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  • Question 1 - An 80-year-old man is admitted following a head injury and presents with indications...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man is admitted following a head injury and presents with indications of elevated intracranial pressure. While awaiting a CT scan, the emergency department team decides to administer mannitol. What is the mechanism of action of mannitol?

      Your Answer: Osmotic diuresis

      Explanation:

      Osmotic Diuresis and its Causes

      Osmotic diuresis is a process that occurs when the osmolality of tubular filtrate increases, causing water and sodium to pass out into the urine instead of being reabsorbed. This process is caused by substances such as mannitol, which is filtered by the kidneys and passes out into the tubular space. Mannitol is used as a short-term measure in cerebral edema or raised intracranial pressure before definitive neurosurgical intervention can take place.

      Acetazolamide is another substance that can cause osmotic diuresis. It is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that works by decreasing the reabsorption of bicarbonate in the proximal tubule of the kidney. This leads to an increase in the excretion of bicarbonate and water, resulting in osmotic diuresis.

      Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist that can also cause osmotic diuresis. It works by blocking the action of aldosterone, a hormone that regulates sodium and water balance in the body. By blocking aldosterone, spironolactone increases the excretion of sodium and water, leading to osmotic diuresis.

      Other substances that can cause osmotic diuresis include lithium and demeclocycline, which are antagonists of vasopressin. These substances lead to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, a condition in which the kidneys are unable to concentrate urine, resulting in excessive urination and thirst.

      In summary, osmotic diuresis is a process that occurs when substances such as mannitol, acetazolamide, spironolactone, lithium, and demeclocycline increase the osmolarity of tubular filtrate, leading to the excretion of water and sodium in the urine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      21.2
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  • Question 2 - A 43-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of a headache...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of a headache on the right side of his head, localized at the eye, and neck pain. He reports that the pain started suddenly over an hour. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and a 20-year pack history of smoking. He appears to be in significant pain, with sweat on his forehead.

      Observations reveal a heart rate of 102 bpm, blood pressure of 158/89 mmHg, and a Glasgow coma scale of 15/15. On examination, the right pupil is small, and the eyelid is drooping. The sclera is white, and there is no swelling of the eyelid. The left eye appears normal.

      What is the most probable cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Cluster headache

      Correct Answer: Carotid artery dissection

      Explanation:

      A localised headache, neck pain, and neurological signs such as Horner’s syndrome are indicative of carotid artery dissection. This is a crucial diagnosis to consider when dealing with such symptoms. The presence of a localised headache, neck pain, and Horner’s syndrome suggest carotid artery dissection. The patient’s right eye is showing signs of loss of sympathetic innervation, such as a small pupil and drooping eyelid. The presence of sweat on the forehead indicates that the lesion causing Horner’s syndrome is postganglionic. A carotid artery dissection is the most likely cause of these symptoms, given the patient’s risk factors of smoking and hypertension. Cluster headache, encephalitis, and subarachnoid haemorrhage are less likely diagnoses, as they do not fit with the patient’s symptoms and presentation.

      Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.

      Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.

      There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      85.1
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  • Question 3 - A 5-year-old girl presents to her general practitioner with fever and ear pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl presents to her general practitioner with fever and ear pain for the last 4 days. She is diagnosed as having left otitis media and was started on a course of oral amoxicillin. Over the next 24 hours, she develops high fevers and rigors, so presents to the Emergency Department. On examination, there is purulent fluid draining through the left tympanic membrane and she is also noted to have enlarged cervical lymph nodes. Further examination reveals left axillary and inguinal lymphadenopathy, with an enlarged spleen and liver and multiple bruises on her extremities. Blood results are pending.
      What is the most likely diagnosis to explain all her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Kawasaki’s disease

      Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)

      Explanation:

      The presence of hepatosplenomegaly, generalised lymphadenopathy, and new-onset bruising in a child raises the possibility of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL), which is the most common paediatric malignancy. This occurs when a lymphoid progenitor cell undergoes a mutation that leads to unregulated proliferation and clonal expansion. The child may present with bone marrow failure, anaemia, thrombocytopenia, and neutropenia. A definitive diagnosis is made through a bone marrow aspirate and biopsy. Treatment is with pegaspargase, which interferes with the growth of malignant blastic cells.

      Epstein–Barr virus (EBV) infection is common in children and causes acute infectious mononucleosis or glandular fever. It presents with generalised malaise, sore throat, pharyngitis, headache, fever, nausea, abdominal pain, myalgias, and lymphadenopathy. However, the absence of exudative pharyngitis and the presence of lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, and new-onset bruising favour the diagnosis of a malignancy, rather than EBV infection.

      Left otitis media with sepsis might cause cervical lymphadenopathy, but it would not explain the presence of generalised lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly. Non-accidental injury (NAI) is unlikely, as there is no history of trauma, and the child is acutely unwell. Kawasaki’s disease is a childhood febrile vasculitis, but it is unlikely to cause hepatosplenomegaly. It is important to diagnose Kawasaki’s disease promptly, as it is associated with the formation of arterial aneurysms and a high morbidity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      45.4
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  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old woman with a history of ulcerative colitis visits her General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with a history of ulcerative colitis visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of a painful ulcer on her right shin that is rapidly increasing in size. The patient noticed a small blister in the area a few days ago, which has now broken down into an ulcer that is continuing to enlarge. The doctor suspects that the skin lesion may be pyoderma gangrenosum. What is the most commonly associated condition with pyoderma gangrenosum?

      Your Answer: Coeliac disease

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions Associated with Various Diseases

      Pyoderma gangrenosum is a skin condition characterized by a painful ulcer that rapidly enlarges. It is commonly associated with inflammatory bowel disease, hepatitis, rheumatoid arthritis, and certain types of leukemia. However, it is not commonly associated with HIV infection or coeliac disease. Dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin condition associated with coeliac disease, while patients with rheumatoid arthritis are at higher risk of developing pyoderma gangrenosum compared to those with osteoarthritis. Haematological malignancies commonly associated with pyoderma gangrenosum include acute myeloid leukemia and hairy cell leukemia, while cutaneous lesions in multiple myeloma are uncommon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      22.5
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  • Question 5 - A 47-year-old woman comes to the rheumatology clinic for evaluation of her newly...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old woman comes to the rheumatology clinic for evaluation of her newly diagnosed rheumatoid arthritis. The clinician employs a scoring system to assist in the patient's treatment plan.

      What is the probable scoring system utilized?

      Your Answer: DAS28

      Explanation:

      The measurement of disease activity in rheumatoid arthritis is done using the DAS28 score. This score evaluates the level of disease activity by assessing 28 joints, hence the name DAS28, where DAS stands for disease activity score.

      Managing Rheumatoid Arthritis with Disease-Modifying Therapies

      The management of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) has significantly improved with the introduction of disease-modifying therapies (DMARDs) in the past decade. Patients with joint inflammation should start a combination of DMARDs as soon as possible, along with analgesia, physiotherapy, and surgery. In 2018, NICE updated their guidelines for RA management, recommending DMARD monotherapy with a short course of bridging prednisolone as the initial step. Monitoring response to treatment is crucial, and NICE suggests using a combination of CRP and disease activity to assess it. Flares of RA are often managed with corticosteroids, while methotrexate is the most widely used DMARD. Other DMARDs include sulfasalazine, leflunomide, and hydroxychloroquine. TNF-inhibitors are indicated for patients with an inadequate response to at least two DMARDs, including methotrexate. Etanercept, infliximab, and adalimumab are some of the TNF-inhibitors available, each with their own risks and administration methods. Rituximab and Abatacept are other DMARDs that can be used, but the latter is not currently recommended by NICE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      25.6
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  • Question 6 - A 57-year-old patient with autoimmune hepatitis presents with worsening dyspnea and a dry...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old patient with autoimmune hepatitis presents with worsening dyspnea and a dry cough. He has experienced weight loss and has observed changes in his hands. During the physical examination, you observe clubbing, mild cyanosis, and fine bibasal crepitations. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Left ventricular failure

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis and its Association with Chronic Hepatitis and Autoimmune Hepatitis

      The presence of chronic hepatitis in a patient’s medical history, coupled with the emergence of symptoms and signs indicative of pulmonary fibrosis, may point to a diagnosis of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF). It is worth noting that autoimmune hepatitis can also occur in 5-10% of IPF cases. While there is no indication of an infectious cause or evidence of cardiac failure, distinguishing between the two diagnoses can be challenging.

      In summary, the development of pulmonary fibrosis in a patient with a history of chronic hepatitis may suggest a diagnosis of IPF, which can also be associated with autoimmune hepatitis. Accurately differentiating between IPF and other potential causes of pulmonary fibrosis can be difficult, but is crucial for effective treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      18.6
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  • Question 7 - An 8-year-old is referred to paediatric clinic by a GP due to concerns...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old is referred to paediatric clinic by a GP due to concerns about an incidental murmur. The child is healthy and shows no symptoms. Upon examination, the paediatrician diagnoses a benign ejection systolic murmur. What is a characteristic of this type of murmur?

      Your Answer: Radiates to infraclavicular region

      Correct Answer: Varies with posture

      Explanation:

      A postural variation is observed in a benign ejection systolic murmur. Conversely, all other characteristics are indicative of pathological murmurs. The presence of even mild symptoms is concerning, as it suggests that the murmur is not benign.

      Innocent murmurs are common in children and are usually harmless. There are different types of innocent murmurs, including ejection murmurs, venous hums, and Still’s murmur. Ejection murmurs are caused by turbulent blood flow at the outflow tract of the heart, while venous hums are due to turbulent blood flow in the great veins returning to the heart. Still’s murmur is a low-pitched sound heard at the lower left sternal edge.

      An innocent ejection murmur is characterized by a soft-blowing murmur in the pulmonary area or a short buzzing murmur in the aortic area. It may vary with posture and is localized without radiation. There is no diastolic component, no thrill, and no added sounds such as clicks. The child is usually asymptomatic, and there are no other abnormalities.

      Overall, innocent murmurs are not a cause for concern and do not require treatment. However, if a child has symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, or fainting, further evaluation may be necessary to rule out any underlying heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      44.8
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  • Question 8 - A 34-year-old multiparous patient has an uncomplicated delivery at 39 weeks gestation. One...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old multiparous patient has an uncomplicated delivery at 39 weeks gestation. One hour following delivery, the patient experiences severe postpartum hemorrhage that is immediately managed in the labor ward. After seven weeks, the patient reports difficulty breastfeeding due to insufficient milk production. What is the most probable explanation for this medical history?

      Your Answer: Sheehan's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical history provided, it appears that the patient may be suffering from Sheehan’s syndrome. This condition is typically caused by severe postpartum hemorrhage, which can lead to ischemic necrosis of the pituitary gland and subsequent hypopituitarism. Common symptoms of Sheehan’s syndrome include a lack of milk production and amenorrhea following childbirth. Diagnosis is typically made through inadequate prolactin and gonadotropin stimulation tests in patients with a history of severe postpartum hemorrhage. It is important to note that hyperprolactinemia, D2 receptor antagonist medication, and pituitary adenoma are not typically associated with a lack of milk production, but rather with galactorrhea.

      Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage

      Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.

      In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.

      Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      55.7
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  • Question 9 - A 29-year-old woman is admitted to the Intensive Therapy Unit. She presented with...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman is admitted to the Intensive Therapy Unit. She presented with multiple seizures to the Emergency Department and is 8 months pregnant. She is intubated and ventilated; her blood pressure is 145/95 mmHg.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 108 g/dl 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 8.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 30 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 134 U/l 10–40 IU/l
      Urine analysis protein ++
      Which of the following fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: The treatment of choice is delivery of the fetus

      Explanation:

      Eclampsia: Diagnosis and Treatment Options

      Eclampsia is a serious complication of pregnancy that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. It is a multisystem disorder characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema, and can lead to seizures and coma if left untreated. The definitive treatment for eclampsia is delivery of the fetus, which should be undertaken as soon as the mother is stabilized.

      Seizures should be treated with magnesium sulfate infusions, while phenytoin and diazepam are second-line treatment agents. Pregnant women should be monitored for signs of pre-eclampsia, which can progress to eclampsia if left untreated.

      While it is important to rule out other intracranial pathology with CT imaging of the brain, it is not indicated in the treatment of eclampsia. Hydralazine or labetalol infusion is the treatment of choice for hypertension in the setting of pre-eclampsia/eclampsia.

      Following an eclamptic episode, around 50% of patients may experience a transient neurological deficit. Therefore, prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent serious complications and ensure the best possible outcome for both mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      113.9
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  • Question 10 - A 40-year-old woman has been receiving treatment for ulcerative colitis (UC) for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman has been receiving treatment for ulcerative colitis (UC) for the past 2 years. She is currently in remission and has no bowel complaints. However, she has recently been experiencing increased fatigue and loss of appetite. During her examination, she appears mildly jaundiced and her nails are shiny. Her blood test results are as follows:
      - Hemoglobin: 112g/L (normal range: 135-175 g/L)
      - C-reactive protein (CRP): 5.2 mg/L (normal range: 0-10 mg/L)
      - Bilirubin: 62 µmol/L (normal range: 2-17 µmol/L)
      - Aspartate aminotransferase (AST): 54 IU/L (normal range: 10-40 IU/L)
      - Alanine aminotransferase (ALT): 47 IU/L (normal range: 5-30 IU/L)
      - Alkaline phosphatase (ALP): 1850 IU/L (normal range: 30-130 IU/L)
      - Albumin: 32 g/L (normal range: 35-55 g/L)

      What is the recommended treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid

      Correct Answer: Liver transplantation

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis

      Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is a chronic disease that causes inflammation and sclerosis of the bile ducts. It often presents with pruritus, fatigue, and jaundice, and is more common in men and those with ulcerative colitis (UC). The only definitive treatment for PSC is liver transplantation, as endoscopic stenting is not effective due to the multiple sites of stenosis. Ursodeoxycholic acid has shown some benefit in short-term studies, but its long-term efficacy is uncertain. Fat-soluble vitamin supplementation is often required due to malabsorption, but is not a treatment for the disease. Azathioprine and steroids are not typically useful in PSC treatment, as too much immunosuppressive therapy may worsen associated bone disease. Regular surveillance is necessary after liver transplantation, as recurrence of PSC is possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      71.9
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Paediatrics (0/2) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (2/2) 100%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Passmed