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  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old pregnant woman is undergoing screening for gestational diabetes. She has no...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old pregnant woman is undergoing screening for gestational diabetes. She has no significant medical history and this is her first pregnancy. During the screening, her fasting blood glucose level is measured at 7.2 mmol/L.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this situation?

      Your Answer: Start insulin only

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate course of action for gestational diabetes is to commence insulin immediately if the fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/L at the time of diagnosis. While lifestyle changes and co-prescribing metformin should also be discussed, starting insulin is the priority. This is in line with NICE guidelines, which recommend immediate insulin initiation (with or without metformin) and lifestyle advice for glucose levels between 6 and 6.9 mmol/L, especially if there are complications such as macrosomia or hydramnios.

      Re-checking the glucose level in two weeks is not appropriate as uncontrolled hyperglycaemia can be dangerous for both the mother and the unborn child.

      Starting exenatide is not recommended during pregnancy as there is insufficient data on its safety. Studies in mice have shown adverse effects on fetal and neonatal growth and skeletal development.

      Starting metformin alone is not sufficient if the fasting glucose level is greater than 7 mmol/L. However, metformin can be prescribed in combination with insulin.

      A trial of lifestyle changes alone is not appropriate if the fasting glucose level is already above 7 mmol/L. If the level is below 7 mmol/L, lifestyle changes can be tried for 1-2 weeks, and if glucose targets are not met, metformin can be offered.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.

      To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.

      For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.

      Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 30-year-old man typically takes his medication without water. He reports experiencing pain...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man typically takes his medication without water. He reports experiencing pain in his lower sternum when swallowing.
      Which medication is the most probable cause of this symptom?

      Your Answer: Doxycycline

      Explanation:

      Doxycycline-Induced Oesophagal Ulcer: Symptoms, Treatment, and Prevention

      Doxycycline-induced oesophagal ulcer is a condition that affects mostly young people with no history of oesophagal dysfunction. The most common symptoms include heartburn, midsternal pain, and dysphagia. Fortunately, the symptoms usually resolve within a few days of stopping doxycycline. However, in severe cases, complete recovery may take longer than two weeks.

      To minimize the risk of oesophagitis, it is best to take doxycycline with a meal. Alternatively, it can be taken with a large glass of water or other fluid, and the patient should then remain upright for at least 30 minutes. It is also worth noting that doxycycline can be taken with food with minimal effect on absorption.

      It is important to be aware that other drugs can cause oesophagitis, including other tetracyclines, clindamycin, potassium chloride, bisphosphonates, and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. Therefore, it is crucial to consult a healthcare professional before taking any medication and to follow their instructions carefully.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old man presents with a 6-month history of fatigue and muscle weakness....

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents with a 6-month history of fatigue and muscle weakness. He reports difficulty swallowing and has lost 2kg. He struggles with standing up from a seated position and ascending stairs. Upon examination, you note mildly tender and weak proximal muscles with intact reflexes. Laboratory results reveal a significantly elevated creatine kinase level.

      What is the definitive diagnostic test for confirming this condition?

      Your Answer: Muscle biopsy

      Explanation:

      To confirm a diagnosis of polymyositis, medical professionals typically rely on EMG and muscle biopsy. The condition is characterized by a gradual and painless weakening of the proximal muscles, and patients typically exhibit a significant increase in creatine kinase levels. A muscle biopsy is considered the most reliable diagnostic test for polymyositis.

      Polymyositis is an inflammatory condition that causes weakness in the muscles, particularly in the proximal areas. It is believed to be caused by T-cell mediated cytotoxic processes that target muscle fibers. This condition can be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders and is often linked to malignancy. Dermatomyositis is a variant of this disease that is characterized by prominent skin manifestations, such as a purple rash on the cheeks and eyelids. It typically affects middle-aged individuals, with a female to male ratio of 3:1.

      The symptoms of polymyositis include proximal muscle weakness, which may be accompanied by tenderness. Other symptoms may include Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, and dysphagia or dysphonia. Interstitial lung disease, such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia, may also occur in around 20% of patients, which is a poor prognostic indicator.

      To diagnose polymyositis, doctors may perform various tests, including measuring elevated creatine kinase levels and other muscle enzymes, such as lactate dehydrogenase, aldolase, AST, and ALT. An EMG and muscle biopsy may also be performed. Additionally, anti-synthetase antibodies and anti-Jo-1 antibodies may be present in patients with lung involvement, Raynaud’s, and fever.

      The management of polymyositis typically involves high-dose corticosteroids, which are tapered as symptoms improve. Azathioprine may also be used as a steroid-sparing agent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Whilst completing your medical reports one afternoon, you are disturbed by one of...

    Incorrect

    • Whilst completing your medical reports one afternoon, you are disturbed by one of the receptionists who is shouting for help.
      You run into the reception area to find the mother of a 7-month-old child shouting that her child has been stung by a bee. The practice nurse is preparing to give oxygen.
      The child appears distressed and has stridor. The lips are swollen. You have made a quick ABC assessment, diagnosed anaphylaxis and decided to give adrenaline. Beside the child, your practice nurse has opened the emergency bag and you are presented with vials of epinephrine (adrenaline) 1:1000 solution.
      How much of this epinephrine would you administer?

      Your Answer: 0.15 ml

      Correct Answer: 0.05 ml

      Explanation:

      Anaphylactic Reactions: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Anaphylactic reactions can vary in severity and may be delayed by several hours. The most common triggers are foods, bee and wasp stings, and drugs. Symptoms may include itching, redness, and swelling. Beta-blockers can worsen the reaction by blocking the response to adrenaline. Unlike a vasovagal attack, anaphylaxis is usually accompanied by a rapid heartbeat.

      Initial management of anaphylaxis involves administering high-flow oxygen, laying the patient flat, and elevating their legs to combat hypotension. If the patient is experiencing respiratory distress or shock, epinephrine should be given intramuscularly. It is recommended that practices have vials of epinephrine 1:1000 solution on hand, along with the necessary syringes and needles.

      The recommended doses of epinephrine vary by age, with adults and children over 12 years receiving 0.5 ml (500 micrograms), children aged 6-12 receiving 0.3 ml (300 micrograms), and children under 6 receiving 0.15 ml (150 micrograms). Chlorpheniramine and hydrocortisone may also be given intramuscularly, but hydrocortisone is of secondary value in the initial management of anaphylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following side-effects is often overlooked in individuals undergoing ciclosporin treatment?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following side-effects is often overlooked in individuals undergoing ciclosporin treatment?

      Your Answer: Hyperplasia of the gum

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Ciclosporin usage leads to an increase in various bodily functions such as fluid retention, blood pressure, potassium levels, hair growth, gum health, and glucose levels. Interestingly, hyperkalaemia is more commonly observed than hypokalaemia with the use of ciclosporin.

      Understanding Ciclosporin: An Immunosuppressant Drug

      Ciclosporin is a medication that is used as an immunosuppressant. It works by reducing the clonal proliferation of T cells by decreasing the release of IL-2. The drug binds to cyclophilin, forming a complex that inhibits calcineurin, a phosphatase that activates various transcription factors in T cells.

      Despite its effectiveness, Ciclosporin has several adverse effects. It can cause nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, fluid retention, hypertension, hyperkalaemia, hypertrichosis, gingival hyperplasia, tremors, impaired glucose tolerance, hyperlipidaemia, and increased susceptibility to severe infection. However, it is interesting to note that Ciclosporin is virtually non-myelotoxic, which means it doesn’t affect the bone marrow.

      Ciclosporin is used to treat various conditions such as following organ transplantation, rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, ulcerative colitis, and pure red cell aplasia. It has a direct effect on keratinocytes and modulates T cell function, making it an effective treatment for psoriasis.

      In conclusion, Ciclosporin is a potent immunosuppressant drug that can effectively treat various conditions. However, it is essential to monitor patients for adverse effects and adjust the dosage accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A study compares suicide rates between two groups of patients taking antidepressants, the...

    Incorrect

    • A study compares suicide rates between two groups of patients taking antidepressants, the under-30 age group and over-50 age group, to see if one group has a higher suicide rate. The patients are selected by a search based on BNF section 4.3 (Antidepressant drugs). The following results are obtained, compared with patients not taking these drugs:
      Odds ratio in under-30s 1.53 (0.91 - 2.03)
      Odds ratio in over-50s 0.66 (0.54 - 0.95)
      Select from the list the single conclusion that can be drawn from the information provided.

      Your Answer: The results show a statistically significant increase in risk of suicide in under-18s

      Correct Answer: Both groups are prone to bias due to the class effect of different drugs

      Explanation:

      Potential Bias in Comparing Patient Groups Based on Antidepressant Use

      When comparing patient groups based on their use of antidepressants, there is a risk of bias due to the varying side-effects of different drugs and their different usage in different age groups. For instance, younger patients are typically prescribed selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, while tricyclics are more commonly used in elderly patients. These drugs have different modes of action and side-effect profiles, which can affect the results of the comparison.

      It is important to note that the statistical significance of the results may vary depending on the age group being studied. For example, the results for patients over 65 years old may be statistically significant, while those for patients under 18 years old may not be. Additionally, it is important to remember that odds ratios compare the risk in an intervention group with controls, not with another intervention group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      53.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old man has become withdrawn and is receiving messages via the television....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man has become withdrawn and is receiving messages via the television. You suspect he may have schizophrenia.
      Select from the list the single correct statement regarding the treatment of schizophrenia.

      Your Answer: Clozapine is indicated for treatment-resistant schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic Medication for Schizophrenia: Types, Side-Effects, and Treatment Options

      Antipsychotic medication is commonly used to alleviate the symptoms of schizophrenia, particularly positive symptoms. However, they may not be as effective for negative symptoms. Newer or atypical antipsychotics, such as amisulpride, aripiprazole, clozapine, olanzapine, quetiapine, risperidone, and sertindole, are often preferred as they have a better balance between efficacy and side-effects.

      First-generation antipsychotic drugs, also known as typical antipsychotics, primarily block dopamine D2 receptors in the brain, which can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms and elevated prolactin. Second-generation antipsychotic drugs, or atypical antipsychotics, act on a wider range of receptors and have more distinct clinical profiles. Both types of antipsychotics are effective in treating schizophrenia.

      Early treatment is recommended to prevent further deterioration of brain functioning. In some cases, long-acting antipsychotic injections may be used to improve compliance. Benzodiazepines may also be used as a short-term adjunct therapy for behavior disturbances, insomnia, aggression, and agitation, although the evidence supporting this is limited.

      Clozapine is indicated for patients with schizophrenia who are unresponsive to or intolerant of conventional antipsychotic drugs. It can only be prescribed by a specialist and requires at least two previous trials of antipsychotics, including one newer/atypical antipsychotic, at adequate dosages and treatment periods. However, it carries a risk of life-threatening neutropenia as a potential side-effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old woman complains of tingling in her right hand that sometimes disturbs...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman complains of tingling in her right hand that sometimes disturbs her sleep at night. She usually shakes her hand to alleviate the symptoms, which disappear entirely. She has a history of uncontrolled type 2 diabetes and breast cancer.

      During the examination, there is no evidence of deformity or wasting, and she has good strength throughout her hand. The symptoms are reproduced by performing forced wrist flexion.

      What is the best initial course of action?

      Your Answer: Wrist splinting

      Explanation:

      For patients with mild-moderate symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome, conservative treatment with a wrist splint, with or without a steroid injection, should be attempted first. In this case, the woman’s symptoms suggest carpal tunnel syndrome and therefore, first-line management should involve conservative treatment before symptoms worsen. While amitriptyline may be useful for neuropathic pain, it is not the appropriate treatment in this case. Paracetamol and topical NSAIDs may be suitable for osteoarthritis involving the hands, but this presentation doesn’t suggest osteoarthritis. Surgical decompression may be necessary if symptoms worsen, but it is not the first-line treatment for mild-moderate symptoms. While a steroid injection may be appropriate when used in conjunction with wrist splinting, it is not typically the first-line treatment.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. This can cause pain and pins and needles sensations in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even travel up the arm. Patients may shake their hand to alleviate the discomfort, especially at night. During an examination, weakness in thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence may be observed. Tapping on the affected area may also cause paraesthesia, and flexing the wrist can trigger symptoms.

      There are several potential causes of carpal tunnel syndrome, including idiopathic factors, pregnancy, oedema, lunate fractures, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may reveal prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves. Treatment options may include a six-week trial of conservative measures such as wrist splints at night or corticosteroid injections. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression may be necessary, which involves dividing the flexor retinaculum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      34.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 16-month-old boy recently treated for constipation is seen for review.

    Six weeks ago,...

    Correct

    • A 16-month-old boy recently treated for constipation is seen for review.

      Six weeks ago, his parents brought him in and he was diagnosed with constipation. He was prescribed Movicol® Paediatric Plain sachets and given dietary advice. Following this, the child was able to open his bowels regularly with soft, well-formed stools.

      Two weeks ago, the parents stopped the laxative and the child has once again developed problems. On further questioning, he is opening his bowels maximum twice a week and the stools are described as hard balls.

      What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer: Restart the Movicol® Paediatric Plain but continue treatment for a longer period before slowly tapering

      Explanation:

      Importance of Continuing Laxative Treatment for Children with Constipation

      Early and abrupt cessation of treatment is the most common cause of relapse in children with constipation. Once a regular pattern of bowel habit is established, maintenance laxative should be continued for several weeks and gradually tapered off over a period of months based on stool consistency and frequency. It may take up to six months of maintenance treatment to retrain the bowel, and some children may require laxative treatment for several years.

      The use of Movicol® Paediatric Plain sachets has been effective in establishing regular soft stools, but discontinuing the treatment has caused the problem to resurface. It is not recommended to switch to an alternative laxative or combine Movicol® Paediatric Plain with a stimulant laxative. The best approach is to restart the same laxative and continue its use for a longer period before tapering cautiously.

      At this point, there is no need for referral to a pediatrician or blood tests. However, it is important to emphasize the importance of continuing laxative treatment as prescribed to prevent relapse and maintain regular bowel habits in children with constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      29.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which one of the following is a notifiable disease in the UK? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is a notifiable disease in the UK?

      Your Answer: Listeria

      Correct Answer: Tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Notifiable Diseases in the UK

      In the UK, certain diseases are considered notifiable, meaning that the Local Health Protection Team must be notified if a case is suspected or confirmed. These diseases are then reported to the Health Protection Agency on a weekly basis. Notifiable diseases include acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, COVID-19, diphtheria, enteric fever, food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome, infectious bloody diarrhoea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, Legionnaires Disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, severe acute respiratory syndrome, scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever, whooping cough, and yellow fever.

      It is important to note that HIV is not a notifiable disease in the UK. Additionally, in April 2010, dysentery, ophthalmia neonatorum, leptospirosis, and relapsing fever were removed from the list of notifiable diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 64-year-old man visits his primary care physician for a blood pressure check-up....

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old man visits his primary care physician for a blood pressure check-up. He has a medical history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and ischemic heart disease.

      The patient is currently taking the following medications:
      - Ramipril 10 mg once daily
      - Amlodipine 10 mg once daily
      - Bendroflumethiazide 2.5mg once daily
      - Atorvastatin 80 mg once daily
      - Aspirin 75 mg once daily

      The most recent change to his blood pressure medication was the addition of bendroflumethiazide 6 months ago, which has reduced his average home systolic readings by approximately 15 mmHg. The average of home blood pressure monitoring over the past two weeks is now 160/82 mmHg.

      A blood test is conducted, and the results show:
      - K+ 4.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)

      After ruling out secondary causes of hypertension, what is the next course of action in managing his blood pressure?

      Your Answer: Add spironolactone 25 mg orally once daily

      Correct Answer: Add atenolol 25 mg orally once daily

      Explanation:

      The patient has poorly controlled hypertension despite taking an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and a standard-dose thiazide diuretic. As their potassium levels are above 4.5mmol/l, it is recommended to add an alpha- or beta-blocker to their medication regimen. According to the 2019 NICE guidelines, this stage is considered treatment resistance hypertension, and the GP should also assess for adherence to medication and postural drop. If blood pressure remains high, referral to a specialist or adding a fourth drug may be necessary. Bendroflumethiazide should not be stopped as it has been effective in lowering blood pressure. Atenolol is a suitable beta-blocker to start with, and a reasonable starting dose is 25 mg, which can be adjusted based on the patient’s response. Spironolactone should only be considered if potassium levels are below 4.5mmol/l.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      46.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 28-year-old woman presents with a five-day history of lower abdominal/pelvic pain and...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with a five-day history of lower abdominal/pelvic pain and a raised temperature. She had an IUCD inserted two weeks ago. On examination, a pregnancy test is negative, she has a small amount of vaginal discharge, and there are white blood cells present on dipstick test of her urine. What is the probable cause of these symptoms in this patient?

      Your Answer: Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of PID Following IUCD Insertion

      The most probable diagnosis in cases of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is following the insertion of an intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD). To support the diagnosis, swabs should be taken, although negative results do not necessarily rule out PID if there are clinical indications.

      Expert opinions differ on whether to remove the IUCD at the time of presentation. However, if symptoms persist after 72 hours, the IUCD should be removed. Proper diagnosis and management of PID following IUCD insertion are crucial to prevent complications and ensure the patient’s well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 68-year-old man has a well-demarcated, raised, tender, erythematous area on his left...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man has a well-demarcated, raised, tender, erythematous area on his left shin. It has appeared in the last 48 hours. His temperature is 38.5 °C. The left lower leg has evidence of varicose skin changes and excoriation.
      What is the most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Cellulitis: Streptococcus, Staphylococcus, Herpes Simplex Virus, Pseudomonas, and Varicella Zoster Virus

      Cellulitis is a common skin infection that is characterized by a red, tender area of skin associated with a fever. The most common pathogen causing cellulitis is streptococcus, which can enter the body through excoriated skin. Staphylococcus can also cause cellulitis, but it is less common than streptococcus. Herpes simplex virus typically causes cold sores or genital warts, and can be inoculated into abrasions, but this would produce a vesicular rash. Pseudomonas is not a common pathogen in cellulitis, but can occur following puncture wounds or in immunocompromised people. Varicella zoster virus causes Chickenpox and shingles, but neither of these descriptions are seen in cellulitis. Understanding the different causes of cellulitis can help with proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 32-year-old male smoker presents with sudden and severe pain on the left...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old male smoker presents with sudden and severe pain on the left side of his head, which has occurred four times this week. He reports that the pain is not throbbing and denies any visual disturbances or aura. Upon examination, there is profuse rhinorrhea, lacrimation, and swelling of the left eyelid. Additionally, the patient has partial ptosis and miosis on the left side. Further questioning reveals that both the patient and his father experience this pain every two years or so. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      This case depicts the manifestation of a cluster headache, which is accompanied by several risk factors such as being a young male smoker with a positive family history. The occurrence of partial Horner’s syndrome is a common symptom in cluster headaches, but the primary autonomic symptoms are rhinorrhoea, nasal congestion, and lacrimation.

      Although the absence of visual disturbances like photophobia or blurred vision makes acute closed-angle glaucoma less probable, it is still advisable to consider this condition in such a presentation.

      While it is possible to have migraines without aura, the non-throbbing nature of the pain makes this diagnosis less likely.

      The one-sided pain distribution is inconsistent with a typical tension headache, which is usually described as a ‘tight band’ around the head.

      The sudden onset and recurrence every two years make the presence of a brain tumour less likely.

      Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.

      To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 29-year-old man who has recently moved to the UK from Uganda presents...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old man who has recently moved to the UK from Uganda presents with complaints of fatigue and purple skin lesions all over his body. During examination, multiple raised purple lesions are observed on his trunk and arms. Additionally, smaller purple lesions are noticed in his mouth. The patient has recently begun taking acyclovir for herpes zoster infection.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Kaposi's sarcoma

      Explanation:

      The patient’s raised purple lesions suggest Kaposi’s sarcoma, which is often associated with HIV infection. The recent herpes zoster infection also suggests underlying immunocompromise. Other conditions such as dermatofibromas, psoriasis, and drug reactions are unlikely to present in this way, and a haemangioma is less likely than Kaposi’s sarcoma.

      Kaposi’s sarcoma is a type of cancer that is caused by the human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8). It is characterized by the appearance of purple papules or plaques on the skin or mucosa, such as in the gastrointestinal and respiratory tract. These skin lesions may eventually ulcerate, while respiratory involvement can lead to massive haemoptysis and pleural effusion. Treatment options for Kaposi’s sarcoma include radiotherapy and resection. It is commonly seen in patients with HIV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 10-year-old girl presents with her father to the General Practitioner, as her...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl presents with her father to the General Practitioner, as her father is concerned that she may have attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). He reports that she achieves well in school academically but has difficulty taking turns in games at break times and often interrupts the teacher by blurting out the answer to a question before she has finished it. She can get cross with her father at home when he asks her to carry out chores and sometimes gets in physical fights with her sister.
      Which of the following is one of the diagnostic criteria for ADHD and is displayed by this child?

      Your Answer: Impulsivity

      Explanation:

      Understanding ADHD: Symptoms and Diagnostic Criteria

      Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is a neurodevelopmental disorder that affects both children and adults. One of the diagnostic criteria for ADHD is impulsivity, which can manifest as difficulty waiting turns, interrupting others, or blurting out answers prematurely. However, restricted, repetitive behaviors are not a symptom of ADHD but rather a diagnostic criterion for autism spectrum disorder. Similarly, aggression towards people and animals is not a symptom of ADHD but is included in the diagnostic criteria for conduct disorder. Argumentative or defiant behavior is also not a symptom of ADHD but is a diagnostic criterion for oppositional defiant disorder. It is important to note that high educational attainment is not a diagnostic criterion for ADHD, as individuals with ADHD may struggle in school due to inattention and difficulty concentrating. Understanding the symptoms and diagnostic criteria for ADHD can aid in early identification and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      29.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 75-year-old woman presents with fatigue over the past two weeks. Upon examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman presents with fatigue over the past two weeks. Upon examination, there are no notable findings. She has a medical history of polymyalgia rheumatica and ischemic heart disease. After conducting screening blood tests, the full blood count results are as follows:

      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 129 g/l
      - Platelets (Plt): 158 * 109/l
      - White blood cells (WBC): 19.0 * 109/l
      - Neutrophils (Neuts): 4.2 * 109/l
      - Lymphocytes (Lymphs): 14.1 * 109/l

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Secondary to steroid use

      Correct Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      It is highly probable that chronic lymphocytic leukemia is the cause of lymphocytosis in an elderly patient. Neutrophilia is typically caused by steroids. An elderly person experiencing a significant lymphocytosis due to a viral illness would be uncommon.

      Understanding Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. It is caused by the abnormal growth of B-cells, a type of white blood cell. CLL is the most common form of leukaemia in adults and is often asymptomatic, meaning it may be discovered incidentally during routine blood tests. However, some patients may experience symptoms such as weight loss, anorexia, bleeding, infections, and lymphadenopathy.

      To diagnose CLL, doctors typically perform a full blood count to check for lymphocytosis, a condition where there is an abnormally high number of lymphocytes in the blood. Patients may also have anaemia or thrombocytopenia, which can occur due to bone marrow replacement or autoimmune hemolytic anaemia. A blood film may also be taken to look for smudge cells, which are abnormal lymphocytes that appear broken or fragmented.

      The key investigation for CLL diagnosis is immunophenotyping, which involves using a panel of antibodies specific for CD5, CD19, CD20, and CD23. This test helps to identify the type of lymphocyte involved in the cancer and can confirm the diagnosis of CLL. With early detection and proper treatment, patients with CLL can manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 18 - A 40-year-old man presents with painless blood staining of the semen upon ejaculation....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man presents with painless blood staining of the semen upon ejaculation. He reports no recent unprotected sexual intercourse and is in good health otherwise.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer: Epididymitis

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic and self-limiting

      Explanation:

      Understanding Haematospermia: Causes and Symptoms

      Haematospermia, the presence of blood in the ejaculate, is a common and usually benign symptom that can affect men of any age. In about 50% of cases, the cause is unknown and the symptom is self-limiting. However, further investigation may be necessary for men over 40 or those with accompanying symptoms such as perineal pain or abnormal examination findings.

      Other conditions, such as urinary tract infections, epididymitis, hypertension, and prostate cancer, can also cause haematospermia. However, these conditions are usually accompanied by other symptoms such as dysuria, testicular pain, urinary symptoms, penile discharge, headaches, visual disturbance, or are unlikely in a 35-year-old man without any other symptoms.

      It is important to seek medical attention if haematospermia persists or is accompanied by other symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 19 - A 56-year-old man comes to you with concerns about his erectile dysfunction. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man comes to you with concerns about his erectile dysfunction. He has a clean medical history except for a bout of depression that occurred six years ago. What is the accurate statement regarding prescribing sildenafil for him?

      Your Answer: It may be prescribed on the NHS if the patient has a history of diabetes, prostate problems or a neurological disorder under the 'SLS' scheme

      Correct Answer: It may be freely prescribed on the NHS

      Explanation:

      In 2014, sildenafil was removed from the list of restricted medications and can now be prescribed without limitations.

      Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      25.3
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  • Question 20 - Sophie attends a routine check-up with her 12-year-old daughter Lily, who has a...

    Correct

    • Sophie attends a routine check-up with her 12-year-old daughter Lily, who has a history of well-controlled allergies but is otherwise healthy. Lily has received all her routine childhood vaccinations. She has recently received a reminder to have her flu vaccine.

      What other vaccination should Lily receive at her age?

      Your Answer: Human papillomavirus (HPV)

      Explanation:

      Boys in school year 8, aged 12-13, are now eligible to receive the HPV vaccine alongside girls. This vaccine has been added to the routine immunisation schedule for this age group. Therefore, Dominic should receive the HPV vaccine this year. The meningitis ACWY and tetanus, diphtheria and polio vaccines are given at 14 years (school year 9) and are not applicable at this time. Dominic is up to date with his routine immunisations, including the MMR vaccine which is given at 1 year and again at 3 years and 4 months. The pneumococcal vaccine is only offered to 65-year-olds and is not relevant to Dominic’s current situation.

      The human papillomavirus (HPV) is a known carcinogen that infects the skin and mucous membranes. There are numerous strains of HPV, with strains 6 and 11 causing genital warts and strains 16 and 18 linked to various cancers, particularly cervical cancer. HPV infection is responsible for over 99.7% of cervical cancers, and testing for HPV is now a crucial part of cervical cancer screening. Other cancers linked to HPV include anal, vulval, vaginal, mouth, and throat cancers. While there are other risk factors for developing cervical cancer, such as smoking and contraceptive pill use, HPV vaccination is an effective preventative measure.

      The UK introduced an HPV vaccine in 2008, initially using Cervarix, which protected against HPV 16 and 18 but not 6 and 11. This decision was criticized due to the significant disease burden caused by genital warts. In 2012, Gardasil replaced Cervarix as the vaccine used, protecting against HPV 6, 11, 16, and 18. Initially given only to girls, boys were also offered the vaccine from September 2019. The vaccine is offered to all 12- and 13-year-olds in school Year 8, with the option for girls to receive a second dose between 6-24 months after the first. Men who have sex with men under the age of 45 are also recommended to receive the vaccine to protect against anal, throat, and penile cancers.

      Injection site reactions are common with HPV vaccines. It should be noted that parents may not be able to prevent their daughter from receiving the vaccine, as information given to parents and available on the NHS website makes it clear that the vaccine may be administered against parental wishes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 21 - You are conducting a contraceptive evaluation on a 27-year-old female who is presently...

    Correct

    • You are conducting a contraceptive evaluation on a 27-year-old female who is presently using Dianette (co-cyprindiol). During the discussion, you mention the higher risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE) associated with Dianette compared to standard combined oral contraceptive pills (COCP) that contain levonorgestrel. However, the patient is hesitant to switch as her acne has significantly improved since starting Dianette. Can you provide information on the exact increased risk of VTE in comparison to patients taking COCPs containing levonorgestrel?

      Your Answer: Around twice the risk

      Explanation:

      Dianette has a VTE risk that is approximately 1.5-2.0 times higher than that of typical COCPs.

      Co-cyprindiol (Dianette) – Updated Guidance

      Co-cyprindiol, also known as Dianette, is a medication licensed for the treatment of severe acne in women who are unresponsive to prolonged oral antibacterial therapy and moderately severe hirsutism. It is also an effective contraceptive, which has contributed to its popularity. However, some post-marketing studies have shown that some women were being prescribed additional hormonal contraception alongside co-cyprindiol, which is unnecessary and increases the risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE).

      The duration of co-cyprindiol treatment is limited due to concerns about VTE. Interestingly, the increased risk of VTE associated with co-cyprindiol is similar to that of combined oral contraceptive pills (COCPs) containing desogestrel, gestodene, or drospirenone, compared to COCPs containing levonorgestrel. The current evidence suggests that the VTE risk is about 1.5-2.0 times higher. Therefore, it is important to consider the risks and benefits of co-cyprindiol and other COCPs when prescribing them to women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      10.4
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  • Question 22 - A 15-year-old girl, with Down's syndrome, has complained of neck pain. The pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl, with Down's syndrome, has complained of neck pain. The pain began after she fell while playing basketball. Her parents have noticed that she has been experiencing more falls lately.
      During the examination, she displays tenderness throughout her neck muscles and limited neck mobility.

      What is the MOST SUITABLE course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Refer to physiotherapy

      Correct Answer: Refer to on-call orthopaedic spinal team

      Explanation:

      Warning Signs of Craniovertebral Instability in Down’s Syndrome

      Warning signs of craniovertebral instability or myelopathy in individuals with Down’s syndrome include neck pain, abnormal head posture, reduced neck movements, deterioration of gait, increased frequency of falls, and deterioration of manipulative skills. While the term atlantoaxial instability is sometimes used, occipitoatlantal subluxation is also a concern, making craniovertebral instability the preferred term.

      Cervical spine x-rays are often unreliable, and primary care referrals can result in delays in reporting. Therefore, any clinical abnormality should be enough to warrant a referral to a specialist team. While neck exercises, simple analgesia, and physiotherapy may be helpful in cases of muscular neck pain, it is important to rule out craniovertebral instability first. Early detection and intervention can prevent further complications and improve outcomes for individuals with Down’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 23 - A 55-year-old Greek man is found to have a mild microcytic anaemia on...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old Greek man is found to have a mild microcytic anaemia on routine screening. His red cells have low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and mean corpuscular haemoglobin (MCH). Serum ferritin is normal. He has no symptoms.
      What is the most appropriate next management step?

      Your Answer: Upper and/or lower endoscopy

      Correct Answer: Haemoglobin electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      Haemoglobin Electrophoresis: Diagnosis of Thalassaemia Minor

      Thalassaemia is an autosomal-recessive inherited disorder that affects globin chain production, resulting in decreased or absent α or β chains of the normal adult haemoglobin molecule. Homozygous states result in thalassaemia major, which can be fatal. Inheritance of only one affected gene results in a carrier state, called thalassaemia minor or a thalassaemia trait.

      A patient’s ethnic origin and blood picture can help diagnose thalassaemia minor, which is characterized by mild or absent anaemia, hypochromic and microcytic red cells with low MCV and MCH, and normal serum ferritin. Haemoglobin electrophoresis is a useful diagnostic tool that reveals haemoglobin types and their amounts. In people with β-thalassemia, there is reduced or absent production of β-globin chains, resulting in reduced or absent HbA, elevated levels of HbA2, and increased HbF (fetal haemoglobin).

      Other diagnostic tests, such as a barium enema, iron therapy, labelled red-cell scan, and upper and/or lower gastrointestinal endoscopy, are not indicated for thalassaemia minor unless there are coexisting conditions. Haemoglobin electrophoresis remains the gold standard for diagnosing thalassaemia minor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      28.1
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  • Question 24 - A 72-year-old man presents as he has suffered two episodes of syncope in...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents as he has suffered two episodes of syncope in the past three weeks and is feeling increasingly tired. On examination, his pulse is 40 bpm and his BP 100/60 mmHg. An ECG reveals he is in complete heart block.
      What other finding are you most likely to find?

      Your Answer: Narrow pulse pressure

      Correct Answer: Variable S1

      Explanation:

      Characteristics of Complete Heart Block

      Complete heart block is a condition where there is no coordination between the atrial and ventricular contractions. This results in a variable intensity of the first heart sound, which is the closure of the atrioventricular (AV) valves. The blood flow from the atria to the ventricles varies from beat to beat, leading to inconsistent intensity of the first heart sound. Additionally, cannon A waves may be observed in the neck, indicating atrial contraction against closed AV valves.

      Narrow pulse pressure is not a characteristic of complete heart block. It is more commonly associated with aortic valve disease. Similarly, aortic stenosis is not typically linked with complete heart block, although it can cause reversed splitting of S2. Giant V waves are not observed in complete heart block, but they suggest tricuspid regurgitation. Reversed splitting of S2 is also not a defining feature of complete heart block, but it can be found in aortic stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, and left bundle branch block. It is important to note that murmurs may also be present in complete heart block due to concomitant valve disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      13.8
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  • Question 25 - A 35-year-old man is brought to his GP by his partner who is...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man is brought to his GP by his partner who is concerned he may have developed bipolar disorder over the last few months.

      The man experiences periods of 'highs', where he engages in impulsive behavior and sleeps very little. He denies ever having delusions of grandeur. These episodes usually last for a few days, and he has never put himself or others in danger.

      The man also has 'lows' where he experiences severe depression; he feels hopeless, loses interest in his usual activities and sleeps excessively. He is referred to a psychiatrist for further evaluation.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Type 2 bipolar disorder

      Explanation:

      The woman’s symptoms of hypomania alternating with severe depression are indicative of type 2 bipolar disorder. There is no indication of an anxiety disorder in the question. While cyclothymia is characterized by mild symptoms of hypomania and depression lasting at least two years, the severity of the woman’s symptoms suggests type 2 bipolar disorder, even though the symptoms have only been present for one year. Major depressive disorder is not the correct diagnosis as there are also symptoms of hypomania present. Type 1 bipolar disorder is also not the correct answer as the symptoms of the ‘high’ periods are more consistent with hypomania rather than full-blown mania.

      Understanding Bipolar Disorder

      Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.

      Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability. Mania is more severe and involves functional impairment or psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more, while hypomania involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations, suggest mania.

      Management of bipolar disorder involves psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, with valproate as an alternative. Antipsychotic therapy may be used for mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. Co-morbidities, such as diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD, should also be addressed.

      If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. If there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 26 - A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus at the age of 60 develops...

    Correct

    • A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus at the age of 60 develops urinary microalbuminuria (urinary albumin : creatinine ratio > 2.5 mg/mmol for men and > 3.5 mg/mmol for women).
      Which of the following options is likely to confer the most benefit in terms of prognosis?

      Your Answer: Reduce blood pressure to 130/80 mmHg or less using angiotensin converting enzyme(ACE)inhibitors

      Explanation:

      Microalbuminuria in Diabetes Mellitus

      Microalbuminuria is a common occurrence in both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus. It is caused by damage to the renal basement membranes, which allows excess protein to leak into the affected nephrons. In type 1 diabetes, microalbuminuria is a prognostic indicator of chronic kidney disease, while in type 2 diabetes, it is associated with ischaemic heart disease.

      To improve outcomes, it is crucial to aggressively control blood pressure, which is more important than other factors such as HbA1c control. However, HbA1c control should not be ignored. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors are particularly helpful in controlling blood pressure and can even reverse microalbuminuria in affected patients. Therefore, it is essential to monitor and manage microalbuminuria in patients with diabetes mellitus to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      25.1
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  • Question 27 - An 80 year old male underwent an ECG due to palpitations and was...

    Correct

    • An 80 year old male underwent an ECG due to palpitations and was found to have AF with a heart rate of 76 bpm. Upon further evaluation, you determine that he has permanent AF and a history of hypertension. If there are no contraindications, what would be the most suitable initial step to take at this point?

      Your Answer: Direct oral anticoagulant

      Explanation:

      According to the patient’s CHADSVASC2 score, which is 4, they have a high risk of stroke due to factors such as congestive cardiac failure, hypertension, age over 75, and being female. As per NICE guidelines, all patients with a CHADSVASC score of 2 or more should be offered anticoagulation, while taking into account their bleeding risk using the ORBIT score. Direct oral anticoagulants are now preferred over warfarin as the first-line treatment. For men with a score of 1, anticoagulation should be considered. Beta-blockers or a rate-limiting calcium channel blocker should be offered first-line for rate control, while digoxin should only be used for sedentary patients.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.

      When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.

      For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 28 - You receive a 'friend request' on Facebook from a patient of a similar...

    Correct

    • You receive a 'friend request' on Facebook from a patient of a similar age to yourself who you had a consult with earlier that day. What would be the most appropriate course of action to take?

      Your Answer: Decline friendship request and write a polite letter to the patient explaining it would be inappropriate

      Explanation:

      The General Medical Council has issued specific guidelines regarding the use of social media by doctors. According to these guidelines, if a patient contacts a doctor through their private profile regarding their care or other professional matters, the doctor should make it clear that they cannot mix social and professional relationships. The text implies that there is a risk of blurring boundaries if a doctor finds a patient attractive and receives a friend request from them. Therefore, it would be appropriate to decline the request. However, this doesn’t warrant removing the patient from the practice list. As long as professional boundaries are maintained, the patient can continue to receive care from the doctor.

      Duties of a Doctor According to the General Medical Council

      The General Medical Council has outlined the duties of a doctor in providing care to patients. The first and foremost duty is to prioritize the care of the patient. This includes protecting and promoting the health of patients and the public, providing a good standard of practice and care, and keeping professional knowledge and skills up to date. Doctors must also recognize and work within the limits of their competence and work with colleagues in the best interest of patients.

      In addition to providing medical care, doctors must treat patients with respect and dignity. This includes treating patients politely and considerately and respecting their right to confidentiality. Doctors must also work in partnership with patients, listening to their concerns and preferences, providing information in a way they can understand, and respecting their right to make decisions about their treatment and care.

      Finally, doctors must act with honesty, integrity, and without discrimination. They must act without delay if they believe that they or a colleague may be putting patients at risk and never abuse the trust of patients or the public’s trust in the profession.

      Overall, the duties of a doctor are to provide the best possible care to patients while respecting their rights and acting with honesty and integrity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old man presents to your clinic with concerns about recurrent painful lumps...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to your clinic with concerns about recurrent painful lumps and boils in his axilla and groin area for several months. He has previously been diagnosed with hidradenitis suppurativa by a dermatologist.

      During the examination, you observe multiple small, painful nodules in the axilla and groin region. The patient's heart rate is 70 beats per minute, and his tympanic temperature is 36.5 oC.

      Based on your assessment, you suspect recurrent hidradenitis suppurativa. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this condition?

      Your Answer: Commence the patient on topical steroids for 2-4 weeks

      Correct Answer: Commence the patient on topical clindamycin for 3 months

      Explanation:

      Hidradenitis suppurativa can be managed with long-term use of topical or oral antibiotics, which can be prescribed by primary care physicians. The British Association of Dermatologists recommends starting with topical clindamycin or oral doxycycline or lymecycline. Another option is a combination of clindamycin and rifampicin. Topical steroids are not effective for this condition, but oral or intra-lesional steroids may be used during severe flares. The effectiveness of topical retinoids is uncertain, and surgery is only considered if medical treatments fail. Emollients are not likely to be helpful in managing this condition.

      Understanding Hidradenitis Suppurativa

      Hidradenitis suppurativa (HS) is a chronic skin disorder that causes painful and inflammatory nodules, pustules, sinus tracts, and scars in intertriginous areas. It is more common in women and typically affects adults under 40. HS occurs due to chronic inflammatory occlusion of folliculopilosebaceous units that obstructs the apocrine glands and prevents keratinocytes from properly shedding from the follicular epithelium. Risk factors include family history, smoking, obesity, diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and mechanical stretching of skin.

      The initial manifestation of HS involves recurrent, painful, and inflamed nodules that can rupture and discharge purulent, malodorous material. The axilla is the most common site, but it can also occur in other areas such as the inguinal, inner thighs, perineal and perianal, and inframammary skin. Coalescence of nodules can result in plaques, sinus tracts, and ‘rope-like’ scarring. Diagnosis is made clinically.

      Management of HS involves encouraging good hygiene and loose-fitting clothing, smoking cessation, and weight loss in obese patients. Acute flares can be treated with steroids or antibiotics, and surgical incision and drainage may be needed in some cases. Long-term disease can be treated with topical or oral antibiotics. Lumps that persist despite prolonged medical treatment are excised surgically. Complications of HS include sinus tracts, fistulas, comedones, scarring, contractures, and lymphatic obstruction.

      HS can be differentiated from acne vulgaris, follicular pyodermas, and granuloma inguinale. Acne vulgaris primarily occurs on the face, upper chest, and back, whereas HS primarily involves intertriginous areas. Follicular pyodermas are transient and respond rapidly to antibiotics, unlike HS. Granuloma inguinale is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Klebsiella granulomatis and presents as an enlarging ulcer that bleeds in the inguinal area.

      Overall, understanding HS is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management of this chronic and painful skin disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 30 - A new mother comes to see you with her baby for a routine...

    Correct

    • A new mother comes to see you with her baby for a routine eight week check. She is anxious about cot death and wants to discuss the subject further.

      Which of the following statements about cot death is correct?

      Your Answer: It is more common in the winter months

      Explanation:

      Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), also known as cot death, is not fully understood and its exact cause is unknown. It is more common in infants under 5 months of age, especially premature babies who have had apnoeic episodes during resuscitation. However, the risk can be reduced by placing the baby on their back to sleep, using a firm mattress, avoiding loose covers, positioning the baby’s feet to the foot of the cot, maintaining a reasonable room temperature, not sharing a bed with the baby, using a dummy at bedtime, avoiding cigarette smoking, recognizing and treating illnesses, and breastfeeding. Media campaigns have helped reduce the number of cases over the years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 31 - A 10-year-old boy has two circular patches of hair loss in close proximity...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy has two circular patches of hair loss in close proximity on his scalp. Choose the one characteristic that would indicate a diagnosis of tinea capitis instead of alopecia areata from the options provided.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Scaly skin in the area of hair loss

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tinea Capitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Tinea capitis, also known as scalp ringworm, is a fungal infection that affects the scalp and hair follicles. It is caused by dermatophytes Microsporum spp. and Trichophyton spp. and is more common in children and people of Afro-Caribbean background. If left untreated, it can lead to permanent hair loss.

      Symptoms of tinea capitis include scaly patches on the scalp, inflammation, and pus-filled bumps known as kerion. To confirm the diagnosis, scalp scrapings including hairs and hair fragments should be examined.

      Prompt treatment with systemic terbinafine or griseofulvin is necessary. Griseofulvin is the most effective agent for Microsporum canis infections, while terbinafine is more effective for Trichophyton infections. However, terbinafine is not licensed for use in children under 12 years old.

      It is important to note that broken hairs in tinea capitis do not taper at the base, unlike the exclamation mark hairs seen in alopecia areata. Nail pitting, on the other hand, is a symptom of psoriasis and may also occur in alopecia areata. In alopecia areata, hair regrowth usually begins with fine white hairs, and onset is most common in childhood and adolescence.

      Understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment of tinea capitis is crucial in preventing permanent hair loss and managing the infection effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 32 - A 42-year-old patient on your practice list has a BMI of 52 kg/m²...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old patient on your practice list has a BMI of 52 kg/m² and is interested in bariatric surgery. They have no co-morbidities or contraindications for surgery.

      What should be the next course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for bariatric surgery

      Explanation:

      For adults with a BMI greater than 50 kg/m², bariatric surgery can be considered as the first-line option without any restrictions on referral. However, if the patient has medical conditions that are affected by weight, referral for surgery can be considered at a BMI greater than 35 kg/m². The decision to undergo surgery will involve an anaesthetic risk assessment based on various factors. Patients with a BMI greater than 40 kg/m² can be referred for bariatric surgery without the need for a medical condition affected by weight. While a dietary management plan may be beneficial, it is not necessary to delay the request for surgical consideration by another 6 months. Orlistat can be tried while waiting for surgical assessment, but it doesn’t need to delay the referral.

      Bariatric Surgery for Obesity Management

      Bariatric surgery has become a significant option in managing obesity over the past decade. For obese patients who fail to lose weight with lifestyle and drug interventions, the risks and expenses of long-term obesity outweigh those of surgery. The NICE guidelines recommend that very obese patients with a BMI of 40-50 kg/m^2 or higher, particularly those with other conditions such as type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension, should be referred early for bariatric surgery rather than it being a last resort.

      There are three types of bariatric surgery: primarily restrictive operations, primarily malabsorptive operations, and mixed operations. Laparoscopic-adjustable gastric banding (LAGB) is the first-line intervention for patients with a BMI of 30-39 kg/m^2. It produces less weight loss than malabsorptive or mixed procedures but has fewer complications. Sleeve gastrectomy reduces the stomach to about 15% of its original size, while the intragastric balloon can be left in the stomach for a maximum of six months. Biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch is usually reserved for very obese patients with a BMI of over 60 kg/m^2. Roux-en-Y gastric bypass surgery is both restrictive and malabsorptive in action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 33 - A 28-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about 'spots' on the head...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about 'spots' on the head of his penis. He mentions that they have always been present and have not changed in any way. The patient confirms that he is not sexually active and has never had any sexual partners.

      During the examination, the GP observes several flesh-coloured papules on the corona of the penis. The GP diagnoses the patient with pearly penile papules.

      What is the most important advice the GP can offer the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pearly penile papules are benign and do not need to be investigated

      Explanation:

      Pearly penile papules are a common and harmless occurrence that do not require any medical intervention. These small bumps, typically measuring 1-2 mm in size, are found around the corona of the penis and are not a cause for concern. Although patients may worry about their appearance, they are asymptomatic and do not indicate any underlying health issues.

      It is important to note that pearly penile papules are not caused by any sexually transmitted infections, and therefore, routine sexual health screenings are not necessary. Screening should only be conducted if there is a genuine concern or suspicion of an infection. Typically, sexual health initiatives target individuals between the ages of 18 and 25.

      Understanding STI Ulcers

      Genital ulcers are a common symptom of several sexually transmitted infections (STIs). One of the most well-known causes is the herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 2, which can cause severe primary attacks with fever and subsequent attacks with multiple painful ulcers. Syphilis, caused by the spirochaete Treponema pallidum, has primary, secondary, and tertiary stages, with a painless ulcer (chancre) appearing in the primary stage. Chancroid, a tropical disease caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, causes painful genital ulcers with a sharply defined, ragged, undermined border and unilateral, painful inguinal lymph node enlargement. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, has three stages, with the first stage showing a small painless pustule that later forms an ulcer, followed by painful inguinal lymphadenopathy in the second stage and proctocolitis in the third stage. LGV is treated with doxycycline. Other causes of genital ulcers include Behcet’s disease, carcinoma, and granuloma inguinale (previously called Calymmatobacterium granulomatis). Understanding the different causes of STI ulcers is crucial in diagnosing and treating these infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 34 - A 56-year-old woman presents to the diabetes clinic for the first time. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman presents to the diabetes clinic for the first time. She is obese, plethoric, and has significant bruising on her limbs and new striae on her abdomen. Additionally, she has a dorsal kyphosis due to a vertebral collapse earlier this year. What is the most effective way to distinguish Cushing syndrome caused by an adrenal adenoma from Cushing syndrome caused by a pituitary adenoma? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Undetectable serum adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) level

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Cushing Syndrome

      Cushing syndrome can be caused by various factors, including pituitary adenoma, ectopic ACTH secretion, adrenal adenoma, adrenal carcinoma, adrenal nodular hyperplasia, or excess glucocorticoid administration. To diagnose Cushing syndrome, several diagnostic tests are available.

      Undetectable Serum Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH) Level: In adrenal causes of Cushing syndrome, the ACTH level is suppressed or undetectable. However, a normal ACTH level can sometimes be found in pituitary-driven Cushing syndrome and ectopic ACTH, as there is overlap between the normal and elevated ranges.

      Raised Urine Cortisol/Creatinine Ratio: This test is not helpful in differentiating the cause of Cushing syndrome as the urine cortisol/creatinine ratio is elevated in all causes.

      0900 h Serum Cortisol of 200 nmol/l after Overnight Low Dose Dexamethasone Test: An unsuppressed 0900 h cortisol level after an overnight dexamethasone suppression test is diagnostic for Cushing syndrome. However, all causes of Cushing syndrome will give an unsuppressed 0900 h cortisol level.

      Normal 0900 h Serum Cortisol Level: The serum cortisol level can be normal in both adrenal and pituitary causes, as it has a wide range of normal. However, there is a loss of diurnal variation with reduced cortisol production in the evening compared with the morning.

      Serum Potassium of 2.2 mmol/l: Serum potassium is most likely to be low in cases of ectopic adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and can be due to the mineralocorticoid of cortisol itself or in adrenal carcinoma as a result of excessive mineralocorticoid (aldosterone) activity.

      Diagnostic Tests for Cushing Syndrome

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 35 - A 75-year-old gentleman was confirmed to have mild dementia after a review in...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old gentleman was confirmed to have mild dementia after a review in the local memory clinic. He wants more information on whether he can continue to drive his car to the nearby shops.

      According to DVLA guidance, which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate advice about continuing to drive?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He should inform the DVLA of his new diagnosis for further potential assessment

      Explanation:

      Importance of Informing DVLA about Mild Dementia

      Although the patient’s dementia is classified as mild, it is crucial for him to inform the DVLA to determine if he can still drive safely.

      It is important to note that individuals with mild cognitive impairment, not mild dementia, may still be able to drive without any impairment and do not need to notify the DVLA.

      However, in this case, the patient should liaise with the DVLA to determine the next appropriate steps, which may include driving restrictions or cessation.

      It is essential to prioritize safety on the road, and informing the DVLA is a crucial step in ensuring this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 36 - You see a mother with her 3-month-old daughter. She is concerned as she...

    Incorrect

    • You see a mother with her 3-month-old daughter. She is concerned as she had her weighed and found she had lost 5% of her body weight. She is exclusively breastfeeding. She reports that the health visitor reviewed her breastfeeding and was happy with the technique. She is passing urine and opening her bowels normally. There were no issues during the pregnancy and was delivered at term via vaginal delivery. She was born on the 50th centile. Examination was unremarkable.

      What would be the next most appropriate step in her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure and review in 1 week if his weight has not increased

      Explanation:

      Infant Weight Loss and Monitoring

      It is normal for infants to experience weight loss during the early days of life. However, if an infant loses more than 10% of their birth weight, it is important to assess for dehydration, underlying illness, and feeding problems. Monitoring the infant closely is also recommended, but weighing should not be done more frequently than daily according to NICE guidelines. If there is evidence of illness or failure to respond to feeding support, referral to paediatric services should be considered.

      Supplementation with infant formula may result in the cessation of breastfeeding, so it is advised to support the mother to continue breastfeeding. The RCGP recommends testing for normality and sometimes, monitoring or reassurance may be the answer to questions related to infant weight loss. By closely monitoring and addressing any concerns, infants can return to their birth weight by 3 weeks of age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 37 - You are examining pathology results for a 68-year-old woman who is typically healthy...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining pathology results for a 68-year-old woman who is typically healthy and takes no medication. Her routine blood tests, including a full blood count, renal and liver function, are all normal. A urine dip was also normal. You notice a urine albumin: creatinine ratio (ACR) result and an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) result of >90 mL/min/1.73 m2. Her early morning ACR is 5.

      As per NICE guidelines, what stage of chronic kidney disease (CKD) does this woman fall under?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: G1A2

      Explanation:

      A patient with a urine ACR of 5 and an eGFR greater than 90 mL/min/1.73 m2 is classified as having G1A2 CKD. CKD is categorized based on the eGFR and urine ACR, with G1 representing stage 1 and an eGFR greater than 90 mL/min/1.73 m2, and A2 representing a urine ACR of 3-70 mg/mmol. Patients with G1A1 or G2A2 classification are not considered to have CKD in the absence of kidney damage markers.

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where the kidneys are not functioning properly. To estimate renal function, serum creatinine levels are often used, but this may not be accurate due to differences in muscle. Therefore, formulas such as the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation are used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The MDRD equation takes into account serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity. However, factors such as pregnancy, muscle mass, and recent red meat consumption may affect the accuracy of the result.

      CKD can be classified based on the eGFR. Stage 1 CKD is when the eGFR is greater than 90 ml/min, but there are signs of kidney damage on other tests. If all kidney tests are normal, there is no CKD. Stage 2 CKD is when the eGFR is between 60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage. Stage 3a and 3b CKD are when the eGFR is between 45-59 ml/min and 30-44 ml/min, respectively, indicating a moderate reduction in kidney function. Stage 4 CKD is when the eGFR is between 15-29 ml/min, indicating a severe reduction in kidney function. Stage 5 CKD is when the eGFR is less than 15 ml/min, indicating established kidney failure, and dialysis or a kidney transplant may be necessary. It is important to note that normal U&Es and no proteinuria are required for a diagnosis of CKD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 38 - A 65-year-old man complains of increasing stiffness and pain in his right knee...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man complains of increasing stiffness and pain in his right knee and seeks medical attention. He denies any history of trauma, locking, or giving way. Upon examination, an x-ray reveals the following findings:

      Plain film: right knee

      Moderate degenerative changes indicative of osteoarthritis. Intra-articular calcification, possibly a loose body.

      What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue to manage as per osteoarthritis guidelines

      Explanation:

      According to the recent guidelines by NICE, there is no requirement to refer a patient with x-ray evidence of a loose body if they are asymptomatic and not experiencing locking.

      The Role of Glucosamine in Osteoarthritis Management

      Glucosamine is a natural component found in cartilage and synovial fluid. Several double-blind randomized controlled trials have reported significant short-term symptomatic benefits of glucosamine in knee osteoarthritis, including reduced joint space narrowing and improved pain scores. However, more recent studies have produced mixed results. The 2008 NICE guidelines do not recommend the use of glucosamine, and a Drug and Therapeutics Bulletin review advised against prescribing it on the NHS due to limited evidence of cost-effectiveness. Despite this, some patients may still choose to use glucosamine as a complementary therapy for osteoarthritis management. It is important for healthcare professionals to discuss the potential benefits and risks of glucosamine with their patients and to consider individual patient preferences and circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 39 - Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who has a routine urine culture sent at...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who has a routine urine culture sent at her gynecologist appointment. She is asymptomatic but has had a history of post-coital cystitis in the past. Sarah is currently 8 weeks pregnant.

      The urine culture comes back showing the growth of Escherichia coli.

      What should be the next course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treat with 7 days of nitrofurantoin

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women who have a UTI should be treated promptly, regardless of whether they have symptoms or not. This is because leaving a UTI untreated can increase the risk of pyelonephritis and premature delivery. Therefore, doing nothing is not an option.

      The recommended treatment for a UTI in pregnant women is a 7-day course of antibiotics. The choice of antibiotics depends on the trimester of pregnancy.

      Trimethoprim is not recommended during the first trimester due to its effect on folate metabolism. However, it is safe to use during the second and third trimesters.

      Nitrofurantoin is often the first-line treatment and is safe to use during pregnancy. However, it should be avoided at term (40 weeks) due to the small risk of neonatal haemolysis.

      In this case, since the patient is in her first trimester, a 7-day course of nitrofurantoin is the recommended treatment.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 40 - A 26-year-old Afro-Caribbean female patient complains of fatigue, fever, and a rash that...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old Afro-Caribbean female patient complains of fatigue, fever, and a rash that has persisted for 3 months. During the examination, the doctor observes a rash that doesn't affect the nasolabial folds and cold extremities.

      What is the most precise diagnostic test for the probable diagnosis of this woman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-double stranded DNA

      Explanation:

      A certain percentage of individuals diagnosed with SLE exhibit positivity for rheumatoid factor.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive and useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%) but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%) but has a lower sensitivity (30%). Other antibody tests that can be used include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).

      Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, and a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Overall, these investigations can help diagnose and monitor SLE, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 41 - Among the following groups, which one is most likely to have the highest...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following groups, which one is most likely to have the highest prevalence of depression in your practice population?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Separated females

      Explanation:

      Prevalence of Depression in Different Groups

      The prevalence rate of depression varies among different groups. According to research, separated males have the highest rate of depression, with 111 per 1000. This rate is even higher for those who are unemployed, homeless, or going through separation. Separated females have a lower rate of 56 per 1000.

      Widowed males and females have rates of 70 and 46 respectively, while married men and women have the lowest rates of 17 and 14 respectively. Interestingly, unemployment affects men and women differently, with the rate increasing to 27 for men and 56 per 1000 for women. These findings highlight the importance of considering different demographic factors when assessing the prevalence of depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 42 - A 32 year old Welsh woman presents to her GP complaining of fatigue...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old Welsh woman presents to her GP complaining of fatigue and depression that has been ongoing for a month. During her visit, her blood pressure is measured at 126/82 mmHg while lying down and 94/60 mmHg while standing up. Blood tests reveal mild hyponatremia and mild hyperkalemia. The GP orders a short synacthen test, which yields the following results: (expected 30 minute level >580 nmol/l)

      Baseline cortisol 300 nmol/l
      30 minute cortisol 350 nmol/L

      Based on these findings, what is the most likely underlying cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autoimmune adrenalitis

      Explanation:

      This individual’s diagnosis of Addison’s disease is confirmed by a failed short synacthen test, which measures the adrenal glands’ response to synthetic adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) analogue.

      Autoimmune disease is the leading cause of Addison’s disease in developed countries, while tuberculosis (TB) is the most prevalent cause globally. However, given the patient’s Welsh heritage and lack of TB risk factors, TB is less probable in this scenario. Metastatic disease, amyloidosis, and Waterhouse Friderichsen syndrome are all less frequent causes of Addison’s disease.

      Addison’s disease is the most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in the UK, with autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands being the main culprit, accounting for 80% of cases. This results in reduced production of cortisol and aldosterone. Symptoms of Addison’s disease include lethargy, weakness, anorexia, nausea and vomiting, weight loss, and salt-craving. Hyperpigmentation, especially in palmar creases, vitiligo, loss of pubic hair in women, hypotension, hypoglycemia, and hyponatremia and hyperkalemia may also be observed. In severe cases, a crisis may occur, leading to collapse, shock, and pyrexia.

      Other primary causes of hypoadrenalism include tuberculosis, metastases (such as bronchial carcinoma), meningococcal septicaemia (Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome), HIV, and antiphospholipid syndrome. Secondary causes include pituitary disorders, such as tumours, irradiation, and infiltration. Exogenous glucocorticoid therapy can also lead to hypoadrenalism.

      It is important to note that primary Addison’s disease is associated with hyperpigmentation, while secondary adrenal insufficiency is not.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 43 - A 16-year-old female complains of an itchy eye with watery discharge on one...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female complains of an itchy eye with watery discharge on one side. She reports feeling generally healthy with no changes to her vision or fever. The patient wears contact lenses but has not had an optician appointment recently.

      During the examination, the patient displays injected conjunctiva in the affected eye, but there is no apparent redness or swelling around the eye. The application of topical fluorescein doesn't reveal any corneal staining.

      What would be the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise she should not wear contact lenses for the duration of her symptoms

      Explanation:

      It is not recommended to wear contact lenses when experiencing conjunctivitis, which is likely the case for this 15-year-old with viral conjunctivitis. While it is possible that her prescription may not be up to date, this doesn’t affect her susceptibility to infection or more severe conditions. Warm compresses are more effective for treating styes or chalazion, which present as lumps on the eyelid, rather than viral conjunctivitis. Since the fluorescein test did not show any corneal stains, there is no need for ophthalmology referral. However, if a contact lens wearer with these symptoms had staining, they would require a visit to eye casualty as this would indicate a corneal injury. While topical antihistamine eye drops may be used for allergic conjunctivitis, the unilateral nature of the presentation makes this diagnosis less likely. Topical chloramphenicol is the preferred treatment for bacterial conjunctivitis, but the watery discharge suggests viral conjunctivitis instead.

      Infective conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes that are accompanied by a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.

      In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves on its own within one to two weeks. However, patients are often offered topical antibiotic therapy, such as Chloramphenicol or topical fusidic acid. Chloramphenicol drops are given every two to three hours initially, while chloramphenicol ointment is given four times a day initially. Topical fusidic acid is an alternative and should be used for pregnant women. For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. It is important to advise patients not to share towels and to avoid wearing contact lenses during an episode of conjunctivitis. School exclusion is not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 44 - A 55-year-old woman presents with urgency and frequency. Three weeks ago she consulted...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with urgency and frequency. Three weeks ago she consulted with a colleague as she felt 'dry' during intercourse. She has been treated for urinary tract infections on multiple occasions in the past but urine culture is always negative. Her only medication is continuous hormone replacement therapy which she has taken since her periods stopped three years ago. A vaginal examination is performed which shows no evidence of vaginal atrophy and no masses are felt. An ultrasound is requested:

      Both kidneys, spleen and liver are normal size. Outline of the bladder normal. 3 cm simple ovarian cyst noted on left ovary. Right ovary and uterus normal

      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral to gynaecology

      Explanation:

      Investigation is necessary for any ovarian mass found in a woman who has undergone menopause.

      When a patient presents with suspected ovarian cysts or tumors, the first imaging modality used is typically ultrasound. The ultrasound report will indicate whether the cyst is simple or complex. Simple cysts are unilocular and more likely to be benign, while complex cysts are multilocular and more likely to be malignant. Management of ovarian enlargement depends on the patient’s age and whether they are experiencing symptoms. It is important to note that ovarian cancer diagnosis is often delayed due to a vague presentation.

      For premenopausal women, a conservative approach may be taken, especially if they are younger than 35 years old, as malignancy is less common. If the cyst is small (less than 5 cm) and reported as simple, it is highly likely to be benign. A repeat ultrasound should be scheduled for 8-12 weeks, and referral should be considered if the cyst persists.

      Postmenopausal women, on the other hand, are unlikely to have physiological cysts. Any postmenopausal woman with an ovarian cyst, regardless of its nature or size, should be referred to gynecology for assessment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 45 - A 25-year-old woman is in the third week of her cycle (day 18)...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is in the third week of her cycle (day 18) and calls the surgery on the Monday morning after a weekend away with her boyfriend to say that she has missed three of her combined oral contraceptive pills.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate advice for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Take pills to the end of her third week, start a new pack and use barrier contraception for a week

      Explanation:

      Missed Birth Control Pills

      When a woman misses three or more birth control pills in the third week of her cycle, she should complete the third week but skip the pill-free period and start a new pack immediately. This advice is according to the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH). It is also recommended to use barrier contraception for seven days. On the other hand, if only one pill is missed, the woman can maintain the pill-free week. It is not usually necessary to extend the pill-free period beyond seven days. However, emergency contraception may be necessary depending on when the pills were missed. It is important to review the latest FSRH guidance before taking any exams.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 46 - A 38-year-old man presents with a pigmented skin lesion. His partner urged him...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man presents with a pigmented skin lesion. His partner urged him to come and see you as she noticed that the lesion has recently changed and grown in size. There is no history of inflammation, oozing or change in sensation.

      On examination, there is a 9 mm diameter pigmented skin lesion on his back. The lesion is asymmetrical with an irregular notched border, it is evenly pigmented.

      Using the 7-point weighted checklist recommended by NICE for evaluating pigmented skin lesions, what is the score of this patient's skin lesion based on the above clinical description?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 7

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidance on Referral for Suspected Cancer

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using the ‘7-point weighted checklist’ to evaluate pigmented skin lesions for potential cancer. The checklist includes major features such as changes in size, irregular shape, and irregular color, which score 2 points each, and minor features such as largest diameter of 7 mm or more, inflammation, oozing, and change in sensation, which score 1 point each. Lesions scoring 3 or more points are considered suspicious and should be referred for further evaluation. However, clinicians should always refer lesions they strongly suspect to be cancerous, even if the score is less than 3. For example, a lesion with a score of 5 due to change in size, irregular shape, and a diameter of 9 mm would warrant referral for further evaluation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 47 - A 30-year-old woman has pyrexia of unknown origin. She has recently been in...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman has pyrexia of unknown origin. She has recently been in Africa. The laboratory reports that she has Plasmodium falciparum infection.
      Select from the list the single correct statement regarding Plasmodium falciparum infection.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chemoprophylaxis is not a guarantee against infection

      Explanation:

      Understanding Malaria: Symptoms, Severity, and Prevention

      Malaria is a parasitic infection that can be transmitted through the bite of infected mosquitoes. The symptoms and severity of malaria can vary depending on the type of parasite causing the infection.

      Plasmodium falciparum is the most severe form of malaria and can cause impaired consciousness, fits, renal failure, hypoglycemia, bleeding, and even death. Other types of malaria, such as P. vivax and P. ovale, may not present symptoms until months or even years after exposure.

      The classic symptom of malaria is a cyclical occurrence of sudden coldness, followed by rigor, fever, and sweating lasting about 2 hours or more. The frequency of these cycles can vary depending on the type of parasite causing the infection. P. vivax and P. ovale infections typically occur every 2 days, while P. malariae infections occur every 3 days. P. falciparum infections can cause recurrent fever every 36-48 hours or a less pronounced and almost continuous fever.

      Severe cases of malaria can lead to renal failure, jaundice, and even death. However, the use of effective chemoprophylaxis and insecticide-treated nets can prevent up to 90% of malaria cases. Travelers should be encouraged to use appropriate prophylaxis for their travel itinerary, but it’s important to note that this is not a guarantee against infection.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms, severity, and prevention of malaria is crucial in protecting oneself from this potentially deadly infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 48 - A 65-year-old man has just been released from the hospital following a heart...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has just been released from the hospital following a heart attack. He has a history of depression and is currently experiencing low mood. What is the antidepressant with the most safety evidence for patients with recent unstable angina or myocardial infarction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      Sertraline as the Treatment of Choice for CHD Patients

      NICE guidance recommends sertraline as the treatment of choice for patients with coronary heart disease (CHD) due to its safety and efficacy. Sertraline has been found to be cost-effective in a study conducted by O’Connor and colleagues in a hospitalised population with acute coronary syndrome. Although limited to one study, this evidence supports the use of sertraline in this population. Additionally, the SPS recommends sertraline as the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) of choice for CHD patients due to its lower propensity for interactions and the availability of more data on its use in a population with pre-existing heart disease compared to other SSRIs. Overall, sertraline is a safe and effective treatment option for CHD patients with depression or anxiety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 49 - A 16-year-old girl comes to you with concerns about her acne. Upon examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to you with concerns about her acne. Upon examination, you observe several pustules, nodules, and some scarring. The patient expresses a desire for treatment as her acne is affecting her mood. While waiting for a dermatology referral, what initial treatment would you recommend?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe an oral antibiotic in combination with topical Benzoyl Peroxide

      Explanation:

      Severe acne is characterized by the presence of nodules, cysts, and a high risk of scarring. It is recommended to refer patients with severe acne for specialist assessment and treatment, which may include oral isotretinoin. In the meantime, a combination of oral antibiotics and topical retinoids or benzoyl peroxide can be prescribed.

      Topical antibiotics should be avoided when using oral antibiotics. Tetracycline, oxytetracycline, doxycycline, or lymecycline are the first-line antibiotic options, while erythromycin can be used as an alternative. Minocycline is not recommended.

      It is not recommended to prescribe antibiotics alone or to combine a topical and oral antibiotic. Women who require contraception can be prescribed a combined oral contraceptive (COC), with a standard COC being suitable for most women. Co-cyprindiol (Dianette®) should only be considered when other treatments have failed and should be discontinued after three to four menstrual cycles once the acne has resolved.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 50 - What is the conclusion of the randomised placebo-controlled trial conducted by experienced vascular...

    Incorrect

    • What is the conclusion of the randomised placebo-controlled trial conducted by experienced vascular surgeons comparing a specific carotid surgery technique to another operation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Efficacy

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Sham Surgery in Clinical Trials

      Sham surgery, also known as placebo surgery, is a simulated surgical procedure that excludes the step believed to be therapeutically necessary. In clinical trials of surgical interventions, sham surgery serves as a crucial scientific control.

      An experienced group of vascular surgeons conducted a study on the effectiveness of sham surgery in carotid surgery. However, it has been challenging to prove its usefulness outside areas of expertise. It is often difficult to generalize the findings of a study group to everyday practice.

      Efficacy refers to the effect of something under ideal or laboratory conditions. It is important to note that this study did not comment on mortality rates. Overall, sham surgery plays a vital role in clinical trials and helps ensure the validity of surgical interventions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 51 - A 56-year-old man with a history of a learning disability and asthma resides...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man with a history of a learning disability and asthma resides in a care facility. His caregivers have noticed an increase in his challenging behavior, including aggression and refusal to accept help with personal hygiene. What is the most probable factor that contributes to the development of challenging behavior in individuals with cognitive or learning disabilities? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dementia

      Explanation:

      Factors that Increase the Risk of Problematic Behaviour

      Dementia, learning disabilities, failure to impose social restriction, older age, and unchanging personal environment are all factors that can increase the risk of problematic behaviour. According to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidance, dementia can lead to the development of problematic behaviour due to its progressive nature. Learning disabilities can also contribute to behavioural problems, with severity being a key factor. Failure to impose social restriction can increase the risk of problematic behaviour, while appropriate socialisation can be protective. Older age is another risk factor, with the highest risk age being during a person’s teens or twenties. Finally, an unchanging personal environment can be protective, while a change in environment is a common cause for developing problematic behaviour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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  • Question 52 - A 50-year-old man has abnormal liver function tests. He tests positive for anti-HCV...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has abnormal liver function tests. He tests positive for anti-HCV and HCV RNA.
      Select from the list the single correct statement about hepatitis C.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Co-infection with HIV results in more rapid progression of liver disease

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis C: A Silent Threat to Liver Health

      Hepatitis C is a viral infection that often goes unnoticed in its acute phase, with only a minority of patients presenting with symptoms such as jaundice or abnormal liver enzymes. Unfortunately, the majority of patients do not clear the infection and go on to develop chronic disease, which can remain undetected for decades. The primary mode of transmission is through intravenous drug use and sharing needles, although sexual transmission is possible, especially in those co-infected with HIV. Needle-stick injuries and exposure to infected blood also pose a risk of transmission. Unfortunately, there is no post-exposure vaccine or effective preventative treatment. Factors that increase the risk of rapid progression of liver disease include male sex, age over 40, alcohol consumption, and co-infection with HIV or hepatitis B. With the increased survival of HIV patients, end-stage liver disease due to HCV infection has become a significant problem.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 53 - A 6-year-old boy with a medical history of asthma is seen as an...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy with a medical history of asthma is seen as an emergency with an acute exacerbation.

      He has widespread wheeze on auscultation of the chest despite regular use of his salbutamol inhaler via a spacer. There is no respiratory distress and he is suitable to be managed in the community. You decide to prescribe him a three day course of prednisolone.

      He weighs 20 kg. You decide to give him a dose of 2 mg/kg once daily. Prednisolone soluble tablets come as 5 mg tablets.

      What is the correct dosage of prednisolone soluble tablets to prescribe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 6 tablets OD

      Explanation:

      Calculation of Prednisolone Dose for a 15 kg Patient

      When prescribing medication, it is important to calculate the correct dosage based on the patient’s weight and the recommended dose per kilogram. In this case, the patient weighs 15 kg and the recommended dose is 2 mg/kg once daily. Therefore, the total dose for this patient is 30 mg once daily. Since the prednisolone soluble tablets come in 5 mg each, the patient would need to take 6 tablets once daily to achieve the correct dose. It is important to double-check calculations and ensure that the correct dose is prescribed to avoid any potential harm to the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 54 - A 27-year-old patient visits you on a Wednesday morning after having unprotected sex...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old patient visits you on a Wednesday morning after having unprotected sex on Saturday. She is worried about the possibility of an unintended pregnancy and wants to know the most effective method to prevent it. Her last menstrual cycle was two weeks ago.

      What would be the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange for copper coil (IUD) insertion

      Explanation:

      For this patient who has had unprotected intercourse within the last 72 hours and is seeking the most effective form of emergency contraception, the recommended course of action is to arrange for a copper coil (IUD) insertion. The copper coil is highly effective in preventing pregnancy for up to five days (120 hours) after intercourse, whether or not ovulation has occurred, by preventing fertilization or implantation. If there are concerns about sexually transmitted infections, antibiotics can be given at the same time. It is important to note that the patient has not missed the window for emergency contraception, as both the copper coil and ulipristal acetate are licensed for use up to five days after intercourse, while levonorgestrel emergency contraception can be taken up to 72 hours after intercourse. However, given that the patient is presenting 72 hours after intercourse and may have already ovulated, levonorgestrel emergency contraception or ulipristal acetate may not be as effective as the copper coil and therefore the copper coil is the most appropriate choice.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 55 - A 28-year-old patient comes in seeking contraception. She has no medical history and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient comes in seeking contraception. She has no medical history and doesn't smoke. Today, her weight is 92 kg and her blood pressure is 118/82 mmHg.

      What advice should be given in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The effectiveness of the combined contraceptive transdermal patch may be reduced

      Explanation:

      Patients weighing over 90kg may experience reduced effectiveness of the combined contraceptive transdermal patch. However, the levonorgestrel intrauterine system, copper intrauterine device, etonogestrel subdermal implant, and progesterone-only injection are all highly effective methods of contraception that do not appear to be affected by body weight based on available evidence.

      Contraception for Obese Patients

      Obesity can increase the risk of venous thromboembolism in women who take the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). Therefore, it is recommended that patients with a BMI of 30-34 kg/m² should use the COCP with caution (UKMEC 2), while those with a BMI of 35 kg/m² or higher should avoid it altogether (UKMEC 3). Additionally, the combined contraceptive transdermal patch may be less effective in patients who weigh over 90kg.

      It is important to note that all other methods of contraception have a UKMEC of 1, meaning they are considered safe for use in obese patients. However, patients who have undergone gastric sleeve/bypass/duodenal switch surgeries cannot use oral contraception, including emergency contraception, due to its lack of efficacy.

      In summary, obese patients should be cautious when using the COCP and consider alternative methods of contraception. It is important to discuss contraceptive options with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action based on individual needs and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 56 - A 39-year-old man returns for follow-up. You had previously provided him with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old man returns for follow-up. You had previously provided him with a Statement of Fitness for Work, indicating that he may be eligible for 'modified duties' and 'adjusted hours' due to a recent ankle fracture. However, his employer has informed him that they are unable to accommodate these changes and instructed him to return to you. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Do not issue any further sick notes and inform him that the original should now be treated as a 'not fit for work' note

      Explanation:

      The DWP advises that if a patient is unable to return to work, the advice provided by their healthcare provider should aim to assist both the patient and their employer in finding ways to facilitate a return to work. However, if it is determined that a return to work is not possible, the patient will be treated as if their healthcare provider had advised that they were not fit for work. In this case, the patient will not need to obtain a new Statement from their healthcare provider, as the previously issued Statement will be considered equivalent to a statement of unfitness for work.

      Understanding the Statement of Fitness for Work

      The Statement of Fitness for Work, previously known as sick notes, was introduced in 2010 to reflect the fact that most patients do not need to be fully recovered before returning to work. This statement allows doctors to advise that a patient may be fit for work taking account of the following advice. It replaces the Med3 and Med5 forms and has resulted in the withdrawal of the Med4, Med6, and RM 7 forms due to the replacement of Incapacity Benefit with the Employment and Support Allowance.

      Telephone consultations are now an acceptable form of assessment, and there is no longer a box to indicate that a patient is fit for work. Instead, doctors can state if they need to reassess the patient’s fitness for work at the end of the statement period. The statement provides increased space for comments on the functional effects of the condition, including tick boxes for simple things that may help a patient return to work.

      The statement can be issued on the day of assessment or at a later date if it would have been reasonable to issue it on the day of assessment. It can also be issued after consideration of a written report from another doctor or registered healthcare professional.

      There are four tick boxes on the form that represent common approaches to aid a return to work, including a phased return to work, altered hours, amended duties, and workplace adaptations. Patients may self-certify for the first seven calendar days using the SC1 or SC2 form, depending on their eligibility to claim statutory sick pay.

      It is important to note that the advice on the statement is not binding on employers, and doctors can still advise patients that they are not fit for work. However, the Statement of Fitness for Work provides a more flexible approach to returning to work and recognizes that many patients can return to work with some adjustments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 57 - A 27-year-old man presents with sudden difficulty breathing and a known history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man presents with sudden difficulty breathing and a known history of asthma. You are evaluating the severity of his asthma attack and suspect it may be classified as acute severe. What is a characteristic of this classification?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inability to complete full sentences

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Asthma

      Acute asthma is classified into moderate, severe, life-threatening, and near-fatal categories by the British Thoracic Society (BTS). Patients with life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen sats < 92%, and a chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless there is life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment. Admission is necessary for all patients with life-threatening asthma, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy is important for hypoxaemic patients, and bronchodilation with short-acting betaâ‚‚-agonists (SABA) is recommended. All patients should be given 40-50 mg of prednisolone orally (PO) daily, and nebulised ipratropium bromide may be used in severe or life-threatening cases. The evidence base for IV magnesium sulphate is mixed, and IV aminophylline may be considered following consultation with senior medical staff. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include being stable on their discharge medication, inhaler technique checked and recorded, and PEF >75% of best or predicted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 58 - A 38-year-old man presents to your clinic with a complaint of persistent epigastric...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man presents to your clinic with a complaint of persistent epigastric pain for the past three months. He denies any weight loss, haematemesis, or melaena. On examination, there is tenderness in the epigastrium, but otherwise, the abdominal examination is unremarkable. The patient is currently taking Citalopram 20 mg, Lisinopril 20 mg OD, Aspirin 75 mg OD, and Bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg. He recently had a painful knee and has been taking Ibuprofen at least three times a day. He has a history of severe depressive disorder, which has been effectively controlled on Citalopram for the past 9 months. What is the most appropriate initial management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduce his Ibuprofen and change his antidepressant

      Explanation:

      Medication Review for Patient with Multiple Symptoms

      This patient is experiencing symptoms that are likely caused by the combination of aspirin, ibuprofen, and citalopram. Co-prescribing NSAIDs and SSRIs can increase the risk of gastric bleeding, so it is important to alter the medication rather than refer for endoscopy. The patient should be closely monitored and may benefit from a PPI for gastroprotection.

      Although citalopram may be contributing to the symptoms, it has been effective in managing the patient’s recurrent depressive episodes. Patients with a history of depression should remain on antidepressants for at least 2 years into remission.

      To ensure the patient responds well to the altered medication, a review should be scheduled in two weeks. It may also be appropriate to check the patient’s Hb level for anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 59 - A 60-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner to discuss whether he requires...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner to discuss whether he requires a statin. His brother has encouraged him to book the appointment because ‘everyone in the family takes a statin’, due to familial hypercholesterolaemia. He has no significant medical history and rarely consults with a doctor. His total cholesterol is 8.2 mmol/l.
      What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carry out blood tests for liver, renal and thyroid function, HbA1c and lipid panel

      Explanation:

      Management of Suspected Familial Hypercholesterolaemia

      Suspected familial hypercholesterolaemia requires a thorough diagnostic and management approach. The first step is to carry out blood tests for liver, renal, and thyroid function, HbA1c, and lipid panel. Additionally, a full cardiovascular assessment and exclusion of secondary causes of hypercholesterolaemia should be conducted before referral.

      QRisk2 scoring is not appropriate in suspected familial hypercholesterolaemia due to the high risk of premature heart disease associated with the condition. Atorvastatin 20 mg is a good choice for primary prevention, but further tests are necessary to establish its suitability for the patient. Atorvastatin 80 mg is often given as secondary prevention, but there is no evidence that this is necessary for the patient from the information provided.

      Referral to a lipid clinic in secondary care is imperative for patients with suspected familial hypercholesterolaemia. This condition should be suspected in adults with a total cholesterol >7.5mmol/l and/or a personal or family history of a cardiovascular event before the age of 60 years old. Basic blood tests will provide important diagnostic and management information, ruling out secondary causes of hypercholesterolaemia and assessing the patient’s suitability for treatment with lipid-lowering drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 60 - A 28-year old patient asks about his medication: he has just received his...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year old patient asks about his medication: he has just received his refill but it is a different brand than what he usually takes. He is informed that most medications are prescribed generically and brand should not matter, except for some cases.
      Which medication requires a brand prescription? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Commonly Prescribed Drugs: Brand vs. Generic

      When it comes to prescription drugs, there are often options for both brand name and generic versions. The decision to prescribe one over the other can depend on a variety of factors, including cost effectiveness and differences in clinical effect. Here are some examples of commonly prescribed drugs and whether they are typically prescribed by brand or generically:

      Carbamazepine: This antiepileptic drug is often prescribed by brand to ensure consistency in bioavailability and pharmacokinetics.

      Diazepam: As a form of benzodiazepine, diazepam is usually prescribed generically for conditions such as mood disorders, alcohol withdrawal, and muscle spasms to improve cost effectiveness.

      Amlodipine: This dihydropyridine calcium-channel blocker is typically prescribed generically, but another dihydropyridine, nifedipine, may be prescribed by brand due to differences in clinical effect.

      Loratadine: As a non-drowsy antihistamine, loratadine can also be prescribed generically to aid cost effectiveness.

      Metformin: This antidiabetic drug is available in both standard-release and modified-release preparations, but there is no indication to prescribe by brand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 61 - A 26-year-old man lives alone. His neighbours have been increasingly concerned about rubbish...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man lives alone. His neighbours have been increasingly concerned about rubbish piling up inside his flat and sometimes he isn't seen for days. His family tell you that over the last year he has become very odd and isolated. On examination, he is withdrawn and quiet and you find it difficult to understand his answers as he frequently wanders off the point, as if he is answering a different question. Although spontaneous movements are reduced, there are no neurological signs and he is not on any medication, prescribed or illicit. His mother and two older brothers have both had episodes of major depression.
      Select from the list of options the single feature that would suggest a possible favourable outcome from this episode.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Family history of depression

      Explanation:

      Understanding Schizophrenia: Symptoms, Predictors of Outcome, and Prevalence

      Schizophrenia is a mental disorder characterized by a range of symptoms, including positive symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations, and negative symptoms such as asocial behavior, reduced spontaneous movements, and disorganized speech. In this case, the individual exhibits mainly negative symptomatology, indicating a poor prognosis.

      Several factors can predict the outcome of schizophrenia. Young age, insidious onset, poor premorbid social function, negative symptomatology, neurological signs, no recognized precipitating factor, and family history of schizophrenia are all associated with a poor outcome. On the other hand, older age, acute onset, recognizable precipitant, good premorbid social function, being married, prominent mood disorder, family history of mood disorder, and positive symptomatology are associated with a better outcome.

      The overall prevalence of schizophrenia is 1% in all populations, and only 10-20% of patients will make a full recovery from one episode. It is important to understand the symptoms, predictors of outcome, and prevalence of schizophrenia to provide appropriate treatment and support for individuals with this disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 62 - What childhood condition can be a result of adenovirus infection? ...

    Incorrect

    • What childhood condition can be a result of adenovirus infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute bronchiolitis

      Explanation:

      Childhood Illnesses Caused by Adenovirus

      Adenovirus is a common cause of childhood illnesses, including upper respiratory tract infections, otitis media, acute bronchiolitis, obliterative bronchiolitis, pneumonia, diarrhea, meningitis, encephalitis, hepatitis, urinary tract infections, and nonspecific febrile illnesses. It is important to note that adenovirus is not the cause of glandular fever, Kawasaki disease, roseola infantum, or scarlet fever. Glandular fever is caused by Epstein-Barr virus, the exact cause of Kawasaki disease is unknown, roseola infantum is caused by human herpesvirus 6, and scarlet fever is due to Streptococcus pyogenes infection. It is important for parents and caregivers to be aware of the symptoms of these illnesses and seek medical attention if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 63 - What is one of the most common symptoms observed in individuals with Cow's...

    Incorrect

    • What is one of the most common symptoms observed in individuals with Cow's milk protein intolerance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stridor

      Explanation:

      Cow’s Milk and Soy Intolerance in Infants

      Cow’s milk intolerance in infants can lead to anaphylactic responses, but it is more commonly associated with gastrointestinal effects and malabsorption, resulting in diarrhea. One of the most common symptoms of cow’s milk protein allergy (CMPA) is bloody stool. On the other hand, adverse reactions to soy have been reported in 10-35% of infants with CMPA. Soy may be considered as an alternative for infants over 6 months who refuse to drink extensively hydrolyzed formula and/or amino acid formula. However, soy formulations contain high concentrations of phytate, aluminum, and phytoestrogens (isoflavones), which may have undesired effects. Therefore, it is important to monitor infants for any adverse reactions when introducing soy-based formulas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 64 - A 25-year-old man was referred for investigation of iron deficiency anaemia.

    His mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man was referred for investigation of iron deficiency anaemia.

      His mother died aged 28 years from colonic carcinoma complicating Peutz-Jegher syndrome.

      Which is the most likely mode of inheritance of Peutz-Jegher syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant

      Explanation:

      Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome: A Genetic Disorder with Increased Cancer Risk

      Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. It is characterized by the presence of perioral pigmentation and numerous hamartomas in the bowel. While it was previously believed that these hamartomas did not increase the risk of cancer, recent studies have shown that individuals with Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome are at an increased risk for developing various types of cancer, including gastrointestinal, breast, and ovarian cancer. Therefore, it is important for individuals with this syndrome to undergo regular cancer screenings and surveillance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 65 - A 35-year-old man, known to have been referred to ophthalmology and awaiting the...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man, known to have been referred to ophthalmology and awaiting the appointment for his right pterygium, attends.

      He was referred to the ophthalmologist by his Optician because the pterygium is encroaching on his visual axis. He is complaining of constant irritation, but there is no inflammation of the eye. There is no ocular pain or discharge.

      What is the best next step of management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give the patient a short course of topical ocular lubricants

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pterygium and When to Refer to an Ophthalmologist

      Pterygium is a condition that can cause irritation and grittiness in the eye due to its irregular surface, which can lead to dryness in certain areas. If the pterygium encroaches on the visual axis, it can threaten the patient’s vision and requires referral to an ophthalmologist. Other reasons for referral include inducing irregular astigmatism, chronic inflammation, or being cosmetically unacceptable.

      While waiting for an ophthalmology appointment, the best management for symptomatic relief is to use ocular lubricants. If there is evidence of acute inflammation, an ophthalmologist may prescribe topical steroids or NSAIDs. In some cases, surgery may be necessary.

      It’s important to note that if a patient has not been referred and their pterygium encroaches on the visual axis, they should be referred to an ophthalmologist. Understanding when to refer patients with pterygium can help ensure they receive the appropriate care and management for their condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 66 - A 72-year-old woman is on ramipril, digoxin, metformin, quinine and bisoprolol. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman is on ramipril, digoxin, metformin, quinine and bisoprolol. She has been experiencing mild ankle swelling lately. Following an echo, she has been urgently referred to cardiology due to moderate-severe aortic stenosis. Which of her medications should be discontinued?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Moderate to severe aortic stenosis is a contraindication for ACE inhibitors like ramipril due to the potential risk of reducing coronary perfusion pressure and causing cardiac ischemia. Therefore, the patient should stop taking ramipril until cardiology review. However, bisoprolol, which reduces cardiac workload by inhibiting β1-adrenergic receptors, is safe to use in the presence of aortic stenosis. Digoxin, which improves cardiac contractility, is also safe to use unless there are defects in the cardiac conduction system. Metformin should be used with caution in patients with chronic heart failure but is not contraindicated in those with valvular disease. Quinine is also safe to use in the presence of aortic stenosis but should be stopped if there are defects in the cardiac conduction system.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 67 - A 68-year-old man reports during a routine blood pressure check-up that he has...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man reports during a routine blood pressure check-up that he has been experiencing difficulty urinating. Upon further questioning, he describes urinary hesitancy, a weak stream, occasional dribbling, and a sensation of incomplete emptying. These symptoms are causing him distress to the point where he avoids going out in public. Upon examination, you note a smooth enlarged prostate and decide to send blood for PSA testing and a urine specimen for culture. The results come back clear, and his PSA level is 3.8 ng/ml (normal age-adjusted range 0 - 4 ng/ml).
      What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An alpha-blocker is the first-line treatment in this patient group

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition in older men that can cause urinary symptoms. Here are some common treatment options and their effectiveness:

      Alpha-blockers: These medications, such as tamsulosin, relax smooth muscle and are the first-line treatment for patients with predominantly voiding symptoms.

      Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP): Surgery is reserved for patients with bladder outflow obstruction or in those in whom medical therapy fails.

      Finasteride: This medication shrinks the prostate, but the benefit is seen over weeks to months.

      Prostate biopsy: This should be considered in the investigation of prostate cancer, but is not necessary in this patient with normal PSA and examination findings.

      Saw palmetto: This herbal remedy is not more effective than placebo and is not recommended by NICE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 68 - A 48-year-old Caucasian female presents with tiredness to her general practitioner. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old Caucasian female presents with tiredness to her general practitioner. She has gained a little weight of late and during the last year has become increasingly tired. She has a history of asthma for which she takes inhaled salbutamol on an as required basis (usually no more than once a week) and diet-controlled type 2 diabetes.

      Examination reveals a blood pressure of 172/98 mmHg, a body mass index of 29.7 kg/m2, and a pulse of 88 beats per minute. There are no other abnormalities of note. Her blood pressure recordings over the next month are 180/96, 176/90 and 178/100 mmHg.

      Which of the following drugs would you recommend for the treatment of this patient's blood pressure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atenolol

      Explanation:

      Hypertension Treatment in Type 2 Diabetes Patients

      This patient with type 2 diabetes has sustained hypertension and requires treatment. The first-line treatment for hypertension in diabetes is ACE inhibitors. These medications have no adverse effects on glucose tolerance or lipid profiles and can delay the progression of microalbuminuria to nephropathy. Additionally, ACE inhibitors reduce morbidity and mortality in patients with vascular disease and diabetes.

      However, bendroflumethiazide may provoke an attack of gout in patients with a history of gout. Beta-blockers should be avoided for the routine treatment of uncomplicated hypertension in patients with diabetes. They can also precipitate bronchospasm and should be avoided in patients with asthma. In situations where there is no suitable alternative, a cardioselective beta blocker should be selected and initiated at a low dose by a specialist. The patient should be monitored closely for adverse effects.

      Alpha-blockers, such as doxazosin, are reserved for the treatment of resistant hypertension in conjunction with other antihypertensives. It is important to consider the patient’s medical history and individual needs when selecting a treatment plan for hypertension in type 2 diabetes patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 69 - A 35-year-old truck driver has recently been diagnosed with epilepsy and started on...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old truck driver has recently been diagnosed with epilepsy and started on sodium valproate. What guidance should be given regarding his group 2 license?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He cannot drive until he is fit-free for 10 years without medication

      Explanation:

      Individuals who possess a group 2 license and have epilepsy are only permitted to operate a vehicle after a period of 10 years without experiencing seizures while not taking medication. This is a more stringent requirement compared to group 1 license holders. If a group 2 license holder is diagnosed with epilepsy, it is advised that they refrain from driving, even if their condition is under control with medication. Only after a decade of being seizure-free without medication can they undergo a reassessment to determine their eligibility to drive.

      The DVLA has guidelines for individuals with neurological disorders who wish to drive cars or motorcycles. However, the rules for drivers of heavy goods vehicles are much stricter. For individuals with epilepsy or seizures, they must not drive and must inform the DVLA. If an individual has had a first unprovoked or isolated seizure, they must take six months off driving if there are no relevant structural abnormalities on brain imaging and no definite epileptiform activity on EEG. If these conditions are not met, the time off driving is increased to 12 months. Individuals with established epilepsy or those with multiple unprovoked seizures may qualify for a driving license if they have been free from any seizure for 12 months. If there have been no seizures for five years (with medication if necessary), a ’til 70 license is usually restored. Individuals should not drive while anti-epilepsy medication is being withdrawn and for six months after the last dose.

      For individuals with syncope, a simple faint has no restriction on driving. A single episode that is explained and treated requires four weeks off driving. A single unexplained episode requires six months off driving, while two or more episodes require 12 months off. For individuals with other conditions such as stroke or TIA, they must take one month off driving. They may not need to inform the DVLA if there is no residual neurological deficit. If an individual has had multiple TIAs over a short period of time, they must take three months off driving and inform the DVLA. For individuals who have had a craniotomy, such as for meningioma, they must take one year off driving. If an individual has had a pituitary tumor, a craniotomy requires six months off driving, while trans-sphenoidal surgery allows driving when there is no debarring residual impairment likely to affect safe driving. Individuals with narcolepsy/cataplexy must cease driving on diagnosis but can restart once there is satisfactory control of symptoms. For individuals with chronic neurological disorders such as multiple sclerosis or motor neuron disease, they should inform the DVLA and complete the PK1 form (application for driving license holders’ state of health). If the tumor is a benign meningioma and there is no seizure history, the license can be reconsidered six months after surgery if the individual remains seizure-free.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 70 - A 30-year-old woman complains she has had pain in her left elbow, left...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman complains she has had pain in her left elbow, left wrist, right knee and right ankle for the last week. She recently came back from Mexico where she had been on a two-week holiday with her friends. She confessed that while on holiday, she had unprotected sex. Examination shows tenderness and swelling of the tendons around the involved joints but no actual joint swelling. She also has a skin rash, which is vesico-pustular.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gonococcal arthritis

      Explanation:

      The patient is presenting with arthritis-dermatitis syndrome, which is a symptom of disseminated gonococcal infection. This infection can manifest in two forms: bacteraemic and septic arthritis. The former is more common, with up to 60% of patients presenting with it. Symptoms can appear within one day to three months after initial infection, and up to 80% of women with gonorrhoea may not experience any genitourinary symptoms.

      The most common symptom of arthritis-dermatitis syndrome is migratory arthralgias, which are typically asymmetrical and affect the upper extremities more than the lower extremities. Pain may also occur due to tenosynovitis. The associated rash is painless and not itchy, consisting of small papules, pustules or vesicles. A pustule with an erythematous base on the hand or foot can be a helpful diagnostic clue.

      Symptoms may resolve spontaneously in 30-40% of cases or progress to septic arthritis in one or more joints. Unlike Staphylococcus aureus septic arthritis, gonococcal arthritis rarely leads to joint destruction.

      Gout, reactive arthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, and tuberculous arthritis are all incorrect diagnoses. Gout typically presents as an acute monoarthritis, reactive arthritis is an autoimmune condition that develops in response to a gastrointestinal or genitourinary infection, rheumatoid arthritis affects small joints symmetrically, and tuberculous arthritis usually involves only one joint, with the spine being the most common site of skeletal involvement in tuberculosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 71 - Which of the following causes of pneumonia is most commonly linked with the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following causes of pneumonia is most commonly linked with the onset of erythema multiforme major?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mycoplasma

      Explanation:

      Understanding Erythema Multiforme

      Erythema multiforme is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that is commonly triggered by infections. It can be classified into two forms, minor and major. Previously, Stevens-Johnson syndrome was thought to be a severe form of erythema multiforme, but they are now considered separate entities.

      The features of erythema multiforme include target lesions that initially appear on the back of the hands or feet before spreading to the torso. The upper limbs are more commonly affected than the lower limbs, and pruritus, or mild itching, may occasionally be present.

      The causes of erythema multiforme can include viruses such as herpes simplex virus, bacteria like Mycoplasma and Streptococcus, drugs such as penicillin and NSAIDs, and connective tissue diseases like systemic lupus erythematosus. Malignancy and sarcoidosis can also be underlying causes.

      Erythema multiforme major is the more severe form of the condition and is associated with mucosal involvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 72 - A clinical trial is being conducted to assess the effectiveness of a new...

    Incorrect

    • A clinical trial is being conducted to assess the effectiveness of a new drug in reducing blood pressure in patients with hypertension. The null hypothesis states there is no difference between the new drug and placebo in reducing blood pressure.

      After collecting the appropriate data, statistical analyses are conducted and the researcher wants to quantify if the observed difference may have occurred just by chance. He calculates this probability assuming the null hypothesis is correct.

      What is this known as?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: P-value

      Explanation:

      Confidence intervals are frequently utilized in statistical analysis to estimate the range of values within which a population parameter is likely to fall.

      Power refers to the likelihood of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, indicating the ability to detect a statistically significant difference. This is calculated as the complement of the probability of a type II error.

      The standard error is a measure of the variability of the means of multiple samples. It is computed by dividing the standard deviation of these means by the square root of the sample size.

      Type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is accepted despite being false, resulting in a failure to detect a difference, or a false negative.

      Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 73 - A 47-year-old man has been diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer and CLO testing...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man has been diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer and CLO testing during gastroscopy confirms the presence of Helicobacter pylori. What is the best course of action for eradicating Helicobacter pylori?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lansoprazole + amoxicillin + clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Helicobacter pylori: A Bacteria Associated with Gastrointestinal Problems

      Helicobacter pylori is a type of Gram-negative bacteria that is commonly associated with various gastrointestinal problems, particularly peptic ulcer disease. This bacterium has two primary mechanisms that allow it to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach. Firstly, it uses its flagella to move away from low pH areas and burrow into the mucous lining to reach the epithelial cells underneath. Secondly, it secretes urease, which converts urea to NH3, leading to an alkalinization of the acidic environment and increased bacterial survival.

      The pathogenesis mechanism of Helicobacter pylori involves the release of bacterial cytotoxins, such as the CagA toxin, which can disrupt the gastric mucosa. This bacterium is associated with several gastrointestinal problems, including peptic ulcer disease, gastric cancer, B cell lymphoma of MALT tissue, and atrophic gastritis. However, its role in gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is unclear, and there is currently no role for the eradication of Helicobacter pylori in GORD.

      The management of Helicobacter pylori infection involves a 7-day course of treatment with a proton pump inhibitor, amoxicillin, and either clarithromycin or metronidazole. For patients who are allergic to penicillin, a proton pump inhibitor, metronidazole, and clarithromycin are used instead.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 74 - You receive the blood tests which were requested by the practice nurse in...

    Incorrect

    • You receive the blood tests which were requested by the practice nurse in advance of the annual diabetes review of Mrs. Johnson, a 50-year-old patient. Mrs. Johnson was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes about 4 years ago, and after 2 years of attempting to control it with lifestyle measures, she commenced metformin and is now prescribed 1g BD. Her full blood count, renal profile and liver function tests are normal, her total cholesterol is 5.3mmol/L. Her HbA1c is 60mmol/mol.

      As per NICE guidelines, what should be done regarding Mrs. Johnson's blood sugar control?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Commence a second blood glucose lowering drug and reinforce lifestyle and diet measures

      Explanation:

      If the HbA1c is > 58 mmol/mol in type 2 diabetes mellitus, a second blood glucose lowering drug should be added while also reinforcing lifestyle and diet measures, according to NICE guidelines. Simply reinforcing lifestyle measures is not enough. It is important to intensify drug treatment and revisit lifestyle and dietary advice with the patient. It is not recommended to stop metformin unless it is contraindicated or not tolerated. Modified-release metformin may be an option for patients experiencing gastrointestinal side effects on standard release metformin, but it will not improve blood sugar control.

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 75 - A 42-year-old woman presents with a potassium reading of 2.9 mmol/L. As there...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with a potassium reading of 2.9 mmol/L. As there is no obvious cause, you schedule an in-depth assessment. During the history-taking, you discover that she experiences strong urges to consume large amounts of food and frequently engages in binge eating. She also admits to using laxatives but denies inducing vomiting. These episodes occur approximately three times per week, and her body mass index is 19.5 kg/m2. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Explanation of Bulimia Nervosa

      The case history presented suggests that the patient is suffering from bulimia nervosa. This disorder is characterized by recurrent episodes of binge eating, followed by compensatory behaviors such as purging or the use of laxatives. While anorexia is more common in teenagers, bulimia is often seen in older patients, typically in their 20s or beyond.

      The patient’s urges to eat large amounts of food, frequent use of laxatives, and low potassium levels are all indicative of bulimia nervosa. It is important to note that this behavior is not a normal variant and requires medical attention. While the patient is only marginally underweight, a BMI of 20 kg/m2 is considered the lower limit of normal.

      It is unlikely that the patient is experiencing refeeding syndrome, which is a rare condition typically associated with parenteral nutrition in a hospital setting. Enteral nutrition may also lead to refeeding syndrome after a prolonged period of starvation. However, this is not the case for the patient in question. Overall, a diagnosis of bulimia nervosa is the most appropriate for this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 76 - You have a 7-year-old Asian child in your clinic. He has slightly bowed...

    Incorrect

    • You have a 7-year-old Asian child in your clinic. He has slightly bowed legs and complains of muscle pains. You suspect a Vitamin D deficiency. What is the most suitable test to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 25-hydroxyvitamin D

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vitamin D Deficiency

      Vitamin D deficiency is a common health concern that can lead to various health problems. To investigate suspected Vitamin D deficiency, doctors often use the 25-hydroxyvitamin D blood test. However, it’s important to note that a high alkaline phosphatase level may indicate rickets, but it can still be normal despite significant Vitamin D deficiency. Additionally, Vitamin D deficiency can impair the absorption of dietary calcium and phosphorus, but these levels may still appear normal despite the deficiency.

      When the parathyroid calcium sensing receptors detect low levels of calcium, the body produces parathyroid hormone. While this hormone can be used to diagnose Vitamin D deficiency, it’s an expensive test that is not usually necessary. Overall, understanding the signs and symptoms of Vitamin D deficiency and getting regular check-ups can help prevent and treat this common health issue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 77 - What is the single correct statement concerning essential tremor from the list provided?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the single correct statement concerning essential tremor from the list provided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tremor may be worsened by medication

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tremors: Causes and Treatment Options

      Tremors can be caused by a variety of factors, including medication such as lithium, tricyclic antidepressants, metoclopramide, and bronchodilators. However, the most common type of tremor seen in general practice is essential tremor, which is worsened by posture and movement but relieved by rest. This type of tremor can affect various parts of the body, including the head, neck, jaw, and voice.

      In contrast, Parkinsonian tremor is present at rest. When it comes to treating essential tremor, β blockers are typically the first-line option. If these are not suitable, primidone may be tried, although it can cause sedation. Unfortunately, up to half of patients do not respond to these treatments or cannot tolerate them. In such cases, topiramate may be a viable alternative for long-term management.

      Occasionally, short-term treatment with alprazolam or clonazepam may be used to alleviate tremors caused by tension or anxiety. However, these medications can cause sedation and may be habit-forming. Overall, understanding the causes and treatment options for tremors can help patients manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 78 - A small study examines the age of patients diagnosed with hypertension. A total...

    Incorrect

    • A small study examines the age of patients diagnosed with hypertension. A total of 64 patients were analyzed. The average age was 55 years, with a standard deviation of 8 years. What is the standard error of the mean?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1.5

      Explanation:

      The formula to calculate the standard error of the mean is to divide the standard deviation by the square root of the number of patients. For example, if the standard deviation is 12 and there are 64 patients, the standard error of the mean would be 12 divided by the square root of 64, which equals 1.5.

      Understanding Confidence Interval and Standard Error of the Mean

      The confidence interval is a widely used concept in medical statistics, but it can be confusing to understand. In simple terms, it is a range of values that is likely to contain the true effect of an intervention. The likelihood of the true effect lying within the confidence interval is determined by the confidence level, which is the specified probability of including the true value of the variable. For instance, a 95% confidence interval means that the range of values should contain the true effect of intervention 95% of the time.

      To calculate the confidence interval, we use the standard error of the mean (SEM), which measures the spread expected for the mean of the observations. The SEM is calculated by dividing the standard deviation (SD) by the square root of the sample size (n). As the sample size increases, the SEM gets smaller, indicating a more accurate sample mean from the true population mean.

      A 95% confidence interval is calculated by subtracting and adding 1.96 times the SEM from the mean value. However, if the sample size is small (n < 100), a 'Student's T critical value' look-up table should be used instead of 1.96. Similarly, if a different confidence level is required, such as 90%, the value used in the formula should be adjusted accordingly. In summary, the confidence interval is a range of values that is likely to contain the true effect of an intervention, and its calculation involves using the standard error of the mean. Understanding these concepts is crucial in interpreting statistical results in medical research.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 79 - A 20-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of lip and tongue swelling,...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of lip and tongue swelling, redness, and tingling after consuming apples for the past 2 months. The symptoms appear suddenly and last for approximately half an hour. However, they do not occur when the apples are cooked. The patient has a medical history of asthma, hayfever, and several food allergies, including peanuts, brazil nuts, and cashews.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral allergy syndrome

      Explanation:

      Food allergy symptoms usually involve nausea and diarrhea, regardless of whether the allergen has been cooked or not. However, oral allergy syndrome is a specific type of reaction that causes tingling in the lips, tongue, and mouth after consuming raw plant foods like spinach or apples. This reaction doesn’t occur when the food is cooked. Patients with this syndrome often have a history of atopic diseases like asthma. Anaphylaxis, on the other hand, presents with wheezing, hives, low blood pressure, and even collapse. Angioedema, which is swelling of the upper airway’s submucosa, is usually caused by ACE inhibitors or C1-esterase inhibitor deficiency and may be accompanied by urticaria.

      Understanding Oral Allergy Syndrome

      Oral allergy syndrome, also known as pollen-food allergy, is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when a person with a pollen allergy eats certain raw, plant-based foods. This reaction is caused by cross-reaction with a non-food allergen, most commonly birch pollen, where the protein in the food is similar but not identical in structure to the original allergen. As a result, OAS is strongly linked with pollen allergies and presents with seasonal variation. Symptoms of OAS typically include mild tingling or itching of the lips, tongue, and mouth.

      It is important to note that OAS is different from food allergies, which are caused by direct sensitivity to a protein present in food. Non-plant foods do not cause OAS because there are no cross-reactive allergens in pollen that would be structurally similar to meat. Food allergies may be caused by plant or non-plant foods and can lead to systemic symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea, and even anaphylaxis.

      OAS is a clinical diagnosis, but further tests can be used to rule out other diagnoses and confirm the diagnosis when the history is unclear. Treatment for OAS involves avoiding the culprit foods and taking oral antihistamines if symptoms develop. In severe cases, an ambulance should be called, and intramuscular adrenaline may be required.

      In conclusion, understanding oral allergy syndrome is important for individuals with pollen allergies who may experience symptoms after eating certain raw, plant-based foods. By avoiding the culprit foods and seeking appropriate medical care when necessary, individuals with OAS can manage their symptoms effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 80 - You are discussing smoking cessation with a patient in their 60s newly diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • You are discussing smoking cessation with a patient in their 60s newly diagnosed with COPD.

      You wish to use the 'stages of change' model, which is comprised of:

      A Action
      B Contemplation
      C Maintenance
      D precontemplation
      E Preparation

      Which of the following correctly orders the listed stages in the 'stages of change' model?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A D C B E

      Explanation:

      The Stages of Change Model for Smoking Cessation

      The ‘stages of change’ model is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to categorize a patient’s readiness to act on a new health behavior, such as smoking cessation. The correct order of the model is precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, and maintenance.

      It is important to determine where the patient fits in the model to tailor the approach accordingly. Patients in the earlier stages may benefit from education on the benefits of quitting smoking and increasing their awareness of the positive outcomes. This can help them move towards the later stages of the model.

      Patients in the later stages may require more direct intervention, such as pharmacological management with nicotine replacement or varenicline, and advice on preventing relapse. By utilizing the stages of change model, healthcare professionals can provide personalized care and support for patients seeking to quit smoking.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 81 - A 35-year-old woman has chronic pancreatitis. She has lost weight and has diarrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman has chronic pancreatitis. She has lost weight and has diarrhoea that has become troublesome.
      Select from the list the single most suitable preparation to relieve her diarrhoea.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancreatin

      Explanation:

      Gastrointestinal Medications: Pancreatin, Cholestyramine, Loperamide, Co-Phenotrope, and Ispaghula Husk

      Pancreatin is a combination of digestive enzymes produced by the pancreas that aid in the breakdown of protein, fat, and starch. It is commonly used to treat conditions where the pancreas is not producing enough enzymes, such as pancreatitis, cystic fibrosis, or after surgical removal of the pancreas. Pancreatin should be taken with food or with medications that reduce stomach acid.

      Cholestyramine is a medication that binds to bile in the gut, preventing its reabsorption. It is primarily used to treat itching in patients with advanced liver disease and to prevent diarrhea in individuals with Crohn’s disease who have had a portion of their small intestine removed.

      Loperamide and co-phenotrope are anti-motility drugs that can be used to treat uncomplicated acute diarrhea in adults. These medications slow down the movement of the gut, allowing for more water to be absorbed and reducing the frequency of bowel movements.

      Ispaghula husk is a bulk-forming laxative that absorbs water in the gut, increasing the bulk of stool and promoting regular bowel movements. It is commonly used to treat constipation and other bowel irregularities.

      Overall, these medications can be effective in treating a variety of gastrointestinal conditions and symptoms. However, it is important to consult with a healthcare provider before starting any new medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 82 - What factor has been demonstrated to elevate the likelihood of developing prostate cancer?...

    Incorrect

    • What factor has been demonstrated to elevate the likelihood of developing prostate cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low intake of animal fats

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Prostate Cancer

      Being overweight or obese are both risk factors for developing prostate cancer. Black ethnicity is associated with a higher risk of prostate cancer than Caucasian. A family history of breast cancer or prostate cancer also increases the risk. Additionally, an occupation in farming seems to increase the risk of prostate cancer.

      High intake of animal fats and low selenium intake, as well as exposure to radiation and cadmium, may also increase the risk of prostate cancer. However, there isn’t enough evidence to be absolutely sure in the case of cadmium. It’s important to be aware of these risk factors and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 83 - A mother brings her 12-month-old son into surgery as she is concerned about...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 12-month-old son into surgery as she is concerned about his hearing. For a child born in the United Kingdom, at what age would their hearing first be formally assessed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Newborn - otoacoustic emission

      Explanation:

      The screening of newborns for hearing problems involves the use of an otoacoustic emission test.

      Hearing Tests for Children

      Hearing tests are important for children to ensure that they are developing normally. There are several tests that may be performed on children of different ages. For newborns, an otoacoustic emission test is typically done as part of the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme. This test involves playing a computer-generated click through a small earpiece and checking for the presence of a soft echo, which indicates a healthy cochlea. If the results of this test are abnormal, an Auditory Brainstem Response test may be done.

      For infants between 6-9 months, a Distraction test may be performed by a health visitor with the help of two trained staff members. For children between 18 months to 2.5 years, a Recognition of familiar objects test may be used, which involves using familiar objects like a teddy or cup and asking the child simple questions like where is the teddy? For children over 2.5 years, Performance testing and Speech discrimination tests using similar-sounding objects like the Kendall Toy test or McCormick Toy Test may be used. Pure tone audiometry is typically done at school entry in most areas of the UK for children over 3 years old.

      In addition to these tests, there is also a questionnaire for parents in the Personal Child Health Records called Can your baby hear you? This questionnaire can help identify any potential hearing issues in children. Overall, hearing tests are an important part of ensuring that children are developing normally and can help identify any issues early on.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 84 - A researcher is analysing the body mass index (BMI) of patients in a...

    Incorrect

    • A researcher is analysing the body mass index (BMI) of patients in a geriatric ward. Most of the patients have a BMI that falls within the normal range; however, a few outliers have very low BMIs.
      Which of the following is most likely to be affected by the outliers?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mean

      Explanation:

      Measures of Central Tendency: Mean, Median, and Mode

      When analyzing a set of data, it is important to understand the measures of central tendency: mean, median, and mode. The mean is calculated by adding up all the scores and dividing by the number of scores. However, the mean is heavily influenced by extreme values, which can significantly lower the overall value. The median, on the other hand, is the middle number in a sorted list of values and is less affected by extreme values. Finally, the mode is the most frequently occurring value in the data set and is not influenced by extreme values. Understanding these measures of central tendency can help provide a more accurate representation of the data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 85 - A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of excessive morning sickness during her...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of excessive morning sickness during her third month of pregnancy. Her routine blood tests show an ALT level of 64 IU (normal range: < 40 IU/l) and a bilirubin of 55 µmol/l (normal range: < 21 µmol/l). What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperemesis gravidarum (HG)

      Explanation:

      Hyperemesis gravidarum (HG) is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that occurs during pregnancy and can lead to fluid and electrolyte imbalances, ketosis, and weight loss. It often affects the liver, with abnormal ALT levels in about half of patients. Jaundice may also occur in severe cases. While HG typically resolves by the end of the third trimester, it can persist throughout pregnancy in some cases.

      Acute fatty liver of pregnancy (AFLP) is a rare condition that occurs in about 5 out of 100,000 pregnancies. It often presents in the third trimester with symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, fever, headache, and pruritus. Jaundice may also occur and can become severe. AFLP is typically managed by prompt delivery and supportive care, but it is unlikely to be the diagnosis for a patient in the first trimester.

      HELLP syndrome is a condition that can occur in patients with severe pre-eclampsia, with symptoms including abnormal pain and elevated AST levels. It is most likely to occur close to delivery, but it can occur as early as 20 weeks. However, this patient is only 13 weeks pregnant, making HELLP syndrome an unlikely diagnosis.

      Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy (ICP) is a common condition that should be considered in cases of abnormal liver function tests in the second trimester. It is characterized by itching, and severe cases may lead to jaundice. Affected pregnancies are at an increased risk of prematurity and stillbirth, so early delivery may be necessary.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that typically occurs in the second half of pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure and proteinuria. It may also cause peripheral edema, abdominal pain, headache, and visual problems. Treatment involves delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 86 - A 50-year-old woman visits her GP clinic with concerns about her susceptibility to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman visits her GP clinic with concerns about her susceptibility to ovarian cancer, given the recent media coverage. What factor is most closely linked to the development of ovarian cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Early menarche

      Explanation:

      The hormonal factors are responsible for the risk of ovarian cancer. Women who experience ovulation without suppression are at a higher risk. Therefore, early menarche and late menopause, which increase ovulation, are considered risk factors for ovarian cancer. On the other hand, hormone replacement therapy (HRT) and obesity, not low body weight, are also risk factors.

      Pregnancy, which suppresses ovulation, is a protective factor against ovarian cancer. Similarly, the use of combined oral contraceptives is also considered protective.

      The media often highlights vague symptoms such as bloating as potential signs of ovarian cancer. However, it is important to reassure patients and conduct a thorough history and examination to identify any risk factors.

      Understanding Ovarian Cancer: Risk Factors, Symptoms, and Management

      Ovarian cancer is a type of cancer that affects women, with the peak age of incidence being 60 years. It is the fifth most common malignancy in females and carries a poor prognosis due to late diagnosis. Around 90% of ovarian cancers are epithelial in origin, with 70-80% of cases being due to serous carcinomas. Interestingly, recent studies suggest that the distal end of the fallopian tube is often the site of origin of many ‘ovarian’ cancers.

      There are several risk factors associated with ovarian cancer, including a family history of mutations of the BRCA1 or the BRCA2 gene, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity. Clinical features of ovarian cancer are notoriously vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms, early satiety, and diarrhea.

      To diagnose ovarian cancer, a CA125 test is usually done initially. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 should not be used for screening for ovarian cancer in asymptomatic women. Diagnosis is difficult and usually involves diagnostic laparotomy.

      Management of ovarian cancer usually involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. The prognosis for ovarian cancer is poor, with 80% of women having advanced disease at presentation and the all stage 5-year survival being 46%. It is traditionally taught that infertility treatment increases the risk of ovarian cancer, as it increases the number of ovulations. However, recent evidence suggests that there is not a significant link. The combined oral contraceptive pill reduces the risk (fewer ovulations) as does having many pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 87 - During your weekly ward round at the local neurological rehabilitation care centre you...

    Incorrect

    • During your weekly ward round at the local neurological rehabilitation care centre you see a 34-year-old man who has a background of depression, asthma and a traumatic spinal cord injury. The nurses report him being more distressed and agitated over the last two days.

      On examination he is profusely sweating in the upper body and face, his blood pressure is 180/110mmHg, heart rate 60/min, oxygen saturations 99%, chest clear to auscultation and Glasgow coma scale 15, calves soft and non-tender, pupils equal and reactive. He admits to drinking 15 units/week and smokes 10 cigarettes/day. Regular medications include salbutamol, oxycodone, co-codamol 30/500 as required and prophylactic dose low molecular weight heparin.

      What is the most likely underlying cause of the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autonomic dysreflexia

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of autonomic dysreflexia is faecal impaction or urinary retention. Treatment involves addressing the underlying cause, which in this case is likely faecal impaction. Risk factors for impaction include immobility, certain medications, anatomic conditions, and neuropsychiatric conditions. The patient may have developed impaction due to the use of oxycodone and Co-codamol without laxatives. This is the only answer that would result in localised flushing above the level of the spinal cord injury.

      Alcohol withdrawal is an incorrect answer as the patient’s alcohol consumption is not high enough to cause physical withdrawal symptoms.

      Pulmonary embolism is also an incorrect answer as it would present with different symptoms such as tachycardia and signs of a DVT.

      Serotonin syndrome is an incorrect answer as it would not cause localised sweating and may present with other symptoms such as tachycardia and dilated pupils.

      Autonomic dysreflexia is a condition that occurs in patients who have suffered a spinal cord injury at or above the T6 spinal level. It is caused by a reflex response triggered by various stimuli, such as faecal impaction or urinary retention, which sends signals through the thoracolumbar outflow. However, due to the spinal cord lesion, the usual parasympathetic response is prevented, leading to an unbalanced physiological response. This response is characterized by extreme hypertension, flushing, and sweating above the level of the cord lesion, as well as agitation. If left untreated, severe consequences such as haemorrhagic stroke can occur. The management of autonomic dysreflexia involves removing or controlling the stimulus and treating any life-threatening hypertension and/or bradycardia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 88 - Sophie is a 23-year-old female who recently began taking the combined contraceptive pill...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 23-year-old female who recently began taking the combined contraceptive pill due to irregular periods and starting a new relationship with her partner. However, Sophie forgot to take her pill for the past 3 days during week 2 of her cycle.

      What would be the recommended course of action for management, considering Sophie's desire to avoid pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Finish the pills in the current pack and start new pack immediately, omitting pill-free interval

      Explanation:

      If two pills are missed during week 3 of taking the COCP, it is important to finish the current pack of pills and immediately start a new pack without taking the pill-free interval. This is necessary to prevent ovulation and the risk of pregnancy. It is not recommended to finish the current pack and start a new pack after the pill-free interval as this could lead to ovulation and pregnancy. Emergency contraception is not necessary in this situation as long as ovulation has not yet occurred. The copper coil, ulipristal, and levonorgestrel are all forms of emergency contraception and are not appropriate in this scenario.

      The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their advice for women taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol. If one pill is missed at any time during the cycle, the woman should take the last pill, even if it means taking two pills in one day, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed. However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. She should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for seven days in a row. If pills are missed in week one, emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week one. If pills are missed in week two, after seven consecutive days of taking the COC, there is no need for emergency contraception. If pills are missed in week three, she should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of seven days on, seven days off.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 89 - A father attends with his 6-year-old child. The child sustained an uncomplicated closed...

    Incorrect

    • A father attends with his 6-year-old child. The child sustained an uncomplicated closed fracture of the tibia following a playground accident and is expected to wear a cast for 8 weeks.

      The child's father says that he will need help with bathing and transport to school and wonders about financial assistance because domestic finances are tight.

      Regarding the Disability Living Allowance (DLA) for under 16s, what advice would you give him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The child must have needed care for the preceding month to be eligible

      Explanation:

      Disability Living Allowance (DLA) and Personal Independence Payment (PIP)

      Disability Living Allowance (DLA) is a tax-free benefit that assists with the additional expenses of caring for a child who requires assistance due to a disability or health condition. The benefit is paid to the child’s parent or caregiver, such as a step-parent, guardian, grandparent, foster parent, or older sibling over the age of 18. To qualify for DLA, the child must require more day-to-day assistance than other children of the same age without a disability, and the assistance must have been necessary for at least three months and expected to continue for at least six months. DLA is made up of a care component and a mobility component, with varying rates for each.

      Personal Independence Payment (PIP) is gradually replacing DLA for individuals aged 16 or older who have not yet reached State Pension age. PIP is designed to assist with the additional expenses of living with a disability or health condition and is based on an individual’s ability to carry out daily living activities and mobility. PIP is also tax-free and is made up of two components: daily living and mobility. The daily living component is paid at either the standard or enhanced rate, while the mobility component is paid at either the standard or enhanced rate.

      Overall, both DLA and PIP are essential benefits that provide financial assistance to those who require additional support due to a disability or health condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 90 - A 20-year-old female comes in for a follow-up appointment. She had a Nexplanon...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female comes in for a follow-up appointment. She had a Nexplanon implanted six months ago but has been experiencing light spotting on approximately 50% of days. Her medical history includes a first trimester abortion two years ago, but otherwise, she has no significant medical issues. A vaginal examination reveals no abnormalities, and she recently tested negative for sexually transmitted infections. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe a 3 month course of a combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      A cervical smear is not a diagnostic test and should only be conducted as a part of a screening program. An 18-year-old’s risk of cervical cancer is already low, and a normal vaginal examination can further reduce it.

      If controlling bleeding is the goal, the combined oral contraceptive pill is more effective than the progesterone-only pill.

      Implanon and Nexplanon are both subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is an updated version of Implanon with a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It doesn’t contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a history of thromboembolism or migraines. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraception is required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1-5 of the menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a different method or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment. Contraindications include ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, meaning it represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 91 - A 25-year-old woman is treated in the Emergency Department (ED) following an anaphylactic...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is treated in the Emergency Department (ED) following an anaphylactic reaction to a wasp sting. She presents to her General Practitioner (GP) a few days later as she is worried about the possibility of this happening again and is seeking advice on what she should do if it does.
      What is the most appropriate initial self-management advice for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Self-administer an intramuscular (IM) injection of adrenaline

      Explanation:

      How to Self-Administer an Intramuscular Injection of Adrenaline for Anaphylaxis

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that requires immediate treatment. The most effective treatment for anaphylaxis is intramuscular (IM) adrenaline, which can be self-administered using adrenaline auto-injectors (AAIs) such as EpiPen® and Jext®.

      Before using an AAI, patients should receive proper training on their use. The recommended dose of adrenaline for adults is 0.3 mg, while for children up to 25-30 kg, it is 0.15 mg. Patients should carry two doses with them at all times, as the dose may need to be repeated after 5-15 minutes.

      It is important to note that a cold compress is not an effective treatment for anaphylaxis, as it is a systemic reaction. Similarly, taking an oral antihistamine should not delay treatment with IM adrenaline.

      If experiencing anaphylaxis, it is crucial to administer the IM adrenaline injection immediately and then seek medical attention. Contacting emergency services is recommended, but should not delay self-administration of the injection. Additionally, if stung by a bee, the sting should be scraped out rather than plucked to avoid squeezing more venom into the skin.

      In summary, knowing how to self-administer an IM injection of adrenaline is crucial for those at risk of anaphylaxis. Proper training and carrying two doses of the medication at all times can help ensure prompt and effective treatment in case of an emergency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 92 - A 40-year-old male presents to the GP with a 7-day history of fever,...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male presents to the GP with a 7-day history of fever, sore throat and muscle aches. On examination, he is visibly jaundiced, his blood pressure 130/80 mmHg, heart rate 80/min, respiratory rate 13/min, HS I + II + 0, breath sounds are vesicular and abdomen is soft but tender in the right upper quadrant with hepatomegaly. The GP orders blood tests which show:

      Hb 140 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 220 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 11.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 6.4 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 100 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      CRP 50 mg/L (< 5)
      Bilirubin 80 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      ALP 100 u/L (30 - 100)
      ALT 500 u/L (3 - 40)
      γGT 150 u/L (8 - 60)
      Albumin 45 g/L (35 - 50)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis A

      Explanation:

      The symptoms exhibited by the patient suggest acute hepatitis, with fever and jaundice being prominent. Autoimmune hepatitis is typically observed in young females, making it less likely in this male patient. Hence, hepatitis A is a more probable diagnosis, given his presentation of myalgia, sore throat, fever, and jaundice.

      Understanding Hepatitis A: Symptoms, Transmission, and Prevention

      Hepatitis A is a viral infection that affects the liver. It is usually a mild illness that resolves on its own, with serious complications being rare. The virus is transmitted through the faecal-oral route, often in institutions. The incubation period is typically 2-4 weeks, and symptoms include a flu-like prodrome, abdominal pain (usually in the right upper quadrant), tender hepatomegaly, jaundice, and deranged liver function tests.

      While complications are rare, there is no increased risk of hepatocellular cancer. An effective vaccine is available, and it is recommended for people travelling to or residing in areas of high or intermediate prevalence, those with chronic liver disease, patients with haemophilia, men who have sex with men, injecting drug users, and individuals at occupational risk (such as laboratory workers, staff of large residential institutions, sewage workers, and people who work with primates).

      It is important to note that the vaccine requires a booster dose 6-12 months after the initial dose. By understanding the symptoms, transmission, and prevention of hepatitis A, individuals can take steps to protect themselves and others from this viral infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 93 - A 51-year-old woman with motor neuron disease seeks guidance. She has come across...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year-old woman with motor neuron disease seeks guidance. She has come across the Mental Capacity Act and, after consulting with her spouse, has made the decision to decline ventilation if she experiences respiratory failure. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise that his wishes should be written, signed and witnessed

      Explanation:

      Formal advance directives are the preferred option for patients. It should be noted that lasting power of attorney arrangements do not cover decisions related to life-sustaining treatments unless they are explicitly stated.

      The Mental Capacity Act was introduced in 2007 and applies to adults over the age of 16. It outlines who can make decisions on behalf of a patient who becomes incapacitated, such as after a stroke. Mental capacity includes the ability to make decisions about daily life, healthcare, and finances. The Act is based on five key principles, including assuming a person has capacity unless proven otherwise, taking all possible steps to help a person make decisions, and making decisions in the person’s best interests.

      To assess whether a person lacks capacity, the Act provides a clear test that is decision-specific and time-specific. A person can only be considered unable to make a particular decision if they have an impairment or disturbance in the functioning of the mind or brain and are unable to understand, retain, use, or communicate information relevant to the decision. The Act also emphasizes that no individual can be labeled incapable based on their age, appearance, or any medical condition.

      When assessing what is in someone’s best interests, the Act considers factors such as the likelihood of regaining capacity, the person’s wishes and beliefs, and the views of other relevant people. The Act also allows for the appointment of an attorney through a Lasting Power of Attorney (LPA) to act on behalf of a person who loses capacity. The LPA can cover property and financial affairs as well as health and welfare decisions, including life-sustaining treatment. Advance decisions can also be made by individuals with capacity to specify treatments they would not want if they lost capacity. These decisions must be written, signed, and witnessed if they refuse life-sustaining treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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  • Question 94 - The parents of a 7-year-old child diagnosed with autism are concerned about the...

    Incorrect

    • The parents of a 7-year-old child diagnosed with autism are concerned about the potential impact on their child's overall health. They have heard that autism may be associated with various medical issues. Which of the following characteristics is not more prevalent in a child with autism than in the general population? Choose only ONE option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      Common Co-Occurring Conditions in Children with Autism

      Children with autism often experience co-occurring conditions that can impact their overall health and well-being. While some parents have reported success with a gluten-free diet for their child’s autism symptoms, there is no solid evidence to support this approach. Additionally, children with autism may also have ADHD, epilepsy, and sensory impairments such as hearing or vision impairment. It’s important for parents and caregivers to be aware of these potential co-occurring conditions and work with healthcare professionals to address them appropriately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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  • Question 95 - A 50-year-old lady with type II diabetes, which has been poorly controlled with...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old lady with type II diabetes, which has been poorly controlled with metformin.

      You recently started her on gliclazide, a sulphonylurea. She had an episode late one afternoon, when she felt shaky and disorientated. She was at home at the time and her husband had to help her sit down in a chair. He took her BM, which was 4.2 and gave her a sugary drink and a biscuit, after which her symptoms quickly resolved. She had not suffered similar episodes in the past.

      Physical examination is normal and a recent HBA1c is 75 mmol/mol.

      She would like advice about driving her car.

      What will you tell her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She doesn't have to stop driving

      Explanation:

      DVLA Guidance for Diabetic Patients on Driving and Hypoglycaemia

      DVLA guidance exists for patients with diabetes who are controlled with oral medication that may cause hypoglycaemia. This includes medications such as sulfonylureas and glinides. The guidance doesn’t differentiate between hypoglycaemic episodes that occur while driving and those that occur at other times.

      If a patient experiences warning symptoms of a hypoglycaemic attack, it is mandatory for them to have hypoglycaemic awareness in order to be allowed to drive. However, if it is the patient’s first episode, they do not have to stop driving. It is still recommended that they refrain from driving until they are established on an appropriate dose of diabetic medication. Patients should also be encouraged to recognize their symptoms of impending hypoglycaemia, and keeping a blood glucose diary can help with this.

      The DVLA guidelines do not specify a particular blood glucose level that would produce hypoglycaemic symptoms, as this can vary between individuals. If a patient has had only one episode of disabling hypoglycaemia in the last 12 months, they do not meet the requirements for DVLA notification and can continue driving. However, if a patient has had more than one episode of hypoglycaemia requiring assistance from another person within the preceding 12 months, they are not allowed to drive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 96 - A 68-year-old man is evaluated after being bedridden due to severe heart failure...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man is evaluated after being bedridden due to severe heart failure and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. He has been immobile in bed and his wife is struggling to care for him. During the examination, his blood pressure is 110/80 mmHg, heart rate is 85 bpm and regular. Bilateral crackles and wheezing are heard on chest auscultation, and he has pitting edema on both knees and over the sacrum. Which scoring system is utilized to assess his risk of developing pressure ulcers?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Waterlow scale

      Explanation:

      Different Clinical Scales and Their Uses

      There are various clinical scales used in healthcare to assess different aspects of a patient’s condition. Here are some examples:

      Waterlow Scale: This scale is used to estimate the risk of pressure sores in patients. It helps determine the level of nursing care required and the type of mattress that may be needed.

      Barthel Scale: This scale measures a patient’s ability to perform activities of daily living and provides an overall estimate of disability.

      Glasgow-Imrie Scale: This scale is used to evaluate the severity of acute pancreatitis.

      Modified Rankin Score: This scale assesses disability associated with neurological impairment.

      Ranson’s Criteria: This scale is used to evaluate the risk of mortality in patients with acute pancreatitis.

      Each of these scales serves a specific purpose in healthcare and helps healthcare professionals make informed decisions about patient care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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  • Question 97 - A 32-year-old woman presents with recurrent cold sores on her lip. She experiences...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with recurrent cold sores on her lip. She experiences frequent outbreaks during the spring and summer, which are painful and affect her confidence when going outside. She has tried over-the-counter creams with little success. She has no significant medical history and wants to prevent future outbreaks.
      What is the best course of action for managing her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeated courses of oral aciclovir to be taken at the onset of symptoms

      Explanation:

      Management of Recurrent Herpes Labialis: Treatment Options and Diagnostic Considerations

      Recurrent herpes labialis, commonly known as cold sores, can be a frustrating and uncomfortable condition for patients. Here are some management options to consider:

      – Oral antivirals: Treatment with oral antivirals may be considered in healthy patients if the lesions are persistent. Treatment should be started at the onset of the prodrome until the lesions have healed.
      – Topical aciclovir: While topical aciclovir can be used intermittently when prodromal symptoms appear, it is not recommended for long-term prophylaxis.
      – Sun protection: Sun exposure can trigger facial herpes simplex, so sun protection using a high-protection-factor sunscreen and other measures may be tried.
      – Laser therapy: There is no evidence to support laser therapy in the management of recurrent herpes labialis.
      – Diagnostic considerations: Investigations are not usually necessary in primary care to confirm the diagnosis. Tests for underlying immunosuppression may be considered with persistent or severe episodes.

      It is important to work with patients to find the best management plan for their individual needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 98 - Following your morning surgery you receive a telephone call from the lab at...

    Incorrect

    • Following your morning surgery you receive a telephone call from the lab at the local hospital regarding a 78-year-old patient of yours whom you admitted from her nursing home with headache, photophobia and neck stiffness.

      When you saw her, her temperature was 39.0°C, pulse rate 115 beats/min and there were no skin rashes or focal neurological signs. Her Glasgow coma scale was 15/15.

      Following admission, CSF was obtained and Gram stain showed Gram-negative coccobacilli, subsequent culture confirms a Haemophilus influenza meningitis.

      What chemoprophylaxis should be offered to the nurses at her home?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rifampicin

      Explanation:

      Chemoprophylaxis for Contacts of Meningitis Patients

      The decision to administer chemoprophylaxis to contacts of patients with confirmed meningitis is typically made by Public Health England or the appropriate public health agency. However, it is important to understand the basic principles of chemoprophylaxis.

      For Haemophilus influenza, prophylaxis is recommended for three main groups: household contacts, room contacts of children in playgrounds, nurseries, or creches, and the index case. Household contacts who are not immunized and under 4 years of age should receive the Hib vaccine and take rifampicin once daily for four days. The index case should be immunized regardless of age. Room contacts of unimmunized children under 4 years of age should be vaccinated, and chemoprophylaxis should be offered when two or more cases of Hib disease have occurred within 120 days.

      The Department of Health and Public Health England recommend rifampicin at a dose of 20 mg/kg once a day for four days for adults and children older than three months as the prophylaxis of choice for eliminating carriage in the index case and among household contacts. This is because it is highly effective, with an eradication rate of 92-97%, and Hib resistance to rifampicin is extremely rare (<0.1%) in the UK. Ciprofloxacin is an acceptable alternative.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 99 - A 50-year-old smoker, who was diagnosed with COPD 8 years ago, is experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old smoker, who was diagnosed with COPD 8 years ago, is experiencing frequent episodes of shortness of breath and a productive cough with purulent sputum. What is the most common trigger for these exacerbations?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenza

      Explanation:

      Acute exacerbations of COPD are a common reason for hospitalization in developed countries. The most common causes of these exacerbations are bacterial infections, such as Haemophilus influenza, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Moraxella catarrhalis, as well as respiratory viruses, with human rhinovirus being the most important pathogen. Symptoms of an exacerbation include an increase in dyspnea, cough, and wheezing, as well as hypoxia and acute confusion in some cases.

      NICE guidelines recommend increasing the frequency of bronchodilator use and giving prednisolone for five days. Antibiotics should only be given if sputum is purulent or there are clinical signs of pneumonia. Admission to the hospital is recommended for patients with severe breathlessness, acute confusion or impaired consciousness, cyanosis, oxygen saturation less than 90%, social reasons, or significant comorbidity.

      For severe exacerbations requiring secondary care, oxygen therapy should be used with an initial saturation target of 88-92%. Nebulized bronchodilators, such as beta adrenergic agonists and muscarinic antagonists, should also be used. Steroid therapy and IV theophylline may be considered, and non-invasive ventilation may be used for patients with type 2 respiratory failure. BiPAP is typically used with initial settings of EPAP at 4-5 cm H2O and IPAP at 10-15 cm H2O.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 100 - A 55-year-old man who is taking lithium for bipolar disorder comes in for...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man who is taking lithium for bipolar disorder comes in for a check-up. Upon routine examination, he is discovered to have hypertension with a blood pressure of 166/82 mmHg, which is confirmed by two separate readings. His urine dipstick is negative and his renal function is normal. What medication would be the most suitable to initiate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      Lithium toxicity may be caused by diuretics, ACE-inhibitors, and angiotensin II receptor antagonists. According to the BNF, the combination of lithium with diltiazem or verapamil may increase the risk of neurotoxicity, but there is no significant interaction with amlodipine. Although alpha-blockers are not known to interact with lithium, they are not recommended as the first-line treatment for hypertension. The NICE guidelines for hypertension suggest that amlodipine could be a suitable initial option, even if the patient is taking lithium.

      Lithium is a drug used to stabilize mood in patients with bipolar disorder and refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. Lithium toxicity occurs when the concentration exceeds 1.5 mmol/L, which can be caused by dehydration, renal failure, and certain drugs such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, and metronidazole. Symptoms of toxicity include coarse tremors, hyperreflexia, acute confusion, polyuria, seizures, and coma.

      To manage mild to moderate toxicity, volume resuscitation with normal saline may be effective. Severe toxicity may require hemodialysis. Sodium bicarbonate may also be used to increase the alkalinity of the urine and promote lithium excretion, but there is limited evidence to support its use. It is important to monitor lithium levels closely and adjust the dosage accordingly to prevent toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Maternity And Reproductive Health (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (2/2) 100%
Musculoskeletal Health (1/2) 50%
Urgent And Unscheduled Care (0/1) 0%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/1) 0%
Population Health (0/1) 0%
Mental Health (2/2) 100%
Neurology (2/2) 100%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular Health (1/3) 33%
Sexual Health (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (1/3) 33%
Children And Young People (2/2) 100%
Haematology (0/2) 0%
Kidney And Urology (1/2) 50%
Gynaecology And Breast (1/1) 100%
Consulting In General Practice (1/1) 100%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (1/1) 100%
Passmed