normal. However, his abdomen has a laparotomy scar. Neurological examination reveals bilateral foot drop, reduced ankle jerks, widespread muscle wasting, and calf fasciculations. Additionally, he has reduced pinprick sensation to mid-shin.
Blood tests show:
- Hb: 144 g/l
- Platelets: 195 * 109/l
- WBC: 6.3* 109/l
- Na+: 137 mmol/l
- K+: 4.5 mmol/l
- Urea: 7 mmol/l
- Creatinine: 91 µmol/l
- Corrected calcium: 2.5 mmol/l
- HbA1c: 45 mmol/mol
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Diabetes mellitus
Correct Answer: Beriberi
Explanation:Peripheral neuropathy may be caused by a deficiency in Vitamin B1.
A patient suffering from Crohn’s disease is malnourished and experiencing fatigue and neurological symptoms due to chronic thiamine deficiency. Beriberi is a common condition that presents with symptoms such as fatigue, nausea, and abdominal pain. If left untreated, it can progress and lead to peripheral neuropathy, muscle pain, and congestive cardiac failure. Diagnosis is usually made after a response to parenteral thiamine, and symptoms tend to improve rapidly with treatment.
While diabetes mellitus and pellagra can also cause peripheral neuropathy, this patient’s HbA1c levels are normal. Pellagra typically presents with confusion, rash, and diarrhea. The presence of sensory findings rules out motor neuron disease, and Friedreich’s ataxia is an autosomal recessive disorder that typically presents in much younger patients.
Risk factors for Beriberi include alcohol dependency, renal dialysis, and a diet high in milled rice.
The Importance of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) in the Body
Vitamin B1, also known as thiamine, is a water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. It plays a crucial role in the body as one of its phosphate derivatives, thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), acts as a coenzyme in various enzymatic reactions. These reactions include the catabolism of sugars and amino acids, such as pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex, and branched-chain amino acid dehydrogenase complex.
Thiamine deficiency can lead to clinical consequences, particularly in highly aerobic tissues like the brain and heart. The brain can develop Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which presents symptoms such as nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Meanwhile, the heart can develop wet beriberi, which causes dilated cardiomyopathy. Other conditions associated with thiamine deficiency include dry beriberi, which leads to peripheral neuropathy, and Korsakoff’s syndrome, which causes amnesia and confabulation.
The primary causes of thiamine deficiency are alcohol excess and malnutrition. Alcoholics are routinely recommended to take thiamine supplements to prevent deficiency. Overall, thiamine is an essential vitamin that plays a vital role in the body’s metabolic processes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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You assess a 28-year-old male who has relocated and is referred by his primary care physician for evaluation of jaundice. Laboratory findings indicate elevated conjugated bilirubin levels with normal haptoglobins. A liver biopsy is conducted, revealing the presence of dark granules within the hepatocytes. What is the most appropriate diagnosis for this presentation?
Your Answer: Dubin-Johnson syndrome
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Differentiating causes of hyperbilirubinemia: Dubin-Johnson syndrome, Rotor syndrome, Crigler-Najjar syndrome, Gilbert syndrome, and hemolytic anemia
Hyperbilirubinemia can have various causes, and it is important to differentiate between them to determine appropriate management. Dubin-Johnson syndrome is a rare autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutations in the MRP2 transporter gene, resulting in isolated conjugated bilirubinemia. Liver histology shows granules from melanin deposition. Rotor syndrome, another rare benign disorder, can also cause conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, but liver histology is normal. Crigler-Najjar syndrome, on the other hand, causes unconjugated bilirubinemia due to a gene mutation that affects the production of the enzyme glucuronosyl transferase. Gilbert syndrome is associated with unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. Finally, hemolytic anemia can also cause hyperbilirubinemia, but in this case, haptoglobin levels would be low due to the binding of free hemoglobin with haptoglobin. Understanding the different causes of hyperbilirubinemia is crucial for proper diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man with a six-month history of reflux attends your follow-up Gastroenterology Outpatient Clinic after being referred by his General Practitioner (GP) for a direct access upper gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy. Despite stopping smoking, reducing and then stopping alcohol consumption, and trying proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) without success with the help of his GP, he has not lost any weight and has a body mass index (BMI) of 33 kg/m2. On examination, his blood pressure is 124/76 mmHg lying down, heart rate is 80 beats per minute and regular, and GI examination is unremarkable. Investigations performed by the GP reveal normal values for haemoglobin (Hb), white cell count (WCC), platelets (PLT), sodium (Na+), potassium (K+), creatinine (Cr), albumin, and alanine aminotransferase (ALT). However, upper GI endoscopy reveals 4 cm of columnar-lined oesophageal epithelium, appearances consistent with Barrett’s oesophagus, and biopsy indicating low-grade dysplasia. What is the most appropriate management regarding the endoscopy findings?
Your Answer: Endoscopic ablative therapy
Correct Answer: Repeat endoscopy at six months
Explanation:Management of Barrett’s Oesophagus with Low-Grade Dysplasia
Barrett’s oesophagus is a premalignant condition with a risk of progression to high-grade dysplasia and malignancy. In patients with proven low-grade dysplasia, the British Society of Gastroenterology recommends a repeat upper GI endoscopy after six months. If low-grade dysplasia persists or progresses to high-grade dysplasia, endoscopic therapy may be considered. However, surgical referral for oesophagectomy is not indicated unless the situation progresses to adenocarcinoma of the oesophagus. Switching to an H2 antagonist and discharging the patient is not appropriate management for a premalignant condition. It is important to monitor patients with Barrett’s oesophagus and low-grade dysplasia to detect any progression and intervene early.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 55-year-old male Chinese patient who has recently relocated to the UK complains of chronic diarrhoea. His family reports that he has been experiencing deteriorating memory loss, depression, and insomnia. Upon examination, you observe dermatitis, tremors, and ataxia. His blood tests show normal full blood count, renal function, liver function, and bone profile. You suspect that he may have a nutritional deficiency. What vitamin is he most likely deficient in?
Your Answer: Nicotinic acid
Explanation:Common Vitamin Deficiencies and their Symptoms
Nicotinic Acid Deficiency: Pellagra
A deficiency in nicotinic acid (niacin) can lead to pellagra, which is characterized by the triad of dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia. Other symptoms may include tremors, ataxia, insomnia, fits, and neuropathy. Pellagra is most commonly found in China and Africa and can also be a side effect of tuberculosis (TB) treatment and carcinoid syndrome.Vitamin C Deficiency: Scurvy
A lack of vitamin C can cause scurvy, which results in infections, anorexia, hyperkeratosis, bleeding tendency, and halitosis.Vitamin A Deficiency: Xerophthalmia
A deficiency in vitamin A can lead to xerophthalmia, which is a major cause of blindness in tropical regions.Vitamin B12 Deficiency: Megaloblastic Anemia
A deficiency in vitamin B12 can result in megaloblastic anemia and may lead to neuropathy and neuropsychiatric problems. However, as the patient has a normal full blood count, it is unlikely that her symptoms are related to B12 deficiency.Vitamin B1 Deficiency: Beriberi
A lack of thiamine (vitamin B1) can cause wet beriberi (heart failure, peripheral edema) or dry beriberi (neuropathy). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 40-year-old man reports experiencing burning abdominal discomfort for the past six months. His GP has referred him to the gastroenterology clinic due to the persistence of his symptoms.
What sign or symptom would indicate the need for an endoscopy?Your Answer: Epigastric mass
Explanation:Signs and Symptoms Requiring Urgent Investigation for Dyspepsia
Persistent dyspepsia is a condition that requires urgent investigation, especially when accompanied by certain alarm signs and symptoms. These include an epigastric mass, chronic gastrointestinal bleeding, progressive unintentional weight loss, dysphagia, persistent vomiting, iron deficiency anemia, and suspicious barium meal. These signs and symptoms may indicate a more serious underlying condition that requires immediate attention.
It is important to note that persistent unexplained dyspepsia is unlikely to resolve on its own and should not be ignored. Seeking medical attention and undergoing further investigation is crucial in order to properly diagnose and treat the underlying cause of the dyspepsia. Early detection and treatment can lead to better outcomes and improved quality of life for those experiencing persistent dyspepsia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with a four-day history of diffuse diarrhoea. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes and is currently taking amlodipine and metformin. The patient was recently treated with co-amoxiclav for a lower respiratory tract infection. On examination, there is mild generalized abdominal tenderness without peritonism. The patient's observations are heart rate 105 beats per minute, blood pressure 88/62 mmHg, respiratory rate 19/minute, oxygen saturations 97% on room air, and temperature 38.2.
The patient is started on intravenous fluids and the following results are obtained: Hb 138 g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160), platelets 412 * 109/L (150-400), WBC 15.4 * 109/L (4.0-11.0), Na+ 131 mmol/L (135-145), K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-5.0), urea 8.2 mmol/L (2.0-7.0), creatinine 88 µmol/L (55-120), and CRP 44 mg/L (<5). A CT abdomen and pelvis is arranged, which shows severe colitis with a transverse colon diameter of 4cm. A stool sample demonstrates Clostridium difficile toxin.
What is the appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer: Oral vancomycin
Correct Answer: Oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole
Explanation:The recommended treatment for a life-threatening Clostridium difficile infection is a combination of oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole. This approach is appropriate for a patient with severe disease on CT imaging and hypotension. Bezlotoxumab, a human monoclonal antitoxin antibody, is not typically used to treat the acute infection. Oral fidaxomicin may be used for recurrent infections or as a second-line therapy, but it would not be sufficient for a life-threatening infection. Oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for a non-life-threatening initial presentation of Clostridium difficile infection.
Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.
To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman presents with melaena, passing dark, black tarry stools for the last 36 hours. She has a medical history of chronic renal failure, angina, and is taking aspirin, isosorbide mononitrate, ramipril, calcium carbonate, alfacalcidol, and erythropoietin. On examination, she is sweaty and clammy with a pulse rate of 102 beats per minute and blood pressure of 102/43 mmHg. Her blood tests show low haemoglobin, high urea and creatinine, and a normal INR. Upper GI endoscopy reveals a gastric ulcer with a visible, non-bleeding vessel and no blood in the stomach. What is the most significant risk factor for mortality based on her clinical history?
Your Answer: Haemoglobin 79 g/L
Correct Answer: History of renal failure
Explanation:The Rockall Score for Prognosis of Upper Gastrointestinal Bleeds
The Rockall score is a tool used to predict the prognosis of upper gastrointestinal bleeds. It consists of five categories: age, shock, co-morbidity, diagnosis, and evidence of bleeding. Each category is scored between 0 and 2 points, except for co-morbidity which can score up to 3 points. The score is weighted based on the additional risk of death that each parameter confers. Renal failure, liver failure, and metastatic cancer carry the highest points and thus confer the highest risk of death. An endoscopic finding of gastric ulcer confers a single point. The haemoglobin level is not included in the Rockall score but is included in an alternative scoring system known as the Blatchford score. A previous history of ischaemic heart disease confers two points and age 60-79 confers a single point. The full Rockall scoring system is shown in the table above. Increasing scores are strongly correlated with increasing risk of mortality, while correlation with risk of re-bleeding is also present but not as strong.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old man presents to your clinic with a 9-month history of dysphagia. He reports difficulty swallowing food and experiencing recurrent regurgitation of undigested food within 15 minutes of eating. He also experiences pain and has lost weight.
The patient has a history of Coeliac disease and is not taking any regular medications.
Upon examination, his Hb level is 111 g/L (male: 135-180, female: 115-160), platelets are 400 * 109/L (150-400), WBC is 10.0 * 109/L (4.0-11.0), Neuts are 5.6 * 109/L (2.0-7.0), Lymphs are 2.2 * 109/L (1.0-3.5), Mono is 0.8 * 109/L (0.2-0.8), and Eosin is 1.4 * 109/L (0.0-0.4).
A gastroscopy reveals a proximal moderate-grade stricture and stacked circular rings in the oesophagus. A biopsy is taken and shows subepithelial and lamina propria fibrosis and inflammation with eosinophilic microabscesses.
What is the most appropriate first-line treatment for this likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Ranitidine
Correct Answer: Topical steroids
Explanation:EO is the probable diagnosis based on the symptoms, eosinophilia, gastroscopic and histological findings, and is managed through dietary modification and topical steroids.
Understanding Eosinophilic Oesophagitis
Eosinophilic oesophagitis is a condition characterized by an allergic inflammation of the oesophagus, resulting in pain and difficulty swallowing. It is caused by an allergic reaction to ingested food, and is more common in males, those with a family history of allergies, and those with coexisting autoimmune diseases. Diagnosis is made through an oesophageal biopsy, which shows a dense infiltrate of eosinophils in the epithelium.
Symptoms include dysphagia, strictures, food impaction, and regurgitation. Diagnosis can be difficult, as signs are minimal and suspicion relies mainly on reported symptoms and exclusion of other differential diagnoses. Treatment options include dietary modification, topical steroids, and oesophageal dilatation. Complications include strictures, impaction, and Mallory-Weiss tears.
As eosinophilic oesophagitis is a relatively little-known condition that is still widely misunderstood, it is recommended that patients are referred to a gastroenterologist to receive specialist care. It is important to gain a good balance of dietary modifications and additional pharmacological treatments when necessary, as this condition is chronic and likely to come back in patients that stop treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with fever, nausea, and pain in the right upper quadrant. She recently returned from a trip to India where she volunteered at a rural health clinic. She has a history of occasional alcohol use and does not smoke. On examination, she has a temperature of 38.5 ºC and tenderness over the right upper quadrant. Ultrasound reveals a 7 cm unilocular, unechoic cystic lesion with a double-line sign in the right lobe of her liver. Serology for Echinococcus granulosus is positive (1:320), and you diagnose her with hydatid liver disease. What is the optimal management plan for this patient?
Your Answer: Percutaneous aspiration with adjunctive albendazole
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Management of Hydatid Liver Disease: Percutaneous Aspiration with Adjunctive Albendazole
Hydatid liver disease is caused by the tapeworm Echinococcus granulosis and is most common in certain regions such as the Middle East and South America. Diagnosis is made through Echinococcus ELISA, ultrasound, and CT showing characteristic daughter cysts. Management options include observation, drug therapy with albendazole, percutaneous aspiration via the ‘PAIR’ technique, surgical resection, or a combination of approaches. For a single cyst of >5 cm, the WHO recommendation for treatment is percutaneous aspiration using the ‘PAIR’ procedure, with adjunctive albendazole. Referral for liver transplant is not necessary for a single hydatid cyst. Surgery is the treatment of choice for complicated cysts or cysts with many daughter cysts. Mebendazole is used only in the absence of albendazole. Hydatid cysts are staged on the basis of the WHO ultrasound-based cyst classification into ‘active’, ‘transitional’ and ‘inactive’. The ultrasonographic appearance of the cyst in this patient’s case suggests that it is active and should be treated accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents with abdominal pain, diarrhoea, and a 3 kg weight loss over the past few months. He reports feeling lethargic and experiencing crampy abdominal bloating. On examination, there is minor muscle wasting in the buttocks and shoulders, as well as several oral aphthous ulcers. Lab results show a low hemoglobin level, low albumin level, low IgA level, and a low serum ferritin level. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Whipple's disease
Correct Answer: Coeliac disease
Explanation:Coeliac disease is a commonly under-diagnosed condition that can present with lethargy, non-specific gastrointestinal symptoms, and anaemia. It is characterized by a virtual absence of serum and secretory IgA, which can make serological testing for the disease difficult. A gluten-free diet is crucial for managing the condition, as untreated coeliac disease can lead to an increased risk of metabolic bone disease and gastrointestinal malignancy. Whipple’s disease, Crohn’s disease, lymphoma, and jejunal diverticulosis are all conditions that can present with similar symptoms but have distinct differences in their presentation and underlying causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug abuse presents with abnormal liver function tests. He denies any high-risk exposures for over six months.
His viral hepatitis screen reveals the following results:
- Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) positive
- Hepatitis B surface antibody (anti-HBs) negative
- Hepatitis B anti-core IgM (anti-HBc IgM) negative
- Hepatitis B anti-core (anti-HBc IgG) positive
- Hepatitis C antibody positive
- Hepatitis C RNA detected
What is the most appropriate interpretation of these serological results?Your Answer: Previous hepatitis B infection, chronic hepatitis C infection
Correct Answer: Chronic hepatitis B infection, chronic hepatitis C infection
Explanation:Hepatitis B and C Infections through Serological Markers
Hepatitis B and C are viral infections that can cause liver damage and lead to chronic liver disease. Serological markers are used to detect the presence of these viruses and determine the stage of infection. The presence of HBsAg in the serum indicates active HBV infection, either acute or chronic. On the other hand, antibodies against hepatitis B core antigen (anti-HBc) are only detected in individuals who have been infected with HBV. Anti-HBc IgM is detectable between six and 32 weeks after exposure and indicates acute HBV infection. Anti-HBc IgG is produced from around 14 weeks after exposure, and in the absence of anti-HBc IgM, it may indicate cleared or chronic HBV infection.
In the case of hepatitis C, the presence of hepatitis C antibodies indicates exposure to the virus, but a viral RNA load is required to determine whether there is active infection. Persistence of viral RNA in the bloodstream more than six months after exposure indicates chronic infection. Acute hepatitis C infection is asymptomatic in 60-70% of cases, and infection is chronic in around 85% of individuals.
Antibodies against hepatitis B surface antigen (anti-HBs) indicate a vaccinated individual or previous infection with HBV. Seroconversion to produce anti-HBs in the setting of HBV infection indicates the infection has been cleared. these serological markers is crucial in the diagnosis and management of hepatitis B and C infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her family doctor with yellowing of the skin and eyes. She has a history of Ulcerative Colitis for the past 15 years, which is managed with Sulfasalazine. She reports feeling increasingly fatigued and itchy over the past few months. Her urine has also become darker. The following results were obtained from her blood tests:
Haemoglobin (Hb): 120 g/l (normal range: 135 - 175 g/l)
White cell count (WCC): 5.8 × 109/l (normal range: 4.0 - 11.0 × 109/l)
Platelets (PLT): 190 × 109/l (normal range: 150 - 400 × 109/l)
Sodium (Na+): 140 mmol/l (normal range: 135 - 145 mmol/l)
Potassium (K+): 4.2 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5 - 5.0 mmol/l)
Creatinine (Cr): 90 μmol/l (normal range: 50 - 120 µmol/l)
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP): 400 u/l (normal range: 30 - 150 u/l)
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT): 85 u/l (normal range: 7 - 55 u/l)
Bilirubin: 100 μmol/l (normal range: 1 - 22 μmol/l)
What would be the preferred investigation in this case?Your Answer: Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP)
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Diagnostic Modalities for Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis
Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is a condition that causes inflammation and scarring of the bile ducts, leading to obstructive jaundice, fatigue, and pruritus. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) is the preferred imaging modality for diagnosing PSC due to its safety profile, although its diagnostic accuracy is slightly lower than endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP). MRCP has a diagnostic accuracy of 90% for PSC, compared to 97% for ERCP. Liver biopsy is generally not necessary for diagnosing PSC, but it can be helpful in suspected cases of small duct PSC with normal cholangiograms. Auto-antibody testing for anti-smooth muscle, anti-nuclear, and anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies can be useful but is not specific for PSC. Ultrasound is an option for imaging the biliary tract, but MRCP and ERCP are preferred. Hepatitis serology is not necessary in the management of PSC, especially in patients with a positive history of ulcerative colitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old male presents with lower abdominal pain, diarrhoea, and elevated serum lactate. Upon performing an abdominal CT scan, left-sided colitis from the distal transverse colon is observed, with the lower half of the rectum being spared. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ulcerative colitis
Correct Answer: Ischaemic colitis
Explanation:Likely Cause of Colitis and Differential Diagnosis
The distribution of the colitis described is consistent with the blood supply to the colon via the inferior mesenteric artery, indicating that ischaemic colitis is the most probable cause. This is further supported by the presence of elevated serum lactate levels. While Crohn’s colitis could present similarly, it is unlikely to be the primary diagnosis in a patient of this age with left-sided colonic disease only. Infective colitis is also a possibility, but it typically affects the entire colon.
Radiation colitis is a potential cause, but it usually occurs as a side effect of pelvic cancer treatment and primarily affects the rectum. Ulcerative colitis, on the other hand, would not spare the distal rectum.
The initial treatment for this patient would involve resuscitation and referral to surgery for consideration of colectomy if the situation does not improve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old male presents for an elective ERCP for a common bile duct stone. Post-ERCP he develops acute septicaemia.
Pre-ERCP results:
Serum sodium 136 mmol/L (137-144)
Serum potassium 4 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Serum chloride 100 mmol/L (95-107)
Serum bicarbonate 28 mmol/L (20-28)
Serum urea 4 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Serum creatinine 96 µmol/L (60-110)
Post-ERCP results:
Serum sodium 140 mmol/L (137-144)
Serum potassium 4 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Serum chloride 100 mmol/L (95-107)
Serum bicarbonate 16 mmol/L (20-28)
Serum urea 40 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Serum creatinine 720 µmol/L (60-110)
All physical findings are normal and his chest is clinically clear. He is producing 40 ml of urine per hour.
What is the evidence-based recommendation based on recent clinical trials for the management of acute septicaemia in a patient post-ERCP?Your Answer: Give furosemide and mannitol
Correct Answer: None of the above
Explanation:Management of Acute Renal Failure in Sepsis
This patient is experiencing post-ischaemic, non-oliguric renal failure as a result of sepsis. While there is no clear evidence from clinical trials to support the use of dopamine, furosemide, or mannitol in treating acute renal failure, animal studies suggest that these agents may help prevent renal damage if administered early in the course of sepsis. However, their use remains controversial.
The primary focus of management in this case will be to treat the underlying cause of sepsis and provide appropriate support to affected organs. Judicious fluid administration can be particularly helpful in treating acute kidney injury. Overall, the management of acute renal failure in sepsis requires a careful and individualized approach that takes into account the patient’s specific clinical presentation and underlying medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old female patient presents to the clinic for follow-up. She has peripheral calcinosis, sclerodactyly, and multiple telangiectasia, especially noticeable on her face. Lately, she has been experiencing worsening heartburn and occasional regurgitation of acid into her throat. What is the most effective course of action for managing her gastrointestinal symptoms?
Your Answer: Trial of omeprazole
Correct Answer: Oesophageal manometry
Explanation:Diagnosis and Management of Oesophageal Dysmotility in Systemic Sclerosis
Patients with systemic sclerosis often suffer from oesophageal dysmotility due to a sclerotic process affecting the smooth muscle. Lower oesophageal pressure can be measured using manometry, and prokinetic agents such as domperidone and calcium channel antagonists can be useful in relieving symptoms. Dysphagia or a sensation of food being stuck in the throat may be present, and a trial of prokinetic drugs is suggested for persistent symptoms despite PPI therapy. Small bowel bacterial overgrowth can be diagnosed with hydrogen breath testing, but symptoms reported here are more suggestive of oesophageal dysmotility than bacterial overgrowth or H. pylori infection. While proton pump inhibitors may improve symptoms, prokinetic agents and calcium channel antagonists are likely to be more effective. Upper GI endoscopy may reveal oesophagitis but will not shed light on underlying dysmotility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman presents with a three month history of pruritus and lethargy. She has a history of hypothyroidism and denies regular alcohol intake. On examination, there is evidence of excoriations and xanthelasma. Her blood results show elevated liver enzymes and ALP. Abdominal ultrasound scan is normal. What is the most likely management indicated for this patient?
Your Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid
Explanation:Management of Liver Diseases
Primary biliary cirrhosis is characterized by pruritus, lethargy, lipid derangement, and obstructive pattern of liver function test abnormalities. Ursodeoxycholic acid is a safe and effective treatment for improving liver function tests, although its impact on disease progression and transplant-free survival is still being debated.
In cases of haemochromatosis where venesection is not tolerated, iron chelation with desferrioxamine may be necessary. For early stages of leptospirosis (Weil’s disease), doxycycline is highly effective. In Wilson’s disease, penicillamine with pyridoxine can cause urinary copper excretion, while zinc may be used for maintenance treatment.
Overall, the management of liver diseases requires a tailored approach based on the specific condition and individual patient needs. It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the most appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman has been experiencing chronic abdominal pain for the past three years. Her pain is alleviated by defecation and she has noticed an increase in stool frequency. She has also reported occasional fevers with a recorded temperature of 38.2°C. Her symptoms seem to worsen with stress, leading you to suspect irritable bowel syndrome. What signs would indicate the presence of an organic disease?
Your Answer: Fever
Explanation:Clinical Features of Organic Disease vs. Irritable Bowel Syndrome
Clinical features can help differentiate between organic disease and irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Organic disease is suggested by the presence of fever, onset of symptoms in old age, progressive deterioration, weight loss, rectal bleeding (not due to fissures or haemorrhoids), steatorrhoea, and dehydration. On the other hand, a long history with a relapsing and remitting course, exacerbations triggered by life events, symptoms aggravated by eating, and coexistence of anxiety and depression support a diagnosis of IBS.
It is important to distinguish between organic disease and IBS as the management and treatment approaches differ. Organic disease requires specific treatment for the underlying condition, while IBS management focuses on symptom relief and lifestyle modifications. Therefore, clinicians should carefully evaluate the clinical features and consider further investigations to rule out organic disease before making a diagnosis of IBS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents with symptoms of diarrhoea and abdominal pain. He reports passing pale, bulky stools two to three times per day for several months. Additionally, he has been experiencing severe, intermittent central abdominal pain for the past two years, which occasionally radiates to his back. He has a history of smoking 35 cigarettes per day for 30 years and drinking 7 to 8 cans of cider daily. He has also lost 6 kilograms in weight over the last year. On examination, his bedside capillary blood glucose measurement is 11.2 mmol/l. What is the most appropriate diagnostic test for this patient?
Your Answer: 72-hour faecal fat measurement
Correct Answer: CT abdomen
Explanation:Diagnosis of Chronic Pancreatitis
The combination of steatorrhoea, diabetes, and excessive alcohol intake strongly suggest chronic pancreatitis as the diagnosis. The presence of malabsorption is only seen in moderate to advanced stages of the disease, which can be confirmed through a CT scan of the abdomen. However, a normal scan does not rule out the diagnosis, especially in early stages. The description of pain is also consistent with chronic pancreatitis.
While malabsorption and autoimmune disease (diabetes) are indicative of coeliac disease, abdominal pain is not a typical symptom. Tests such as 72-hour faecal fat estimation and D-xylose absorption testing can indicate the presence of malabsorption, but they are not diagnostic of an underlying condition. Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy and biopsy are useful in diagnosing small bowel conditions, but they cannot facilitate biopsy of the pancreas. Endoscopic ultrasound is the best modality for imaging the morphological changes of chronic pancreatitis and for facilitating biopsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents with a three-month history of pruritus and lethargy. She has a history of hypothyroidism but denies regular alcohol intake. On examination, there is evidence of excoriations and xanthelasma. Her blood results show elevated liver enzymes and bilirubin levels, but an abdominal ultrasound scan is normal. If this woman were to undergo a liver transplant for her underlying condition, what would be her five-year survival rate?
Your Answer: >50%
Correct Answer: >80%
Explanation:Liver Transplantation for Primary Biliary Cirrhosis
Liver transplantation is a highly successful treatment option for primary biliary cirrhosis, with a five-year survival rate of over 80%. However, up to 40% of patients may experience clinical, biochemical, and histologic changes indicative of recurrent PBC after the procedure. Despite this, the recurrence of PBC does not seem to have any significant impact on the survival rates of either the patient or the transplanted liver. Overall, liver transplantation remains an effective and viable option for those suffering from primary biliary cirrhosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old female patient presents with excessive diarrhoea and reports experiencing flushing, especially after consuming red wine. During examination, a pansystolic murmur is detected over the praecordium, with the loudest sound heard at the lower left sternal edge. What compound excess is the probable cause of her diarrhoea?
Your Answer: Cholecystokinin
Correct Answer: Serotonin
Explanation:Neuroendocrine Tumours and their Associated Syndromes
Neuroendocrine tumours (NETs) are a group of rare tumours that arise from cells of the endocrine and nervous systems. One of the most common syndromes associated with NETs is carcinoid syndrome, which is caused by excessive levels of serotonin secreted from a neuroendocrine tumour arising from enterochromaffin cells in the gut or lungs. This syndrome is typically seen in metastatic disease, as the liver metabolises the hormones secreted by gut-limited disease. Symptoms of carcinoid syndrome include diarrhoea, right-sided cardiac valve disease, flushing, itching, and alcohol sensitivity.
Another syndrome associated with NETs is VIPoma, which is caused by overproduction of vasoactive intestinal polypeptide. This leads to chronic, profound watery diarrhoea. Gastrinomas, on the other hand, are caused by overproduction of gastrin by G cells of the stomach. This leads to excessive acid production and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Somatostatinomas, which are extremely rare, are associated with a pentad of symptoms including diabetes, steatorrhoea, gallstones, weight loss, and achlorhydria. Patients may also experience symptoms related to mechanical obstruction, such as biliary or duodenal obstruction. Finally, cholecystokinin-producing tumours are also extremely rare.
In summary, NETs can cause a variety of syndromes depending on the type of hormone produced by the tumour. these syndromes is important for early diagnosis and appropriate management of patients with NETs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man has been referred to the Endocrine Clinic with a history of increasing hat size and problems with his glasses fitting. He also complains of flushing and sweating.
Routine blood testing at the initial clinic appointment confirms an elevated random blood glucose and an elevated IGF-1. Because of a suspected diagnosis of acromegaly, an oral glucose tolerance test with growth hormone is performed as well as a gadolinium-enhanced magnetic resonance image (MRI) of the pituitary. He attends for review after the tests have been performed.
The results of the oral glucose tolerance test are as follows:
Time (min) Growth hormone (GH) (mU)
0 10
30 11 (elevated)
60 12
90 11
120 10
180 9
The gadolinium-enhanced MRI of the pituitary is reported as not showing an adenoma, although the pituitary appears slightly enlarged overall.
What would be the next best step in managing his case?Your Answer: Arginine test
Correct Answer: CT of the chest and abdomen
Explanation:Diagnostic Workup for Unusual Presentation of Acromegaly
When a patient presents with symptoms of acromegaly, such as enlarged hands and feet, it is important to determine the underlying cause. In this case, the patient’s oral glucose tolerance test showed non-suppression of GH secretion, indicating a diagnosis of acromegaly. However, the MRI of the pituitary showed no adenoma, which is atypical for this condition.
To investigate further, a CT of the chest and abdomen was ordered to look for a possible carcinoid tumor, as the patient also complained of flushing, a symptom of carcinoid syndrome. Chromogranin A, a serum marker for carcinoid tissue, was also tested.
Pituitary surgery is not indicated without a discrete adenoma, so the patient was not referred for transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. Instead, an arginine test was ordered to evaluate for GH deficiency. The insulin tolerance test, which carries a risk of serious hypoglycemia, has fallen out of favor in recent years. Inferior petrosal vein sampling, which is useful for localizing a source of elevated ACTH, was not considered necessary in this case since the MRI showed no adenoma.
In summary, when faced with an unusual presentation of acromegaly, a thorough diagnostic workup is necessary to determine the underlying cause and guide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with diabetes after undergoing surgery for chronic pancreatitis. She has started insulin therapy and visits the clinic to discuss her target HbA1c. Her primary care physician has been aiming for a target HbA1c of 42, but the patient has reported experiencing significant hypoglycemia. Upon clinical examination, there are no notable findings. Her blood pressure is 140/80 mmHg, pulse is regular at 75 beats per minute, and her lungs are clear. She has a midline scar on her abdomen and a body mass index of 22 kg/m.
What would be an appropriate target HbA1c for this patient?Your Answer: 31
Correct Answer: 53
Explanation:When it comes to diabetes caused by pancreatic resection, it is crucial to keep in mind that both alpha cells (which produce glucagon) and beta cells (which produce insulin) are removed during the pancreatectomy procedure. This results in a weaker counter regulatory response to hypoglycemia, which can make recovery more difficult and increase the severity of individual events. As a result, patients with a history of pancreatectomy are typically given a more lenient HbA1c target.
Understanding Chronic Pancreatitis
Chronic pancreatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation that can affect both the exocrine and endocrine functions of the pancreas. While alcohol excess is the leading cause of this condition, up to 20% of cases are unexplained. Other causes include genetic factors such as cystic fibrosis and haemochromatosis, as well as ductal obstruction due to tumors, stones, and structural abnormalities.
Symptoms of chronic pancreatitis include pain that worsens 15 to 30 minutes after a meal, steatorrhoea, and diabetes mellitus. Abdominal x-rays and CT scans are used to detect pancreatic calcification, which is present in around 30% of cases. Functional tests such as faecal elastase may also be used to assess exocrine function if imaging is inconclusive.
Management of chronic pancreatitis involves pancreatic enzyme supplements, analgesia, and antioxidants. While there is limited evidence to support the use of antioxidants, one study suggests that they may be beneficial in early stages of the disease. Overall, understanding the causes and symptoms of chronic pancreatitis is crucial for effective management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman with a history of polycythaemia rubra vera presents with abdominal pain and ascites that has developed over the past 2 months. She mentions that her busy work as a lawyer has led to a diet consisting mostly of takeaways, but she has never consumed alcohol.
Upon examination, there is mild jaundice and smooth hepatomegaly. The hepatojugular reflex is negative. The abdominal wall is oedematous with a tortuous venous pattern, and there is prominent lower limb oedema.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Nonalcoholic steatohepatitis
Correct Answer: Budd-Chiari syndrome
Explanation:Budd-Chiari syndrome is characterized by the sudden onset of abdominal pain, ascites, and tender hepatomegaly. It occurs when there is an obstruction in the hepatic venous outflow due to thrombosis of the major hepatic veins, which can extend into the inferior vena cava. This results in abdominal wall signs and leg edema. The condition is rare and is usually associated with a coagulopathy caused by hematologic disease, such as polycythemia rubra vera. Although the patient’s social history may suggest nonalcoholic steatohepatitis, this condition does not typically cause ascites.
Understanding Budd-Chiari Syndrome
Budd-Chiari syndrome, also known as hepatic vein thrombosis, is a condition that is often associated with an underlying hematological disease or another procoagulant condition. The causes of this syndrome include polycythemia rubra vera, thrombophilia, pregnancy, and the use of combined oral contraceptive pills. The symptoms of Budd-Chiari syndrome typically include sudden onset and severe abdominal pain, ascites leading to abdominal distension, and tender hepatomegaly.
To diagnose Budd-Chiari syndrome, an ultrasound with Doppler flow studies is usually the initial radiological investigation. This test is highly sensitive and can help identify the presence of the condition. It is important to diagnose and treat Budd-Chiari syndrome promptly to prevent complications such as liver failure and portal hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents to the medical assessment unit with ascites. She has a history of excessive alcohol consumption and past illicit drug use. She also reports symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome over the past six months. Her vital signs are stable, and on examination, she has a distended abdomen with obvious ascites. Her laboratory results show low hemoglobin, normal platelets, and elevated liver function tests. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Viral hepatitis
Correct Answer: Ovarian carcinoma
Explanation:If the serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) is low (SAAG <11 g/L), it suggests that the cause of ascites is not related to an increase in portal pressure. Possible causes in this case include tuberculosis, peritoneal sepsis, pancreatitis, serositis, nephrotic syndrome, and peritoneal carcinomatosis. The patient's history of irritable bowel syndrome and the fact that she still has her ovaries after a hysterectomy may indicate ovarian carcinoma. However, the absence of any previous renal disease makes nephrotic syndrome, cirrhosis, right heart failure, and viral hepatitis less likely, as these conditions are associated with an elevated SAAG. Ascites is a medical condition characterized by the accumulation of abnormal amounts of fluid in the abdominal cavity. The causes of ascites can be classified into two groups based on the serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) level. If the SAAG level is greater than 11g/L, it indicates portal hypertension, which is commonly caused by liver disorders such as cirrhosis, alcoholic liver disease, and liver metastases. Other causes of portal hypertension include cardiac conditions like right heart failure and constrictive pericarditis, as well as infections like tuberculous peritonitis. On the other hand, if the SAAG level is less than 11g/L, ascites may be caused by hypoalbuminaemia, malignancy, pancreatitis, bowel obstruction, and other conditions. The management of ascites involves reducing dietary sodium and sometimes fluid restriction if the sodium level is less than 125 mmol/L. Aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone are often prescribed, and loop diuretics may be added if necessary. Therapeutic abdominal paracentesis may be performed for tense ascites, and large-volume paracentesis requires albumin cover to reduce the risk of complications. Prophylactic antibiotics may also be given to prevent spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. In some cases, a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with several symptoms indicative of the carcinoid syndrome. The suspicion is that he may have malignant carcinoid syndrome, with the gastrointestinal tract being the most probable origin of the tumours. What is the likely source of these malignant carcinoid tumours in the gastrointestinal tract?
Your Answer: Colon
Correct Answer: Ileum
Explanation:Carcinoid Tumours in the GI Tract
Around 55% of all carcinoid tumours develop in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract. The small bowel is the most common site of origin, accounting for 45% of all GI tract carcinoid tumours. Within the small bowel, the distal ileum is the most frequent site of origin.
Carcinoid tumours are a type of neuroendocrine tumour that can develop in various parts of the body, including the lungs, pancreas, and GI tract. In the GI tract, they can arise from different locations, such as the stomach, small intestine, colon, and rectum. However, the small bowel is the most common site of origin for GI tract carcinoid tumours. Among the small bowel segments, the distal ileum is the most frequently affected area. the location of carcinoid tumours in the GI tract is crucial for their diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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