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Question 1
Incorrect
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An older gentleman patient presents with arthritic pains. At the end of the consultation, he mentions that he recently visited a doctor at the memory clinic who diagnosed him with Alzheimer's dementia. However, he cannot recall why he was not prescribed any medication for this condition.
Which of the following factors would be a potential relative contraindication to prescribing donepezil for this patient?Your Answer: Stage II renal impairment
Correct Answer: Resting bradycardia
Explanation:Managing Alzheimer’s Disease: Non-Pharmacological and Pharmacological Approaches
Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that progressively affects the brain and is the most common form of dementia in the UK. To manage this condition, there are both non-pharmacological and pharmacological approaches available.
Non-pharmacological management involves offering a range of activities that promote wellbeing and are tailored to the patient’s preferences. Group cognitive stimulation therapy is recommended for patients with mild to moderate dementia, while group reminiscence therapy and cognitive rehabilitation are also options to consider.
Pharmacological management involves the use of medications. The three acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine) are options for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease. Memantine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, is considered a second-line treatment and is recommended for patients with moderate Alzheimer’s who are intolerant of or have a contraindication to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. It can also be used as an add-on drug to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors for patients with moderate or severe Alzheimer’s or as monotherapy in severe Alzheimer’s.
When managing non-cognitive symptoms, NICE does not recommend antidepressants for mild to moderate depression in patients with dementia. Antipsychotics should only be used for patients at risk of harming themselves or others or when the agitation, hallucinations, or delusions are causing them severe distress.
It is important to note that donepezil is relatively contraindicated in patients with bradycardia, and adverse effects may include insomnia. By utilizing both non-pharmacological and pharmacological approaches, patients with Alzheimer’s disease can receive comprehensive care and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 35-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of diplopia that has been ongoing for 2 months. She reports feeling more fatigued and weak towards the end of the day. Upon examination, anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies are detected in her blood. A CT scan of her chest is ordered and reveals the presence of an anterior mediastinal mass. What is the most probable diagnosis for this mass?
Your Answer: Thymoma
Explanation:The most common causes of a mass in the anterior mediastinum are referred to as the 4 T’s: teratoma, terrible lymphadenopathy, thymic mass, and thyroid mass. The woman’s symptoms and positive anti-AChR suggest that she may have myasthenia gravis, which requires a CT chest to check for a thymoma. Other conditions that may show up on a CT chest, such as benign lung nodules, lung tumors, sarcoidosis, and tuberculosis, are unlikely given her presentation. It is important to note that the mediastinum is not the same as the lungs, and therefore, all other answer options are incorrect as the question specifically asks for an anterior mediastinal mass.
The Mediastinum and its Regions
The mediastinum is the area located between the two pulmonary cavities and is covered by the mediastinal pleura. It extends from the thoracic inlet at the top to the diaphragm at the bottom. The mediastinum is divided into four regions: the superior mediastinum, middle mediastinum, posterior mediastinum, and anterior mediastinum.
The superior mediastinum is located between the manubriosternal angle and T4/5 and contains important structures such as the superior vena cava, brachiocephalic veins, arch of aorta, thoracic duct, trachea, oesophagus, thymus, vagus nerve, left recurrent laryngeal nerve, and phrenic nerve.
The anterior mediastinum contains thymic remnants, lymph nodes, and fat. The middle mediastinum contains the pericardium, heart, aortic root, arch of azygos vein, and main bronchi. The posterior mediastinum contains the oesophagus, thoracic aorta, azygos vein, thoracic duct, vagus nerve, sympathetic nerve trunks, and splanchnic nerves.
In summary, the mediastinum is a crucial area of the chest that contains many important structures and is divided into four distinct regions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 3
Correct
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A 28-year-old female patient visits her GP for a routine check-up after her initial cervical smear. She has no medical history, no family history of gynaecological cancers, and no known allergies to medications. She is currently taking the progesterone-only pill. The results of her smear test indicate:
Positive for HPV
Low-grade dyskaryosis cytology
What is the next course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Colposcopy referral
Explanation:If a patient’s cervical cancer screening shows a positive result for high-risk HPV (hrHPV) and cytological abnormalities, they should be referred for a colposcopy. This is because HPV increases the risk of developing cervical intraepithelial neoplasia and abnormal cytology indicates the need for further investigation. If the sample is inadequate, a repeat test should be offered in 3 months. However, there is no situation in which a patient is asked to return for a repeat test in 6 months. If the patient is hrHPV negative, they would be returned to normal recall as the NHS now follows an HPV first system. If the patient is hrHPV positive but has normal cytology, they would be invited for a repeat test in 12 months to assess for resolution of HPV or for further increased surveillance before considering a colposcopy. It would be inappropriate to reassure the patient and return them to normal recall if they are hrHPV positive and have dyskaryosis.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 4
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old male has been diagnosed with upper rectal cancer. The cancer is confined to the area and the medical team has decided to perform an anterior resection to remove it. The surgeon believes that to achieve the best long-term outcome, it is necessary to temporarily divert the colon to safeguard the colorectal anastomosis. What type of stoma would be most suitable?
Your Answer: End colostomy
Correct Answer: Loop ileostomy
Explanation:A loop ileostomy is the appropriate procedure for defunctioning the colon to protect an anastomosis. This involves taking a loop of ileum, making a horizontal incision, and bringing it up to the skin. It is commonly used after rectal cancer surgery and can be reversed at a later time.
An end colostomy is performed when an anastomosis is not possible or desirable, and the colon needs to be diverted or resected. The distal part of the colon is brought up to the skin in this procedure.
An end ileostomy is typically done after the complete removal of the colon or when an ileocolic anastomosis is not planned. While it can be used to defunction the colon, it is more challenging to reverse.
A gastrostomy is used for gastric decompression or feeding.
A loop jejunostomy is used as a high-output stoma and may be performed after an emergency laparotomy with planned early closure.
Abdominal stomas are created during various abdominal procedures to bring the lumen or contents of organs onto the skin. Typically, this involves the bowel, but other organs may also be diverted if necessary. The type and method of construction of the stoma will depend on the contents of the bowel. Small bowel stomas should be spouted to prevent irritant contents from coming into contact with the skin, while colonic stomas do not require spouting. Proper siting of the stoma is crucial to reduce the risk of leakage and subsequent maceration of the surrounding skin. The type and location of the stoma will vary depending on the purpose, such as defunctioning the colon or providing feeding access. Overall, abdominal stomas are a necessary medical intervention that requires careful consideration and planning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Bell's palsy. What is the current evidence-based approach to managing this condition?
Your Answer: No treatment
Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:Understanding Bell’s Palsy
Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It is more common in individuals aged 20-40 years and pregnant women. The condition is characterized by lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy, which affects the forehead. Unlike upper motor neuron lesions, the upper face is spared. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.
The management of Bell’s palsy has been a subject of debate. However, it is now widely accepted that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, but it may be beneficial for severe facial palsy. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients should be prescribed artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eyes at bedtime, they should tape them closed using microporous tape.
If the paralysis shows no sign of improvement after three weeks, an urgent referral to ENT is necessary. Patients with long-standing weakness may require a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within 3-4 months. However, untreated patients may experience permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 16-month-old child has been referred to the haematology team due to painful bone swellings in the hands and feet, along with a positive family history of sickle cell disease. What is the mode of inheritance for this condition?
Your Answer: Autosomal recessive
Explanation:Sickle cell anaemia is a genetic disorder that follows an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance. This means that an individual must inherit two copies of the mutated gene, one from each parent who are carriers of the condition. Huntington’s Disease is an example of an autosomal dominant condition, while Fragile X syndrome is an example of an X-linked dominant condition. Haemophilia is an example of an X-linked recessive condition, and alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is an example of a co-dominant condition.
Sickle-cell anaemia is a genetic disorder that occurs when abnormal haemoglobin, known as HbS, is produced due to an autosomal recessive condition. This condition is more common in individuals of African descent, as the heterozygous condition provides some protection against malaria. About 10% of UK Afro-Caribbean’s are carriers of HbS, and they only experience symptoms if they are severely hypoxic. Homozygotes tend to develop symptoms between 4-6 months when the abnormal HbSS molecules replace fetal haemoglobin.
The pathophysiology of sickle-cell anaemia involves the substitution of the polar amino acid glutamate with the non-polar valine in each of the two beta chains (codon 6) of haemoglobin. This substitution decreases the water solubility of deoxy-Hb, causing HbS molecules to polymerise and sickle RBCs in the deoxygenated state. HbAS patients sickle at p02 2.5 – 4 kPa, while HbSS patients sickle at p02 5 – 6 kPa. Sickle cells are fragile and haemolyse, blocking small blood vessels and causing infarction.
The definitive diagnosis of sickle-cell anaemia is through haemoglobin electrophoresis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 7
Correct
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A 25-year-old man presents with worries about the appearance of his tongue. He reports that it has been like this for a few months but is not causing any discomfort or issues. On examination, the tongue appears mildly erythematous with a few patches surrounded by a white-ish border, and there is no exudate that can be scraped off. What is the MOST probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Geographic tongue
Explanation:Understanding Geographic Tongue: Symptoms, Causes, and Management
Geographic tongue is a common and benign condition that affects the tongue. It is characterized by irregular, smooth, red patches with a white border that resemble a map. While some individuals may experience pain or discomfort, others may not have any symptoms at all. The cause of geographic tongue is unknown, and there is currently no cure. However, symptomatic pain relief and avoidance of certain triggers may help manage the condition.
It is important to differentiate geographic tongue from other oral conditions such as oral candidiasis, oral leukoplakia, and vitamin deficiencies. Oral candidiasis can present with white/yellow plaques that can be easily removed, while oral leukoplakia presents with painless white plaques that cannot be easily scraped away and may be pre-malignant. Vitamin deficiencies such as B12 and C can also cause oral symptoms.
Overall, geographic tongue is a harmless condition that primarily affects females. While it may cause discomfort for some individuals, it does not pose any serious health risks. If you are experiencing symptoms of geographic tongue, it is recommended to seek advice from a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 8
Correct
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Which one of the following statements regarding migraines is accurate?
Your Answer: Typical aura include a spreading scintillating scotoma ('jagged crescent')
Explanation:Caution should be exercised when administering prokinetic agents like metoclopramide to children.
Diagnostic Criteria for Migraine
Migraine is a neurological disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. The International Headache Society has established diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura, which includes at least five attacks lasting between 4-72 hours and having at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity. During the headache, there must be at least one of the following: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. The headache cannot be attributed to another disorder.
Migraine with aura, which is seen in around 25% of migraine patients, tends to be easier to diagnose with a typical aura being progressive in nature and may occur hours prior to the headache. Typical aura include a transient hemianopic disturbance or a spreading scintillating scotoma (‘jagged crescent’). Sensory symptoms may also occur. NICE criteria suggest that migraines may be unilateral or bilateral and give more detail about typical auras, which may occur with or without headache and are fully reversible, develop over at least 5 minutes, and last 5-60 minutes. Atypical aura symptoms such as motor weakness, double vision, visual symptoms affecting only one eye, poor balance, and decreased level of consciousness may prompt further investigation or referral.
In summary, the diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura include specific characteristics of the headache and associated symptoms, while migraine with aura is characterized by typical aura symptoms that may occur prior to the headache. It is important to accurately diagnose migraine to provide appropriate treatment and management for those who suffer from this debilitating condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 4-day history of an increasingly painful and swollen right eye. She complains of blurring of vision and pain, especially with eye movements, which were quite restricted. She has a past medical history of asthma and is allergic penicillin. On examination, the visual acuity is 6/24 in the right, 6/6 in the left. The periorbital area of the right eye is very swollen and erythematous. The eye itself is red and proptosed. The conjunctiva is chemosed. Eye movements in the right eye are quite restricted in all directions. There is relative afferent pupillary defect on the right. Fundoscopy shows a swollen optic disc in the right eye. Computed tomography (CT) scan shows diffuse orbital infiltrate and proptosis. Vital observations are as follows: Blood pressure 130/80 mmHg Heart rate 80 bpm Respiratory rate 20 per minute Oxygen saturation 97% on air Temperature 38.2 °C What is first-line management for this patient?
Your Answer: Drainage of the orbit
Correct Answer: Clindamycin and ciprofloxacin IV
Explanation:Orbital Cellulitis in Penicillin-Allergic Patients
When treating orbital cellulitis in a patient with a penicillin allergy, it is important to choose the right antibiotics. Cefuroxime IV alone is not enough and should be combined with metronidazole. Co-amoxiclav IV is not appropriate for penicillin-allergic patients. Tazocin® IV should also be avoided. The best option is a combination of clindamycin and ciprofloxacin IV. It is important to note that drainage of the orbit is not necessary unless there are signs of an abscess. By choosing the right treatment, we can effectively manage orbital cellulitis in penicillin-allergic patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 29 week pregnant woman presents to her GP with a rash that has developed over the past 12 hours. Upon examination, lesions indicative of chickenpox are observed. The patient's vital signs are stable and she appears to be in good health. What course of action is recommended for management?
Your Answer: Oral aciclovir & VZIG
Correct Answer: Oral aciclovir
Explanation:Pregnant women who contract chickenpox after 20 weeks of gestation should seek medical attention immediately. This is because chickenpox can lead to serious complications such as pneumonia, hepatitis, and encephalitis. Treatment with oral aciclovir is recommended if the woman presents within 24 hours of developing the rash. Aciclovir can help reduce the duration of fever and other symptoms. Symptomatic treatment can also be used alongside aciclovir. If the chickenpox is severe, the woman should be referred to the hospital for intravenous aciclovir. Additionally, a referral to fetal medicine may be necessary due to the small risk of fetal varicella syndrome in the first 28 weeks of pregnancy. It is important to advise anyone with chickenpox to avoid contact with pregnant women and neonates until all lesions have crusted over, which usually takes about 5 days after the onset of the rash. VZIG has no therapeutic benefit once the rash has started. These guidelines are based on the RCOG Greentop guidelines for chickenpox in pregnancy.
Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral aciclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 11
Correct
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A 38-year-old man presents to you with complaints of a persistent sensation of mucus in the back of his throat. He also reports a chronic cough for the past 6 months and frequently experiences bad breath, particularly in the mornings. He admits to smoking 10 cigarettes daily but otherwise feels fine. On examination, his ears appear normal, and his throat shows slight redness with no swelling of the tonsils. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Postnasal drip
Explanation:Nasal tumors can cause symptoms such as nosebleeds, a persistent blocked nose, blood-stained mucus draining from the nose, and a decreased sense of smell. A chronic cough in smokers, known as a smoker’s cough, is caused by damage and destruction of the protective cilia in the respiratory tract. Nasal polyps can result in symptoms such as nasal obstruction, sneezing, rhinorrhea, and a poor sense of taste and smell. If symptoms are unilateral or accompanied by bleeding, it may be a sign of a more serious condition. Nasal foreign bodies, which are commonly found in children, can include items such as peas, beads, buttons, seeds, and sweets.
Understanding Post-Nasal Drip
Post-nasal drip is a condition that arises when the nasal mucosa produces an excessive amount of mucus. This excess mucus then accumulates in the back of the nose or throat, leading to a chronic cough and unpleasant breath. Essentially, post-nasal drip occurs when the body produces more mucus than it can handle, resulting in a buildup that can cause discomfort and irritation. This condition can be caused by a variety of factors, including allergies, sinus infections, and even certain medications. Understanding the causes and symptoms of post-nasal drip can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and alleviate their discomfort.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a similar concern as the previous patient. She has noticed a volcano-like spot on her left arm that has been present for the past 3 months. Initially, she thought it was a simple spot, but it has not gone away. Upon examination, a 5 mm red, raised lesion with a central keratin-filled crater is observed. The doctor suspects a probable keratoacanthoma. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Reassure will spontaneously involute within 3 months
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to dermatology
Explanation:Keratoacanthoma is a benign lesion, but urgent excision is advised due to difficulty in clinically excluding squamous cell carcinoma.
Understanding Keratoacanthoma
Keratoacanthoma is a type of non-cancerous tumor that affects the epithelial cells. It is more commonly found in older individuals and is rare in young people. The tumor is characterized by a dome-shaped papule that resembles a volcano or crater. As it grows, it becomes filled with keratin and develops a central crater. While spontaneous regression of keratoacanthoma is common within three months, it often results in scarring. Therefore, it is important to urgently remove such lesions as it is difficult to clinically differentiate them from squamous cell carcinoma. Removal may also prevent scarring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner by his mother, who reports that he has been feeling tired and has developed mouth sores. Additionally, he has bruises on his knees and palms. A bone marrow aspirate reveals a hypocellular image.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
Correct Answer: Aplastic anaemia
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Hypocellular Bone Marrow and Thrombocytopenia
Aplastic anaemia is a condition characterized by bone marrow failure, resulting in peripheral pancytopenia and bone-marrow hypoplasia. This leads to a deficiency in the production of red blood cells, causing anaemia, and a reduced production of white blood cells, leading to immunodeficiency. Patients may experience symptoms such as shortness of breath, lethargy, pallor, mouth ulcers, and increased frequency of infections. The reduced production of platelets causes easy bruising.
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a condition characterized by an isolated reduction in platelets with normal bone marrow, in the absence of another identifiable cause. Patients may present with abnormal bleeding and bruising, petechiae, and purpura.
Haemophilia A is an X-linked-recessive condition causing a deficiency in clotting factor VIII, leading to easy bruising, prolonged bleeding after injury, or spontaneous bleeding in severe cases.
Infectious mononucleosis is the result of Epstein–Barr virus infection, characterized by fever, pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy, and a macular or maculopapular rash.
Autoimmune neutropenia is associated with opportunistic infections, most commonly otitis media. However, this condition would not account for the thrombocytopenia observed in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 14
Correct
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An itchy rash over the extensor surfaces in a patient with gluten intolerance:
Your Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis
Explanation:Dermatitis herpetiformis is the correct answer, which is a skin rash that is closely linked to coeliac disease. This is a persistent skin condition that causes blisters, but it is not caused by or related to the herpes virus. It is important to note that dapsone is an effective treatment for Dermatitis herpetiformis, which is a common question in exams. Additionally, a gluten-free diet can also help alleviate symptoms.
Understanding Dermatitis Herpetiformis
Dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin condition that is linked to coeliac disease and is caused by the deposition of IgA in the dermis. It is an autoimmune blistering disorder that is characterized by itchy, vesicular skin lesions that appear on the extensor surfaces of the body, such as the elbows, knees, and buttocks.
To diagnose dermatitis herpetiformis, a skin biopsy is required, which will show the deposition of IgA in a granular pattern in the upper dermis. This condition can be managed by following a gluten-free diet and taking dapsone medication.
It is important to understand the symptoms and management of dermatitis herpetiformis to ensure that proper treatment is given. By following a gluten-free diet and taking medication, individuals with this condition can manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 56-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of bilateral gritty and sore eyes that have persisted for several weeks. He denies any history of trauma and has not experienced any discharge. He has not noticed any blurred vision. The patient's medical history is significant only for back pain, which he is managing with paracetamol and amitriptyline. During the examination, his visual acuity is 6/6 corrected bilaterally, and there are no apparent corneal or pupillary abnormalities. His eyes are not red, and eye movements are normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Dry eye syndrome
Explanation:Dry eye syndrome is a common cause of bilateral sore eyes with a gritty or burning sensation. This can be treated with topical lubrication, such as hypromellose. While an examination may appear normal, fluorescein staining can reveal superficial punctate staining and Schirmer’s test may indicate reduced tear production. It is important to consider allergic conjunctivitis as a possible differential diagnosis, especially if symptoms persist for a prolonged period of time and there are no signs of conjunctival involvement.
Understanding Dry Eye Syndrome
Dry eye syndrome is a condition that causes discomfort in both eyes, with symptoms such as dryness, grittiness, and soreness that worsen throughout the day. Exposure to wind can also cause watering of the eyes. People with Meibomian gland dysfunction may experience symptoms that are worse upon waking, with eyelids sticking together and redness of the eyelids. In some cases, dry eye syndrome can lead to complications such as conjunctivitis or corneal ulceration, which can cause severe pain, photophobia, redness, and loss of visual acuity.
Although there may be no abnormalities on examination, eyelid hygiene is the most appropriate management step for dry eye syndrome. This can help control blepharitis, which is a common condition associated with dry eye syndrome. By understanding the symptoms and appropriate management steps, individuals with dry eye syndrome can find relief and improve their overall eye health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 16
Correct
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An 82-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with fatigue, lethargy, weight loss and night sweats for the past six weeks. Clinical examination is unremarkable. His past medical history includes ischaemic heart disease and hypertension. His GP orders a set of blood tests. The full blood count results are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 135 g/l 135–175 g/l
White Blood Cells 21.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Neutrophils 2.8 ×109/l 2.5–7.58 ×109/l
Lymphocytes 18.2 × 109/l 1.5–3.5× 109/l
Platelets 160 g/l 150–400× 109/l
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL)
Explanation:Differential diagnosis for lymphocytosis in an elderly patient with vague symptoms
Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) is the most likely cause of lymphocytosis in an elderly patient who presents with vague symptoms such as weight loss, night sweats and fatigue for six weeks. CLL is one of the most common types of leukaemia in adults, typically occurring during or after middle age and rarely in children.
Other possible diagnoses can be ruled out based on additional clinical features. Patients with HIV tend to have lymphopenia, not lymphocytosis. Lymphomas usually present with an enlargement of a lymph node, which is not reported in this case. Patients with polymyalgia rheumatica tend to have a normal leukocyte count, with some cases having increased estimated sedimentation rate and/or C-reactive protein. A transient viral illness would be an unlikely cause of lymphocytosis in an elderly person with persistent symptoms.
Therefore, CLL should be considered as the most likely diagnosis in this case, and further tests such as flow cytometry and bone marrow biopsy may be needed to confirm the diagnosis and determine the stage of the disease. Treatment options for CLL depend on the stage and other factors such as age and overall health, and may include watchful waiting, chemotherapy, immunotherapy, or targeted therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old female comes to the cardiology clinic complaining of persistent shortness of breath that is hindering her daily activities. She has a medical history of dilated cardiomyopathy and is currently taking candesartan, bisoprolol, and furosemide. An echocardiogram reveals a left ventricular ejection fraction of 40%. What would be the most suitable long-term treatment to enhance this patient's prognosis?
Your Answer: Ramipril
Correct Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:The initial management for heart failure with reduced ejection fraction involves prescribing an ACE inhibitor (or ARB, as in this patient’s case) and a beta-blocker. However, since the patient’s symptoms are not under control despite taking these medications, it is recommended to add spironolactone (a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist) to their treatment plan.
Bendroflumethiazide is not a suitable long-term management option for heart failure, as thiazide and thiazide-like diuretics are not recommended.
Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, is contraindicated for chronic heart failure.
Dobutamine, an inotrope, may be used in acute decompensated heart failure but is not appropriate for stable management of chronic heart failure.
Ramipril is not a suitable option for this patient as they are already taking candesartan, another angiotensin II receptor blocker.Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines
Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.
Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 18
Correct
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A 63-year-old woman with a history of scleroderma presents with recurrent bouts of diarrhoea for the past few months. Her stools are pale, bulky, and offensive during these episodes. She consumes 12 units of alcohol per week. Laboratory tests reveal the following results:
- Hemoglobin: 10.8 g/dL
- Platelets: 231 * 10^9/L
- White blood cells: 5.4 * 10^9/L
- Ferritin: 14 ng/mL
- Vitamin B12: 170 ng/L
- Folate: 2.2 nmol/L
- Sodium: 142 mmol/L
- Potassium: 3.4 mmol/L
- Urea: 4.5 mmol/L
- Creatinine: 77 µmol/L
- Bilirubin: 21 µmol/L
- Alkaline phosphatase: 88 U/L
- Alanine transaminase: 21 U/L
- Gamma-glutamyl transferase: 55 U/L
- Albumin: 36 g/L
What is the most likely complication that has occurred in this patient?Your Answer: Malabsorption syndrome
Explanation:Scleroderma (systemic sclerosis) frequently leads to malabsorption syndrome, which is characterized by reduced absorption of certain vitamins (B12, folate), nutrients (iron), and protein (low albumin) as indicated by blood tests.
Understanding Malabsorption: Causes and Symptoms
Malabsorption is a condition that is characterized by diarrhea, steatorrhea, and weight loss. It occurs when the body is unable to absorb nutrients from the food that is consumed. The causes of malabsorption can be broadly divided into three categories: intestinal, pancreatic, and biliary. Intestinal causes include conditions such as coeliac disease, Crohn’s disease, tropical sprue, Whipple’s disease, Giardiasis, and brush border enzyme deficiencies. Pancreatic causes include chronic pancreatitis, cystic fibrosis, and pancreatic cancer. Biliary causes include biliary obstruction and primary biliary cirrhosis. Other causes of malabsorption include bacterial overgrowth, short bowel syndrome, and lymphoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 19
Correct
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A 54-year-old man with a history of untreated hypertension had a heart attack and received coronary stenting. He was prescribed multiple medications and his blood test results showed:
Na+ 140 mmol/l
K+ 6.2 mmol/l
Which of the following antihypertensive drugs could be causing this result?Your Answer: Enalapril
Explanation:Hyperkalaemia is caused by ACE inhibitor.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. These inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and for secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease. The mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors is to inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. They are metabolized in the liver through phase 1 metabolism.
ACE inhibitors may cause side effects such as cough, which occurs in around 15% of patients and may occur up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased bradykinin levels. Angioedema may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are other potential side effects, especially in patients taking diuretics. ACE inhibitors should be avoided during pregnancy and breastfeeding, and caution should be exercised in patients with renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema.
Patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at an increased risk of hypotension when taking ACE inhibitors. Before initiating treatment, urea and electrolytes should be checked, and after increasing the dose, a rise in creatinine and potassium may be expected. Acceptable changes include an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment. The current NICE guidelines provide a flow chart for the management of hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 20
Correct
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A female patient with a history of renal cell carcinoma presents with enlarged legs bilaterally from the groin area downwards, along with dilated veins around the belly button. What is the underlying mechanism responsible for this?
Your Answer: Inferior vena cava obstruction
Explanation:Medical Conditions that Cause Bilateral Oedema: Inferior Vena Cava Obstruction, Hypoalbuminaemia, Deep Venous Thrombosis, Heart Failure, and Hyponatraemia
Bilateral oedema, or swelling in both legs, can be caused by various medical conditions. One of these is inferior vena cava obstruction, which occurs when a renal mass or thrombus compresses the inferior vena cava, preventing venous drainage of the lower limbs. This obstruction can also cause venous engorgement and dilated veins around the umbilicus. Hypoalbuminaemia, on the other hand, causes a generalised oedema that can be seen in the face, upper and lower limbs, and abdomen. Deep venous thrombosis, which presents with painful swelling and erythema in the affected lower limb, can also cause bilateral symptoms if it occurs in the inferior vena cava. Heart failure, which causes bilateral dependent oedema due to fluid overload, is another possible cause of bilateral oedema. Finally, severe hyponatraemia resulting from fluid overload can cause a generalised symmetrical pattern of oedema that affects the upper limbs as well. Treatment for bilateral oedema depends on the underlying cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman with a history of angina and a recent episode of dizziness is prescribed clopidogrel.
What is the primary mechanism of action of this medication?Your Answer: Blocks platelet adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptors
Explanation:Clopidogrel inhibits platelet activation by blocking the binding of adenosine diphosphate (ADP) to the platelet P2Y12 receptor. This is achieved by preventing the activation of the glycoprotein GPIIa/IIIb. It is recommended by NICE for secondary prevention following a cerebrovascular accident or in peripheral arterial disease. It can also be used in combination with aspirin for the management of ischaemic heart disease or for patients undergoing percutaneous transluminal coronary intervention.
Tirofiban and abciximab are drugs that block glycoprotein IIIb/IIIa receptors, preventing platelet aggregation by blocking fibrinogen from binding to platelet receptors. These drugs are used under specialist supervision only for the treatment of acute ST elevation myocardial infarction or during percutaneous transluminal coronary intervention.
Hirudin, produced by leeches, blocks thrombin receptors. Bivalirudin, a hirudin analogue, is used for the acute management of acute coronary syndrome or during PCI.
Aspirin inhibits thromboxane production by blocking the enzyme cyclooxygenase (COX).
Heparin binds to antithrombin III, activating it, which reduces the activity of thrombin and factor Xa. Heparin is an anticoagulant and plays a role in the treatment of venous thromboembolism, while clopidogrel is an anti-platelet agent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man has, over the course of two days, developed weakness and numbness in his arms. He has no previous medical history of note apart from treated asthma. He smokes cigarettes ‘occasionally’. His father died of a ‘heart problem’ in his early 50s. On examination, the cranial nerves and lower limbs are normal to examination. There is an increased tone in his arms bilaterally, with brisk reflexes. Power is reduced to three-fifths in all modalities above the elbows. Vibration and joint position sense are normal.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Friedreich’s ataxia
Correct Answer: Anterior spinal artery thrombosis
Explanation:The anterior spinal artery supplies the anterior two-thirds of the spinal cord, causing anterior cord syndrome when there is ischaemia/infarct. This results in complete motor paralysis below the lesion, loss of pain/temperature sensation at and below the lesion, and some autonomic and bowel/bladder dysfunction. A lesion at the conus medullaris presents with back pain, saddle anaesthesia, urinary retention, faecal incontinence, lower limb weakness and numbness, and mixed UMN and LMN palsies. Friedreich’s ataxia presents with a slowly progressive gait ataxia, while MND is slowly progressive with combined UMN and LMN signs. Subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord is due to vitamin B12 deficiency and has a subacute or gradual onset with degeneration of the dorsal and lateral columns of the spinal cord. Syndrome and lesion affected presentations are summarized in a table.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 30-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with hypertension which fails to fall into the normal range after three successive measurements at the practice nurse. These were 155/92 mmHg, 158/96 mmHg and 154/94 mmHg. He has a past history of some urinary tract infections as a child. The GP arranges some routine blood tests.
Investigations reveal the following:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 139 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.4 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 201 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine (Cr) 187 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
Ultrasound scan (USS) Left kidney 8.4 cm and appears scarred.
Right kidney 10.3 cm
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Chronic reflux nephropathy
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a 25-Year-Old Man with Renal Issues
Upon reviewing the history and test results of a 25-year-old man with renal issues, several potential diagnoses can be considered. Chronic reflux nephropathy appears to be the most likely diagnosis, given the patient’s history of urinary tract infections as a child, ultrasound scan results, and elevated creatinine levels. Further testing, such as renal tract computed tomography and a voiding cystourethrogram, can confirm this diagnosis.
Essential hypertension, while a risk factor for reno-vascular disease, is unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms. It would not lead to a rise in creatinine or asymmetrical kidneys in a young patient.
IgA nephropathy is another potential diagnosis, but the patient’s lack of haematuria or history of recent illness does not support this diagnosis. The history of urinary tract infections also does not align with IgA nephropathy.
Renal artery stenosis is relatively rare in young patients and would lead to a unilaterally reduced kidney size, which does not fit with the patient’s symptoms.
White coat hypertension, while a possibility, would not explain the rise in creatinine or the reduced size and scarring of the left kidney. A 24-hour blood pressure monitor may be needed to differentiate between persistent hypertension and white coat hypertension.
In conclusion, chronic reflux nephropathy is the most likely diagnosis for this patient, but further testing may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other potential causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of fatigue, back pain, and frequent urination and thirst for the past 3 months. Upon examination, the doctor orders a urine protein electrophoresis and a serum-free light-chain assay, which confirm the diagnosis. What is the most probable result on the patient's blood film?
Your Answer: Increased number of reticulocytes
Correct Answer: Rouleaux formation
Explanation:Rouleaux formation is a characteristic finding in multiple myeloma, which is a condition that presents with symptoms such as hypercalcaemia, anaemia, and back pain. Diagnosis of myeloma involves urine protein electrophoresis and serum-free light-chain assay. Rouleaux formation is observed as stacked RBCs on a blood film, resulting from an increase in acute-phase proteins that are positively charged and attract negatively charged RBCs. It is important to note that rouleaux formation is not exclusive to myeloma and can be seen in various inflammatory conditions. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate blood test measures this mechanism clinically. Heinz bodies, which are caused by oxidative stress and denaturation of haemoglobin, are not associated with myeloma but are seen in G6PD deficiency. Howell-Jolly bodies, which are present in hyposplenic or asplenic disorders, and an increased number of reticulocytes, which indicate increased RBC turnover, are also not characteristic of myeloma.
Understanding Multiple Myeloma: Features and Investigations
Multiple myeloma is a type of blood cancer that occurs due to genetic mutations in plasma cells. It is commonly diagnosed in individuals over the age of 70. The disease is characterized by the acronym CRABBI, which stands for Calcium, Renal, Anaemia, Bleeding, Bones, and Infection. Patients with multiple myeloma may experience hypercalcemia, renal damage, anaemia, bleeding, bone pain, and increased susceptibility to infections. Other symptoms may include amyloidosis, carpal tunnel syndrome, neuropathy, and hyperviscosity.
To diagnose multiple myeloma, doctors may perform a variety of tests, including blood tests, protein electrophoresis, bone marrow aspiration, and imaging studies. Blood tests may reveal anaemia, elevated levels of M protein in the blood or urine, and renal failure. Protein electrophoresis can detect raised concentrations of monoclonal IgA/IgG proteins in the serum or urine. Bone marrow aspiration confirms the diagnosis if the number of plasma cells is significantly raised. Imaging studies, such as whole-body MRI or X-rays, can detect osteolytic lesions or the characteristic rain-drop skull pattern.
The diagnostic criteria for multiple myeloma require one major and one minor criteria or three minor criteria in an individual who has signs or symptoms of the disease. Major criteria include plasmacytoma, 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, and elevated levels of M protein in the blood or urine. Minor criteria include 10% to 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, minor elevations in the level of M protein in the blood or urine, osteolytic lesions, and low levels of antibodies not produced by the cancer cells in the blood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 21-year-old young woman attends surgery concerned about painful periods. She reports normal blood loss and a regular cycle; she is not sexually active. Pelvic examination is normal.
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment choice?Your Answer: Mefenamic acid
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like ibuprofen, naproxen, or mefenamic acid should be the first-line treatment for primary dysmenorrhoea, unless contraindicated. Combined oral contraceptives (COCs) containing ethinylestradiol and norethisterone, norgestimate, or levonorgestrel are also recommended for women who do not wish to conceive. However, for a non-sexually active woman, a non-hormonal drug would be more appropriate. Paracetamol can be prescribed if NSAIDs are not tolerated or contraindicated. Tranexamic acid is useful for menorrhagia, not dysmenorrhoea. The diagnosis of primary dysmenorrhoea is likely if menstrual pain starts 6-12 months after menarche, before menstruation, and lasts up to 72 hours, with non-gynaecological symptoms present, and a normal pelvic examination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 26
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman is seen by her general practitioner. She has lost 8 kg in weight; her previous weight was 70 kg, and she now weighs 60 kg. She has a fear of gaining weight, but no further symptoms are elicited. On examination, she appears underweight and her skin looks dry; there is evidence of thin, soft, unpigmented hair on her back; her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and her heart rate is 65 bpm.
What is your preferred diagnosis?Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Explanation:Differentiating Anorexia Nervosa from Other Mental Disorders
Anorexia nervosa (AN) is a mental disorder characterized by deliberate weight loss induced and sustained by the patient. In this scenario, a woman presents with a fear of gaining weight and has lost more than 15% of her body weight, suggesting a diagnosis of AN. Other physical symptoms such as dry skin, lanugo hair, hypotension, and bradycardia help confirm the diagnosis. However, a more detailed history, a full assessment of her mental state, and clinical investigations are necessary to confirm the diagnosis and inform management.
While weight loss can also be present in other mental disorders such as generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), depression, schizophrenia, and bulimia nervosa (BN), they are not accompanied by a fear of gaining weight. Patients with GAD experience persistent anxiety that affects several aspects of their lives, while depression is characterized by a persistent feeling of sadness and hopelessness. Schizophrenia involves self-neglect and/or delusional beliefs around food, while BN is characterized by episodes of binge eating followed by purging behaviors.
It is worth noting that eating disorders have the highest mortality among all mental disorders, with AN being no exception. The excess mortality is explained by the associated physical complications and increased risk of suicide. Psychological interventions are the mainstay of treatment for all eating disorders, but antidepressants have a role in some types (e.g., BN), and a multidisciplinary approach is recommended in any case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 27
Correct
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A 45-year-old male dental practice nurse is admitted for elective surgery. During induction with a general anaesthetic, he develops tachycardia, rash and diffuse wheeze. He mentioned that he had a rash when assisting with an anaesthetic case at work.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Select the SINGLE most likely diagnosis from the list below. Select ONE option only.Your Answer: Anaphylaxis
Explanation:Understanding Allergic Reactions: Types and Symptoms
Allergic reactions can take many forms, each with its own set of symptoms and causes. Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening reaction that can occur in response to drugs, insect stings, or certain foods. It is characterized by rapid onset of airway, breathing, and circulation problems, as well as skin and mucosal changes. Systemic mastocytosis is another type of allergic reaction that can cause symptoms such as itching, abdominal cramping, and even shock. Pseudoallergy, on the other hand, can mimic true allergies but has different underlying causes, such as altered histamine metabolism or food intolerance.
Serum sickness is a self-limited allergic reaction that occurs after exposure to foreign proteins. It is a type III hypersensitivity reaction that can cause fever, skin rash, and joint symptoms. Contact dermatitis is an inflammatory skin reaction that can be caused by either an irritant or an allergen. Allergic contact dermatitis is a type IV delayed hypersensitivity reaction that occurs after sensitization and subsequent re-exposure to an allergen, while irritant contact dermatitis is an inflammatory response that occurs after damage to the skin by chemicals.
It is important to recognize the symptoms of these different types of allergic reactions and seek medical attention if necessary. Anaphylaxis, in particular, is a medical emergency that can lead to death if not treated promptly. By understanding the different types of allergic reactions and their causes, we can take steps to prevent them and manage their symptoms effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 28
Correct
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A 25-year-old man presents to your GP clinic with concerns of a possible urinary tract infection. He reports experiencing burning sensations during urination for the past two weeks, particularly in the morning. Additionally, he has noticed some itching around his penis. The patient has no significant medical history. During the examination, you observe that his abdomen is soft and nontender. Upon performing a urine dip, you find that it is positive for leukocytes. What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Urethritis due to a sexually transmitted infection
Explanation:The BASH guidelines for Sexually Transmitted Infections in Primary Care state that in young men, urethritis is typically caused by an STI. Men under the age of 35 rarely experience urine infections, so any sexually active man experiencing dysuria should be screened for STIs. The presence of leukocytes in the urine indicates the presence of pus cells, which are a result of an STI. Chlamydia is the most prevalent STI in the UK.
Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is prevalent in the UK, with approximately 1 in 10 young women affected. The incubation period is around 7-21 days, but many cases are asymptomatic. Symptoms in women include cervicitis, discharge, and bleeding, while men may experience urethral discharge and dysuria. Complications can include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility.
Traditional cell culture is no longer widely used for diagnosis, with nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) being the preferred method. Testing can be done using urine, vulvovaginal swab, or cervical swab. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years, and opportunistic testing is common.
Doxycycline is the first-line treatment for Chlamydia, with azithromycin as an alternative if doxycycline is contraindicated or not tolerated. Pregnant women may be treated with azithromycin, erythromycin, or amoxicillin. Patients diagnosed with Chlamydia should be offered partner notification services, with all contacts since the onset of symptoms or within the last six months being notified and offered treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 3-day history of increased urinary frequency, urgency, nocturia and mild, lower abdominal discomfort.
On examination, she looks well. She is afebrile, while her abdomen is soft and nontender. A urine dipstick is performed. Her estimated glomerular filtration rate was normal: > 90 ml/minute per 1.73 m2 three months ago.
Urinalysis reveals the following:
Investigation Result
Leukocytes +++
Nitrates +
Blood +
What is the most appropriate initial treatment option?Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin 100 mg twice a day for seven days
Explanation:The recommended first-line treatment for uncomplicated UTIs is nitrofurantoin, with trimethoprim as an alternative if resistance is low. Painless haematuria warrants investigation of the renal tract, and this should also be considered in men with confirmed UTIs. Amoxicillin is not typically recommended for UTIs due to its inactivation by penicillinase produced by E. coli, but it may be appropriate if the causative organism is sensitive to it. While waiting for MSU results, empirical antibiotic treatment should be started immediately if a UTI is suspected. Ciprofloxacin is indicated for acute prostatitis or pyelonephritis, not uncomplicated lower UTIs, and caution is needed when prescribing quinolones to the elderly due to the risk of tendon rupture. Trimethoprim is an appropriate first-line antibiotic for lower UTIs in men, with a 7-day course recommended, while a 3-day course is suitable for non-pregnant women under 65.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 30
Correct
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A 70-year-old man who takes bendroflumethiazide for hypertension is brought to the Emergency Department. Upon admission, his blood work shows the following:
Na+ 131 mmol/l
K+ 2.2 mmol/l
Urea 3.1 mmol/l
Creatinine 56 µmol/l
Glucose 4.3 mmol/l
What ECG feature is most likely to be observed?Your Answer: U waves
Explanation:ECG Features of Hypokalaemia
Hypokalaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood. This condition can be detected through an electrocardiogram (ECG) which shows specific features. The ECG features of hypokalaemia include U waves, small or absent T waves, prolonged PR interval, ST depression, and long QT. The U waves are particularly noticeable and are accompanied by a borderline PR interval.
To remember these features, one registered user suggests the following rhyme: In Hypokalaemia, U have no Pot and no T, but a long PR and a long QT. It is important to detect hypokalaemia early as it can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and even cardiac arrest. Therefore, regular monitoring of potassium levels and ECGs is crucial for individuals at risk of hypokalaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 31
Correct
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A 56-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of severe right upper quadrant pain preceded by a 2-month history of intermittent ache in the right upper quadrant. His basic observations include heart rate 115 beats/minute, respiratory rate 28 breaths/minute, blood pressure 90/55 mmHg, temperature 38.9°C, oxygen saturation 93% on air. His past medical history includes hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus.
WCC 14 x 109cells/L
Bilirubin 80 mg/dL
Alkaline phosphatase 377 IU/L
Alanine aminotransferase 70 U/L
Amylase 300 U/L
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Ascending cholangitis
Explanation:The three main symptoms of Charcot’s cholangitis are fever, jaundice, and pain in the upper right quadrant. This type of cholangitis is known for causing these three symptoms, which are collectively referred to as Charcot’s triad. When there is inflammation in the gastrointestinal tract, amylase levels may be slightly elevated. While cholecystitis can lead to jaundice, it is usually not severe. On the other hand, pancreatitis typically does not cause jaundice, and amylase levels are typically much higher.
Understanding Ascending Cholangitis
Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.
To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.
Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 32
Correct
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A 36-year-old woman has been diagnosed with pertussis. She came to the doctor's office after a child at her workplace daycare tested positive for whooping cough. She has been experiencing an on-and-off cough with occasional vomiting for the past 18 days. Assuming the patient has no allergies, what is the best course of treatment for this diagnosis?
Your Answer: Azithromycin
Explanation:Azithromycin or clarithromycin are recommended as first-line antibiotics for non-pregnant adults with whooping cough if the cough onset is within 21 days. Erythromycin can be used for pregnant adults. Co-amoxiclav and doxycycline are not recommended, and co-trimoxazole can be used off-label if macrolides are contraindicated or not tolerated. Antibiotics are preferred over supportive treatment within 21 days of presentation.
Whooping Cough: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
Whooping cough, also known as pertussis, is a contagious disease caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. It is commonly found in children, with around 1,000 cases reported annually in the UK. The disease is characterized by a persistent cough that can last up to 100 days, hence the name cough of 100 days.
Infants are particularly vulnerable to whooping cough, which is why routine immunization is recommended at 2, 3, 4 months, and 3-5 years. However, neither infection nor immunization provides lifelong protection, and adolescents and adults may still develop the disease.
Whooping cough has three phases: the catarrhal phase, the paroxysmal phase, and the convalescent phase. The catarrhal phase lasts around 1-2 weeks and presents symptoms similar to a viral upper respiratory tract infection. The paroxysmal phase is characterized by a severe cough that worsens at night and after feeding, and may be accompanied by vomiting and central cyanosis. The convalescent phase is when the cough subsides over weeks to months.
To diagnose whooping cough, a person must have an acute cough that has lasted for 14 days or more without another apparent cause, and have one or more of the following features: paroxysmal cough, inspiratory whoop, post-tussive vomiting, or undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants. A nasal swab culture for Bordetella pertussis is used to confirm the diagnosis, although PCR and serology are increasingly used.
Infants under 6 months with suspected pertussis should be admitted, and in the UK, pertussis is a notifiable disease. An oral macrolide, such as clarithromycin, azithromycin, or erythromycin, is indicated if the onset of the cough is within the previous 21 days to eradicate the organism and reduce the spread. Household contacts should be offered antibiotic prophylaxis, although antibiotic therapy has not been shown to alter the course of the illness. School exclusion is recommended for 48 hours after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are given.
Complications of whooping cough include subconjunctival haemorrhage, pneumonia, bronchiectasis, and
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 33
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman of Afro-Caribbean origin presents to the Oncology Clinic under the 2-week-wait pathway. She has been noticing some lumps on her neck that are classified as painless, nontender, asymmetrical lymphadenopathy. She complains of increasing night sweats and has noticed some pain when drinking alcohol.
Given the likely diagnosis, which one of the following features is associated with a poor prognosis?Your Answer: Night sweats
Explanation:Understanding Hodgkin’s Lymphoma: Symptoms and Prognosis Factors
Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphatic system. One of the most common symptoms of this malignancy is painless, non-tender, asymmetrical lymphadenopathy. However, the presence of night sweats, fever, and weight loss can also indicate a diagnosis of Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Patients of Afro-Caribbean origin may have a worse prognosis in acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, but not in Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Alcohol-induced pain is a characteristic feature of some cases of Hodgkin’s lymphoma, but it has not been associated with a poor prognosis. Asymmetrical lymphadenopathy is a typical feature of Hodgkin’s lymphoma and has not been linked to a worse prognosis. Finally, while female sex has not been associated with poor prognosis, some studies suggest that male sex could be connected with a poorer outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 34
Correct
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A 64-year-old man is scheduled for a follow-up after a positive faecal occult blood test as part of the national screening programme. While discussing colonoscopy, he inquires about the percentage of patients with a positive faecal occult blood test who have colorectal cancer. What is the most precise response?
Your Answer: 5 - 15%
Explanation:The likelihood of having an adenoma increases with a positive result on a faecal occult blood test.
Colorectal Cancer Screening: Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT)
Colorectal cancer is often developed from adenomatous polyps. Screening for this type of cancer has been proven to reduce mortality by 16%. The NHS offers a home-based screening programme called Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) to older adults. A one-off flexible sigmoidoscopy was trialled in England for people aged 55 years, but it was abandoned in 2021 due to the inability to recruit enough clinical endoscopists, which was exacerbated by the COVID-19 pandemic. The trial, partly funded by Cancer Research UK, showed promising early results, and it remains to be seen whether flexible sigmoidoscopy will be used as part of a future bowel screening programme.
Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) Screening:
The NHS now has a national screening programme that offers screening every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood (FOB) test that uses antibodies that specifically recognise human haemoglobin (Hb). It is used to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. FIT has advantages over conventional FOB tests because it only detects human haemoglobin, as opposed to animal haemoglobin ingested through diet. Only one faecal sample is needed compared to the 2-3 for conventional FOB tests. While a numerical value is generated, this is not reported to the patient or GP. Instead, they will be informed if the test is normal or abnormal. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy. At colonoscopy, approximately 5 out of 10 patients will have a normal exam, 4 out of 10 patients will be found to have polyps that may be removed due to their premalignant potential, and 1 out of 10 patients will be found to have cancer. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 35
Correct
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A 25 year-old woman and her partner visit their GP due to their inability to conceive after trying for 4 months. The woman reports having regular periods and no identifiable cause in her medical history. What would be the most suitable course of action for her management?
Your Answer: Address how the couple are having sexual intercourse and reassure the patient
Explanation:When a couple is trying to conceive, it is normal for it to take up to one year for them to be successful. Therefore, medical examinations are typically conducted after one year of consistent attempts to conceive. However, it may be wise to address any physical barriers that could be hindering the couple’s ability to conceive, which is why their sexual history is taken into consideration.
Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. It is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sexual intercourse will conceive within the first year, and 92% within the first two years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.
When investigating infertility, there are some basic tests that can be done. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test. The serum progesterone test is done 7 days prior to the expected next period, typically on day 21 for a 28-day cycle. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if it is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it remains consistently low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.
It is important to counsel patients on lifestyle factors that can impact fertility. This includes taking folic acid, maintaining a healthy BMI between 20-25, and advising regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Additionally, patients should be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption to increase their chances of conceiving.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 36
Correct
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A highly active 12-year-old boy who plays football for his local team reports knee pain for several months. Upon examination, tenderness is noted over the tibial tuberosity.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Osgood-Schlatter disease
Explanation:Common Causes of Knee Pain in Young Patients
Knee pain is a common complaint among young patients, especially those who are active in sports. Here are some of the most common causes of knee pain in this population:
1. Osgood-Schlatter disease: This condition is caused by overuse of quadriceps, putting strain on the patellar ligament attachment to the tibia, which is not yet fully developed. The key clinical examination finding is tenderness over the tibial tuberosity, and there may well be a bony lump over the area as well.
2. Patellar subluxation: This describes the temporary but recurring lateral subluxation of the patella. Patients may describe the knee ‘giving way’ or feeling it move out of place, most commonly during activity such as running or jumping.
3. Chondromalacia patellae: This is caused by abnormal softening of the cartilage on the underside of the patella. Patients will describe anterior knee pain, which is worse after sitting for a prolonged length of time, or for activities including walking down the stairs, jumping, running or climbing.
4. Osteoarthritis: This is a disease of older age, owing to degeneration of the articular cartilage. It is often seen in the weight-bearing areas, including the knee and hip, as well as in the hands.
5. Osteochondritis dissecans: This is caused by separation of subchondral bone articular cartilage from the joint surface, and affects the knee in 75% of cases. It tends to present in teenagers and young adults, with a vague and achy joint pain that is made worse by activity, and may be accompanied by swelling.
It is important to note that knee pain in children could also be due to hip pathology, such as SUFE (slipped upper femoral epiphysis). Proper diagnosis and management are crucial for the long-term health of the joint.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 37
Correct
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A 14-year-old adolescent complains of recurring reactions to his nose ring. He remembers experiencing a similar reaction on his wrist when wearing a nickel bracelet. What test is used to confirm a nickel allergy?
Your Answer: Patch test
Explanation:Medical Testing Techniques
Patch Test, Flow Cytometry, HLA Typing, Polymerase Chain Reaction, and Skin Prick Testing are all medical testing techniques used for different purposes.
Patch Test is used to diagnose delayed type IV hypersensitivity reactions. It involves applying various test substances to the skin and examining it for any inflammatory response.
Flow Cytometry is used to differentiate between cell populations and count the number of cells in a given sample. It works by channelling cells through a laser beam one at a time and identifying the size and granularity of the cell.
HLA Typing is used to match patients and donors for cord blood or bone marrow transplants. It tests for proteins or markers used by the immune system to differentiate ‘self’ from ‘non-self’.
Polymerase Chain Reaction is used to amplify a single or multiple copies of a DNA segment. It has medical uses such as functional analysis of genes, diagnosis of hereditary diseases, and detection of infectious diseases.
Skin Prick Testing is used to diagnose type I hypersensitivity reactions, which are mediated by immunoglobulin E. It involves immediate degranulation of mast cells and the release of histamine. Examples of type I hypersensitivity reactions include allergic rhinitis, systemic anaphylaxis, and allergic asthma.
Medical Testing Techniques for Different Purposes
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 38
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the least acknowledged complication of measles infection?
Your Answer: Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
Correct Answer: Infertility
Explanation:Measles: A Highly Infectious Viral Disease
Measles is a viral disease caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is one of the most infectious known viruses and is spread through aerosol transmission. The disease has an incubation period of 10-14 days and is infective from the prodromal phase until four days after the rash starts. Measles is now rare in developed countries due to immunization programs, but outbreaks can occur when vaccination rates drop, such as during the MMR controversy of the early 2000s.
The disease is characterized by a prodromal phase, which includes irritability, conjunctivitis, fever, and Koplik spots. The latter typically develop before the rash and are white spots on the buccal mucosa. The rash starts behind the ears and then spreads to the whole body, becoming a discrete maculopapular rash that may become blotchy and confluent. Desquamation may occur after a week, typically sparing the palms and soles. Diarrhea occurs in around 10% of patients.
Measles is mainly managed through supportive care, and admission may be considered in immunosuppressed or pregnant patients. The disease is notifiable, and public health should be informed. Complications of measles include otitis media, pneumonia (the most common cause of death), encephalitis (typically occurring 1-2 weeks following the onset of the illness), subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (very rare, may present 5-10 years following the illness), febrile convulsions, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis.
If an unimmunized child comes into contact with measles, MMR should be offered within 72 hours. Vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man comes to you with complaints of nocturnal dyspnea, intermittent palpitations, and chest tightness. During your examination, you observe a collapsing pulse and a displaced apex beat towards the left. Additionally, you notice his head nodding in sync with his pulse. What do you anticipate hearing upon auscultation of the precordium?
Your Answer: An ejection systolic murmur
Correct Answer: An early diastolic murmur
Explanation:Aortic regurgitation is usually accompanied by an early diastolic murmur, along with Corrigan’s pulse and De Musset’s sign. Mitral regurgitation is characterized by a pansystolic murmur, while aortic stenosis is associated with an ejection systolic murmur. A patent ductus arteriosus is indicated by a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, and mitral stenosis is associated with a late diastolic murmur.
Aortic regurgitation is a condition where the aortic valve of the heart leaks, causing blood to flow in the opposite direction during ventricular diastole. This can be caused by disease of the aortic valve or by distortion or dilation of the aortic root and ascending aorta. In the developing world, rheumatic fever is the most common cause of AR, while in developed countries, calcific valve disease and connective tissue diseases like rheumatoid arthritis and SLE are more common causes. Symptoms of AR include an early diastolic murmur, collapsing pulse, wide pulse pressure, Quincke’s sign, and De Musset’s sign. Echocardiography is used to investigate suspected AR. Management includes medical management of any associated heart failure and surgery for symptomatic patients with severe AR or asymptomatic patients with severe AR who have LV systolic dysfunction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 40
Correct
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A 35-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of an itchy rash on the flexural surface of both his arms that has been present for 1 week. On examination, the rash appears polygonal and shiny with a white lines pattern on the surface. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: No further testing required, start treatment
Explanation:Diagnostic Testing for Lichen Planus: Understanding Skin Patch Testing, Skin Prick Testing, and RAST
Lichen planus is a clinical diagnosis that can be made based on the characteristic appearance of the rash. However, in some cases, a biopsy may be helpful if the presentation is atypical. The diagnosis is typically made without the need for further testing, and treatment can be started promptly.
Skin patch testing and skin prick testing are not useful for diagnosing lichen planus, as they are mainly used for different types of hypersensitivity reactions. Skin patch testing is used for contact dermatitis and other type IV hypersensitivity reactions, while skin prick testing is used for type I hypersensitivity reactions, such as food allergies and pollen allergies.
Radioallergosorbent testing (RAST) is also unsuitable for diagnosing lichen planus, as it is used to determine the amount of immunoglobulin E (IgE) that reacts specifically with suspected or known allergens. RAST is useful for food allergies, inhaled allergens (such as pollen), and wasp/bee venom.
In summary, diagnostic testing is not typically required for lichen planus, as it can be diagnosed clinically. Skin patch testing, skin prick testing, and RAST are not useful for diagnosing lichen planus and are mainly used for different types of hypersensitivity reactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 41
Correct
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A 21-year-old woman presents with a two day history of increasing dysuria. During examination, inflamed blisters are observed on the outer labia.
What is the most suitable treatment option?Your Answer: Aciclovir
Explanation:Understanding Genital Herpes and Treatment Options
Genital herpes is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the herpes simplex viruses (HSV-1 or HSV-2). It presents as clusters of papules and vesicles on the outer genitals in both men and women, usually appearing 4-7 days after sexual exposure to HSV for the first time. Unfortunately, there is no cure for genital herpes, but treatment with aciclovir can reduce the duration of symptoms. Other treatment options include antibiotics like azithromycin and clindamycin for bacterial infections, antifungal agents like fluconazole for fungal infections, and metronidazole for anaerobic bacteria and protozoa. It is important to seek medical attention and start treatment as soon as possible to manage symptoms and prevent transmission to others.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 42
Correct
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A 49-year-old woman comes to see her doctor complaining of increasing fatigue, itchy skin, and pain in the upper right side of her abdomen. She has a medical history of autoimmune disorders such as hypothyroidism and coeliac disease. The doctor suspects that she may have primary biliary cholangitis (PBC). What is the first test that should be ordered for this patient?
Your Answer: Anti-mitochondrial autoantibodies
Explanation:Understanding the Diagnostic Tests for Primary Biliary Cholangitis
Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the biliary system. It can lead to the destruction of small bile ducts and eventually cirrhosis. While it may be asymptomatic in the early stages, symptoms such as fatigue, abdominal pain, and dry eyes may develop over time. To diagnose PBC, a blood test for anti-mitochondrial antibodies is the most appropriate first step. If positive, a liver ultrasound scan and biopsy can confirm the diagnosis. Other tests, such as an MRI scan or tests for anti-La and anti-Ro antibodies, are not used in the diagnosis of PBC.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman with a 9-month history of weight loss, intermittent bloody mucus stools and abdominal pain undergoes a colonoscopy, which shows a mucosal ‘cobblestone’ pattern and skip lesions. She drinks approximately four units of alcohol a week and has a smoking history of five pack years.
Which of the following is the most appropriate lifestyle advice for this patient?Your Answer: Avoid alcohol
Correct Answer: Stop smoking
Explanation:Lifestyle Advice for Patients with Inflammatory Bowel Disease
Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a chronic inflammatory process that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract. Patients with IBD may experience symptoms such as diarrhoea, abdominal pain, and bleeding. Here are some lifestyle advice for patients with IBD:
Stop smoking: Research suggests that smoking can make Crohn’s disease worse. Smokers with Crohn’s disease have more severe symptoms and complications, require more medication, and are more likely to need surgery.
Eat a balanced diet: Patients with IBD may need to be careful about the amount and type of fibre in their diet. During flare-ups, it may be helpful to reduce the amount of insoluble fibre consumed, but, once the flare-up is over, it is important to increase fibre intake again.
Avoid alcohol: Although there is no evidence that alcohol consumption worsens IBD symptoms, alcohol can affect the lining of the gastrointestinal tract and interact with certain medications.
Quit smoking: Although smoking may delay or even prevent ulcerative colitis, the health risks of smoking outweigh any benefits seen in UC, and strongly discourage smoking in everyone, whether or not they have IBD.
Consider probiotics: The role of probiotics in IBD is not fully understood, but their use can be discussed with a General Practitioner or dietitian. More research is needed on their general effectiveness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 44
Correct
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A 31-year-old female patient visits her doctor with complaints of feeling unwell for the past week. She reports experiencing headaches and mild abdominal discomfort. She denies having any diarrhea but mentions severe constipation. Recently, she returned from a 3-week trip to India. During the examination, her temperature is recorded as 38.5ºC, and she appears bloated. Additionally, a sparse macular rash is observed on her chest. What is the probable causative agent for this presentation?
Your Answer: Salmonella typhi
Explanation:While salmonella can cause diarrhoea, typhoid fever is more likely to result in constipation. This is a typical symptom of typhoid fever, along with the appearance of rose spots. It’s important to note that constipation can be a significant indicator of this illness. In contrast, Campylobacter jejuni infection usually causes bloody diarrhoea and abdominal pain. E. coli is a common cause of watery diarrhoea, but certain strains like E. coli O157:H7 can lead to severe abdominal cramping, vomiting, and bloody diarrhoea. Giardiasis can cause similar symptoms such as bloating and abdominal pain, but it usually results in chronic diarrhoea. Shigellosis typically causes abdominal pain and diarrhoea, which may or may not be bloody.
Enteric fever, also known as typhoid or paratyphoid, is caused by Salmonella typhi and Salmonella paratyphi respectively. These bacteria are not normally found in the gut and are transmitted through contaminated food and water or the faecal-oral route. The symptoms of enteric fever include headache, fever, and joint pain, as well as abdominal pain and distension. Constipation is more common in typhoid than diarrhoea, and rose spots may appear on the trunk in some patients. Complications can include osteomyelitis, gastrointestinal bleeding or perforation, meningitis, cholecystitis, and chronic carriage. Chronic carriage is more likely in adult females and occurs in approximately 1% of cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 45
Correct
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A 75 year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of a 1.5cm ulcerated lesion on her left labium majus. She has been experiencing vulval itching and soreness for the past three years, despite using topical steroid treatment. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Vulval carcinoma
Explanation:Understanding Vulval Carcinoma
Vulval carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the vulva, which is the external female genitalia. It is a relatively rare condition, with only around 1,200 cases diagnosed in the UK each year. The majority of cases occur in women over the age of 65 years, and around 80% of cases are squamous cell carcinomas.
There are several risk factors associated with vulval carcinoma, including human papilloma virus (HPV) infection, vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN), immunosuppression, and lichen sclerosus. Symptoms of vulval carcinoma may include a lump or ulcer on the labia majora, inguinal lymphadenopathy, and itching or irritation.
It is important for women to be aware of the risk factors and symptoms of vulval carcinoma, and to seek medical attention if they experience any concerning symptoms. Early detection and treatment can improve outcomes and increase the chances of a full recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 46
Correct
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A 45-year-old man attends for a truck driver medical assessment. His blood pressure (BP) is noted to be 190/100 mmHg. He is a heavy drinker. He is feeling generally well in himself. You request blood tests:
Result Normal
Sodium (mmol/l) 138 135-145
Potassium (mmol/l) 4.0 3.5-5.0
Urea (mmol/l) 4.8 1.7-8.3
Creatinine (µmol/l) 152 59-104
You decide to perform a work-up to exclude a secondary cause for his hypertension. An ultrasound scan of the renal tract reveals a small atrophic left kidney.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Renal artery stenosis
Explanation:Possible Causes of Hypertension: Differential Diagnosis
Hypertension in a young patient may indicate a secondary cause, such as renovascular disease. In this case, a small kidney on ultrasound and elevated creatinine levels suggest renal artery stenosis as a possible cause. Other potential diagnoses, such as Cushing’s syndrome, acromegaly, and phaeochromocytoma, are less likely based on the absence of corresponding symptoms and signs. Polycystic kidney disease, which can also cause hypertension, would typically present with bilateral renal enlargement rather than atrophy. A thorough differential diagnosis is important to identify the underlying cause of hypertension and guide appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 4-month history of nasal congestion and coughing. Over the previous few days, she has also been experiencing a persistent headache which seems to be worse when she leans forward.
Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute sinusitis
Correct Answer: Chronic rhinosinusitis
Explanation:Differentiating Chronic Rhinosinusitis from Other Headache Disorders
Chronic rhinosinusitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the paranasal sinuses and nasal passages that lasts for 12 weeks or longer. Patients with chronic rhinosinusitis typically present with symptoms such as nasal congestion, coughing, persistent headache that worsens on bending forwards, facial pain, nasal discharge, and postnasal drip. Predisposing factors for chronic rhinosinusitis include atopy, nasal obstruction, recent local infection, swimming or diving, and smoking. Management of chronic rhinosinusitis involves avoidance of allergens, intranasal corticosteroids, and nasal irrigation with saline.
Acute sinusitis shares many features with chronic rhinosinusitis, but the history of symptoms is much shorter. Treatment for acute sinusitis includes analgesia, intranasal decongestants or nasal saline, and intranasal corticosteroids if symptoms persist for more than ten days. Oral antibiotics may be given for severe presentations.
Cluster headaches are characterized by intense, sharp, stabbing pain around one eye, accompanied by eye redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, skin erythema, miosis or ptosis. Cluster headaches occur in clusters lasting between four and 12 weeks, with patients feeling completely fine in between clusters. Tension headaches are described as a band-like headache that does not impair activities of daily living.
Postnasal drip (PND) typically presents with a chronic cough and bad breath, unlike the presentation in chronic rhinosinusitis. It is important to differentiate chronic rhinosinusitis from other headache disorders to ensure appropriate management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 48
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of a persistent blocked nose and reduced sense of smell for the past few months. During examination, the doctor observes pale grey mucosal sacs in both nostrils. The patient has a history of allergies but is otherwise healthy. What is the most likely condition she is suffering from?
Your Answer: Aspirin usage
Explanation:Medical Conditions and Medication Usage: A Brief Overview
Aspirin Usage and Nasal Polyps
Nasal polyps, asthma, and rhinosinusitis are all symptoms of aspirin-exacerbated respiratory disease. This condition is caused by hypersensitivity to aspirin or other cyclooxygenase 1 inhibitors and typically develops in individuals aged 30-40 years. Treatment involves avoiding non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and in some cases, aspirin desensitization may be performed.COPD and Nasal Polyps
While nasal polyps can be associated with asthma, there is no known association with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Smokers with nosebleeds or unilateral nasal polyps should be referred for urgent ENT assessment to rule out malignancy.Infective Endocarditis and Nasal Polyps
Infective endocarditis occurs when bacteria enters the bloodstream, usually via poor dentition, an open wound, or mechanical device placed in the heart. There is no known association between nasal polyps and infective endocarditis.Paracetamol Usage and Nasal Polyps
Nasal polyps are associated with aspirin sensitivity, not sensitivity to paracetamol. According to the British National Formulary, the only side effect of oral paracetamol is thrombocytopenia, which is considered very rare.Simvastatin Usage and Nasal Polyps
Nasal polyps are not a recognized side effect of statins, which can cause muscle aches, headaches, diarrhea, and sleep disturbances.Understanding Medical Conditions and Medication Usage
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 49
Correct
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A 56-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with symptoms of malaise and diarrhoea. She reports feeling shivery and achy for the past 3 days and has had 4 watery stools in the past 24 hours. The patient has a history of breast cancer and is currently undergoing chemotherapy. Her last dose of doxorubicin and cyclophosphamide was administered 10 days ago. She has no known allergies and takes no other medications. On examination, her heart rate is 103/min, respiratory rate is 20/min with saturations of 100% in room air, blood pressure is 100/79 mmHg, and temperature is 39.1ºC.
What is the initial management approach for this patient while awaiting the results of her blood culture?Your Answer: Piperacillin with tazobactam (tazocin)
Explanation:The recommended empirical antibiotic for managing neutropenic sepsis is Piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin). This is because the patient is displaying symptoms such as malaise, diarrhoea, flu-like aching, mild tachycardia, and a temperature >38ºC, and has a history of chemotherapy within the past 7-14 days. As the patient has no allergies, Tazocin should be administered until blood cultures show a specific sensitivity. Amoxicillin is not effective in treating neutropenic sepsis as it is not broad-spectrum enough. Meropenem is only indicated in patients with previous or suspected ESBL, acute leukaemia, or allogeneic stem cell transplants, and is not recommended as first-line treatment according to NICE guidelines. Teicoplanin is recommended for patients with penicillin or beta-lactam allergies and evidence of neutropenic sepsis, but should be used in combination with another non-penicillin antibiotic as per local guidelines. Vancomycin is an alternative for penicillin-allergic patients, and should be administered with gentamicin, ciprofloxacin, or amikacin depending on local guidelines and the severity of the patient’s presentation.
Neutropenic Sepsis: A Common Complication of Cancer Therapy
Neutropenic sepsis is a frequent complication of cancer therapy, particularly chemotherapy. It typically occurs within 7-14 days after chemotherapy and is characterized by a neutrophil count of less than 0.5 * 109 in patients undergoing anticancer treatment who exhibit a temperature higher than 38ºC or other signs or symptoms consistent with clinically significant sepsis.
To prevent neutropenic sepsis, patients who are likely to have a neutrophil count of less than 0.5 * 109 as a result of their treatment should be offered a fluoroquinolone. In the event of neutropenic sepsis, antibiotics must be initiated immediately, without waiting for the white blood cell count.
According to NICE guidelines, empirical antibiotic therapy should begin with piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin) immediately. While some units may add vancomycin if the patient has central venous access, NICE does not support this approach. After initial treatment, patients are typically assessed by a specialist and risk-stratified to determine if they may be able to receive outpatient treatment.
If patients remain febrile and unwell after 48 hours, an alternative antibiotic such as meropenem may be prescribed, with or without vancomycin. If patients do not respond after 4-6 days, the Christie guidelines suggest ordering investigations for fungal infections (e.g. HRCT) rather than blindly initiating antifungal therapy. In selected patients, G-CSF may be beneficial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 50
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of dyspareunia, irregular menstrual cycles for the past 8 months, and missing 3 periods recently. She also reports experiencing sudden hot flashes for the last 4 months. The patient has a history of breast cancer and underwent chemotherapy and radiation. On examination, no abnormalities are found, and her pregnancy test is negative. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Premature ovarian failure
Explanation:Premature Ovarian Insufficiency: Causes and Management
Premature ovarian insufficiency is a condition where menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels occur before the age of 40. It affects approximately 1 in 100 women and can be caused by various factors such as idiopathic reasons, family history, bilateral oophorectomy, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, infection, autoimmune disorders, and resistant ovary syndrome. The symptoms of premature ovarian insufficiency are similar to those of normal menopause, including hot flushes, night sweats, infertility, secondary amenorrhoea, raised FSH and LH levels, and low oestradiol.
Management of premature ovarian insufficiency involves hormone replacement therapy (HRT) or a combined oral contraceptive pill until the age of the average menopause, which is 51 years. It is important to note that HRT does not provide contraception in case spontaneous ovarian activity resumes. Early diagnosis and management of premature ovarian insufficiency can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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