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  • Question 1 - A 7-year-old girl visits her pediatrician with her father due to difficulty falling...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl visits her pediatrician with her father due to difficulty falling asleep at night caused by an itchy bottom. She is an active and healthy child who attends school regularly and enjoys playing with friends in the park. She has received all her vaccinations up to date. What is the recommended first-line treatment for her most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ivermectin

      Correct Answer: Mebendazole

      Explanation:

      Mebendazole is the recommended first-line treatment for threadworm infestations. This particular case presents with typical symptoms of a threadworm infection, which is a common helminth in children. The infection is usually acquired through the ingestion of eggs found in the environment, often from touching soil and then putting hands in the mouth. While the infection is often asymptomatic, it can cause perianal itching, especially at night. Diagnosis is often made empirically, and treatment typically involves hygiene recommendations and mebendazole.

      Diethylcarbamazine is an anti-helminthic medication used to treat filarial infections, such as those caused by Wuchereria bancrofti (which can lead to elephantiasis) and Toxocara canis (which can cause visceral larva migrans and retinal granulomas).

      Ivermectin is another antiparasitic drug, but it is used to treat Strongyloides stercoralis infections, which can cause symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and papulovesicular lesions where the skin has been penetrated by infective larvae.

      Metronidazole, on the other hand, is an antibiotic used to treat a variety of bacterial infections, such as gingivitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, syphilis, and bacterial vaginosis. It is not effective in treating threadworms.

      Threadworm Infestation in Children

      Threadworm infestation, caused by Enterobius vermicularis or pinworms, is a common occurrence among children in the UK. The infestation happens when eggs present in the environment are ingested. In most cases, threadworm infestation is asymptomatic, but some possible symptoms include perianal itching, especially at night, and vulval symptoms in girls. Diagnosis can be made by applying Sellotape to the perianal area and sending it to the laboratory for microscopy to see the eggs. However, most patients are treated empirically, and this approach is supported in the CKS guidelines.

      The CKS recommends a combination of anthelmintic with hygiene measures for all members of the household. Mebendazole is the first-line treatment for children over six months old, and a single dose is given unless the infestation persists. It is essential to treat all members of the household to prevent re-infection. Proper hygiene measures, such as washing hands regularly, keeping fingernails short, and washing clothes and bedding at high temperatures, can also help prevent the spread of threadworm infestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 2 - You are working on the neonatal ward and are called to see a...

    Incorrect

    • You are working on the neonatal ward and are called to see a newborn who the nurses have noticed is persistently 'floppy'. You assess the newborn and find no acute cause for concern and wonder whether there might be an underlying issue.
      Which of the following is most likely to be the underlying cause of neonatal hypotonia in this case?

      Your Answer: Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy

      Correct Answer: Prader-Willi syndrome

      Explanation:

      Prader-Willi is one of the conditions that can cause neonatal hypotonia, along with neonatal sepsis, spinal muscular atrophy, and hypothyroidism.

      Understanding Neonatal Hypotonia and Its Causes

      Neonatal hypotonia is a condition characterized by low muscle tone in newborns. This can be caused by various factors, including neonatal sepsis, Werdnig-Hoffman disease (spinal muscular atrophy type 1), hypothyroidism, and Prader-Willi syndrome. Maternal factors such as drug use, particularly benzodiazepines, and myasthenia gravis can also contribute to neonatal hypotonia.

      Neonatal hypotonia can have serious consequences, including difficulty with feeding and breathing, delayed motor development, and even death in severe cases. It is important for healthcare providers to identify the underlying cause of hypotonia in newborns and provide appropriate treatment to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

      Understanding the potential causes of neonatal hypotonia can help healthcare providers make an accurate diagnosis and develop an effective treatment plan. With proper care and management, many newborns with hypotonia can go on to lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 3 - An infant born with trisomy 21 begins to vomit shortly after his first...

    Correct

    • An infant born with trisomy 21 begins to vomit shortly after his first feed. The emesis is green and occurs after each subsequent feeding. His abdomen is also distended, most noticeably in the epigastrum. A baby-gram demonstrates a ‘double bubble’ in the abdomen.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Duodenal atresia

      Explanation:

      Neonatal Bilious Vomiting: Differential Diagnosis

      Neonates with bilious vomiting present a diagnostic challenge, as there are several potential causes. In the case of a neonate with trisomy 21, the following conditions should be considered:

      1. Duodenal atresia: This condition is characterized by narrowing of the duodenum, leading to bilious vomiting after feeding. Abdominal X-rays show a double bubble sign, indicating normal gastric bubble and duodenal dilation proximal to the obstruction.

      2. Biliary atresia: This condition involves a blind-ended biliary tree and can cause indigestion, impaired fat absorption, and jaundice due to bile retention.

      3. Pyloric stenosis: This condition is characterized by thickening of the gastric smooth muscle at the pylorus, leading to forceful, non-bilious vomiting within the first month of life. An olive-shaped mass may be felt on abdominal examination.

      4. Tracheoesophageal fistula: This condition involves a communication between the trachea and esophagus, leading to pulmonary infection due to aspiration and abdominal distension due to air entering the stomach.

      5. Imperforate anus: This condition is suggested when the neonate does not pass meconium within the first few days of life.

      A thorough evaluation, including imaging studies and surgical consultation, is necessary to determine the underlying cause of neonatal bilious vomiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 4 - A 4-day-old neonate born prematurely at 33 weeks' gestation has been experiencing difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-day-old neonate born prematurely at 33 weeks' gestation has been experiencing difficulty in weaning off the ventilator. During a physical examination, a continuous heart murmur was detected. An echocardiogram revealed the presence of a patent ductus arteriosus, while no other structural heart abnormalities were found. Additionally, a chest x-ray showed cardiomegaly and mildly congested lung fields. What is the recommended initial treatment for managing this condition?

      Your Answer: Prostaglandins

      Correct Answer: Indomethacin

      Explanation:

      Indomethacin and ibuprofen are commonly used to promote closure of the patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), a condition where the ductus arteriosus (DA) fails to close after birth. This can result in a left-to-right shunt of oxygenated blood from the descending aorta to the pulmonary artery, leading to pulmonary edema, particularly in preterm infants. The DA allows blood from the right ventricle to bypass the non-functioning lungs in the developing fetus, and endogenous prostaglandins maintain its patency. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs inhibit prostaglandin synthesis, accelerating DA closure and serving as an effective non-surgical treatment. Surgery is only considered if non-surgical measures fail. Beta-blockers have no role in treating PDA, and intravenous fluids are not beneficial and may worsen heart failure.

      Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.

      The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 5 - A 3-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his mother. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his mother. She reports a 3 hour history of a non-blanching rash all over his body. She also mentions that he has been more fussy than usual and has been refusing to eat.
      Upon examination, the baby has a temperature of 38.9ºC and a non-blanching petechial rash with overall hypotonia. The anterior fontanelle is also bulging.
      Based on the likely diagnosis and appropriate investigation, what would be the most suitable initial management option?

      Your Answer: IV cefotaxime, IV amoxicillin and IV dexamethasone

      Correct Answer: IV cefotaxime and IV amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      When dealing with suspected or confirmed bacterial meningitis in children under 3 months old, it is not recommended to use corticosteroids. Instead, the most appropriate treatment option would be a combination of IV cefotaxime and IV amoxicillin. IV cefotaxime is effective in covering for pneumococcal and haemophilus influenzae, but since children under 3 months are at risk of listeria monocytogenes as a cause of bacterial meningitis, amoxicillin is necessary to provide adequate coverage. It is important to note that IV dexamethasone is typically given to patients with bacterial meningitis to reduce the risk of neurological complications, but this is not recommended for children under 3 months old.

      Investigation and Management of Meningitis in Children

      Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children. When investigating meningitis, it is important to note any contraindications to lumbar puncture, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, focal neurological signs, papilloedema, significant bulging of the fontanelle, disseminated intravascular coagulation, or signs of cerebral herniation. For patients with meningococcal septicaemia, a lumbar puncture is contraindicated, and blood cultures and PCR for meningococcus should be obtained instead.

      The management of meningitis in children involves administering antibiotics, such as IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin) and IV cefotaxime for children under three months, and IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) for children over three months. Steroids should be considered if the lumbar puncture reveals certain findings, such as purulent cerebrospinal fluid, a high white blood cell count, or bacteria on Gram stain. Fluids should be administered to treat shock, and cerebral monitoring should be conducted, including mechanical ventilation if necessary.

      It is also important to notify public health authorities and administer antibiotic prophylaxis to contacts. Ciprofloxacin is now preferred over rifampicin for this purpose. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of meningitis in children is crucial for ensuring the best possible outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 6 - A father attends his GP to discuss concerns he has about his 12-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • A father attends his GP to discuss concerns he has about his 12-year-old daughter. Since the age of three, she has had a lot of routines, such as how she organizes her toys and which way she walks to school, and is very rigid about following them. She does not cope at all well with changes to the routine. She struggles to make friends and seems very uncomfortable in social situations. Apart from going to school, she avoids meeting children; she has been to a few birthday parties, but she was very clingy to her father and demanded to be taken home after a few minutes. On examination, the GP is unable to build a rapport with the girl, as she refuses to speak and will not maintain eye contact. She appears fidgety and gets up and down out of her chair on several occasions to try and leave the room. You suspect a diagnosis but advise her father that more assessment will be needed to confirm a diagnosis.

      The sign to support the diagnosis is the child's rigid adherence to routines and difficulty coping with changes to the routine, as well as their struggles with social situations and avoidance of meeting other children.

      Your Answer: Mainly parallel play aged two years

      Correct Answer: Less than ten spoken words by age two years

      Explanation:

      Developmental Milestones and Red Flags in Early Childhood

      By the age of two years, children should be using 50 or more words. If they do not meet this milestone, there may be a social, speech or hearing issue that needs to be assessed by a paediatric team. Lack of spoken words could be a sign of autistic spectrum disorder (ASD).

      A lack of social smile by age three months is considered abnormal and could indicate a social, visual, or cognitive problem. However, it may also signal ASD in some cases.

      Parallel play is normal behavior for two-year-olds. They will happily play next to each other but rarely play with each other. It isn’t until the age of three when they usually start to involve other children in playing.

      Separation anxiety from parents or carers at age ten months is normal behavior. Children can become upset if they are not with their parents or carer until the new person becomes more familiar to them, usually between the ages of six months and three years.

      Temper tantrums at age 18 months are normal behavior. However, if these tantrums persist into later childhood, it could indicate a social or developmental problem.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 7 - A 4-year-old girl comes to the doctor's office complaining of nightly coughing fits...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl comes to the doctor's office complaining of nightly coughing fits over the past 2 weeks. She has an inspiratory whoop and noisy breathing, but no signs of cyanosis or other abnormalities during the physical exam. The doctor diagnoses her with whooping cough. What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Admission with supportive therapy

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, if a patient has developed a cough within the last 21 days and does not require hospitalization, macrolide antibiotics such as azithromycin or clarithromycin should be prescribed for children over 1 month old and non-pregnant adults. In this case, the patient does not meet the criteria for hospitalization due to their age, breathing difficulties, or complications. Along with antibiotics, patients should be advised to rest, stay hydrated, and use pain relievers like paracetamol or ibuprofen for symptom relief.

      Whooping Cough: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Whooping cough, also known as pertussis, is a contagious disease caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. It is commonly found in children, with around 1,000 cases reported annually in the UK. The disease is characterized by a persistent cough that can last up to 100 days, hence the name cough of 100 days.

      Infants are particularly vulnerable to whooping cough, which is why routine immunization is recommended at 2, 3, 4 months, and 3-5 years. However, neither infection nor immunization provides lifelong protection, and adolescents and adults may still develop the disease.

      Whooping cough has three phases: the catarrhal phase, the paroxysmal phase, and the convalescent phase. The catarrhal phase lasts around 1-2 weeks and presents symptoms similar to a viral upper respiratory tract infection. The paroxysmal phase is characterized by a severe cough that worsens at night and after feeding, and may be accompanied by vomiting and central cyanosis. The convalescent phase is when the cough subsides over weeks to months.

      To diagnose whooping cough, a person must have an acute cough that has lasted for 14 days or more without another apparent cause, and have one or more of the following features: paroxysmal cough, inspiratory whoop, post-tussive vomiting, or undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants. A nasal swab culture for Bordetella pertussis is used to confirm the diagnosis, although PCR and serology are increasingly used.

      Infants under 6 months with suspected pertussis should be admitted, and in the UK, pertussis is a notifiable disease. An oral macrolide, such as clarithromycin, azithromycin, or erythromycin, is indicated if the onset of the cough is within the previous 21 days to eradicate the organism and reduce the spread. Household contacts should be offered antibiotic prophylaxis, although antibiotic therapy has not been shown to alter the course of the illness. School exclusion is recommended for 48 hours after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are given.

      Complications of whooping cough include subconjunctival haemorrhage, pneumonia, bronchiectasis, and

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 8 - A 35 year old pregnant woman undergoes routine pregnancy screening blood tests and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old pregnant woman undergoes routine pregnancy screening blood tests and is found to have an elevated alpha-fetoprotein level. This prompts investigation with ultrasound scanning. The scan reveals a fetus with an anterior abdominal wall defect and mass protruding through, which appears to still be covered with an amniotic sac. What is the standard course of action for managing this condition, based on the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Caesarian section and immediate repair

      Correct Answer: Caesarian section and staged repair

      Explanation:

      If a fetus is diagnosed with exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to lower the risk of sac rupture. Elevated levels of alpha-fetoprotein may indicate abdominal wall defects. The appropriate course of action is a caesarian section with staged repair, as this reduces the risk of sac rupture and surgery is not urgent. Immediate repair during caesarian section would only be necessary if the sac had ruptured. Vaginal delivery with immediate repair is only recommended for gastroschisis, as immediate surgery is required due to the lack of a protective sac. Therefore, the other two options are incorrect.

      Gastroschisis and exomphalos are both types of congenital visceral malformations. Gastroschisis refers to a defect in the anterior abdominal wall located just beside the umbilical cord. In contrast, exomphalos, also known as omphalocele, involves the protrusion of abdominal contents through the anterior abdominal wall, which are covered by an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.

      When it comes to managing gastroschisis, vaginal delivery may be attempted, but newborns should be taken to the operating theatre as soon as possible after delivery, ideally within four hours. As for exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to reduce the risk of sac rupture. In cases where primary closure is difficult due to lack of space or high intra-abdominal pressure, a staged repair may be undertaken. This involves allowing the sac to granulate and epithelialise over several weeks or months, forming a shell. As the infant grows, the sac contents will eventually fit within the abdominal cavity, at which point the shell can be removed and the abdomen closed.

      Overall, both gastroschisis and exomphalos require careful management to ensure the best possible outcome for the newborn. By understanding the differences between these two conditions and the appropriate steps to take, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support to both the infant and their family.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 9 - A 9-year-old girl presents with a 1-day history of abdominal pain. Her mother...

    Correct

    • A 9-year-old girl presents with a 1-day history of abdominal pain. Her mother reports that the pain woke the child up this morning, with one episode of vomiting this afternoon, and she has since lost her appetite. She has had no fever or diarrhoea. There is no history of foreign travel and no ill contacts. On examination, the temperature is 37.5 °C and heart rate (HR) 123 bpm, and there is generalised abdominal tenderness, without guarding or rigidity. Urine dip is negative, and blood tests show white cell count (WCC) of 15 with C-reactive protein (CRP) of 10.
      What would the next best step in management be?

      Your Answer: Nil by mouth, intravenous fluids and review

      Explanation:

      Management of Appendicitis in Children: Nil by Mouth, Laparoscopy, and Monitoring

      Appendicitis in children can present with atypical symptoms, such as general abdominal pain, anorexia, and vomiting, accompanied by a low-grade fever. If a child presents with these symptoms, it is important to suspect appendicitis and admit the child for monitoring.

      The first line of management is to keep the child nil by mouth and monitor their condition closely. If the child’s pain worsens or their condition deteriorates, a diagnostic or Exploratory laparoscopy may be necessary, with or without an appendicectomy.

      While a laparotomy may be necessary in emergency situations where the child is haemodynamically unstable, a laparoscopic appendicectomy is usually the preferred option.

      An abdominal X-ray is not the best diagnostic tool for appendicitis, but it can rule out bowel perforation and free pneumoperitoneum. Ultrasound is the preferred modality for children due to the lower radiation dose compared to CT scans.

      It is crucial to monitor the child’s condition closely and prevent any complications from a perforated appendix. Discharge with oral analgesia is not recommended if the child is tachycardic and has a low-grade fever, as these symptoms can be associated with peritonitis. Overall, early recognition and prompt management are essential in the successful treatment of appendicitis in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 10 - A 13-year-old girl visits her GP with worries about not having started her...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl visits her GP with worries about not having started her periods yet, unlike her peers. During the examination, the GP notes that she is 143cm tall and has several melanocytic naevi on her arms. She also holds her arms at a wide carrying angle when at rest. There is no relevant family history and her cardiovascular examination is normal. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Familial atypical multiple mole melanoma syndrome

      Correct Answer: Turner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Turner’s Syndrome

      Turner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is denoted as 45,XO or 45,X.

      The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (15%), coarctation of the aorta (5-10%), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is much more common in Turner’s syndrome, and there is also an increased incidence of autoimmune disease (especially autoimmune thyroiditis) and Crohn’s disease.

      In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and can cause a range of physical features and health issues. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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